2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

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Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in one word – or a sentence each. (10 x 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Who is called as the ‘Iron Man of India’?
Answer:
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is called as the ‘Iron Man of India’.

Question 2.
Which Political party secured majority in the First General Election?
Answer:
Indian National Congress (INC) secured majority in the First General Election.

Question 3.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
Answer:
The President of India, on the advice of Union cabinet, appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India.

Question 4.
Expand EPIC.
Answer:
Elector’s Photo Identity Card.

Question 5.
Give an example of Central Services.
Answer:
Indian Foreign Services.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Who is the head of District Administration?
Answer:
The Deputy Commissioner (DC) is the head of the District Administration.

Question 7.
What is Economic exploitation?
Answer:
Economic exploitation refers to the economic inequality between the Backward Classes and other forward classes.

Question 8.
Which day is celebrated as The Labours Day?
Answer:
1st of May is celebrated as The Labours Day.

Question 9.
What is a democratic movement?
Answer:
Afro-Asian nations started to overthrow despotic, autocratic other authoritarian governments and demanded democratic rights through movements. This is called democratic movement and 21st century is known as the era of democratic movements.

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Question 10.
Who was the architect of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was the architect of India’s foreign policy.

II. Answer any 10 of the following questions in 2-3 sentences: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
What is Paramountcy?
Answer:
Paramountcy of Suzerainty refers to the Princely states accepting British supremacy but enjoyed little freedom in internal affairs.

Question 12.
When and where did the Backward Classes Movement start in Kama- taka?
Answer:
During 1920, an agitation was started by Backward classes in the Mysore Province to get political participation to Non-Brahmins and was led by Sri Kantaraje Urs.

Question 13.
What is the ‘Child Labour System’?
Answer:
Children working below the age group of 14 years in industries, mines, etc. are deprived from getting basic education.

Question 14.
State any two features of Coalition government.
Answer:
Features:

  1. Coalition is the product of multiparty system.
  2. It is a democratic arrangement.
  3. It challenges single party dominance and in which smaller parties come together to defeat bigger ones in elections and snatch power.
  4. Coalition may be a pre-poll arrange mentor a post-poll arrangement.

Question 15.
On what matters the central government can advise the states during normal times?
Answer:
On issues like the Railways, proper means of communication and transports, ensuring the welfare of SCs and STs, the central government advises the states.

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Question 16.
State any two obstacles in removing corruption in India.
Answer:
Bribery, fraud, nepotism, and cronyism are the hurdles in creating a corruption-free India.

Question 17.
Name any two racial groups of Syria.
Answer:
Syria has a multi-ethnic population comprising of Arabs, Kurds, Armenians, Assyrians, and Turkmens.

Question 18.
What is national power?.
Answer:
It is the sum total of the strength and capabilities of the State harnessed and applied, to the attainment of its national objectives.

Question 19.
State any two objectives of the U.N.
Answer:

  1. To maintain international peace and security.
  2. To develop friendly relations among nations.

Question 20.
When was the first NAM summit held and where?
Answer:
The first summit of NAM was held at Belgrade, Yugoslavia in 1961.’

Question 21.
Name the two power blocks.
Answer:
With the beginning of cold war, two power blocs have emerged, i.e., USA for spreading Democracy and the Soviet Union for spreading Communism.

Question 22.
Write any two reasons for the liberation of Bangladesh.
Answer:
The communal clashes in Tripura. Millions of refugees fled to India which caused uneasy law and order situation upsetting Indian economy and social peace.

III. Answer any eight of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 23.
State the main provisions of the Indian Independance Act of 1947.
Answer:
Provisions:
1. The Act Provided that on 15th August 1947, the appointed date, two independent dominions, India and Pakistan, would be set up and the Act provided for complete transfer of power.

2. The dominion of India got the territories of Bombay, Madras, UP, Central Provinces, Bihar, Assam, Delhi, Ajmer, Coorg, etc., and the rest of India except Sindh, Baluchistan, West Punjab, East Bengal, North West Frontier Province and Sylhet in Assam, which became the territories of Pakistan. For demarcating the boundaries, a Boundary Commission was formed with Sir Cyril Radcliffe as the Chairman.

3. The Crown was no longer the source of authority.

4. The Governor General and provisional Governors were to act as constitutional heads. They lost extra-ordinary powers to legislate.

5. The office of the Secretary of State was abolished.

6. From 15th August 1947, the British Crown lost all rights of Paramountcy over India and the Indian states were free to join either Indian Union or Pakistan.

7. The power in each dominion was transferred to the Constituent Assembly which became fully sovereign from 15th August 1947 and was absolutely free to frame the constitution. The Constituent Assemblies had a dual role i.e. Constituent and Legislative. They functioned as Central Legislature, till the new Legislatures were formed.

8. Until the new Constitution was framed, the Act of 1935 would govern the Centre and the Provinces with necessary modifications.

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Question 24.
Explain the “Patel Scheme”.
Answer:
Sardar Patel and V.P. Menon dealt with matters arising between Central Government and Indian states, during the process of integration. Patel handled the princes with patience, tact, sympathy and an iron hand. The process of integration was three-fold and known as the ‘Patel Scheme’.

1. Merger of small states with adjoining provinces:
About 216 states were merged with provinces adjoining them, e.g: Merger of 24 states of Orissa, 14 states of Central Province, Pudukottai with Madras, etc. These merged states were included in part B of the Constitution.

2. Grouping of small states:
Many small states grouped themselves to form a big state with the ruler of the most important becoming the Rajpramukhs e.g.: Union of Saurashtra, Patiala, and East Punjab States Union (PEPSU), etc. These unions were called part B states.

3. Integration into Chief Commiss- oner’s Provinces:
About 61 states which were quite small and backward were converted into centrally administered areas as Chief Commissioner’s Provinces and were called Part-C States, e.g.: Himachal Pradesh, Ajmer, Coorg, Cooch-Bihar, etc.

Question 25.
What are the advantages of EVM?
Answer:
The Electronic Voting Machine(EVM) is one of the important innovations of modem technology. It has replaced the system of ballot box and ballot papers with the most effective Electronic Voting Machine. EVM consists of a controlling Unit and a Balloting Unit and both are interconnected with a cable.

The balloting unit is kept in the place where voters exercise votes. The controlling unit is with the polling officer. After the voter proves his identity, by pressing the blue button on the balloting unit against the candidate’s symbol he casts his vote. With the beeping sound, the voting procedure gets completed.

Uses of EVM:

  1. EVM can be easily operated and saves time.
  2. It is simple to operate by the voter to cast vote.
  3. Quick and accurate results.
  4. Economic and Eco If friendly.
  5. Avoids invalid votes.
  6. Control of irregularities.
  7. NOTA option is provided.

Question 26.
Explain the role of Deputy Commissioner in District Administration.
Answer:
The Deputy Commissioner. (DC) is the head of U the District. He also acts as the District Magistrate Superintendent of police (SP), District Treasury Officer. Deputy Director of Pre University Education, Social Welfare Officer, Deputy Director of Public Instruction District Medical Officer, Deputy Registrar and other functions under the jurisdiction of the Deputy Commissioner. The Deputy Commissioner performs the following functions.

1. Law and order and Magisterial powers:
Deputy Commissioner enjoys magisterial powers. Being the District Magistrate, he maintains law and order and performs other judicial functions in the district.

2. Revenue functions:
It includes maintenance of Land Records and its assessment, collection of Land Revenue and other public dues and settlement of land disputes. Assistant Commissioners and Tahsildars work under the overall supervision and control of the Deputy Commiss- ioner.

3. Development Functions:
It includes Public Health, Educational Rural Development, Social Welfare (Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe) and Welfare of Backward Classes and Minorities and Protection of Weaker sections of the Society.

4. Regulatory Functions:
It includes control, regulation, and distribution of Food and Civil Supplies and essential commodities. He also controls the matters relating to excise, stamps, and registration.

5. Electoral Functions:
Deputy Commissioner is the District Election Officer and he is in charge of elections to Parliament, State Legislature and Local bodies.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 27.
Explain the political implications of Peasants Movement.
Answer:
Political implications:
The successive Governments have taken measures to reduce the problems of peasants by the following methods.
1. Agricultural Loans:

  • National Crop Insurance Programme (NCIP).
  • National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS).
  • Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme. (WBCS)
  • Primary Land Development Bank (PLD).

2. National Agriculture Scheme:
For agricultural improvements, National Development Council (NDC) has made enormus arrangements in 2007 and National Agriculture scheme was implemented with a view to enhance 4% in agricultural production. The main objective of this plan is to determine agricultural policy of all the states and provide essential facilities.

3. Waiving of debts:
When farmers are not able to get the yield to their expectations they cannot clear the debts. To uplift the farmers from debts the Governement have taken necessary measures to waive the debts of farmers. This has reduced the suicide and death rate of farmers.

4. Establishment of Peasant Liason centres:
To protect farmers from low quality seeds, fertilizers and protect crops from diseases, Peasant Liason centres are opened to provide necessary implements and information related, at Hobli level.

5. Veterinary services:
Government is proving veterinary services to the livestock which also supports agriculture. Though encouraging dairying and saavayava Krishi (Organic agriculture) which are allied sectors.

6. Land Reforms Act:
National Land Reforms Act was implemented in Karnataka in 1974 when Sri Devaraj Urs was the Chief Minister of Karnataka. Land reforms Act of 2013 provides more compensation to Landowners, rehabilitation and settlement facilities, retaining the ownership of land with farmers, no forceful acquisition of agricultural land till the final settlement facilities, retaining the ownership of land with farmers, no forceful acquisition of agricultural lands till the final settlement. Providing the same quantum of land elsewhere in the case of SCs and STs.

Question 28.
Elucidate the role of Saalumarada Thimmakka in Environmental protec- tion.
Answer:
Achievement of Saalu Marada Thimmakka:
Thimmakka and Bikkalu Chikkaiah, a childless couple of Hulikal village of Magadi Taluk, Ramanagara District, started planting Banyan saplings by the roadside between Kudur and Hulikal. They reared, cared and guarded them with their meagre earning with sheer love and affection.

The Government of Karnataka has taken the responsibility of these 248 trees. This great achievement of Saalu Marada Thimmakka is recognised and honoured by awarding Rajyothsava and National Awards. A seminar paper was presented in the UN on her contribution to environment. To create awamess among people, ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on 5th June every year.

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Question 29.
How the gender based inequality is a slur to Democracy?
Answer:
Discriminations made on the basis of men and women, denying equal opportunities to the fairer sex are called gender based inequalities. It is the result of gender bias favoring male throughout the ages. The prevalence of gender based inequality in family, economic, cultural, educational and political fields are seen.
Causes:
1. Manu Smriti:
Earlier the Hindu society followed ‘Manu Smriti’ which asserted that women should always be under the guardianship of men at different stages of her life. He wanted her to be within the four walls, restricting her from the happenings of the society.

2. Male domination:
The society is based on physical strength of man where he dominates the female. He does not want that female should take over his responsibility and authority at home as well as in society.

3. Denial of education:
Male domination is reflected in the field of education too. Denying education for girls for many centuries has made them incapable in many fields. Men occupied major jobs and secured well and dominating positions in the entire society.

4. Dowry system:
The practice of dowry system contributes for inequality of gender. Boys are treated as assets and girls as burden. The attitude also intensifies the discrimination between men and women.

5. Inadequate representation:
Women constitute 50% of the total population. They are inadequately represented in the field of politics and economics. Even though women are as capable as men, they are not allowed in these fields. Women have little or no opportunities in participating in public life.

Question 30.
What are the constitutional measures taken to eradicate illiteracy as per the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Answer:
Article 45 envisages states to provide free and compulsory education. It has not been implemented properly. Hence, through the 86th Constitutional Amendment, it is made compulsory. The Parliament of India passed the 86th constitutional amendment act in 2002. Accordingly, 21A is inserted in the constitution which aimed at making right to education a fundamental right for children between 6 to 14 years of age.
Its main provisions are:
1. Compulsory education means obligation of the government to provide free elementary education and ensure compulsory admission and attendance and completion of education to every child in the age group of 6 to 14.

2. It is a compulsory duty of parents and guardians to send the children to schools.

3. The schools must have minimum facilities such as adequate pupil I-teacher ration, trained teachers, infrastructure and playgrounds.

4. The Central Government and State Government bear the expenditure on the basis of agreed formula (in 2013 it was in the ratio of 65:35)

5. The school management committee or the local authority should identify the dropouts or out of school children and admit them in classes appropriate to their age. Before admission, they have to be given special training.

As per section 12, (1) C of the RTE Act, private aided and non-minority unaided schools must reserve 25 percent of seats for children belonging to Backward Classes and disadvantaged groups in neighborhood areas (7.5% for ST category and 16% for other Backward Groups.)

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Question 31.
“The youth of India can change the Indian Political System”. Discuss.
Answer:
India is a vast country with 1.2 billion population. Being the seventh-largest country geographically, it can just be described as a mini continent. Universal Adult Franchise is provided for both men and women belonging to all castes, colors, regions, languages, religions, etc., In spite of presence of several hurdles like poverty, illiteracy, inequality, communalism, and terrorism.

India has crossed several other hurdles and milestones and proved to be a vibrant democracy. Registration of new voters is a continuous process. As franchise brings a voice to voters in democracy due care must be taken to the enrolment of women and youth. As per 61st Amendment to the constitution, the voting age reduced to 18 years from 21 during 1986 when Sri Rajiv Gandhi was the Prime Minister.

With the reduction in voting age the size of the electorate increased heavily providing an opportunity to the younger generation to participate in choosing their representatives. The country that respects its youth can bring new thinking in all walks of life including politics. Youth have the energy to liberate and purify the political arena of the country as they normally do not accept traditional caste barriers.

Usually, leaders of older generations do not prefer youth in politics as they are revolutionary and reject the traditional mindset. “ Youth have the courage and the capacity to understand burning issues like boundary, language, river, water, ethnic disputes.

Increase in number of youth in politics enhances the credibility of democracy. The honest involvement of youth in politics being away from violence is the need of the hour to strengthen the system. Recent development shows a large number of youth participating and winning both Loka Sabha and Assembly elections.

Question 32.
Explain any five areas of co-operation between India and SAARC.
Answer:
In the rapidly changing global environment, regional integration in South Asia has assumed a new strategic significance. As a largest economy of the South Asian region, it is imperative and right time for India to inculcate an environment of trust among SAARC partners. India stands to gain substantially from greater economic integration in the region.
1. Summit level cooperation:
India has participated in all the summit level meetings. During the 16th SAARC summit held in New Delhi on 3rd and 4th April 2007, the leaders recognized collectively in fulfilling this in a better way with the rest of the world. The Prime Minister of India Mr. Rajiv Gandhi attended the first SAARC summit held in Bangladesh in 1985. He emphasized the core issue of economic development in the South Asian region with joint efforts.

India is committed to fastening the sense of a South Asian Identity through the SAARC process, enhancing mutual confidence in multiple areas in trying to leverage India’s rapid economic growth into win-win arrangements with her neighbors.

The change perhaps started in about 2002 in India, has gained momentum since India acquired the Chairmanship of SAARC in April 2007. Among several factors that are perhaps responsible for this positive movement, the more important one is the acceleration in economic growth in all major regional economics especially India.

2. SAARC regional Centres:
India is having two regional centers:-

  1. SAARC Documentation center (SDC) in New Delhi.
  2. SAARC Disaster Management Centre (SDMC) in New Delhi.

3. SAARC Development Fund (SDF):
India has been 6ne of major contribution to the SAARC Development Fund. The Fund has the areas of action social, economic and infrastructure. India has offered US $100 million for the SAARC fund to be utilized for projects in other SAARC countries.

4. Economic co-operation:
The Agreement on SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement (SAPTA) was signed in 1993 and four rounds of trade negotiations have been concluded. The Agreement on South Asian Free Trade Area (S AFTA) was signed. Creation of Export Promotion Zones and Special Economic Zones in each SAARC member country as’ pointed out by industrial bodies which enhances investment and will thus encourage Intra-SAARC investments.

5. People-to-people Countries:
For strengthening cooperation in information and media related activities of the Association, the heads of National Television and Radio Organisations of member countries meet annually. The SAARC Audio-Visual exchange (SAVE) Committes disseminates information both on SAARC and its member States through regular Radio and TV programme.

6. Educational Cooperation:
India proposed to create a center of excellence in the form of a South Asian University (SAU), which can provide world class facilities and professional faculty to students and researchers drawn from each country of the region. The south Asian university is established in India.

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Question 33.
Write a note on the principles of Panchasheel.
Answer:
Panchsheel continues to be another fundamental principle of Indian foreign policy. An agreement signed between Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Chinese Prime Minister Zhow-en-Lai on April, 29th 1954, sought to govern the relationship between India and China on the basis of five principles.

  1. Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
  2. Mutual non-aggression.
  3. Mutual noninterference in each other’s internal affairs.
  4. Equality and mutual benefits.

It is a principle of peaceful co-existence with other countries, it guided the basis of relationship between 1954-57 marked by numerous visits and exchanges. This period is described as Sino-Indian honeymoon.

Question 34.
Analyze the Kashmir issue in India and Pakistan relations.
Answer:
In India’s perspective, Kashmir is an integral part of the republic of India and to Pakistan, it is a disputed territory. The argument of Pakistan on Kashmir is that, since the partition of the country was done on religious basis and majority of, population are Muslims, Kashmir should be part of Pakistan. This argument failed to recognize the following facts:

  1. Partition was done of the British Indian Provinces & and not of the Indian princely states.
  2. National Conference was the only major political party in Kashmir, which was affiliated to Congress. It was opposed to Pakistan and had faith in secular politics.
  3. The Indian princely states had the freedom to join either India or Pakistan.
  4. India was a secular state consisting of a multi-religious population.

So, Kashmir formally decided to join India after the invasion of its territory by Pakistani tribals supported by the Pakistan Army.

IV. Answer any 2 of the following in 30 to 40 sentences: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Distinguish between direct and indirect elections.
Answer:
Direct Election:
In this system, all the eligible Voters of the nation directly elect their representatives through secret ballots without any intermediaries. For e.g. the Lok Sabha (House of People) and Vidhana Sabha (State Legislative Assembly) in India and the House of Commons in U.K and House of Representatives in the USA are directly elected.

Features of Direct election are:
1. More democratic:
Eligible voters have a wider choice to elect their representatives directly. This provides a direct relationship between the voter and their representatives.

2. Responsive:
Since there is a direct relationship between voters and the representatives, they are responsive to the needs and aspirations of the people.

3. Creates political awareness:
In the direct election, voters come in direct contact with their representatives. Voters are curious about them and gather information through mass media and print media about political parties, their manifesto, and personalities of the candidates. In this way, the voters get educated.

4. Selection of eligible candidates:
The voters test the capacities, capabilities of the candidates and finally elect them since there is a rapport between the two.

5. Public relationship:
In view of the forthcoming OH elections, representatives keep regular contact with their constituencies and electorate.

6. Indirect election:
It is another method of election where voters elect a group of members in the first instance to form an ‘Electoral College’ as an intermediary body to elect representatives. For e.g. the President of India and USA are elected through electoral colleges, which consists of the representatives of people. The members of Rajyasabha and members of the State Legislative Council are indirectly elected by the people.

7. Selection of best candidates:
In this method, candidates are elected by the intelligent Voters. For e.g. at the first step, people elect their representatives to the Electoral College and at the second step, they in turn judiciously elect the final representatives of legislature or Head of the nation. This method involves double election.

8. Prevents unhealthy campaign:
It avoids all sorts of evils like dirty propaganda tricks and instigation of people for petty issues to divide them. For e.g. in the election of President of India, the average voters are kept outside and only the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament participate to elect them.

9. Peaceful voting:
In this method, there is no scope for illegal activities or fights during the election as it happens in the direct election. In the electoral. process, only a small number of enlightened voters peacefully exercise their votes judiciously. The elections are conducted according to well-defined norms and values.

10. Little scope for emotions:
Elected Representatives are not carried away by passions or sentiments nor can they be influenced like an average voter. There is no chance of misusing sensitive issues for political gains. The higher leaders are elected by people representatives and act with a sense of responsibility.

11. Suitable to developing nations:
Since majority of the voters are ignorant, not educated and intelligent hence a small group of politically educated and wise voters elect responsible and public-spirited representatives.

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Question 36.
Describe the essentials of Nation-Building
Answer:
The process of Nation-building started with the attainment of independence. The leaders of. modem India initiated the process in the right direction as they worked out the details in an orderly and systematic way. However, during implementation, they had to face numerous problems associated with national reconstruction resulting in a slow process.

The process of nation-building is an offshoot of the concept of nation-states. The idea of nation-states emerged after the signing of the treaty of West Phalia (1648) by Western Countries. The people of the common religious and traditional backgrounds living in a definite territory with like mindedness and ‘we’ feeling form the nation. Common language, culture, and history aspirations help common people to form nationality.

1. Components to community support:
To realise the process of nation building, collective support and endeavor of the people are essential. The quality of the people reflects the quality of a nation. Disciplined work culture and patriotic feelings also contribute to nation-building. In a democracy, people are the kingmakers. Hence, they are expected to elect competent and honest representatives. They formulate a sound public opinion on important national issues. As J.S. Mill said ‘Eternal vigilance is the price of democracy’.

2. Good Governance:
Good governance ensures accountability, transparency, efficiency, responsibility, and responsiveness. In addition, the use of technology has given rise to e-Governance. India is one of the leading countries in the world in the adoption of the system of e-governance.

3. Committed Leadership:
History depicts many examples of committed leadership. Eg.: US President F. D. Roosevelt solved the crisis of Economic depression by adopting the New Deal Policy and US became a superpower at global level after the II World War. In India Nehru’s leadership largely contributed to the process of nation-building. He formulated goals for nation-building and introduced the planning system, adopted industrialization policy and socialistic pattern of society. He had vision and farsightedness for the transformation of India. Hence Nehru is called the Architect of Modem India.

4. Political culture:
Political Culture constitutes a set of values, attitudes, and behavior towards a political system. It requires an ideal political behavior for national reconstruction. Leaders have to embody the principles of national interest, public service, probity, and statesmanship.

5. Power Sharing:
To realize the goal, political power needs to be shared among all sections of society. The concentration of political power in the hands of a few people and some families leads to the emergence of authoritarianism and dictatorship. As H.J. Laski rightly puts it “ A decision which affects all must be decided by all” To attain this reservation is provided to the SCs and STs and women at different levels of Government. It ensures social justice which is the foundation of socio-economic democracy.

6. Universal Education:
For the develop- ment of national universal education is of paramount importance. It enables the person to
understand his potentiality and strengthens dignity. As Gandhi said, “Education is the light of life”. It encourages people to develop the spirit of inquiry the ability to analyze the national problems and to work for national progress. Education also equips the people to shun fanaticism, parochialism, communalism, casteism and religious fundamentalism. The Right To Education Act 2009 implemented in 2010 is a step in this direction.

7. National Character:
Nationalism and patriotism are the foundations to build a national character. Each country has its distinct national character which denotes one’s nativity-as the conservatism of UK, ‘Land of Liberty’ of US, Ethnicity of Africa, Aboriginal of Australia, cultural diversity of India.

Love and respect for one’s country and national symbols such as national flag, national anthem, and national monuments are the prerequisites. One has to acquire knowledge about the history of his motherland and its contributions to human civilizations. Realizing the significance of national character, the makers of the Indian constitution have asserted the supremacy of popular sovereignty in the preamble reading with the expression.” We the people of India”.

8. Mass Media:
Mass Media is regarded as the Fourth Estate in democracy as it plays a vital role in the nation building. It highlights the omissions and commissions of the government and acts as a bridge between the government and the public. It is an effective instrument of political socialization. modernization and development. In India, the ‘Freedom of Expression’ is a fundamental right under Art. 19 of the Constitution.

9. Responsible Intelligentsia:
The contribution of intellectuals is recognized all over the world. Research and innovations in important areas of human life have contributed to national development.

In India the development in the field of social sciences, M.N. Srinivas, Amartya Sen, S.Shettar, Gail Omvedt, Kancha, Ilaya, Vandana Shiva, S.N. Balagangadhara, AshishNandy, Rajiv Malhotra and others. In Science and Technology Sir M. Vishveshwaraiah, Sir C.V. Raman, Dr. Raja Ramanna, Dr. M.G.K. Menon, Dr. CNR Rao. Dr. U.R. Rao, Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam, and others have greatly contributed for India’s present position at global level.

10. National Integration:
It is the process of uniting the people emotionally, psychologically and politically, Sardar Vallabha Bai Patel, Vinoba Bhave, Lai Bahadhur Shastri, J.B. Kriplani, Acharya Narendra Dev played a key role in the national integration. November 19th is being observed as National integration day, the birthday of Smt. Indira Gandhi.

Question 37.
Describe the democratic movements in Nepal.
Answer:
21st century is known as the era of democratic movements. These movements in Afro-Asian nations started to overthrow despotic, autocratic and other authoritarian governments. Nepal was a small landlocked kingdom in Southern Asia lying between India to the south and Tibet to the north. Monarchy was prevalent in Nepal since 18th centuries. During the rule of Birendra Bir Bikram Shah Dev, democratic Maoist movements started mainly because of the influence of India and China.

In 1980 limited democracy resulted in the creation of multi-party parliamentary monarchy. The political war was launched by the communist Party of Nepal (Maoist) in 1996, with the overthrow of the Nepalese monarchy and establishing a people’s Republic. Maoist insurgency began in 1996 ended with the Communist victory in 2001. The comprehensive Peace Accord was signed on 21 st November 2006. The Crown prince massacred king Birendra and the royal family.

Bringing the unpopular Gyanendra to the throne. Nepal witnessed a popular movement in 2006. The movement was aimed at restoring democracy. At the same time, the king reinstated old Nepal house of Representatives, with an assurance of permanent peace and the multi-party democracy. The king called upon the Seven Party Alliance (SPA) to bear the responsibility of taking the nation on the path of national unity and prosperity.

The popular Government assumed office on 18th May 2006 and withdrawn all the privileges given to the king unanimously. The bill included-

  1. Imposing tax on the royal family and its assets.
  2. Ending the Raj Parishad, a Royal Advisory council.
  3. Eliminating Royal references from army and Government titles.
  4. Declaring Nepal a secular country, not the Hindu Kingdom.
  5. Scrapping the national anthem until a new one is composed.
  6. Eliminating the king’s position as the supreme commander of the army.

This is popularly Known as the “Nepalese Magna Carta”.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 38.
Discuss India’s role in the establishment of UN and its powers.
Answer:
Independent India viewed its membership of the United Nations a guarantee for maintaining international peace and security. UN membership has also served as an opportunity for leadership, in world affairs. India stood at the forefront during the UN’s tumultuous years of struggle against colonialism, apartheid, global disarmament and creation of more equitable international economic order.

India has used platform of the General Assembly for voicing against imperialism, colonialism and apartheid in 1954, India took a leading part in securing political sanctions against the racialist regime of South Africa, in 1965 it supported the UN sponsored economic boycott of Rhodesia. It gave full support to the Angolan liberation movement and to the cause of Independence of Namibia.

India also played and active role in setting up of the united nations conference on trade and development (UNCTAD) and calling for the creation of a New International economic order (NIEO). India is a member of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO), International labour organisation (ILO), World Health Organisation (WHO), Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO), United Nations International Development Organisation (UNIDO), etc.

V. Answer any two of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39.
Write a note on Union Secretariat.
Answer:
1. The Central Secretariat:
The word secretariat means Office of the Secretaries. For the purpose of administration, the Government of India is divided into different Ministries and Departments which constitute the Central Secretariat. For efficient discharge of business allotted to a ministry, it is divided into various Departments, Wings, Divisions, Branches, and Sections.

2. Hierarchical order of Central Secretariat:

  • Department(Secretary)
  • Wing(Additional/Joint Secretary)
  • Division(Deputy Secretary)
  • Branch(Under Secretary)
  • Section (Section Officer)

3. Department:
This is the primary unit of a ministry. It is pertinent to point out the difference between a ministry and a department. A single ministry may have several departments within a ministry, each is headed by the secretary. A Minister remains in power for a period of five years.

Generally, the Cabinet Secretary belongs to the permanent civil service and remains in office till he retires. It has been observed that the portfolios of ministers change frequently, particularly with every change of leadership or through occasional reshuffles in the council of ministry.

4. Wings:
Depending upon the volume of work in a ministry, one or more wings can be set up. An Additional Secretary or Joint Secretary is in charge of the Wing. He is given independent charge, subject to the overall responsibility of the Secretary.

5. Division:
A Wing of the Ministry is then divided into Divisions for the sake of efficient and expeditious disposal of business allotted to the ministry. Two branches ordinarily constitute a division which is normally under the charge of a Deputy Secretary.

6. Branch:
A Branch normally consists of two sections and is under the charge of an Under Secretary. He is also called as Branch Officer.

7. Section:
Headed by a Section Officer, a section consists of Assistants, Upper Division and Lower Division Clerks. The initial handling of cases, noting and drafting is carried on by these Assistants

OR

Write a note on Anti defection law.
Answer:
Defection is change of loyalty to another party, without resigning from his elected post for benefits. Defector gets elected on one party’s ticket and tries to enjoy power in another party. The word defection also called ‘Floor Crossing in UK and ‘Carpet Crossing’ in Nigeria. The term ‘Defection’ is used in India. Defection is commonly known as ‘House funding’. Defectors . are called ‘Fence-sitters’ or Turn Coats.

Sri Rajiv Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India decided to remove the evils of defection. Hence, Anti defection Act came into force on 1st April through the 52nd Constitution Amendment. The main intention of the law was to combat “the evils of political defections”. The provisions are:

1. A member of Parliament or state legislature belonging to any political party shall be disqualified if he voluntarily quits his party.

2. He will be disqualified from his membership if he votes against his party whip in the session.

3. A member of Parliament or State Legislature belonging to any political party shall be disqualified from his membership if he votes in the session without prior permission of his party.

4. A nominated member shall be disqualified from his membership in the upper house, if he joins any political party after six months from the date on which he assumes his position.

5. If the 1/3rd strength of any political party merges with another political party, it shall be considered as defection.

6. A person disqualified under this Act shall not be provided any office of profit.

7. The Anti-defection law determines the size of the council of Ministers. The size of the council of Ministers of Union shall exceed 15% of the total members of the Lok Sabha and similar to that of state legislative Assembly.

8. Speakers can initiate action against the members under Anti-defection law.

9. The Chairpersons of Legislative are permitted to frame the rules to implement this law.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 40.
Discuss the nature of Crony Capitalism.
Answer:
Crony capitalism is a negative term used to refer the business dealings carried out by the Government officers in a capitalist economy.
Nature of crony capitalism are as follows:-
1. Favours political authorities:
Crony capitalism is a system in which, close associates of the people in power who enact laws and execute policies, get favors that have a large economic impact.

2. Cronies are rewarded:
with the provision to charge higher prices for their output, than would prevail in a competitive market. Funds are funneled to the enterprises of cronies through government-controlled banks.

3. Protection of assets:
Crony capitalism allows Government to guarantee a subset of asset holders that their property rights are protected. As long as their assets are protected, these asset holders will continue to invest as if there were universal protection of property rights.

4. Share in the rents generated by the asset holders:
The members of the Government or members of their families, share the rents generated by the asset holders. This may take the form of jobs, co-investments or even transfers of stock. Crony capitalism goes & hand in hand with corruption.

5.The concentration of economic Power:
A few business groups are cronies, influence state policies and pool their assets in private corporate sectors. Such concentration gives birth to crony capitalism. Crony capitalism is an economic phenomenon with political consequences. In crony capitalism, the Government makes deals in closed doors, without public review and approval.

OR

Write a note on the relationship between India and America.
Answer:
India’s freedom movement had drawn much inspiration from the colonial history of US. President F.D. Roosevelt’s positive contribution to the 1942 Cripps Mission negotiation to help India proceed on the road to independence received a positive and grateful response from the Indian leaders. Pandit Nehru identified a number of positive factors that favored the growth of Indo US relations during his visits to US.

Because of this historical background and shared democratic values of both countries, they acquired a pattern of good and positive relationship. Both nations have a common faith in democratic institutions and way of life and are dedicated tot he cause of peace and freedom.

1. Economic Relations:
After Indian Independence, the US extended its economic aid under ‘Truman’s’ Four Point Program of 1950, consisting of American technical skills, knowledge and investment capital. It provided wheat loan to India to manage the famine in some parts of the country in 1951. The major aid has been in the shape of surplus commodity assistance provided under Public Law 480 (PL 480) in 1956, which was repayable in rupees.

Under the supervision of United States Agency for International Development (USAID), it gave the development loans. With these aids and support US topped the list of countries that gave economic aid to India. In recent years India decided to liberalize its economy and integrate it with the global economy.

India’s impressive economic growth rates have made the country an attractive economic partner for the US. In the past cold war era, both countries found themselves closer and committed to extending their economic co-operation in other fields. The Indian economy had close ties India’s total exports in the software sector and extended job opportunities to lakhs of Indians in its silicon valley.

2. Military Relations:
After the II World War US built many military alliances (NATO, ANZUS, SEATO, Bagdad Pact, and CENTO). As the leader of western bloc, it expects newly liberated countries which are not aligned with any of these military alliances, not to oppose US in any organization including UN.

India keeping away from the military alliances, its principled support tot he liberation movements and crusade against apartheid racism and racial discrimination were interpreted by US as unfriendly act. Obviously it led to a misunderstanding between India and US relations.

The US military support to Pakistan its military ally in 1954, created apprehensions in India regarding regional military balance and it widened the gap between India and Pakistan. When the liberation struggle was going on in Goa, the US supported Portuguese claims to keep Portugal as its ally in NATO, out victory of India was interpreted by US as ‘hypocrisy’ and ‘hallow moralist’

As its global strategy to curb the Communism, US respond positively with military assitance to India in 1962. Indo-China war. But it acted against India in Indo-Pak conflict in 1965 and Indo-Pak war on Bangladesh in 1971. The US has military bases in the Indian ocean in the Island called Diego Garcia, India opposed to these bases because these can threaten any of the states which are on the banks of the Indian Ocean.

Inspite of Indian protest, the US has not taken off the bases from the Island. By minimizing our misunderstandings and by better appreciaiton of each other, there is a need to work out a pattern of mutual benefit relationship with the US.

3. Socio-cultural Relations:
India and US have close socio-cultural relations, eg. Fort Foundation grants aid for scientific, technical, education, and cultural activities. There is co-operation in the field of cultural exchange scientific and educational interaction, a large number of people of Indian origin living in the US hold potential of a greater co-operation. Thousands of Indian scholars acquired their advanced knowledge from the educational institutions of the US.

2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017

Students can Download 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017, Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

  1. Statistical table and graph sheets will be supplied on request.
  2. Scientific calculators may be used.
  3. All working steps should be clearly shown.

Section – A

I. Answer any TEN of the following questions: ( 10 x 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
Define fecundity.
Answer:
The capacity of a women bear children.

Question 2.
Mention one characteristic of index numbers.
Answer:
Index numbers are specialised averages.

Question 3.
Theoretically which average is considered as the best average in the construction . of index number?
Answer:
Geometric mean.

Question 4.
What is a Historigram?
Answer:
The graph of time series is called Historigram.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
If p = 0.2 for Bernoulli distribution, find variance.
Answer:
Variance = pq = 0.2 x 0.8 = 0.16 Here q = 1 – P.

Question 6.
If Z is a SNV and P(Z > k) = 0.05, find the value of k.
Answer:
From the table k= 1.64.

Question 7.
What is an estimator? ;
Answer:
The statistic used to estimate the population parameter is an estimator.

Question 8.
What is test statistics?
Answer:
Test statistic is the statistic whose distribution test being conducted.

Question 9.
When the pooling done in testing of goodness of fit?
Answer:
When expected frequencies are below 5(Ei < 5) =

Question 10.
In S.Q. C what is defect?
Answer:
An Defect is quality characteristic which does not conform to specifications.

Question 11.
The graphical solution to the L.P.P lies in the first quadrant. Give reason.
Answer:
Because of non-negative restrictions both x and y are positive on x, y – plane.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 12.
Mention a property of a competitive game.
Answer:
Number of competitors should be finite.

Section – B

II. Answer any ten of the following questions:

Question 13.
In a life table, if l0= 1,00,000 and T0 = 65,00,000 years then, find longevity.
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 1

Question 14.
State two norms (considerations) for the selection of base year.
Answer:

  1. Bse year should be economically stable
  2. Base year should not be too distant from the current year.

Question 15.
If Σp0q1 = 1125 and Σp0q0 = 1250 then, find suitable quantity index number.
Answer:
Quantity index number: Q01
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 2
Question 16.
What is seasonal variation? Give an example.
answer:
Seasonal variations refers to the variations caused annually by the seasons of the year, which are regular, periodic and short term variations in the time series.
There is more sales of ice creams and cool drinks in summer season.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 17.
Write down the two assumptions of interpolation and extrapolation.
Answer:

  1. There are no sudden jumps in the values of dependent variable (y) from one period to
  2. There will be no. consecutive missing value int he series.

Question 18.
Write down the range and mean of a hypergeometric distribution whose parameters are a = 4, b = 6 and n = 5.
Answer:
Range: x = 0, 1, 2, min (a, n)
= 0, 1, 2, …………..min (4, 5) = 0,1,2, 3, 4
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 3

Question 19.
For a Chi-square (χ2) variate, with 10 d.f. p{0 < χ2 < 9.34) = 0.5. Find median and mode.
Answer:
Median = 9.34 and mode = (n – 2) = 10 – 2 = 8.

Question 20.
Define size of the test and power of a test.
Answer:
Probability of occurrence of type error or the probability of rejecting HO, when it is fr called size of the test, also called as level of significance.
Probability of rejecting Ho when it is not true.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 21.
Write two applications of χ2 test. ;
Answer:

  1. To test whether the population has given variance.
  2. To test whether the two attributes are independent.

Question 22.
Mention two advantages of acceptance sampling.
Answer:

  1. It is used when the items are of destructive in nature.
  2. It is less expensive, as 100% inspections more expensive.

Question 23.
Which of the two feasible solutions (12, 10) and (14, 5) of an E.P.P minimises the objective function Z = 5X + 4Y.
Answer:
Here Z (12, 10) = 5(12) + 4(10)= 100 and
Z (14, 5) = 5(14) + 4(5) = 90. (14,5) minimises the objective function.

Question 24.
From the following pay-off matrix, obtain the value of game.
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 4
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 5
Row minimum circled and column boxed. Value of the of the game: V = 5

KSEEB Solutions

Section – C

III. Answer ANY EIGHT of the following questions: ( 8 x 5 = 40 )

Question 25.
Compute the gross reproduction rate from the following data:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 6
Answer:
G.R.R = (i) \(\sum_{i=15}^{49}\) W.S.F.R where i = 5 Age width and W.S.F.R-women specific fertilise rate.
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 7
Similarly remaining W.S.F Rs. can be computed
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 8
GRR = 5(260) = 1300 female birth per 100 women of (15 – 49) in a year.

Question 26.
Calculate Kelly’s price Index number from the following data and comment on the result.
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 9
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 10

Question 27.
Compute the cost of living index number for the following data:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 11
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 12

Question 28.
For the following data draw a trend line by the method of semi averages.
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 13
(OR)
Answer:
Let x and y be the year and sales
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 14

Explain semi – averges method of measuring trend.
(For visually challenged students only)

Semi-averages method: In this method the original data is divided into two equal parts and averages are calculated for both the parts. These averages are called semi-averages. Teh two semi-averages are written against the centres of the two time points.

After drawing the actual line, the two trend values are plotted and joined by a straight line, extended on either side is called trend line.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 29.
For the following data interpolate the value of Y, when X = 30.
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 15
Answer:
Number of known values of ‘y’ n 4, then prepare the leading differences upto Δ3
y = ?, x = 30
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 16

KSEEB Solutions

Question 30.
In a college 35% students are girls. Find the probability that:
(i) two are girls,
(ii) at least one is a girl in a random sample of 5 students.
Answer:
Let x be the number of girls is a binomial variate with the parameters n-5,p = 0.35 and
p = 1 -P
= 1 – 0.35 = 0.65.
Then the p is:
p(x) = ncx px qn – x; x = 0,1,2, …… n
= 5cx (0.35)x (0.65)5-x; x = 0,1,2, …….. 5
(i) p( girls ) =p(x = 2) = = 5c2 (0.35)2 (0.65)5 – 2 = 10 x 0.1225 x 0.2746 = 0.3364
(ii) p(at least one is a girl) = p(x > 1) = 1 – p (x < 1) = 1 – p (x = 0)
= 1 -5C0 (0.35)0 (0.65)5 – 0= 1 – [1 x 1 x 0.1160] = 0.884

Question 31.
State five properties of a normal distribution
(i) The curve is bell-shaped and X̄ = M = z
(ii) The curve is symmetric i.e, Non-skew ((β1 = 0)
(iii) The curve is meso kurtic (β2 = 3)
(iv) Area under the curve is ‘1’.
(v) For the distribution : Mean = m, variance = 62 and S . D = σ.

Question 32.
“In an election the leaders of a party contend that they would secure more than 36% of votes. A pre-poll survey of 400 voters revealed that the percentage is 42. Does the survey support the leader’s claim? (Use 5% L.O.S)
Answer:
Given: p0 = 0.36, n = 400, p = 0.42, a = 5%
H0 : Party secures 36% vate (i.e., p0 = 0.36)
H1 : Party secures more than 36% vote (i.e., p0 > 0.36)
{upper tail test + k}
Under H0 , the test statistic is :
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 17
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 18
At a = 5% the upper tail critical value +k = 1.64 .
Here Zcal lies in rejection region (R. R) i.e., Zcal > k. H0 is rejected and H1 is accepted. Conclusion: Party secures more than 36% votes (p0 > 0.36)

Question 33.
The following is the data regarding family condition and examination result of 100 students. Test whether results depends on family conditions.
(Use α = 0.01)
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 19
Answer:
H0 : Family condition and Examination result are independent.
H1 : Family condition and Examination result are dependent {upper tail test}
The 2 x 2 contingency table is:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 20
The χ2 test statistic is :
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 21
At a = 1% he upper tail critical value for I d.f is k2 = 6.65
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 22

Here χ2cal lies in acceptance region. H0 is accepted
Conclusion: Family condition and examination result are independent.

Question 34.
Find control limits for R-chart with sample size 4.
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 23
Answer:
For R – chart, standard not known, we need
R̄ = \(\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{R}}{k}=\frac{30}{6}\) = 5; k=6 sampleno. and n = 4
The control limits are: C.L = R̄ = 5
L.C.L = D3 R̄ = 0 x 5=0
U.C.L=D4 R̄ =2.282 x 5=11.41

KSEEB Solutions

Question 35.
Find the initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation problem by NWCR method and find transportation cost to this solution.
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 24
Answer:
By N.W.C.R first allocation is made in the cell (1,1) as: Xu = Min(a, b) = m, n (500,400) = 40, and replace 500 by (500-400)= 100
Next allocation is made at (1,2)

Question 36.
Purchase cost of an item is Rs. 5,000. Its running costs and resale values in different years are as follows:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 25
Find the optimum period of replacement of item.
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 26
From the above-the annual average cost is minimum ,for the 4th year and so, n = 4 is the optimal replacement period. A(4) = ₹ 1.160.
From the normal equaitons: na + Σx = Σy
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 27
The fitted straight lien trend equation is:
y = a + bx; ŷ = 51 + 1.5x
Estimation of production for 2008;x = 5
ŷ(2008) = 51 + 1.5 (5) = 58.5 (000’sTons)
Trend values: ŷ (2000) = 51 + 1.5(-3) = 46.5
ŷ(2001) = 51 + 1.5(-2) = 48
Similarlly remaining trend values can be computed.

Section – D

IV. Answer any two of the following questions: ( 2 x 10 = 20 )

Question 37.
By taking locality ‘B* as standard calculate the STDR’s for both localities. Mention which locality is more healthier?
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 28
Answer:
Since locality B is take as standard, so calculating C.D.R is same as calculation S.D.R
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 29
Conclusion: Here S.D.R (B) L.S.D.R(A)
Locality B is healthier.

Question 38.
Compute Laspcyre’s, Paasche’s and Fisher’s price index numbers for the following data:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 30
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 31

KSEEB Solutions

Question 39.
For the following data fit a straight line trend by least square method, obtain trend values. Estimate the production for the year 2008.
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 33
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 34

and all other allocations are made in the same way until the last allocation at (3,3) as below:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 35
The suggested Initial basic feasible solution and the total transportation cost is:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 36

Question 40.
For the following data fit a Poisson distribution and test for goodness of fit at 5% level of significance.
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 37
Answer:
Let x be the no. of mistakes is a poisson variate the parameter is obtained as below:
Let f be the no. of pages.
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 38
Theoretical frequency: Tx = p{x) N
T0 =p(x = 0)100 = \(\frac{e^{-i .2} 1.2^{0}}{0 !}\) x 100 = 0.3012 x 100 = 30.12
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 39
T5 and more = N – [T0 + T1 + T2 + T3 + T4 = 100 – [30 + 36 + 22 + 9 + 3] = 100 – 100 = 0
The fitted observed and theoretical frequency distribution is:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 42
chi – Square test: H0 : Poisson distribution is a good fit [Oi = Ei]
Hj: poisson distribution is not good fit [Oi = Ei] {Upper tail test}
Under H0, the χ2 – test stastic is:
λ is estimated from the parameter and so degrees of freedom is (n – 2)
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 43
Ay α = 5% for (n – 2) = 4.2 = 2 d.f the upper tail critical value k2= 5.99
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 44
Here χ2calllies in acceptance region (A.R)
.’. Ho is accepted.
Conclusion: Poisson distribution is good fit.

Section – E

V. Answer any two of the following questions: ( 2 x 5 = 10)

Question 41.
Marks scored by the students of a class follow normal distribution with mean 80 and S.D.5. Find the probability that a student selected at random from the class scored:
(i) More than 90 marks
(ii) Between 70 and 85 marks.
Answer:
Marks scored by the students is a normal variable with the parameters. µ = 80, σ = 5.
Then S.N.V:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 40
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 45
(i) p(marks more than 90) =p(x > 90) = p(z) > \(\frac{90-80}{5}\)
p(z > 2) = Area from 2 to ∞
from the table = 0.0228

(ii) p(marks between 70 and 85) =p(70 <x< 85)
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 41
= Area tray (-2) to 1
= Area tray (-2) to ∞ – Area tray 1 to h
= 0.9772 – 0.1587 = 0.8185.
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 46

Question 42.
A company manufactures car tyres. Their average life is 40,000 km and standard deviations 5,000 km. A change in the production process is believed to result in a better product. A test sample of 100 new tyres has mean life of 41,000 km. Can you conclude at 1% L.O.S. that the new product gives better result?
Answer:
Given: µ = 40,000, σ = 5,000, n = 100, x̄ =41,000, α = 1% .
H0 : Mean lif eof tyres is 40,000 kms (i.e., µ = 40,000)
H1 : Mean life of tyres is mroe than 40,000 kms (better result) (i.e., µ > 40,000) {upper tail test)
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 47
Under H0the test statistics is:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 48
At α = 1% the lower tail critical value k = 2.33
Here zcal lies in acceptance region (A.R) H0 is accepted
∴ Ho is accepted.
Conclusion: Mean life of tyres is 40,000kms.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 43.
I. Q of 5 students before and after training is given below:
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 49
H0 : before and after training is source (µ1 = µ2)
H1 has increased after training /training is effective (µ1 < µ2
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 50
At α = 0.05/5% the lower tail critical value k = -2.13
Here tcal lies in acceptance region (A.R)
∴ Ho is accepted.
Conclusion: I.Q before and after training is same.

Question 44.
There is a demand for 3600 units/year. The cost of placing an order is Rs. 50. Maintenance cost Rs. 9/unit/year and shortage cost is Rs. 3/unit/year.
Find:
(i) EOQ
(ii) Minimum average cost per year.
Answer:
Given : R = 3600 units/year, C3 = ₹ 50, C1 = ₹ 9/unit/year C2 = ₹ 3/unit/year
Use EOQ model II
2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017 - 51

2nd PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2018

Students can Download 2nd PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2018, Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2018

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in a word or a sentence each. (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Who was the chairman of the Boundary Commission?
Answer:
Sir Cyril Radcliffe was the Chairman of Boundary Commission.

Question 2.
Who is called as the man with iron will?
Answer:
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is called as the man with iron will.

Question 3.
Expand N.D.A.
Answer:
National Democratic Alliance.

Question 4.
How many members are there in the Election Commission of India?
Answer:
Three members are there in the Election Commission of India.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
When was the National Human Rights Commission established?
Answer:
The National Human Rights Commission was established in 1994.

Question 6.
What is social discrimination?
Answer:
Deprival of equal opportunities to the backward class is called social discrimination.

Question 7.
Write the meaning of coalition government.
Answer:
Formation of government by various political parties with different ideologies is called coalition government.

Question 8.
On which day “Voters Day” is celebrated?
Answer:
Voters Day is celebrated on 5th January of every year.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Name the dictator of Libya.
Answer:
Muammar Quddafi is a dictator of Libya.

Question 10.
Who have signed ‘Tashkent’-Agreement?
Answer:
Lai Bahadur Shastri and Ayub Khan signed Tashkent Agreement.

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in two words or two sentences each: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
How many states was Bombay divided into? Which are they?
Answer:
Bombay was divided into two states. They are Maharashtra and Gujarath.

Question 12.
What is All India Services? Give an example.
Answer:
A group of persons who are recruited by the Central Government and working both to Central and State governments is called All India Services.

Question 13.
Name any two leaders of Karnataka Raitha Sangha?’
Answer:
Prof. M.D.Nanjunda Swamyand Puttannaiah are the two leaders of Karnataka Raita Sangha.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
What is caste based inequality?
Answer:
Discrimination on the basis of caste is called caste based inequality.

Question 15.
Write the meaning of identity politics.
Answer:
A pattern of belongingness, a search for comfort, an approach to community is called identity politics.

Question 16.
Mention any two coalition partners of UPA.
Answer:
Congress and DMK are the two coalition partners of UPA.

Question 17.
What is brain drain?
Answer:
An educated and skilled person who goes for more salary and higher position to abroad is called brain drain.

Question 18.
Mention two objectives of the U.N.O.
Answer:

  1. To save the future generation from the destruction of war.
  2. To uphold the human rights all over the world.

Question 19.
Name any two member countries of BRICS.
Answer:
India and Russia are the member countries of BRICS.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 20.
When and where the 1st NAM summit was held?
The 1st NAM Summit was held in 1961 at Belgrade of Yugoslavia.

Question 21.
Name any two military alliances.
NATO and Warsaw are the two military alliances.

Question 22.
Name any two militant groups of Sri Lanka.
Answer:

  1. Tamil United Liberation Front.
  2. Liberation Tigers of Tamil Ealam.

III. Answer any eight of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 23.
Explain briefly the Government of India Act 1935.
Answer:
The reforms of 1919, failed to fulfill the aspirations of the people of India. The Congress under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi started agitation for ‘Swaraj’ to be attained through ‘Non-co-operation’.

As per the Government of India Act 1919, a statutory commission was to be appointed at the expiration of ten years after the passing of the Act for the purpose of inquiring into the working of the system and the development of representative institutions in India.

The British Government appointed a Statutory Commission (Simon Commission) in 1927, to enquire into the report of 1919 Act. This was done as a concession to the Indian demand for an early revision of the Act. The commission headed by Sir John Simon consisted of 7 members from the British Parliament. It did not have a single Indian as a member.

It was taken as an insult to the self-respect of India and hence was boycotted. Amidst protests of, “Simon, go back”, the commission visited India. It announced in 1929, that ‘Dominion status’ was the goal of Indian developments.

Gandhi lead the 1st Round Table Conference held in 1930. Dr. Ambedkar lead the 2nd in 1931 and again the 3rd Round table Conference in 1932. The outcome of these conferences was announced in the form of ‘white paper’. It provided for:

  1. Educational facilities and reservation in politics for depressed classes.
  2. Universal Adult Franchise.
  3. Prohibition of social boycott.
  4. Communal representation.
  5. Separate electorate for the untouchables.

Simon commission brought the report of the resolutions of the conferences, but Gandhi opposed the separate electorate for untouchables and decided to fast unto death. Congress leaders met Gandhi in his regard, and he was convinced. The resolution was modified by providing reservations for depressed classes instead of separate electorate for the untouchables. This was popularly known as ‘Poona pact’ signed by Gandhi and Ambedkar.

A White paper was prepared on the results of these conferences. It was examined by the Joint select committee of the British Parliament and in accordance with its recommendations, the Government of India Act 1935 was passed. The act contained 321 Articles and 13 schedules. The important provisions of the Act are:

1. Federation:
The Act provided for the establishment of ‘Federation of India’. It consisted of provinces of British India and the Princely states as units. For the first time, an attempt was made to establish a Federal Government.

2. Distribution of power:
It divided legislative powers between the Central and Provincial legislatures. There was a threefold division.
a. Federal list:
It consisted of 59 subjects like external affairs, currency, defense, etc., over which the federal legislature had legislative power.

b. Provincial list:
It consisted of 54 subjects like police, education, etc., over which provincial legislatures had jurisdiction.

c. Concurrent list:
This consisted of 36 subjects like criminal law, civil procedures, marriage, and divorce, etc., over which both the federal and provincial legislatures had competence.

d. The Residuary powers were vested with the Governor General.

3. Diarchy at the centre:
The Diarchy which was established in the provinces by the Act of 1919 was now adopted at the centre. The executive authority vested with the Governor General included the following:

a. The administration of reserved subjects like defence, external affairs, etc. was done by Governor General with the help of ‘Councilors’, who were appointed by him and not responsible to the legislature.

b. In the matters of transferred subjects, Governor General acted, on the advice of ‘Council of Ministers’, who were responsible to the legislature.

4. The Federal Legislatures:
The central legislature was bi-cameral consisting of Federal Assembly and the Council of States.

a. The Council of States consisted of 260 members, of which 156 (60%) were elected from British India and 104 (40%) were nominated by the Princely States.

b. Federal Assembly consisted of 375 members, of which 250 (67%) were elected by the legislative Assemblies and 125 (33%) nominated by the Rulers of the Princely States.

The Council was to be a permanent body. 1/3rd of its members were to retire after 3 years. The term of House of Assembly was 5 years. Indirect method of election was prevalent for the House of Assembly. There were Bi-cameral legislatures in Bengal, Bombay, Bihar and Madras and rest of the provinces had Unicameral legislatures.

5. Federal Court:It provided for the first time, the establishment of Federal Court of India in Delhi. It was established in 1937 and consisted of a Chief Justice and 6 additional Judges appointed by his Majesty’s Government on the basis of high legal qualifications.

  1. It had original jurisdiction to decide disputes between the Centre and the Provinces.
  2. Appellate Jurisdiction over decisions of the High courts.
  3. Advisory Jurisdiction to advice the Governor General on any point of Law.

It was the highest court in India. The Federal court functioned in India for about 12 years, till its transformation into Supreme Court of India in 1950, under the present constitution. The credit for its excellent works goes to Sir Maurice Gwyer, who guided the court in its formative years as its first Chief Justice.

6. Provincial Autonomy:
By this act, the provinces no longer remained as delegates of Central Government but became autonomous units of administration. The act introduced Provincial Autonomy. It was introduced in 11 provinces viz, Madras, Bombay, Bengal, the United Provinces, Punjab, Bihar, Central Provinces, Assam, the North Western Frontier Province, Orissa, and Sind.

The provinces were administered by the ministers. The differences between the reserved and transferred subjects were dropped. All subjects were placed under the charge of ministers who were made responsible and removable by the Legislative Assembly. Thus, the executive was responsible to legislature. The legislative relations between the Central Government and the Provinces were regulated according to three lists of subjects provided under this Act.

a. However, ‘Dominion status’ which was promised by the Simon Commission in 1929 was not conferred by this Act.

b. The intention to establish Federation of India did not materalize because opposition for the merger from the rulers of Princely states.

c. The degree of provincial autonomy introduced at the provincial level was limited as Central Government retained important powers and control. The Governor was given pivotal position, with discretionary powers on important matters. He was not bound by the advice of ministers. Thus, the claim of conferring provincial autonomy was very limited.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 24.
Give reasons for language as a basis for state re-organization.
Answer:
Language as a basis for re-organisation is important because of the following reasons.

  1. Language is closely related to culture and customs of people.
  2. Spread of education and literacy can occur only through medium of mother tongue.
  3. To a common man, democracy can be real only when politics and administration are conducted, in his language.
  4. Linguistic states can provide education, administration and judicial activity in their mother tongue. Therefore, it was assumed that free India would base its boundaries on linguistic principle.

Question 25.
Write about the “Anti Defection Law’’.
Answer:
Defection is change of loyalty to another party, without resigning from his elected post for benefits. Defector gets elected on one party’s ticket and tries to enjoy power in another party.

The word defection also called as ‘Floor Crossing in UK and ‘Carpet Crossing’ in Nigeria. The term ‘Defection’ is used in India. Defection is commonly known as ‘House funding’. Defectors are called as ‘Fence sitters’ or Turn Coats.

SriRajiv Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India decided to remove the evils of defection. Hence, Anti defection Act came into force on 1st April through the 52nd Constitution Amendment.

The main intention of the law was to combat “the evils of political defections”. The provisions are:
1. A member of Parliament or state legislature belonging to any political party shall be disqualified if he voluntarily quits his party.

2. He will be disqualified from his membership if he votes against his party whip in the session.

3. A member of Parliament or state Legislature belonging to any political party shall be disqualified from his membership, if he votes in the session without prior permission of his party.

4. A nominated member shall be disqualified from his membership in the upper house, if he joins any political party after six months from the date on which he assumes his position.

5. If 1/3rd strength of any political party merges with another political party, it shall be considered as defection.

6. A person disqualified under this Act shall not be provided any office of profit.

7. The Anti-defection law determines the size of the council of Ministers. The size of the council of Ministers of Union shall exceed 15% of the total members of the Lok Sabha and similar to that of state legislative Assembly.

8. Speaker can initiate action against the members under Anti-defection law.

9. The Chairpersons of Legislative are permitted to frame the rules to implement this law.

Question 26.
Write the functions of Chief Secretary.
Answer:
Chief Secretary is the head of the Secretariat in every state. He is in charge of the administrative set-up. His authority includes all departments of the Secretariat. By reason of his experience and standing, he is able to ease out difficulties and frictions to give general guidance to other officers.

Thus he gives leadership to the administrative setup of the state. He maintains rapport between the State government and the Union government and other State governments.

Functions:
The Chief Secretary performs the following functions:

  1. He is the Principal Adviser to the Chief Minister.
  2. He acts as the Cabinet Secretary and attends cabinet meetings.
  3. He exercises general supervision and control over the entire Secretariat.
  4. He looks after all matters beyond the purview of other secretaries.
  5. As chief of all the secretaries, he presides over a large number of committees and is a member of many others.
  6. He is the secretary by rotation, of the zonal council of which the state is a member.
  7. He has control over the staff attached to the ministers.
  8. He is the bridge between that State and Central or other state Governments.
  9. He receives confidential communication from the Government of India and conveys them to the Chief Minister.

As the head of the administrative Machineiy, Chief of the Civil Services, Mentor and conscience keeper of Civil services, he plays a significant role in the state administration.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 27.
What are the causes for Feminist Movement?
Answer:
The causes few Feminist Movement are as follows.
1. Inequality:
It is evident that Indian society is male dominated and preference is given to the male members. Though men and women are born equally and Consitution also uphold the equality between the two, women are deprived of education, employment, decision making, and property rights. This has led to agitation.

2. The evils of dowry:
Hie evils of dowry have forced parents to become debtors, the girls to brothels and uneven sex ratio through female foeticide and infanticide. As a result of this uneven ratio of men and women in society, rape and other heinous crimes are on-die rise.

3. Denial of human rights:
The atrocities on women have denied them human rights and other rights like right to life, liberty, freedom of expression and others. Their existence and survival depends upon the mercy of the male members. Decision making is the birth right of men in matters of education, marriage, property rights and family issues.

4. Social strata based on gender:
Men have not spared any of the fields including cultural, social, religious, political and exercise their monopoly and continue their attrocities on women. Women are treated as slaves and bonded labourers. This has made the women to organize themselves and start an agitation.

5. Sexual abuse and molestation:
Irrespective of the age, time and place, the above heinous crimes are taking place. To regain the right to decide about children or to get aborted without the interference of husband or politicians through governmental policies, women are uniting together and fighting for justice.

6. Domestic violence:
Women shoulder the entire household responsibilites like raring and caring of, children, domestic work and the related tasks. The cohabitants of the family become the victims of domestic violence because of irresponsible, illiterate and drunkard husbands who lack discretion. This may take the form of physical, mental, sexual harassment and finally it may take women’s life as a toll. To avoid such violence, women organisations are established.

Question 28.
Discuss the political implication of backward class movement.
Answer:
The causes mentioned above paved the way for Backward Classes Movement in India. Sayyaji Rao Gaikwad of Gwalior was the first one to introduce reservation to backward classes. Nalwadi Krishnaraja Wodeyar, the Maharaja of Mysore formed a Commission headed by Leslie Miller in 1918 to go into the details of backward classes and find solutions.

In addition to it, his majesty appointed Sri Kantharaje Urs who belonged to the backward class as the Diwan of Mysore Samsthan who implemented the recommendations of the Commission and provided 50% reservation to those classes. Sri Venkata Krishnaiah popularly known as Thataiah of Mysore and Sri Kongadiyappa of Doddaballapur started Educational Institutions for the sake of backward community.

Constitutional Provisions:
a. The Constitution of India provides reservation in public employment in favour of any backward classes under Art. 16(4).

b. According to Art. 340, the President of India is authorized to appoint National Backward Classes Commission.

c. To provide loan and financial assistance to the people of other castes who are below poverty line, National Backward Classes Finance and Development Corporation is formed.

d. All the States of the Indian Union can form State Backward Classes Commissions and Development Corporations. In Karnataka, Devraj Urs Development Corporation is functioning.

e. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) receives complaints aganist the violation of rights and discrimination aganist women, scheduled caste, scheduled tribe, and other backward classes.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 29.
What are the causes of illiteracy?
Answer:
Illiteracy means inability of a person to read and write in any language. Amartya Sen described illiteracy as one of unfreedoms.
Causes:
1. Population explosion:
India is the second most populous country in the world. It consists of 17.5% of World’s total population. The population of Karnataka has increased to 6.11 crores. Hence, it has become a challenging task for the Government to provide literacy.

2. Poverty:
Due to poverty, majority of the children suffer form malnutrition and anaemia. Parents from poor and low income families, find it difficult to send their children to schools.

3. Social backwardness:
Hierarchical caste system, inferiority complex among people, ignorance about importance of education, taboos have prevented large number of people from getting literate. Further, a large percentage of girls, particularly in rural areas have been denied access to primary education due to customs, traditions and the practice of gender inequality.

4. Child labour:
Prevalence of child labour due to poor socioeconomic conditions is seen all over India. According to National Crime Record Bureau Report, there were 2 crores child labourers, across the country in 2011. They are working in hotels, small scale industries, carpet weaving, fire works, etc. All these hinder them from getting primary education.

5. Poor infrastructure:
Most of the schools across the country have no proper buildings, required number of qualified teachers and study materials. The school environment is also not conducive for learning and teaching. There is lack of adequate transport facilities for school children, particularly in the rural areas.

Question 30.
Explain briefly the five components of nation building.
Answer:
The process of Nation-building started with the attainment of independence. The leaders of modern India initiated the process in the right direction as they worked out the details in an orderly and systematic way. However, during implementation, they had to face numerous problems associated with national reconstruction resulting in a slow process.

The process of nation-building is an offshoot of the concept of nation-states. The idea of nation-states emerged after the signing of the treaty of West Phalia (1648) by Western Countries. The people of the common religious and traditional backgrounds living in a definite territory with like-mindedness and ‘we’ feeling form the nation. Common language, culture, and history aspirations help the common people to form nationality.

1. Components to community support:
To realise the process of nation-building, collective support and endeavour of the people are essential. The quality of the people reflects the quality of a nation. Disciplined work culture and patriotic feeling also contribute for nation-building. In a democracy, people are the kingmakers.

Hence, they are expected to elect competent and honest representatives. They formulate a sound public opinion on important national issues. As J.S. Mill said ‘Eternal vigilance is the price of democracy’.

2. Good Governance:
Good governance ensures accountability, transparency, efficiency, responsibility, and responsiveness. In addition, the use of technology has given rise to e-Governance. India is one of the leading countries in the world in the adoption of the system-of e-governance.

3. Committed Leadership:
History depicts many examples of committed leadership. Eg. the US President F. D. Roosevelt solved the crisis of Economic depression by adopting the New Deal Policy and US became a superpower at global level after the II World War.

In India Nehru’s leadership largely contributed to the process of nation-building. He formulated goals for nation-building and introduced planning system, adopted industrialization policy and socialistic pattern of society. He had vision and farsightedness for the transformation of India. Hence Nehru is called the Architect of Modern India.

4. Political Culture:
Political Culture constitutes a set of values, attitudes, and behaviour towards a political system. It requires an ideal political behaviour to national reconstruction. Leaders have to embody the principles of national interest, public service, probity, and statesmanship.

5. Power Sharing:
To realize the goal, political power needs to be shared among all sections of society. The concentration of political power in the hands of a few people and some families leads to the emergence of authoritarianism and dictatorship.

As H.J. Laski rightly puts it “A decision which affects all must be decided by all” To attain this reservation is provided to the SCs and STs and women at different levels of Government. It ensures social justice which is the foundation of socio-economic democracy.

6. Universal Education:
For the development of a nation universal education is of paramount importance. It enables the person to understand his potentiality and strengthens dignity. As Gandhi said, “Education is the light of life”. It encourages people to develop the spirit of enquiry the ability to analyze the national problems and to work for national progress. Education also equips the people to shun fanaticism, parochialism, communalism, casteism and religious fundamentalism. The Right To Education Act 2009 implemented in 2010 is a step in this direction.

7. National Character:
Nationalism and patriotism are the foundations to build a national character. Each country has its distinct national character which denotes one’s nativity-as the conservatism of UK, ‘Land of Liberty’ of US, Ethnicity of Africa, Aboriginal of Australia, cultural diversity of India. Love and respect for one’s country and national symbols such as national flag, national anthem, and national monuments are the prerequisites.

One has to a acquire knowledge about the history of his motherland and its contributions to human civilizations. Realizing the significance of national character, the makers of the Indian constitution have asserted the supremacy of popular sovereignty in the preamble reading with the expression.” We the people of India”.

8. Mass Media:
Mass Media is regarded as the Fourth Estate in democracy as it plays a vital role in nation-building. It highlights the omissions and commissions of the government and acts as a bridge between the government and the public. It . is an effective instrument of political socialization, modernization, and development. In India, the ‘Freedom of Expression’ is a fundamental right under Art. 19 of the Constitution.

9. Responsible Intelligentsia:
The contribution of intellectuals is recognized all over the world. Research and innovations in important areas of human life have contributed to the national development. In India the development in the field of social sciences, M.N. Srinivas, Amartya Sen, S. Shettar, Gail Omvedt, Kancha, Ilaya, Vandana. Shiva, S.N. Balagangadhara, AshishNandy, Rajiv Malhotra and others.

In Science and Technology Sir M. Vishveshwaraiah, Sir C.V. Raman, Dr. Raja Ramanna, Dr. M.G.K. Menon, Dr. CNR Rao. Dr. U.R. Rao, Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam, and others have greatly contributed for India’s present position at global level.

10. National Integration:
It is the process of uniting the people emotionally, psychologically and politically, Sardar Vallabha Bai Patel, Vinoba Bhave, Lai Bahadhur Shastri, J.B. Kriplani, Acharya Narendra Dev played a key role in the national integration. November 19th is being observed as National integration day, the birthday of Smt. Indira Gandhi.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 31.
How youths can control corruption?
Answer:
Youth against corruption: As it is documented in Atharva veda, “The wealth earned through pious means flourisher, those who earn through dishonest means are destroyed. There is also a mention in Kautilya’s Arthashastra about corruption is wide spread all over the world.

India is not an exception, bribery, extortion, fraud, embezzlement, nepotism, cronyism influence peddling, speed money are some of the terms used on par with corruption.

Corruption is derived from the Latin verb ‘rumpere’ meaning to break it means corruption is where the law is clearly broken.
As Ram Ahuja opined, the use of public power for Private in the way that constitutes a breach of law or a deviation from the norms of society.

Avasthi and Maheshwari viewed corruption as “The deliberate and international exploitation of one’s position, status or resources directly or indirectly for personal aggrandizement’.

The needs of the hour is to come out of this bane and to have good governance, it requires the following base.
1. Education:
Formal and informal education has to encompass not only curricula but also values of life. Schools, colleges and universities while framing curriculum, should focus to motivate both the faculty and pupil to awaken against corruption at different levels. As Kothari Commission rightly observed ‘the destiny of a nation is shaped in the-class room’.

2. Morality:
Gandhi in the wake of removal of corruption said ‘On this earth there is enough for everyone’s needs not for greeds. The youth should be able to differentiate need and greed more than 1/2 of the total population in India come in between the age group of 18 to 35. This asset is to be utilized to the core to build a strong India against corruption, which is a white collar criminality. They have to follow the policy of ‘live and let live’.

3. Means and ends:
By adopting democratic values, maintaining transparency following peaceful ways and tolerance respecting elders, youth have to fight against corruption.

4. Role models:
As Swami Vivekananda gave a clarion call to the youth, “Awake arise and stop not till the goal is reached”. Dr. A.P. J. Abdul Kalam has reached lakhs of students and youth. He called them to get good education, being better human beings and through eradicating corruption attain the best governance.

5. Youth movement:
Lokanayak Jayaprakash Narayan the pioneer of the total revolution, inspired youth during 1970’s to revolt against the corrupt administration who travelled all over India to fight against this evil. During 1980’s All Assam Student’s Union (AASU) fought against the corrupt administration which threatened North Eastern States.

Question 32.
Explain the political implications of globalization.
Answer:
Globalisation is the process of intergrating the economy of the country with world economy. It is a movement towards greater interaction. Integration and interdependence among people and organisation across borders. The strongest manifestion of Globalisation has been the increasing economics intergration among the countries in trade and investment.

An important attribute of globalization is the increasing degree of openness, which has three dimensions, ie. international trade, international investment, and international finance. It involves creation of networks and activities transcending economic, social and geographical boundaries. The Economy of India had undergone significat policy shifts in the beginning of the 1990’s. This new model of economic reforms is commonly known as the liberalization, privatizaton and globalisation(LPG) model.

The chain of reforms that took place with regard to business, manufacturing and financial industries targeted at strengthening the economy of the country to a more proficient level. These economic reforms had influenced the overall economic growth of the country in a significant manner.
In brief, the salient points of Globalisation are:

  1. Efficiency.
  2. Transfer of technology.
  3. Concept of a global village.
  4. Mobility of labour force.
  5. Global competion resulting in better performance.
  6. Outsourcing and
  7. Optimum utilization of human resources.

The political implications of globalisation are as follows:
1. Power subjugation:
The effects of globalisation has brought a lot of changes in the world economy. For small countries, it is inevitable to accept the economic decisions of big countries, which leads to power subjugation.

2. Affects the sovereignty:
As a result of globalisation in the fields of economy, trade, transportation, etc., the sovereign countries are bound by the decisions of stronger countries. Hence it affects the sovereignty of a country in totality.

3. Cultural invasion:
Culture is a complex, wholesome and exclusive to each country. The influence of globalisation in the name of cultural exchange not only invades but also degenerates the youth who are the architects of the future.

4. Enslavement of lifestyle:
Globalisation has largely affected the younger generation. Food habits, general behaviour, mutual relationship, respect to elders, human values and ultimately the whole generation has become slave in the clutches of globalisation.

5. Elimination of subsidies:
The major impact of globalisation is the curtailment of subsidies to all sectors including agriculture, in a phased manner. The worst hit are the peasants who are the backbone of the country.

6. Political Instability:
The impact of globalisation mainly is economic depression, boom or even recession which directly affects the political stability of a country. Hence development comes to a stand still. Thus globalisation as a process of integrating the economy of the country with world economy has gone a long way.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 33.
Bring out the importance of the international relations.
Answer:
The core concepts of International Relations pertaining to politics are as follows:
a. State Sovereignty:
Jean Bodin has described the concept of Sovereignty in his work “De Republica”. He emphasizes on the state Sovereignty within their territorial jurisdiction. No State can dictate others and all States are equal in matters of status, dignity and honour. For instance, India under the British imperialism lost its sovereignty and gained its state hood only in 1947. Iraq during the Gulf war in 1990, is an example for aggression on the Sovereignty.

b. National Interests:
It is the action of the State in relation to other States. As Frankel opined, it refers to the aspiration of the state. The determinants of national interest are qualities of personalities and ideals of the decision makers.

c. Power Blocs:
With the beginning of the cold war, two power blocs emerged, i.e., USA and USSR. President of U S. Harry S. Truman believed in the spread of democracy whereas the Warsaw Pact under Soviet policy sought the spread of Communism. Capitalistic ideology spread in UK, France, Germany, and Communist ideology spread in Poland, Bulgaria, Rumania, and Hungery.

d. Polarity:
Polarities in international relations refer to the arrangement of power within the international system. The concept arose from bi-polarity during the cold war between the two super powers. The disintegration of the USSR has led to uni-polarity with the United States as the superpower.

With rapid economic growth in 2010, China became the world’s second largest economy. Combined with the respectable international position, China has emerged as a major power in the multi-polar world.

e. Balance of Power:
The concept of Balance of Power refers to relative power position of States as actors in international relations, with its emphasis on the cultivation of power and the utilization of power for resolving the problems. Morgenthau used the term ‘Balance of Power’ as an approximately equal distribution of power. It is an inseparable part of the power politics.

Question 34.
Write about Panchsheel principles.
Answer:
Panchasheel continues to be another fundamental principle of Indian foreign policy. An agreement signed between Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Chinese Prime Minister Zhow-en-Lai on April, 29th 1954, sought to govern the relationship between India and China on the basis of five principles.

  1. Mutual respect for each others territorial integrity and sovereignty.
  2. Mutual non-aggression.
  3. Mutual non-interference in each others internal affairs.
  4. Equality and mutual benefits.
  5. Peaceful coexistence.

It is a principle of peaceful co-existence with other countries, it guided the basis of relationship between 1954-57 marked by numerous visits and exchanges. This period is described as Sino-Indian honeymoon.

IV. Answer any two of the following questions in 30 to 40 sentences: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Explain the functions of Election Commission of India.
Answer:
Democratic system in India provides for impartial, free and fair elections. The framers of Indian constitution clearly made provisions for an statutory body called Election Commission to conduct elections in India. Article 324 to 329 in part XV deals with the composition, powers, and functions of the Election Commission.

The Election Commission conducts elections to the office of the President, Vice President Union Parliament, Legislature of State, Union territories and Local bodies.

1. Composition of Election commission:
Article 324 provides for the office of the Election Commission of India. It consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and the other Election Commissioners. Till 1993, it was a single-member body but later on, it became a three-member body during the Prime Ministership of Sri P.V. Narasimha Rao.

2. Appointment and Removal:
According to Art 342 (2), Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the advice of Union Cabinet. The term of office is 6 years or till they reach the age of 65 years.

Article 324 (6) makes provisions for the salaries, allowances and other privileges to the Chief Election Commissioners, Election Commissioners, and the Personnel. The Parliament determines their salaries from time to time.

3. Removal:
According to Article 324(5), the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners can be removed from their office in the same manner as the Judges of Supreme Court, on the grounds of misbehavior and incapacity to discharge their constitutional obligations.

4. Power and functions:
According to Article 324 (1), the Election Commission does the following.

  1. Prepares electoral roll and its periodical revision.
  2. Holds elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and offices of President and Vice President.
  3. After the announcement of elections, it decides the time table.
  4. It conducts by-elections to vacant seats.
  5. It grants recognition to political parties as National and State parties.

According to Election Emblem Act 2000.

5. For National party:
1. 6% of valid votes in 4 or more States in LokSabha or Vidhana Sabha election and 4 LokSabha seats in any State or States or
2. Minimum 2% of Lok Sabha seats in 3 States.

6. For State party:
1. 6% of valid votes in Lok Sabha or Vidhana Sabha elections from the State and two Vidhana Sabha seats, or
2. 3% seats of total Vidhana Sabha seats in the States or success at least in three constituencies.

  • It scrutinizes the nomination papers.
  • It allots symbols to political parties and independent candidates.
  • It appoints officers and other staff members to conduct election and make necessary arrangements.
  • It can order for re-poll in any constituency or any polling booth.
  • It can withhold the election results on valid grounds.
  • The President or the Governor acts on the advice of the Election Commission at the time of disqualification of members of the house.

It enforces the code of conduct for the candidates and political parties i.e. the election expenses and submission of accounts after election, environmental protection against noise pollution, etc., during elections. As per the Representation of People’s Act (RPA) of 1950 and 1951, Election Commission of India conducts the process of election.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 36.
Explain the causes and remedial measures to eradicate communalism.
Answer:
Communalism is an ideology of the followers of one particular religion is witnessed as a homogenous and distinct group, disrespecting other religions.

Causes:
1. Policy of the British India:
discriminatory policies of the East India Company regarding divide and rule, destroyed the unity between Hindus and Muslims. It was manifested in the Sepoy Mutiny (1857). During the period of Viceroy Lord Curzon, Bengal was divided (1905) on the basis of religion. Communal electorate for Muslims was .introduced during the period of Lord Minto. All these intensified the cause of communalism.

2. Hind-Muslim Nationalism:
Communal organizations were formed by separatists. In 1906, Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha came into existence. Mohammad Ali Jinnah who was called as ‘Muslim Gokhale’ of India was brain washed by the Britishers. He became the champion of two nation theory based on religion. Extremists of the Indian National Congress began to assert their demands. These developments created suspicion and distrust between Hindus and Muslims before Independence.

3. Communal Riots:
Large scale communal riots took place in India after Independence. Religious minorities both in India and Pakistan became victims during this situation, and were attacked and tortured. Later communal riots occurred in Bhagalpur, Meerut, Kanpur, Lucknow, Ayodhya, Ahmedabad, Mumbai and in many other places.

The demolition of Babri Majid at Ayodhya by a mob on 6th December 1992, largely contributed for the animosity between Hindus and Muslims, and the successive events intensified the mistrust between these communities.

4. Politically manipulated:
In India many issues are politically manipulated by leaders for their selfish gain. This leads to hatred among the communities.

5. Communality in organization:
Different communities in India established their own organizations based on communality, to support particular political parties in their interest.

Promotion of secularism and National integration as remedy:
1. Secularism:
The constitution makers adopted secularism in order to create sense of security and equality among different religious groups. The state also follows a policy of neutrality in religious matters. Article 26 provides every religious denomination or any section has the right to establish religious institutions and manage their affairs.

In December 2013, the Central Cabinet approved the “Prevention of Communal Violence (Access to justice and Reparations) Bill” to punish the offenders who instigate and indulge in communal riots. It is yet to be passed by parliament.

2. National integration:
It is the process of uniting the people emotionally and politically. India is a land of diversity. It is in a limited sense to call this a single nation because it has various religion, languages, castes, cultures, etc. So for the success of Indian democracy, promotion of national integration is necessary.

To preserve and sustain National integration many provisions have been adopted in the Constitution, like National integration Council, Zonal Councils, National security Council and armed forces play a greater role in the protection of National integration.

3. Neighbourhood Peace Committees:
The aftermath of Babri Masjid demolition and subsequent communal riots and social tensions in different places and ineffective Governmental measures has made it vital to establish Neighbourhood Peace Committees with eminent or prominent people as its members. These members must be nominated from each community in riot prone or communally sensitive areas.

The main objectives are arresting and containing social tensions which may flare up communal riots in the neighbourhood areas taking precautionary measures to prevent the eruption of communal clashes.

In the aftermath of conflict restoring normalcy and pacifying affected people. Establishing harmonious relationship between the communities and extending all possible help to affected people.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 37.
Discuss the importance and political implications of liberalisation.
Answer:
Liberalization is the “willingness to respect or accept behaviour or opinion different from one’s own; open to new ideas”. Liberalization is the process of liberating the economy from various regulatory mechanism and eleimination of customs and tariffs. Economic liberalization is the policy of relaxation over economic and trade policies.

A. Importance of Liberalization are as follows:
1. Consumer-friendly:
This leads to lower costs and prices for consumers to get the gods and services according to his wishes. There are many number of companies which bring lot of quantity products for consumer’s interests and demands. In liberalised economy, consumer gets more benefits.

2. Free from Government regulations:
Government provides free movement of trade and commerce where any private company can easily carry on their business activities without any restrictions. The companies need not undergo procedural delay by government.

3. Promotes competitions:
Liberalisations extends competition within different company’s trade firms. Basically they keep the standards and cheaper prices for consumers. Competition promoters efficiency and avoids wastage of resources.

4. Promotes world business class:
Liberalization makes new changes is an advance technology and logistics for better services. That can be useful to save time, energy and money. It promotes the high quantity of products and supplies the same in time.

B. Political implications of liberalization are as follows:
1. Risk of brain drain:
In the name of liberalised policy citizens knock at the door of international opportunities, with their knowledge and skill. The developing nations face lots of problem from such brain drain.

2. Reduces dependency on labour:
As the process itself is capital intensive, it reduces dependency on labour and cuts opportunities for jobs.

3. Risk of environmental degradation:
The incessant industrial activity at the global level generates lot of wastage leading to environmental degradation.

4. Regulates the price of certain commodities:
The price of certain commodities like-life saving drugs, fertilizers, etc., are automatically controlled by the world trade forums and associations.

5. Affects common man:
It affects the common man in his day-to-day life as he finds it’s difficult to earn his livelihood.

6. Risk of financial instability:
Flexibility (laxity) of monetary and fiscal policies of the Government may lead to financial crisis like recession and depression.

Question 38.
Explain the establishment and areas of co-operation of SAARC.
Answer:
In the rapidly changing global environment, regional integration in south Asia has assumed a new strategic significance. As a largest economy of the South Asian Region. It is imperative and right time for India to inculcate an environment of trust among SAARC partners. India stands to gain substantially from greater economic integration in the region.

a. Summit level co-operation:
India has participated in all the summit level meetings. During the 16th SAARC Summit held in New Delhi on 3rd and 4th April 2007, the leaders recognized collectivelly in fulfilling this in a better way with the rest of the world.

The Prime Minister of India Mr. Rajiv Gandhi attended the first SAARC Summit held in Bangladesh in 1985. He emphasized the core issue of economic development in the South Asian region with joint efforts. India is committed to fostering the sense of a South Asian mutual confidence in multiple areas in trying to leverage India’s rapid economic growth into win-win arrangements with her neighbours.

b. SAARC Regional Centres:
India is having two regional centres:

  1. SAARC Documentation Centre (SDC) in New Delhi.
  2. SAARC Disaster Management Centre (SDMC) in New Delhi.

c. SAARC Development Fund (SDF):
India has been one of major contributors to the SAARC development Fund. The Fund has three areas of action on social, economic and infrastructure. India has offered US$100 million for the SAARC Countries.

d. Economics Co-operation: The Agreement on SAARC preferential Trading Arrangement trade negotiations have been concluded. India being an important member of the group intiated a step to ensure that the nations go beyond the rhetoric and make the Summit 5 meaningful.

V. Answer any two of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39.
Write a note on ‘Independence day’ celebration in your college.
Answer:
Independence day, a memorable occasion for the nation was celebrated in our college this year also. Under the guidance of the teachers, students had decorated the college grounds one day before and erected a podium, as well as a stage for the cultural. programmes.

Sri Seetharamaiah, the octogenerian freedom fighter was invited to be our chief guest and he was there right on time at 8.00 A.M. Our Principal and senior staff members welcomed the Chief Guest and other dignitaries with garlands and bouquets. After the invocation and the prayer, the function took off on a smooth note.

After the hoisting of the Tricolour National flag by the Chief Guest, the President of the College Student Union read out the welcome speech. Our Principal presided over the function. Sri Seetharamaiah in his speech, highlighted the great ideals and values and sacrifices of our freedom fighters.

There was a march-past by the NCC cadets, followed by the school band. There were some cultural programmes like singing, mime act, monoacting and a skit about the Jalianwalabagh massacre. The programmes were much appreciated. The function came to an end with the vote of thanks and sweet distribution. We all dispersed.

OR

What are the powers and functions of the UPSC?
Answer:
Article 315 provides for the establishment of the Union Public Service Commission. UPSC is an independent constitutional body entrusted with the work of recruitment on the basis of merit.

1. Composition:
At present, the UPSC is composed of a Chairman and 10 members. Members are appointed by the President. It provides for half of the members of the Commission to be administrators with a minimum of the 10 years experience in government service. Nothing is mentioned regarding the qualifications of the remaining members.

2. Tenure:
A member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a period of 6 years or till he attains the age of 65 years, whichever comes earlier. Chairman or members of the commission, are not eligible for re-appointment after retirement. The Chairman of the UPSC is also not eligible for further employment under central or state governments, however, a member of the UPSC may be appointed as a Chairman of the UPSC or the state Public Service Commission.

3. Removal:
A Chairman and members of the UPSC, can be removed from the office only by an order of the President, on the ground of misbehaviour proved by the Supreme Court. All these provisions have been made to make the Commission an independent and impartial body.

Functions:
Article 320 of the Indian Constitution enumerate the functions of the UPSC:

  1. To conduct examinations for appointment to the services of the Union and All India Service.
  2. To assist two or more states, on request for joint recruitment for any services.
  3. To advise the government on matters relating to the methods of recruitment, promotions, transfers, disciplinary actions and inter service matters.
  4. To present annual report regarding its working to the President.
  5. To exercise such additional functions as provided by an act of Parliament.
  6. To serve all or any needs of the state government on request by the Governor and with the approval of the President.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 40.
Write a note on any one Indian political leader.
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is acknowledged as the leader of the untouchables and underprivileged in the Indian social strata. For his work in piloting the Constitution of Independent India through the Constituent Assembly, he is also hailed as the Modem Manu.

Dr. Ambedkar was the 14th child of Ramji Sakpal and Bhimabai of the Mahar community in Maharashtra. He was born on 14th April 1891. He lost his mother when he was only six and was brought up by his aunt. He had his school education in Satara.

He completed his graduation in Bombay with the support of the Maharaja of Baroda. He did his M.A. and Ph.D. degrees from the Colombia University in 1915 and 1916 respectively. Later he got his Law and D.Sc degrees also.

In 1924, he started an asspciation for the welfare of the depressed classes. He also started the newspapers ‘Bahiskrit Bharat’ in Hindi and ‘Mooka Nayaka‘ in Marathi. These were to motivate the people to fight for independence and also to champion the cause of the depressed classes for social reforms. His important works were ‘Administration and Finance of the East India Company’, ‘Buddha and Karl Marx’ and ‘Caste in India’ among others.

He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee for framing our Constitution. In the Interim government, he was the Law Minister in Nehru’s cabinet. He renounced active politics and embraced Buddhism. He spent the rest of his life propagating the message of Buddhism. He passed away on 6th December 1956. Dr. Ambedkar’s memory will remain long in our hearts.

OR

Write about Kashmir issue in India- Pakistan relations.
Answer:
Pakistan occupies the North-Western corner of the Indian subcontinent. To the West is Iran, to the North-west Afghanistan, to the Northeast, China and to East India.

India and Pakistan were part of British India before Independence. It was partitioned due to ‘divide and rule policy’ of British. Pakistan has close ethnic, cultural and historical links with India. Common blood flows across the land. The trauma, agony and fratricidal conflicts of partition of 1947 still haunt the relationship between the two countries. The mutual distrust and animosity affect Indo-Pak relations.

1. Causes for Dispute:
India and Pakistan represent not only different state systems but also different approaches towards society and polity. The undivided India was a nation many diversities and composite nationalism. During the struggle for liberation from British colonialism, Religious Communalism was promoted which spoiled the composite nationalism. After the achievement of independence with partition of the country.

India opted for Socio-cultural pluralism recognizing multi-religious, multi-lingual and multi-regional and multicultural diversities, while Pakistan opted for a Islamic Democratic style by emphasizing religion as the major and operative principle of its nation-building. As a result, in India, the composite nationalism emerged with its secular overtones in Pakistan triumphant religious communalism with Islamic orientation emerged.

2. Kashmir Issue:
In India’s Perspective Kashmir is an integral part of the Republic of India and to Pakistan, it is a disputed territory. The argument of Pakistan on Kashhmir is that, since the partition of the country was done on religious basis and majority of populations are Muslims, Kashmir should be part of Pakistan.

This argument failed to recognize the following facts:-
1. Partition was done of the British Indian provinces and not of the Indian princely states.

2. National Conference was the only major political party in Kashmir, which was affiliated to Congress, it was opposed to Pakistan and had faith in secular politics.

3. The Indian princely states had the freedom to join either India or Pakistan.

4. India is a secular state consisted of multi-religious population. So, the Kashmiris formally decided to join India after the invasion of its territory by Pakistani tribals supported by the members of Pakistan Army.

3. Major Pacts:
After wars between India and Pakistan in 1966 and 1971, both the countries affirmed the need for negotiated peaceful settlement of disputes in the Tashkent Declaration of 1966 between Lai Bahadur Sastri and Ayub Khan. In 1988 both the countries signed the agreement not to attack nuclear installation and facilities of each other, but in May 1999, Pakistan conducted the nuclear test at the Chagai Hills Region.

Though this has been reiterated by successive governments in Indio and Pakistan, the infiltration by well-armed Pakistani troops across the line of control (LoC) continued.

After the meeting in Lahore between the Indian Prime Minister, A.B. Vajpayee and Pakistan Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif in February 1999 with his historical bus journey to Pakistan the infiltration in the Kargil sector took place which cretated a war-like situation in Kashmir in June and July 1999.

There are indications that India and Pakistan are trying to overcome the past and build a future of mutual trust and understanding as independent countries with frequent visits of leaders of both countries, to discuss several bilateral issues. As a members of SAARC both countries are trying for solutions to their problems mutually and to establish peace in the South Asian region.

2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers

Students can Download 2nd PUC Economics Model Question Paper 1 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Economics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Economics Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3 hrs 15 minutes
Max. Marks: 100

Instruction :
1. Write the question numbers legibly in the margin.
2. Answer for a question should be continuous

PART-A

I. Choose the correct answer (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
In this economy, the government or the central authority plans all the important activities in the economy
(a) Market economy
(b) Centrally planned economy
(c) Mixed economy
(d) Open economy
Answer:
(b) Centrally planned economy

Question 2.
For normal goods, the demand curve shifts ______
(a) Leftward
(b) Downward
(c) Rightward
(d) Horizontal
Answer:
(c) Rightward

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
No individual has_____ resources compared to her needs
(a) Limited
(b) Unlimited
(c) Permitted
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Unlimited

Question 4.
Each buyer and seller in perfect competition is a.
(a) Price-maker
(b) Price-taker
(c) Price-analyser
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Price-taker

Question 5.
The government imposes upper limit on the price of a good or service which is called
(a) Price ceiling
(b) Price floor
(c) Price flow
(d) Price stock
Answer:
(a) Price ceiling

II. Fill in the blanks (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 6.
Goods produced by the firm are not homogenous. Such a market structure is called_______
Answer:
Monopolistic competition.

Question 7.
Oligopoly market structure makes the market price of the commodity______
Answer:
Rigid.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 8.
______tries to address situations facing the economy as a whole.
Answer:
Macroeconomics

Question 9.
Addition to the stock of capital of a firm is known as_____
Answer:
Net investment (flow)

Question 10.
The assumption of_____which literally means other things remaining equal or constant.
Answer:
Ceteris paribus

III. Match the following (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 11.
2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 1
Answer:
1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – e, 5 – a.

IV. Answer the following questions in a sentence/word (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 12.
Define monopoly.
Answer:
Monopoly is a market with only a single seller or firm.

Question 13.
Who are the macroeconomic decision-maker or players?
Answer:
The macroeconomic decision-makers/players are Reserve Bank of India, Securities, and Exchange Board of India and other similar institutions.

Question 14.
What do you mean by ex-ante investment?
Answer:
It is planned investment. It is made with an intention to create capital goods during a particular period of time. Here, the investment is assumed and it is imaginary. It is the anticipated investment during a year.

Question 15.
Who are the ‘free riders’?
Answer:
Free riders are the consumers who will not voluntarily pay for what they can get for free and for which there is no exclusive title to the property being enjoyed. Here the link between the producer and the consumer is broken and the government steps in to provide for such goods.

Question 16.
What type of economic system is followed in Pakistan?
Answer:
Mixed economic system is followed in Pakistan.

PART-B

V. Answer any nine of the following questions in four sentences each (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 17.
What do you mean by monotonic preferences?
Answer:
When the consumer always prefers more of the product which gives him higher level of satisfaction it is called monotonic preferences. That is, an increase in the amount of good 1 along the indifference curve is associated with a decrease in the amount of good 2. This implies that the slope of the indifference curve is downward.

Here, the consumer will not remain indifferent between two combination of commodities when he has an opportunity to have more quantity in one combination than the other.

Question 18.
What do you mean by an inferior good? Give some examples.
Answer:
The inferior goods are those goods for which the demand increases with the fall in income of consumer and vice-versa. That is, there will be a negative relationship between income of consumer and demand for inferior goods.
Example: ragi, jowar, etc.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 19.
Give the meaning of isoquant.
Answer:
Isoquant is the set all possible combinations of the two inputs that yield the same maximum possible level of output. Each isoquant represents a particular level of output and is labelled with that amount of output. The isoquants are negatively sloped.

This is because, when the marginal products are positive, with greater amount of one input, the same level of output can be produced by using lesser amount of the other. So, isoquants are negatively sloped.

Question 20.
What do you mean by ‘break-even point’?
Answer:
The point on the supply curve at which a firm earns normal profit is called break even point. In the long run, a firm reaches break even point, when the supply curve cuts the long-run average cost curve when long run cost curve is minimum.

In the short run, a firm reaches break even point, when the supply curve cuts the short-run average cost curve when short-run cost curve is minimum.

Question 21.
Define equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity.
Answer:
The price at which equilibrium is reached is called equilibrium price. The quantity bought and sold at equilibrium price is called equilibrium quantity.
Therefore, price and quantity will be in equilibrium if qD(p) = qs (p), where p is price and qD is quantity demanded and qs is quantity supplied.

Question 22.
When do you say there in excess demand and excess supply in the market?
Answer:
In the market, at a given price level if market demand is greater than market supply, then it is called excess demand. In the market, at a given price level if market supply is greater than market demand, then it is called excess supply.

Question 23.
What are the features of simple monopoly in the commodity market?
Answer:
The features of simple monopoly in the commodity market are as follows:

  • Existence of a single producer of a particular commodity
  • No other commodity works as a substitute for this commodity
  • Sufficient restrictions to prevent other firms from entering the market.

Question 24.
Between net investment and capital which is a stock and which is a flow? Compare with the flow of water and a tank.
Answer:
Between net investment and capital, capital is stock and net investment is flow. The stock economic and flow economic variables can be better understood with the help of an example. Suppose a tank is being filled with water coming from a tap.

The amount of water which is flowing into the tank from the tap per minute is the flow. The quantity of water that existed at a particular point of time is considered as stock.

The above example can be compared with net investment and capital. Here, the capital is compared to the water that existed at a particular point of time. The capital is the stock of capital goods existed at a particular period of time.

The net investment is compared to the flow of water into a tank. Here, the net investment is considered as the investment which is made during a year to replace the wear and tear of capital goods.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 25.
Mention the methods of calculating the national income.
Answer:
There are three methods to calculate national income, viz.

  1. The product or value-added method.
  2. Expenditure method.
  3. Income method.

Question 26.
What is the difference between narrow money and broad money?
Answer:
The differences between narrow money and broad money are as follows:
2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 2

Question 27.
Distinguish between direct and indirect taxs.
Answer:
The differences between direct and indirect taxes are as follows:
2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 3

Question 28.
What do you mean by managed floating exchange rate?
Answer:
Undermanaged floating system of exchange rate, the Central Monetary Authority, intervenes to change the exchange rate according to the situations that arise in the foreign exchange market. Here, there is no specific upper and lower limit. It is decided by the Central Bank or government in accordance with the circumstances existing in the country.

Question 29.
How nominal exchange rate is different from real exchange rate?
Answer:
2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 4

PART-C

VI. Answer any seven of the following in fifteen sentences each (7 × 4 = 28)

Question 30.
Briefly explain the central problems of an economy.
Answer:
An economic system or economy is a mechanism where the scarce resources are channelized on priority to produce goods and services. These goods and services produced by all the sectors of the economy determine the national income. Generally, human wants are unlimited and resources to satisfy them are limited.

If there was a perfect match between human wants and availability of resources, there would have been no scarcity, no problem of choice and no economic problems at all. So, one has to select the most essential want to be satisfied with limited resources. In economics, this problem is called ‘problem of choice’.

The problem of choice arising out of limited resources and unlimited wants is called economic problem. Every economy whether developed or underdeveloped, capitalistic or socialistic or mixed economy, there will be three basic economic problems, viz. What to produce? How to produce? and For whom to produce? Let us discuss them in detail.

a. What to produce i.e., what is to be produced and in what quantities?
Every country has to decide which goods are to be produced and in what quantities. Whether more guns should be produced or more foodgrains should be grown or whether more capital goods like machines, tools, etc, should be produced or more consumer goods (electrical goods, daily usable products, etc.) will be produced has to be decided.

What goods to be produced and in what quantity depends on the economic system of the country. In socialistic economy, the government decides and in capitalistic economy market forces decide and in mixed economy, both the government and market forces provide solutions to this problem.

b. How to produce i.e., how are goods produced?
There are various alternative techniques of producing a product. For example, cotton cloth can be produced with either handloom or power looms. Production of cloth with handloom requires more labour and production with power loom need the use of more machines and capital. It involves selection of technology to produce goods and services.

There are two types of techniques of production viz., labor-intensive technology and capital intensive technology.

The society has to decide whether production be based on labor-intensive or capital intensive techniques. Obviously, the choice of technology would depend on the availability of different factors of production (land, labour, capital) and their relative cost (rent, wages, interest).

c. For whom to produce i.e., for whom are the goods to be produced?
Another important decision which an economy has to take is for whom to produce. The economy cannot satisfy all the wants of all the people. Therefore, it has to decide who should get how much of the total output of goods and services. The society has to decide about the shares of different groups of people-poor, middle class and the rich, in the national output.

Thus, every economy faces the problem of allocating the scarce resources to the production of different possible goods and services and of distributing the produced goods and services among the individuals within the economy. The allocation of scarce resources and the distribution of the final goods and services are the central problems of any economy.

Question 31.
Briefly explain the law of demand with the help of linear demand curve.
Answer:
The law can be explained in the following manner, “other things being equal, a fall in price leads to expansion in demand and a rise in price leads to contraction in demand”.

According to Prof. Samuelson, the law of demand states that “people buy more at lower prices and buy less at higher prices, other things remaining the same”.

1. Individual demand schedule:
It is that demand schedule which represents the quantities demanded by an individual consumer at different levels of price.
Individual Demand Schedule

Price (P) (in ₹) Quantity demanded (Qd) (in kg)
3 28
4 24
5 20
6 16
7 12

In the above individual demand schedule, the consumer is purchasing different quantities at different price levels. At ₹3 he buys 28 kgs, at ₹4, 24 kgs are bought and so on. As the price increases, the quantity demanded falls.

2. Demand curve:
The graphical presentation of the demand schedule is called demand curve.
2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 5
In the given diagram, price is measured along OY axis and quantities demanded are measured along OX axis. The various points on the demand line represent respective quantities demanded.

The demand curve slopes downwards from left to right. It shows that the rate at which demand changes with respect to change in price. As there is inverse relationship between price and quantities demanded, the curve is negatively sloped.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 32.
Explain the TP, AP, and MP with examples.
Answer:
1. Total product (TP):
It refers to the aggregate output produced with the help of factor inputs during a particular period of time. It is obtained by adding the marginal product contributed by each input. For example, combination of 2 factors used to produce output is added to find the total product. Suppose factor 2 is fixed at 4 units where factor 2 takes the value of 4 and so on.
TP = ΣMP, where Σ is the summation, MP is marginal product.

2. Average product (AP):
Average product is an unit of output which is produced per unit input. It is calculated by dividing the total product with the help of variable inputs.
AP = \(\frac{\mathrm{TP}}{\mathrm{L}}\) where TP is total product and L is the variable factor input (e.g. labour)
For instance, to produce 50 units of shirts, 5 labourers are used. Here the average product of each variable input, i.e. labour is as follows:
AP = \(\frac{\mathrm{TP}}{\mathrm{L}}\) = 50/5 = 10 units.

3. Marginal product (MP):
Marginal product refers to additional unit of output produced with the help of additional unit of input of labour or capital. In other words, marginal product of an input is defined as the change in output per unit of change in one of the inputs when all the other inputs are held constant. We can calculate MP with the help of following formula:
MP = TPn – TPn-1 or MP = \(\frac{\text { Change in output }(\Delta q)}{\text { Change in input }(\Delta L)}\)
Where, MP is marginal product, TPn is total product of ‘n’ units and TPn-1 is total product of previous unit of output.
For example, if five units of labour one used to produce 25 shirts and 6 labourers are used to produce 28 shirts the marginal product is 3 shirts (28 – 25 = 3).

Question 33.
Briefly explain the production function with the examples.
Answer:
The production function of a firm is a relationship between inputs used and output produced by the firm. For various quantities of inputs used, it gives the maximum quantity of output that can be produced.

The production function gives the maximum quantity of output that can be produced. It is defined for a given technology. It is a technological knowledge that determines the maximum levels of output that can be produced using different combinations of inputs.

The inputs that a firm uses in the production process are called factors of production. In order to produce an output, a firm may require any number of different inputs. However, for the time being, we consider a firm that produces output using only two factors of production labour and capital.

Our production function, therefore, tells us what maximum quantity of output can be produced by using different combinations of these two factors.
We may write the production function as follows:
Q = f(x1, x2) which says that by using x1 amount of factor labour and x2 amount of factor capital, we can atmost produce q amount of the commodity.
This can be explained with the help of following table:
2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 6
In the above table, the left column shows the amount of factor 1 and the top row shows the amount of factor 2. As we move to the right along any row, factor 2 increases and as we move down along any column, factor 1 increases.

For example, with 1 unit of factor 1 (labour) and one unit of factor 2 (capital), the firm can produce at most 1 unit of output only; Similarly, with 2 units of factor 1 and 2 units of factor 2, it can produce at most 10 units of output and so on.

Question 34.
What are the features of a perfect competitive market?
Answer:
Perfect competition is a market where there will be existence of large number of buyers and sellers dealing with homogenous products. It is a market with the highest level of competition.

a. Large number of sellers:
The first condition which a perfectly competitive market must satisfy is concerned with the sellers’ side of the market. The market must have such a large number of sellers that no one seller is able to dominate the market. No single firm can influence the price of any commodity.

The sellers will be the firms producing the product for sale in the market. These firms must be all relatively small as compared to the market as a whole. Their individual outputs should be just a fraction of the total output in the market.

b. Large number of buyers:
There must be such a large number of buyers that no one buyer is able to influence the market price in any way. Each buyer should purchase just a fraction of the market supplies. Further, the buyers should not have any kind of union or association so that they compete for the market demand on an individual basis.

c. Homogeneous products:
Another prerequisite of perfect competition is that all the firms or sellers must sell completely identical or homogeneous goods. Their products must be considered to be identical by all the buyers in the market. There should not be any differentiation of products by sellers by way of quality, colour, design, packing or other selling conditions of the product.

d. Free entry and free exit for firms:
Under perfect competition, there is absolutely no restriction on entry of new firms in the industry or the exit of the firms from the industry which want to leave. This condition must be satisfied especially for long period equilibrium of the industry.

If these four conditions are satisfied, the market is said to be purely competitive. In other words, a market characterized by the presence of these four features is called purely competitive. For a market to be perfect, some conditions of perfection of the market must also be fulfilled.

5. Perfect mobility:
Another feature of perfect competition is that goods and services, as well as resources, are perfectly mobile between firms. Factors of production can freely move from one occupation to another and from one place to another. There is no barrier on their movement. No one has monopoly or control over the factors of production. Goods can be sold at a place where their prices are the highest. There should not be any kind of limitation on the mobility of resources.

6. Absence of transport cost:
For the existence of perfect competition, the transport costs should, not be considered. All the firms have equal access to the market. Price of the product is not affected by the cost of transportation of goods.

7. Single price:
The market price charged by different sellers does not differ due to location of different sellers in the market. No seller is near or distant to any group of buyers.

8. Price taker:
The firms in the perfect competitive market are price takers. That means the producers will continue to sell their goods and services in the price existing in the market. Firms have no control over the price of the product.

9. Absence of selling cost:
Under conditions of perfect competition, there is no need of selling costs. Selling costs are the expenditures done to stimulate the sale of product or to change the shape of the demand curve. We know that under perfect competition, goods are completely homogeneous. When they cannot change the price and when their goods are completely similar, firms need not make any expenditure on publicity and advertisement.

10. Normal profit:
The firms in perfect competition will be earning normal profit. The normal profit is that profit which is just sufficient to stay in the market.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 35.
How does technological progress and unit prices affect the supply curve of a firm?
Answer:
1. Technological progress:
The technological progress, for instance an organizational innovation by a firm, with same levels of capital and labour, leads to more production of output.

The technological progress or organizational innovation allows the firm to use fewer units of inputs.
It is expected that this will lower the firm’s marginal cost at any level of output; that is, there will be shift of MC curve towards right from the original MC curve.

As the firm’s supply curve is the part of rising MC curve, technological progress shifts the supply curve of the firm to the right. At ai?y given market price, the firm supplies more units of output.

2. Input prices:
A change in input prices also affects a firm’s supply curve. If the price of an input increases, the cost of production rises. The consequent increase in the firm’s average cost at any level of output is usually accompanied by an increase in the firm’s marginal cost at any level of output. This means that the firm’s supply curve shifts to the left at any given market price and the firm now supplies fewer units of output.

Question 36.
What are the differences between microeconomics and macroeconomics?
Answer:
The micro and macroeconomics are distinguished on the following grounds:
1. Scope:

  • Microeconomics studies in individual units so its scope is narrow.
  • Macroeconomics studies in aggregates, so its scope is wider.

2. Method of study:

  • The microeconomics follows slicing method as it studies individual unit.
  • The macroeconomics follows lumping method as it studies in aggregates.

3. Economic agents:

  • In microeconomics, each individual economic agent thinks about its own interest and welfare.
  • In macroeconomics, economic agents are different among individual economic agents and their goal is to get maximum welfare of a country.

4. Equilibrium:

  • Microeconomics studies the partial equilibrium in the country.
  • Macroeconomics studies the general equilibrium in the economy.

5. Domain:

  • Microeconomics consists of theories like consumer’s behaviour, production and cost rent, wages, interest, etc.
  • Macroeconomics comprises of theory of income, output, and employment, consumption function, investment function, inflation, etc.

Question 37.
Give the meaning of final goods, consumer goods, capital goods, and intermediate goods.
Answer:
a. Final goods:
The final goods are those goods which are purchased for final utility or usage.
Example for final goods are TV, mobile, sugar, ear, shoes, etc.

b. Intermediate goods:
The intermediate goods are those goods which are produced by one producer and used by another producer to produce final goods. Examples are raw cotton, wood, etc.

c. Consumer goods:
These are the goods which are purchased for consumption. Examples are food, clothes, TV, mobile, sugar, car, shoes, etc.

d. Capital goods:
These are the goods which are used to produce other products. Examples are machinery, tools, roads.

Question 38.
What is a barter system? What are its drawbacks?
Answer:
Exchange of goods for goods is called as barter system. In other words, economic exchanges without the mediation of money are referred to as barter exchanges.

The four major drawbacks of barter system are the following:

1. Lack of double coincidence of wants:
For example, an individual who has a surplus of rice which he wants to exchange for clothing. If he is not lucky enough he may not be able to find another person who has the diametrically opposite demand for rice with a surplus of clothing to offer in exchange.

2. Lack of common measure of value:
Under barter system, it is very difficult to express the value of goods and services accurately. Here, we cannot keep record of any transactions in terms of value of goods and services exchanged.

3. Lack of divisibility:
Sometimes, it is difficult to divide goods and services according to the needs of people. For instance, the value of a horse is less than the value of cow. We cannot apportion any of these during transactions.

4. Difficult to carry forward wealth:
Under barter system, it is difficult to carry forward one’s wealth. Suppose we have an endowment of rice which we do not wish to consume today entirely. We may regard this stock of surplus rice as an asset which we may wish to consume or even sell off for acquiring other commodities at some future date. But rice is a perishable item and cannot be stored beyond a certain period. Also, holding to a big stock of rice requires a lot of space.

Question 39.
What is ‘effective demand’? Explain.
Answer:
If the supply of final goods is assumed to be infinitely elastic at a constant price over a short period of time, aggregate output is determined solely by the value of aggregate demand. This situation is called effective demand. In other words, effective demand refers to a situation in, which equlibrlium output is determined solely by the level of aggregate demand.

This is because of the assumption that the supply is infinitely elastic and if there exists any inequality between aggregate demand and aggregate supply, then the equilibrium output will only be influenced by the aggregate demand and not supply.

The derivation of aggregate demand under fixed price of final goods and constant rate of interest in the economy can be discussed here. In order to hold price constant at any particular level, however, one must assume that the suppliers are willing to supply whatever amount consumers will demand at that price.

If quantity supplied is either in excess of or falls short of quantity demanded at this price, price will change because of excess supply or demand. To avoid this problem, we assume that the elasticity of supply is infinite i.e., supply schedule is horizontal – at the fixed price. Under such circumstances, equilibrium output will be solely determined by the aggregate amount of demand at this price in the economy. This is called effective demand principle.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 40.
Briefly explain the balance of payments surplus and deficit.
Answer:
Balance of payments (BoP) is the record of the transactions in goods, services and assets between residents of a country with the rest of the world for a specified time period typically a year. There are two main accounts in the balance of payments viz., the current account and the capital account.

1. BoP surplus and deficit:
The essence of international payments is that just like an individual who spends more than his her income, must finance the difference by selling assets or by borrowing, a country that has a deficit in its current account must finance it by selling assets or by borrowing abroad.

Similarly, the country could engage in official reserve transactions running down its reserves of foreign exchange in case of a deficit by selling foreign currency in the foreign exchange market.

The increase in the official reserves is called the overall balance of payments surplus and the decrease in official reserves is called balance of payments deficit.

The basic idea is that the monetary authorities are the ultimate financiers of any deficit in the balance of payments (or the recipients of any surplus). The balance of payments deficit or surplus is obtained after adding the current and capital account balances.

Therefore, a country is said to be in equilibrium balance of payments when the sum of its current account and its non-reserve capital account equal to zero. Here, the total value of exports of goods and services is equal to value of imports of goods and services.

PART-D

VII. Answer any four of the following questions in 20 sentences each (4 × 6 = 24)

Question 41.
Explain the changes in the budget set with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
1. Budget set:
Budget set refers to the set-of bundles available to the consumer. It is the collection of all bundles that the consumer can buy with his income at the prevailing market prices.

2. Changes in the budget set:
The set of available bundles depends on the prices of the two goods and the income of the consumer. When the price of either of the goods or die consumer’s income change, the set of available bundles is also likely to change.

a. When the income of consumer changes:
If the consumer’s income changes from M to M’ but the prices of the two goods remain unchanged, with the new income, the consumer can afford to buy all bundles say (x1, x2), such that p1x1 + p2x2 ≤ M’.
Therefore, the equation of the budget line will be:
p1x1 + p2x2 = M’
We should remember that the slope of the new budget line is the same as the slope of the budget line prior to the change in the consumer’s income. However, the vertical intercept changes when there is change in the income of consumer.

If there is an increase in the income, the vertical intercept increases and there will be a parallel outward shift of the budget line. This can be represented in the following diagram.
2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 7
In the above diagram, we see two parallel budget lines M/p2 is the original budget line and M’p2 is new budget line. If the income of consumer increases, the consumer can buy more of the goods X and Y at the prevailing market prices. So the budget line shifts from Mp2 to M’p2.

Similarly, if the income of consumer decreases, the vertical intercept decreases and hence, there is a parallel inward shift of the budget line. This can be represented in the given diagram.
2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 8
In the diagram, we see two parallel budget lines, i.e. M/ p2 is the original budget line and M’p2 is new budget line. If the income of consumer decreases the availability of goods X and Y goes down. So the budget line shifts from Mp2 to M’p2.

b. When the price changes:
If the price of good X changes from p1 to p’1 but the price of good Y and the consumer’s income remain unchanged, the consumer can afford to buy all bundles (x1, X2) such that p’1x1 + p2x2 ≤ M. Therefore, the equation of the budget line will be:
p’1x1+P2x2 = M
We should remember that the vertical intercept of the new budget line is the same as the vertical intercept of the budget line prior to the change in the price of good X. But, the slope of the budget line changes after the change in the price.

  • If the price of good X increases, the absolute value of the slope of budget line increases and the budget line becomes steeper (inward shift). It shows the consumer cannot afford the same quantity of good X. This can be represented in the given diagram.
    2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 9
    In the diagram, M/p1 is the original budget line and M/p’1 is the new budget line which denotes that the consumer cannot afford to buy same quantity of good x due to its rise in price.

If the price of good X decreases, the absolute value of Y the slope of budget line decreases and the budget line becomes flatter (outward shift). It shows the consumer can now afford more quantity of good X. This can be represented in the given diagram.
2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 10
In the diagram, M/p1 is the original budget line and M/p’1 is the new budget line which denotes that the consumer can afford to buy more quantity of good x due to its fall in price.

Question 42.
Explain market equilibrium with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
The process of determination of price by supply and demand forces is called price mechanism and the same has been called as ‘invisible hand’ by Prof. Adam Smith.

Perfect competitive market is that market where we can see large number of sellers and buyers deal¬ing with homogenous goods. Every firm is a price taker as it cannot influence the price in the market.

1. Equilibrium in perfect competitive market:
Equilibrium is a position from which there will not be a tendency to move or change in any direction. At equilibrium price, the quantity demanded and supplied would be equal. According to Alfred Mar-shall, both supply and demand are equally important in determining the price of a product.

Marshall has compared the supply and demand to the two blades of a scissors. Neither the upper blade nor the lower blade alone cuts the paper but both are required to do the task of cutting a paper. So, both supply and demand play an important role in determining the price of a product.

The equilibrium in perfect market is determined by the forces of market demand and market supply. Market demand is the aggregate demand and market supply is the aggregate supply. The market demand curve slopes downwards from left to right and the market supply curve slopes upwards. The point of intersection between the demand and supply curve determines the equilibrium price. This can be illustrated with the help of the following table.

Price of Rice (₹) Quantity Demanded (Tons) Quantity Supplied (Tons)
1000 100 10
2000 90 30
3000 70 70
4000 60 90
5000 50 100

In the table, it is shown that the price of rice per quintal is ₹1000 and the quantity demanded is equal to 100 tons and the supply is 10 tons. When price increases to ₹2000, the demand becomes 90 tonnes and supply increases to 30 tons.

When the price reaches ₹3000, the quantity supplied and demanded are same. Therefore, ₹3000 is the equilibrium price and 70 tons of rice is equilibrium quantity. This can be represented in the following diagram.
2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 11
In the above diagram, quantity is measured along OX axis and price is measured along OY axis. OP is the original price and OQ is the original quantity. When price in case of OP2 the quantities demanded will be OQ1 and supplied will be OQ2. Here, the quantity supplied is greater than quantity demanded. This excess supply leads to reduction of price to original level.

When price falls from OP to OP1, the quantity demanded will be OQ2 and quantity supplied will be OQ1. Here, the quantity demanded is more than the quantity supplied. This excess demand makes the price to rise to the original price level.

Thus, the equilibrium of price is attained at point E where the aggregate demand is equal to aggregate supply.

Question 43.
How do firms behave in oligopoly? Explain.
Answer:
Oligopoly is one of the non-competitive markets where the market of a particular commodity consists of more than one seller but the number of sellers is few. The special case of oligopoly where there are exactly two sellers is termed duopoly.

Under oligopoly market there are only a few firms. The output decisions of any one firm would necessarily affect the market price and therefore the amount sold by the other firms. It is, therefore, only to be expected that other firms would react to protect their profits. This reaction would be through taking fresh decisions about the quantity and price of their own output. There are various ways in which this can be theorized. They are as follows:

1. Firstly, duopoly firms may collude together and decide not to compete with each other and maximize total profits of the two firms together. In such a case, the two firms would behave like a single monopoly firm that has two different factories producing the commodity.

2. Secondly, take the case of a duopoly where each of the two firms decides how much quantity to produce by maximizing its own profit assuming that the other firm would not change the quantity that it is supplying.

3. Thirdly, some economists argue that oligopoly market structure makes the market price of the commodity rigid, i.e., the market price does not move freely in response to changes in demand. The reason for this lies in the way in which oligopoly firms react to a change in price initiated by any one firm.

If one firm feels that a price increase would generate higher profits and therefore increases the price at which it sells its output, other firms do not follow. The price increase would, therefore, lead to a huge fall in the quantity sold by the firm leading to fall in its revenue and profit. It is therefore not rational for any firm to arbitrarily increase the price.

Similarly, if a firm estimates that it could earn a larger revenue and profit by selling a larger quantity of output and therefore lowers the price at which it sells the commodity, other, firms would perceive this action as a threat and therefore follow the first firm and lower their price as well.

The increase in the total quantity sold due to the lowering of price is therefore shared by all the firms and the firm that had initially lowered the price is able to achieve only a small increase in the quantity it sells. A relatively large lowering of price by the first firm leads to a relatively small increase in the quantity sold.

Therefore, any firm finds it irrational to change the prevailing price, leading to prices that are more rigid compared to perfect competition.

Question 44.
Write down some of the limitations of using GDP as an index of welfare of a country.
Answer:
Gross domestic product (GDP) is the sum total of value of goods and services created within the geographical boundary of a country in a particular year, dt gets distributed among’the people as incomes except retained earnings. So we consider that higher level of GDP of a country is an index of greater well being of the people of that country.

Welfare of a country means the well being of entire population of the country. But there are certain limitations of using GDP as an index of welfare of a country. They are as follows:

a. Distribution of gross domestic product (GDP):
Generally, the rise in GDP will not represent increase in the welfare of the country. If the GDP of the country is rising, the welfare may not rise as a consequence. This is because the rise in gross domestic product may be concentrated in the hands of only a few individuals or firms. For the remaining, the income may in fact might have decreased. In such a situation, the welfare of the entire country cannot be said to have improved.

b. Non-monetary exchanges:
Some of the activities in a country are not evaluated in terms of. money. For instance, the domestic services of housewife are pot paid for. The-exchanges which take place in the informal sector without the help of money are called barter exchanges. In barter exchanges, goods are directly exchanged against each other.

As money is not used here, these exchanges are not registered as part of economic activity. In India, because of many remote areas, these kinds of exchanges still take place and they are generally not counted in the GDP. Therefore, gross domestic product calculated in the standard manner may not give us a clear indication of welfare of a country.

c. Externalities:
An externality is a cost or benefit conferred upon second or third parties as a result of acts of individual production and consumption. In other words, externalities refer to the benefits or harms, a firm or an individual causes to another for which they are not paid or penalized.

These do not have any market in which they can be bought and sold. But the cost or benefit of an externality cannot be measured in money terms because it is not included in market activities. For example, the pleasure one gets from his neighbour’s garden is an external benefit and external cost is environmental pollution caused by industries. Both are excluded from na¬tional income estimates.

d. Leisure and work:
One of the important things that affect the welfare of a society is leisure. But this is not included in GDP. For example, longer working hours may make people unhappy because their leisure is reduced. On the contrary, shorter working hours per week may increase leisure and make people happy.

e. Manner of production:
The economic welfare also depends on the manner of production of goods and services. If goods are produced by child labour or by exploitation of workers, then the economic welfare cannot increase.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 45.
Explain the functions of money and how does it overcome the shortcomings of a barter system?
Answer:
The functions of money are broadly classified as follows:

  1. Primary functions
  2. Secondary functions
  3. Contingent functions.

1. Primary functions: The primary functions of money are as follows:

a. Medium of exchange:
Money plays an important role as a medium of exchange. It facilitates exchange of goods for money. It has solved the problems of barter system. Barter exchanges become extremely difficult in a large economy because of the high costs people would have to incur looking for suitable persons to exchange their surpluses.

It helps the people to sell in one place and buy in another place. Money has widened the scope of market transactions. Money has become a circulating material between buyers and sellers.

b. Measure of value:
The money acts as a common measure of value. The values of all goods and services can be expressed in terms of money. As a measure of value, money performs following functions:

  • The value of all goods and services measured and expressed in terms of the money.
  • Rate of exchange of goods and services expressed in money.
  • Facilitates the maintenance of accounts.
  • It facilitates price mechanism.
  • It makes goods and services comparable in terms of price.

For instance, when we say that the value of a book is ₹500, we mean that the book can be exchanged for 500 units of money where a unit of money is rupee in this case. If the price of a pencil is ₹5 and that of a pen is ₹10, we can calculate the relative price of a pen with respect to a pencil i.e., a pen is worth 10/5 = 2 pencils.

2. Secondary functions: The secondary functions of money are as follows:

a. Store of value:
People can save part of their present income and hold the same for future. Money can be stored for precautionary motives needed to overcome financial stringencies. Money solves one of the deficiencies of barter system i.e., difficulty to carry forward one’s wealth under the barter system.

For instance, we have an endowment of wheat which we do not wish to consume today entirely. We may regard this stock of surplus wheat as an asset which we may wish to consume or even sell-off, for acquiring other commodities at some future date. But wheat is a perishable item and cannot be stored beyond a certain period.

Also, holding a large stock of wheat requires a lot of space. We may have to spend considerable time and resources looking for people with a demand for wheat when we wish to exchange our stock for buying other commodities. This problem can be solved if we sell our wheat for money. Money is not perishable land its storage costs are also less.

b. Standard of deferred payments:
All the credit transactions are expressed in terms of money. The payment can be delayed or postponed. So, money can be used for delayed settlement of dues or financial commitments.

c. Transfer of value:
Money acts as a transfer of value from person to person and from place to place. As a transfer of value, money helps us to buy goods, properties or anything from any part of the country or the world. Further, money earned in different places can be brought or transferred to anywhere in the world.

3. Contingent functions of money:
Other than primary and secondary functions, money also performs other functions which are as follows:

a. Basis of credit:
Money serves as a basis of the credit. The modem credit system exists only because of existence of money.

b. Distribution of national income:
Money helps in distribution of national income. The reward paid to factors of production in the form of rent, wages, interest and profit are nothing but the distribution of national income at factor prices.

c. Provides liquidity and uniformity:
Money provides liquidity to all kinds of assets both moveable and immovable. Money can be. converted into any type of asset and all assets can be converted into money.

d. Helps, in consumers’ and producers’ equilibrium:
All goods and services are expressed in terms of money. The consumer attains equilibrium when the price of a product is equal to his marginal utility. Similarly, the producers reach equilibrium if they get maximum satisfaction. Both consumers and producers try to achieve equilibrium with the help of money.

Question 46.
Explain the revenue account and revenue expenditure of the central government.
Answer:
The revenue account of central government consists of revenue receipts and revenue expenditure.
The revenue account of the government budget consists of the following divisions:
2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 12
The revenue account of the government consists of two categories viz., revenue receipts and revenue expenditure.

I. Revenue receipts:
The revenue receipts refer to revenue earned by the government from both tax and non-tax sources.

a. Tax revenue:
It is one of the main sources of revenue to the government. Tax is a compulsory payment made by the people to the government without expecting any direct bene¬fits from the government. Tax revenue can be classified as direct tax and indirect tax.

1. Direct tax:
The direct tax is the tax levied by the government which cannot be shifted by the person on whom it is .levied. Here, the impact and incidence of tax will be on the same person. This tax is levied on the income and wealth of the people. Personnel income tax, wealth tax, interest tax, expenditure tax are some examples.

2. Indirect tax:
It is the tax levied on goods and services paid indirectly by the consumers. The impact and incidence of tax will be on different people. Indirect tax is the large source of revenue to the government. The various sources of indirect tax are central excise duties, custom duties, etc.

b. Non-tax revenue:
The revenue collected from sources other than the tax revenue is called non-tax revenue. It consists of:

  • Income from public enterprises
  • Income from receipts
  • Revenue from administration
  • Income from railways.

II. Revenue expenditure:
The revenue expenditure of government is that expenditure incurred out of its current revenue receipts. These expenses are made by the government on its various departments and services, interest payments on public debt, subsidies, etc. The revenue expenditure is classified as follows:

a. Plan revenue expenditure:
The plan revenue expenditure is that expenditure spent by the government on implementation of economic schemes, financial assistance to local governments.

b. Non-plan expenditure: This type of expenditure is related to the expenses incurred on internal and external securities like defiance forces, law, and order, subsidies, civil administration, etc.

Question 47.
How is the exchange rate determined under a flexible exchange rate regime?
Answer:
Under flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined by the forces of market demand and market supply. Here, the central banks do not intervene in the foreign exchange market.
2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 13.
In the given diagram, demand and supply of currency is measured along OX axis and rate of exchange is measured along OY axis. D is demand curve and S is the supply curve. The demand and supply curves of foreign exchange have intersected at point E where the exchange rate (R) is determined.

If the rate of exchange increases from OR to OR1, the supply of foreign currency exceeds its demand causing decrease in rate of exchange. On the other hand, if the exchange rate decreases from OR to OR2, the demand for foreign currency exceeds the supply of foreign currency which leads to increase in rate of exchange later.

PART-E

VIII. Answer any two of the following project-oriented questions (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 48.
A consumer wants to consume two goods. The price of good 1 is ₹4 and the price of good 2 is ₹5. The consumer has ₹20 only.

  1. Write down the equation of the budget line.
  2. How much of good 1 can the consumer consume, if she spends, her entire income on that good?
  3. How much of good 2 can the consumer consume if she spends her entire income on that good?
  4. Write the slope of the budget line (draw the budget line).

Answer:
1. We know that P1 = 4, P2= 5 and M = 20; then the equation of the budget line will be p1x1 + p2p2 = M.
By substituting devalues we get
4x1 + 5x2= 20.

2. If ₹20 is entirely spent on good 1, then
4x1 + 5(0) = 20
4x1 = 20
x1 = 20/4 = 5
The consumer can consume 5 units of good 1.

3. If  ₹20 is entirely spent on good 2, then
4(0) + 5 x2 = 20
5 x2 = 20
x2 = 20/5 = 4
The consumer can consume 4 units of good 2

4. The slope of budget line is \(\frac{-P_{1}}{P_{2}}\)
That is price of good 1 divided by price of good 2.
Therefore,
-4/5 = -0.8
2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 14
To sum up:

  1. Equation of budget line: p1x1 + p2p2 = M. By substituting the values we get 4x1 + 5x2 = 20.
  2. The consumer can consume 5 units of good 1 (20/4).
  3. The consumer can consume 4 units of good 2 (20/5).
  4. The slope of the budget line is downward sloping from left to right.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 49.
From the following data, calculate personal income and personal disposable income.
2nd PUC EconomicsModel Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 15
Answer:
Personal income = Net domestic product at factor cost + Net factor income from abroad + (Interest received by households – Interest paid by households) + Transfer income – Corporate tax – Undis-bursed profit.
Therefore, PI = 8000+ 200+ (1500-1200)+ 300-500-1000.
= 8000 + 200 + 300 + 300 – 500- 1000 = 7300
Personal disposable income = Personal income – Personal tax
Therefore, PDI = 7300-500 = 6800.

Question 50.
Write the currencies of any five countries given below. India, USA, UK, Germany, Japan, China, Argentina, UAE, Bangladesh, Russia.
Answer:

Countries Currency
India Indian Rupee
USA US Dollars
UK British Pound
Germany Euro
Japan Japanese Yen
China Chinese Yuan
Argentina Argentine Peso
UAE UAE Dirham
Bangladesh Bangladeshi Taka
Russia Russian Ruble/Rouble

2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2016

Students can Download 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2016, Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2016

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Section-A

1. Answer any TEN of the following questions : (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
What is ‘Longevity’?
Answer:
Life expectancy of new born baby is called ‘longevity’.

Question 2.
Theoretically which is the best average for the construction on index numbers?
Answer:
Geometric mean (G. M).

Question 3.
Which weights are used in the construction of Paasche’s price index number?
Answer:
Current year quantity (q1).

Question 4.
What is ‘Time series’?
Answer:
Chronological arrangement of statistical data according to time is called ‘Time series’.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Write the relation between mean and variance of Binomial distribution.
Answer:
Mean > Variance i.e., np > npq

Question 6.
If variance of Chi-square distribution is 10, find its mean.
Answer:
Variance = 2n = 10; Mean = n; ∴ n = \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 }\) = 5

Question 7.
Define ‘parameter’ in testing of hypothesis.
Answer:
Statistical constants of the population such as Mean – μ, S.D – σ are called ‘Parameters’.

Question 8.
Define sampling distribution of a Statistic.
Answer:
It is the distribution of the values of a statistic for different samples of same size.

Question 9.
What is an‘Estimator’?
Answer:
The statistic used to esimate the population parameter is an ‘Estimator’.

Question 10.
Which type of variations cannot be detected by Statistical Quality Control (SQC)?
Answer:
‘Chance causes’ of variation.

Question 11.
What is a ‘Saddle point’ in a game?
Answer:
If is the position where maximin-minimax coincide.

Question 12.
What is ‘carrying cost’ in an inventory?
Answer:
It is the cost associated with carrying or holding the goods instock until the goods are sold or used, denoted by ‘C1

Section – B

II. Answer any TEN of the following questions: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 13.
In a village 2400 live births occured in a year. The number of infant deaths was 60. Calculate infant mortality rate.
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 1
I.M.R = \(\frac { 64 }{ 2400 }\) × 1000 = 25

Question 14.
Write any two considerations for the selection of base year in the construction of an Index number.
Answer:

  1. It should be economically stable.
  2. It should not be too long or too short in distance.

Question 15.
If Σp0q0 = 250, Σp1q1 = 310, Σp1q0 = 210, and Σp0q1, = 250, find p01(DB).
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 2
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)(0.84+1.24) × 100 = \(\frac { 2.08 }{ 2 }\) × 100 = 104 2 2

Question 16.
Write any two demerits of least square method.
Answer:

  1. The procedure of calculation is difficult.
  2. If one of the value is added or removed,’ whole procedure has to be repeated.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 17.
Define ‘Interpolation’ and ‘Extrapolation’.
Answer:
‘Interpolation’ is the technique of estimating the value of dependent variable (y) for any intermediate value of the independent variable (x).

‘Extrapolation’ is the technique of estimating the value of dependent variable (y) for any value of independent variable (x) which is outside the given series.

Question 18.
If q = 0.4 for a Bernoulli distribution, find mean and variance of the distribution.
Answer:
If q = 0.4; ∴ p = 1 – q = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6, Mean = p = 0.6 Variance = pq = 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.24

Question 19.
Under what conditions does the Hypergeomctric distribution tends to Binomial distribution?
Answer:
Hypergeometric when
(i) (a + b) is very large i.e., (a + b) → ∞ and
2.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 3

Question 20.
A random sample of size 36 is drawn from a population whose standard deviations is 4, Compute standard error of the sample mean.
Answer:
Given: n = 36, σ = 4, S.E(X̄) =\(\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}=\frac{4}{\sqrt{36}}=\frac{4}{6}\) = 0.67

Question 21.
Define ‘Type-I Error and ‘Type-II Error’.
Answer:
‘Type 1 error’ is taking a wrong decision to reject the null-hypothesis when it is actually true. ‘Type II error’ is taking a wrong decision to accept the null hypothesis when it is actually not true.

Question 22.
Mention any two advantages of ‘Acceptance Sampling Plan’,
Answer:
Advantages of acceptance sampling are:-

  1. This method is more suitable when the items are of destructive in nature.
  2. It is less expensive, required few staff as compared to 100 inspection.

Question 23.
Given R = 1800/year, C3 = 300, C,1 = ₹2/Unit/year, find the optimum lot size of an inventory.
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 4

Question 24.
Using Maxima-Minimax principle, find the value of the following game.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 5
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 6
By maximin – minima x principle

  1. Maximin (∝)-minimum pay-off in each row is circled
  2. Minimax (β)-maximum pay-off in each column is boxed.
  3. Saddle point is at (1, 3); ∴ V = 3 is the value of the game.

KSEEB Solutions

Section – C

III. Answer any EIGHT of the following questions : (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 25.
For the following data compute:
(i) General Fertility Rate
(ii) ASFRs for the age groups 15-19 years and 25-39 years
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 7
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 8

Question 26.
Calculate ‘Simple geometric mean price index number* for the following data:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 9
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 10

Question 27.
Explain the steps involved in the construction of ‘Consumer price index number’.
Answer:
Following are the steps involved in the construction of consumer price index number.
1. Object and scope: The purpose/object is decide for which the index number being constructed as to Farmers, Govt, employes, merchants etc and the scope i.e., geographical area, income group, the time limit for the completion of construction of index number should be decided.

2. Conducting family budget survey: A detailed survey regarding the average expenditure of the families, on various items of consumption, quality/grade of items under the heads of

  • Food
  • Clothing
  • Housing
  • Fuel and lights
  • Medicine, Education entertainment and
  • Miscellaneous are conducted.

3. Obtaining the price quotation: The price list of various items/commodities of current year and base year are obtained from different agencies such as from marketing inspectors, rent control officers, super bazars, Janatha bazars or public distribution system of retail prices are obtained or averaging the prices of various shops in the respective area.

4. Methods of construction: Decision has to be made on the basis of purpose, accuracy need and the availability of data, among

  1. Aggregative expenditure method
  2. Family budget method.

Question 28.
Compute five yearly moving averages for the following data :
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 11
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 12
5YMT – 5 yearly moving total 5YMA – 5 yearly moving average.

Question 29.
‘Interpolate’ and ‘Extrapolate’ the sales for the years 2013 and 2016 for the following data:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 13
Answer:
Let X and Y be the year and sales 1000’s
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 14
Here the number of known values n = 4
The Binomial expanssion (y – 1)4 = 0
i.e ., y4 – 4y3 + 6y2 – 4y41 + yo=0 ______(1)
and increase the suffixes ofy in equation (1)
We get y5 – 4y4 + 6y3 – 4y2 + y1 = 0 _______(2)
From equation (1) be substuting values ofy’s
We get 54 – 4 (40) + 6y2 – 4(18) +10 = 0
54- 160 + 6y2 – 72 + 10 = 0
∴ 6y2 – 168 = 0
∴ y4 = \(\frac { 168 }{ 6 }\) = 28(000’s)
Similarly from (2) by substituting values We get
y5 – 4(54) + 6(40) – 4(28) + 18 = 0
y5-216 + 240- 112+ 18 = 0
y5 – 70 = 0; ∴ y5 = 70(000’s).

Question 30.
The probability of a thermometer manufactured by a firm found to be defective is 0.02. Find the probability that a box containing 50 thermometers contain no defective ones. Among 100 such boxes, how many contain exactly 2 defective thermometers?
Answer:
Let X be the number of defective thermometers is a Binomial Variate with the parameters n = 50, P = 0.02. Here ‘n’ is large and ‘p’ is very small, under these conditions tends to Poisson distribution with mean λ = np = 50 × 0.02 = 1
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 15
No. of boxes contain exactly 2 defective thermometers = p(x = 2) x N(= 1000)
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 16

KSEEB Solutions

Question 31.
Mean and variance of normal distribution are 20 and 9 respectively. Find Q,, Q2 and
Answer:
Mean = μ = 20, variance = σ2 = 9. ∴ σ = 3.
Weknow that Q1 = μ – 0.6745 σ = 20 – (0.6745 × 3) = 17.9765 = 18. For a Normal distribution: Q3 = μ + 0.6745 σ = 20. + (0.6745 × 3) = 22.02 = 22
And θ2/ p = Median = mode = 20 = θ2.

Question 32.
From the following data, test whether there is any significant difference in I.Q of boys and I .Q. of girls at a = 5%.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 17
Answer:
Given: n1 =4, n2 = 36, x̄1 = 125, x̄2 = 128, S1 = 5 and S2 = 3
H0: There is no significant difference in I.Q. of boy and girls (i.e., μ1 = μ2)
H1: There is a significant difference in I.Q. of boys and girls (i.e., μ1 ≠ μ2) {Two tailed test}
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 18
Under H0, the test statistic is:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 19
At α = 5% the two tail critical values are ±k = ±1.96
Here zcal lies in rejection region.
∴ H0 is rejected and H1 is accepted.
Conclusion: There is a significant difference in I.Q. of boys and girls (i.e.,μ1 ≠ μ2).

Question 33.
To test the effectiveness of vaccination against Tuberculosis, the following table was obtained.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 20
Test at 1% level of significance whether vaccination and attack of Tuberculosis are independent.
Answer:
χ2 – Test for attributes:
H0: Vaccination and attack of T.B. are independent.
H1 : Vaccination and attack of T.B. are deperdent. {Upper tail test}
The given data can be written in a 2 × 2 – contingency table as below:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 21
Under H0, the χ2 – test statistic is:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 22
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 23
At α = 1% for l.d.f the upper tail critical value k2 = 6.63.
Here χ2cal lies rejection region
∴ H0 is rejected and H1 is accepted.
Conclusion: Vaccination and attack of T.B. are dependent.

Question 34.
Calculate control limits for R-chart for the following data given n = 5.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 24
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 25
Standard not known; the control limits are:-
C.L = R̄ = 5; L.C.L = D3R̄ = 0 × 5 = 0; U.C.L = D4R̄ = 2.115 × 5 = 10.575
Here table constants for n = 5; D3 = 0, D4 = 2.115

Question 35.
A manufacturer produces 2 products – A and B which needs two machines M1 and M2. Product A requires 10 hours on machine M1 and 4 hours on machine M2. Product B requires 7 hours on machine M1 and 5 hours on machine M2. There are 250 hours of time available on machine M1, and 300 hours on machine M2. Profit earned by the manufacturer on selling one unit of A is ₹ 50 and on selling one unit of B is ₹ 45. Formulate LPP.
Answer:
The given data can be written in the following table as bellow:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 26
From the above table, the L.P.P is:
Maximize Z = 50x + 45y
Subject to constaints, 10x + 7y ≤ 250
4x + 5y < 300 and
Non-negativity restrictions x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0y.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 36.
The purchase cost of vehicle is ?50,000 and its resale value is ? 15,000. The maintenance costs in different years are as follows:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 27
Find the optimal replacement period of the vehicle.
Answer:
Given: P = 50,000. Sn = 15,000, Depreiation: (P – Sn) = (50,000 – 15000) = 35000
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 28
From the above the annual average maintenance cost is minimum for n = 4, is the optimum period for replacement of the vehicle.

Section – D

IV. Answer any two of the following questions: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 37.
From the following data, compute the standardized death rates for locality A and locality B and comment.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 29
Answer:
Since locality B is taken as standard, so compute CDR for locality B and S.D.R for locality A.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 30
= \(\frac { 370 }{ 32,000 }\) × 1000 = 11.5625 Deaths/1000 population/year of town B
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 31
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 32
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 33
A.S.D.R.(0 – 4) = \(\frac { 120 }{ 6000 }\) x 1000 = 20, similarlly A.S.D.Rs can be calculated for other age groups.
S.D.R (A) = \(\frac { 52,8000 }{ 32,000 }\) = 16.5 Deaths/1000 population/year of town A
Here S.D.R. (B) < S.D.R. (A) so, locality B is more healthier than locality A.

Question 38.
From the following data, compute
(i) Laspeyer’s quantity index number.
(ii) Show that Fisher’s index number satisfies Factor Reversal Test (FRT).
nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 34
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 35
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 36
Items 2012 2013
Hence Fisher’s index number satisfies (F.R.T.) Factor reversal Test.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 39.
Fit an equation of the type Y = a + bx for the following data and obtain trend values. Estimate the profit for the year 2016.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 37
Answer:
Let x and y be the year and profit
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 38
Here X̄ = 2012
From the normal equation: na + b Σx = Ey, Since Σx = 0 a =\(\frac{\Sigma y}{n}=\frac{376}{5}\)=75.2
and from : aΣx + bΣ2 = Σxy ; b = \(\frac{\Sigma x y}{\Sigma x^{2}}=\frac{95}{10}\) = 9.5
The fitted straight line trend equation is:
y = a + bx; ŷ = 75.2 + 9.5x .
Trend values: ŷ(2010) = 75.2 + 9.5(-2) = 56.2
ŷ (2011) = 75.2 + 9.5(-l) = 65.7; ŷ(2012) = 75.2 + 9.5(0) = 75.2
ŷ(2013) = 75.2 + 9.5(1) = 84.7, ŷ(2014) = 75.2 + 9.5(2) = 94.2
Estimation for 2016: ŷ(2016) = 75.2 + 9.5(4) = 75.2 + 36 = ₹ 113.2 lakh profit

Question 40.
Fit a Binomial distribution for the following data and test at 5% level of significance that binomial distribution is a good fit.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 39
Answer:
Let x be the number of defective items is a Binominal variate with the n = 5, and ‘p’ is obtained as below : let f be the no of samples.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 40
5p =\(\frac { 300 }{ 100 }\) = 3
p = 0.6 and q= 1 – p = 1- 0.6 = 0.4
Then the p.m.f is: p(x) = nCx pxqn – x, x = 0,1, 2-n
p(x) = 5CX (0.6)x (0.4)5 – x, x = 0,1, 2 5
Theoretical frequency / Expected frequency : Tx =p(x) N
T0 = p (x = 0) 100 = 510 (0.6)0 (0.4)5-0 × 100 = 1.024 = 1
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 41
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 42
The fitted observed theoretical frequency distribution is:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 43
χ2 -TEST: H0: Binomial distribution is good fit (i.e; 0i = Ei)
H1: Binomial distribution is not a good fit (i.e; 0i ≠ Ei ) upper tail test
Under H0, the χ2-test statistic is:-
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 44
Here ‘p’ is estimated from the data and of freedom will be (n – 1 – 1) = (n – 2)
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 45
∴ χcal2 = 9.743
At α = 5% for (n – 2) = (5 – 2) =3d.f
The upper tail critical value k2 = 7.31
Here χcal lies in rejection region
∴ H is rejected and H1 is accepted
Conclusion: Binomial distribution is not good fit (0i ≠ Ei).
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 46

Section – E

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions: (2 × 5= 10)

Question 41.
Heights of PU students is normally distributed with mean 155cm. and standard deviation 5cm. find the
(i) Probability that a randomly selected PU student has height more than 155cm
(ii) Percentage of PU students having height between 150 cm and 160 cm.
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 47
Let be heights is a normal variate with the mean μ = 155 and S.D σ = 5, then the S.N.V
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 48
= Area from 0 to ∞ = 0.5
No of Workers = 0.8413 × 5000 = 4206.5

2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 49
= Area from (-) to ‘1’ = 0.8413 – 0.1587 = 0.6826
The required percentage = 0.6826 × 100 =68.26%

KSEEB Solutions

Question 42.
A machine produced 6 defective articles among 50 articles. Test whether the proportion of defective articles is less than 10% (use a = 5%)
Answer:
Given: (for test for preportion) x = 6, n = 50
∴ The sample proportion : P = \(\frac{x}{n}=\frac{6}{50}\) = 0.12
Population proportion : P0 =10% = 0.1 and α = 5%
H0: Proportion of defective articles is 10% (i.e. P0 = 0.1)
H1 : Proportion of defective articles is less than 10% (i.e., P0 < 0.1) {Lower tail test}
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 50
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 52
At α = 5% the lower tail critical value -k = – 1.65
Here Zcal lies in rejection region
∴ H0 is accepted.
Conclussion: Proportion of defective articles is 10% (i.e., P0 = 0.1)

Question 43.
Following data gives the readings of sugar level of 5 diabetic patients before and after taking insulin.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 51
Using 1% level of significance, test whether insulin has reduced sugar level in patients.
Answer:
Given: for paired t – test: n = 5, let x and y be the sugar level before and after taking insulin
H0: Mean sugar level is same before and after taking insulin (i.e., µ1 = µ2)
H1 : Mean sugar level is less / reduced after taking insulin (µ1 = µ2) (upper tail test)
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 53
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 54
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 55
At α = 1% for (n-1) = (5 – 1) = 4 d.f the upper tail critical value k = 3.75 Here tcaI lies in acceptance region
∴ H0 is accepted.
Conclusion: Sugar level is same before and after taking insulin (µ1 = µ2).

Question 44.
For the following transportation problem, obtain an initial basic feasible solution using North-west Corner rule. Also find transportation cost.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 56
Answer:
Let ai and bj be supply and demanced , then the T.P is :
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 57
Here Σai = Σbj = 650 T.P is balanced
By N.W.C.R first allocation is made at(1, 1) cell as : X11 = min (200, 100) =100
Similarly all allocations can be made
The suggested initial basic peasible solution (I.B. F.S) and total transportation cost is
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper june 2016 - 58

2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2016

Students can Download 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2016, Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2016

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Section-A

I. Answer any TEN of the following questions: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
What is a life table?
Answer:
Life table is a tabular presentation of numerical data describing the mortality experience of a cohort.

Question 2.
Define an ‘Index number’.
Answer:
Index number is a statistical measure, designed to show an average change in a variable or group of related variables with respect to time, geographical area or income group etc.

Question 3.
Write the formula for computing Marshall-Edgeworth’s quantity Index number.
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 1

Question 4.
What is a histogram?
Answer:
The graph of actual values of time series is called Histogram.

Question 5.
What are the values that a Bernoulli variate can take?
Answer:
0,1.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Name the distribution for which standard deviation and variance are equal.
Answer:
Standard Normal distribution.

Question 7.
What is confidence coefficient?
Answer:
The probabilty that the confidence interval contains the parameter is called confidence coefficient (1 – α).

Question 8.
Define critical region.
Answer:
The set of all those values of the test statistic, which leads to the rejection of the bull hypothesis, is called critical region (w).

Question 9.
Write the degrees of freedom while testing independence of attributes in a 2 x 2 contingency table.
Answer:
1 degrees of freedom.

Question 10.
What is chance cause of variation?
Answer:
A small amount of variation for which no specific cause can be observed in the quality of the product, this variation is called as ‘chance causes’.

Question 11.
Define ‘Solution’ in an LPP.
Answer:
A set of real value X = (x1,x2,……….xn), which satisfies the constraints A X(≤ = ≥)b, is called a solution.

Question 12.
What is a two-person zero sum game?
Answer:
In a game of two players, the gain of one player is the loss of the other is called two – person zero – sum game.

Section – B

II. Answer any TEN of the following questions : (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 13.
There was a reord of 4000 live births in a city in a year. The number of neonatal deaths was 100. Calculate the neonatal mortality rate.
Answer:
Neo-natal mortality rate. (N. M. R)
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 2
N.M.R = \(\frac { 100 }{ 4000 }\) × 1000 = 25.

Question 14.
Write any two limitations of index numbers.
Answer:

  • Many formulae are ased and they give different answers for the index.
  • As the customs and habits change from time to time, the uses of commodities also vary.

Question 15.
If PL01 = 105 and PP01 = 125, then find PDB01.
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 3

Question 16.
Mention all the components of a time series.
Answer:

  • Secular trend
  • Seasonal variation
  • Cyclical variation
  • Irregular/Random variation.

Question 17.
Define interpolation and extrapolation.
Answer:
‘Interpolation’ is the technique of estimating the value of the dependent variable (Y) for any intermediate value of the independent variables (X). Extrapolation is the technique of estimating the value of dependent variable (Y) for any value of the independent variable (X) which is outside the range of the given series.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 18.
For a chi-square variate with 9 degrees of freedom, obtain mean and mode of the distribution.
Answer:
Given : n = 9; Mean = n = 9; Mode = (n – 2) = 9 – 2 = 7.

Question 19.
Write the values of β1, and β2 in a t-distribution.
Answer:
For a t-distribution β1, = 0 (Non – skewed) and β2 > 3 (Lepto Kurtic).

Question 20.
Compute SE(p1 – p2), given n1 = 80, n2 = 40, P1 = 0.8 and P2 = 0.4
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 4
Here P1= P01 ; P2 = P02 and Q01 = 1 – P01 = 1 – 0.8 = 0.2, Q02 = 1 – P02 = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 5

Question 21.
Define Null and Alternative hypothesis.
Answer:
Null hypothesis is a hypothesis, which is being tested for possible rejection, assuming that it is true. (H0) null hypothesis is rejected, is called alternative hypothesis (H1).

Question 22.
Compute the lower and upper control limits for X̄-chart when X̄1 =40, σ1 = 6 and A = 1.342
Answer:
L.C.L = X̄1 – Aσ1 = 40 – (1.342 × 6) = 31.948 U.C.L = X̄1 + Aσ1 = 40 + (1.342 × 6) = 48.052

Question 23.
The objective function and two solutions of an LPP are Max Z = 200x: + lOOy and A(0,18); B (12,0). Find the optimal solution.
Answer:
ZA = 200(0)+100(18)= 1800, ZB = 200 (12)+100(4) = 400
ZB is maximum and so, the optimal solution is at B: n = 12, y = 0.

Question 24.
Define pure and mixed strategy in a game.
Answer:
Pure strategy of a player is the pre-determined decision / Rule to adopt a specified course of action irrespective of the course of action of the opponent.

Mixed strategy of a player is his pre-decision to choose his course of action according to certain pre-assigned probabilities.

KSEEB Solutions

Section – C

III. Answer any EIGHT of the following questions : (8 x 5 = 40)

Question 25.
Compute the net reproduction rate from the following data :
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 6
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 7
W.S.F.R – Women specific fertility rate
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 8
W.S.F.R(15 -19) = \(\frac { 1250 }{ 50,000 }\) × 100 = 25
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 9
N.R.R = 5 × 120 = 600.

Question 26.
Calculate weighted GM price index number for the year 2014 from the following data.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 10
Answer:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 11

Question 27.
What is a consumer price index number? Write any four of its uses.
Answer:
Cost of living index number/consumer price index number is the index number of the cost met by a specified class of consumers in buying a basket of goods and services.
Uses:

  • It is commonly used in fixation of salary, dearness allowances to the employees.
  • They are used by govt, in formulation of price policy, wage policy and general economic policies.
  • They are used in evaluation of purchasing power of money and deflating the money.
  • They are used for comparing cost of living of different classes of people.

Question 28.
Compute 4 – year moving averages from the following data :
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 12
Answer:
Let X and Y be the year and profit.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 13
Here
4YMT-4 yearly moving total.
4YCMT – 4 yearly centered moving total.
4YCMA – 4 yearly centered moving average.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 29.
Interpolate the number of workers earning wages Rs. 775 per day from the following table.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 14
Answer:
Let X and Y Wages and no.of workers.
Here the no. of Known values of Y are n = 15 , so prepare leading differences upto Δ4
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 15
Here ‘Y’ value to be determine for X = 775. The Newton’s formula of interpdation is.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 16
= 50 + 125 + 46.875 + 4.6875 – 1.5625
Y775 = 225 are the number of workers earns wages ₹.775 per day.

Question 30.
40% of the buttons manufactured by a firm are found to be defective. In a random sample of six buttons, find the probability of getting.
(i) exactly 4 defective buttons
(ii) more than one defective button.
Answer:
Let X be the number of buttons manufactured is a Binomial.
Variate with parameters n = 6 and p = 40% = 0.4, so q = 1 – p = 0.6. Then the probability mass function is:
p (x) = nCx px qn-x= 0, 1, 2 ……. n.
= 6Cx (0.4)x (0.6)6-x; x = 0, 1, 2 6.
(i) P(exactly 4 defective buttons) = p(x = 4)
= 6C4 (0.4)4 (0.6)6-4 = 15 × 0.0256 × 0.36 = 0.1382

(ii) P(more than 1 defective button) =p(x > 1) = 1 -p(x = 0)
= 6C0 (0.4)0 (0.6)6-0 = 1.1. 0.466 = 0.0466.

Question 31.
There are 20 marbles in a box, out of which 12 are red coloured and the rest white coloured. A child picks 6 marbles at random. Find the probability that the child gets 4 red coloured marbles.
Answer:
Let x be the number of red coloured marbles picked is a Hypergeometric variate with the parameters a = 12 (Red), b = 20 – 12 = 8 (White) and n – 6 (picked, then the p.m.f is:-)
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 17

Question 32.
Among 400 randomly -selected persons of a city, 280 like ice-cream. Test at 1% level of significance that 50% of the people in that city like ice-creams.
Answer:
Linking ice-cream is an attribute, so use test for proportion.
Given: n = 400, x = 280 (ice cream liked)
∴ Sample proportion : p \(\frac{x}{n}=\frac{280}{400}\) and
P0 = 0.5 (50% people like ice cream): α = 1%
H0: 50% people like ice cream (i.e., P0 = 0.5)
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 18
H1 : people liking ice cream differ from 50% (i.e., P0 ≠ 0.5 ) {two tailed test ±K)
under H0 the test statistic is :

At α = 1% the two tail crtical values are ±K = ± 2.58
Here Zcal lies in Rejection Region (R.R)
∴ H0 is rejected and H1 is aceepted.
conclusion: P0 ≠ 0.5 : people liking ice cream differ from 50%.

Question 33.
From the following, test whether mean of the first population is greater than the mean of the second population. (Use α = 5%)
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 20
Answer:
Given: n1 = 10, n2 = 12, x̄1 = 62, x̄2 = 55, S12 = 16 and S22 = 25 (S2 sample variance). Here n1, n2 < 30 use small sample, t-test for equality of means, α = 5%
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 21
H0: Means of first and second population are same (i.e., µ1, = µ2)
H1 : Mean of first population is greater than mean of second population (i.e., µ1 > µ2) {upper tail test ±k}
under H0 the t-test statistics is:-
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 22
At α = 5% for (n1 + 2-2) = 10 + 12 – 2 = 20 d.f the upper tail critical value k = 1.73
Here tcal lies in rejection region (R.R)
∴ H0 is rejected and H1 is accepted.
Conclusion: Mean of first population is greater than second population (µ1 > µ2)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 34.
Twenty rolls of different types of cloth contained the following number of defects in each roll : 2, 4, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 2, 3, 6, 4, 8, 2, 4, 5, 2, 3, 1, 2, 4.
Calculate the control limits for C-chart.
7; SC
Answer:
Standard is not known, for c-chort we need \(\overline{\mathrm{C}}=\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{C}}{k}\) = C – no. of defects and k = 20 rolls.
∴ C̅ = \(\frac { 75 }{ 20 }\) = 3.75. The control limits are:-
C.L = C = 3.75;
L.C.L = \(\overline{\mathrm{C}}-3 \sqrt{\overline{\mathrm{C}}}=3.75-3 \sqrt{3.75}\) = 3.75 – 5.8094 = -2.0594 = 0
U.C.L = \(\overline{\mathrm{C}}+3 \sqrt{\overline{\mathrm{C}}}=3.75+3 \sqrt{3.75}\) = 9.5594.

Question 35.
For the following transportation problem, find the initial basic feasible solution by Matrix Minima Method and obtain the cost associated with the solution.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 23
Answer:
By matrix minimum method, the first allocation is made at the least cost cell as below:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 24
Here Σa 1 = 560 = Σbj T.R is balanced.
Lest cost is 4 at (3, 3), allocated as: X33 = min (110,330) = 110, ‘C’ is satisfied So, delete and replace 330 by (330 -110) = 220
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 25
Next least cost is 5 at (2, 1) allocate as: X21 = min (100, 80) = 80. 1 is satisfied and delete. Replace 100 by (100 – 80) = 20.
Next reduced table is:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 26
The least cost in the reduced cost matrix is 8. Allocate as:- X22 = min (20, 150) = 20. B is satisfied and delete, replace 150 by (150 – 20) = 130.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 27
Next allocate at (1,3) as X13 = min (350,220) = 220. Ill satdisfied and the last allocation of the remaingcell is: X12 = min (350-220,130) = min (130,130)= 130.
The suggested initial basic feasible solution and its cost is:-
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 28

Question 36.
A machine costs Rs. 8,000. Its maintenance cost and resale value per year are given
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 29
Determine the optimal replacement age of the machine.
Answer:
Given: P = 8000, the given data can be written as bellow:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 30
From the above table the A(n) – Annual average maintenance cost is minimum for the year n = 5 is the optimal replacement age of the machine. A(5) = ₹ =2976.

Section – D

IV. Answer any TWO of the following questions : (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 37.
From the following data calculate the Standardised Death rate. Hence find the locality with healthier population.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 31
Answer:
Let A, B – be the Age specific death rates of locality A and locality B and Ps be the standarc population.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 32
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 33
For locality A: As (OR (< 20) = \(\frac { 81 }{ 9000 }\) × 1000 = 90, similarly can be calculated for other age groups.
For locality B: A.S.D.R (< 20) = \(\frac { 80 }{ 8000 }\) × 1000 = 10, similarly can be calculated for other age
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 34
groups.
Conclusion: Here S.D.R. (A) < S.D.R (B), so locality A is healthier population than localite B.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 38.
For the following data, compute Fisher’s price Index number. Show that Fisher’s Index number satisfies Time reversal and Factor reversal tests
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 35
Answer:
Expenditure – Base year = p0 q0, current year – p1 q1
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 36
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 37

Question 39.
Find a parabolic trend of the form Y = ax + bx + cx2 for the following time series.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 38
Answer:
Let x and y be the year and students strength.
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - .39
Here X̄ = middle most year = 2012
From the normal equation: na + b Σx + c Σx2 = Ey
5a + b.0 + c.10 = 53; 5a + 10c = 53 ………. (1)
From: a Σx + b Σx2 + c Σx3 – Σxy; a.0 + b.10 + c.0 = 0
10 b = 0 ∴ b = 0.
And from: a Σx2 + b Σx3 + c Σx4 = Σx2y; a. 10 + b.0 + c.34 = 120
i. e., 10a + 34c = 120 …….(2)
From (1) and (2)
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 40
∴ c = 1. put c = 1 in (1) we get 5a +10 (1) = 53, 5a = 53 – 10
a = \(\frac { 43 }{ 5 }\) = 8.6.
The fitted parabolic trend equation is: ŷ = a + bx + cx2
ŷ = 8.6 + 0x + 1x2; ŷ = 8.6 + x2

KSEEB Solutions

Question 40.
Fit a Poisson distribution to the following data and test the goodness of fit at 5% level of significance
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 41
Answer:
Let X be the number of mistakes is a poisson variate with λ is obtained as below:- let f be the no of pages, then from the frequency disribution:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 42
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 43
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 44
The fitted theoretical and observed frequency distribution is:- (Approximated)
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 45
χ2 -TEST: H0: poisson distribution is good fit (0i = Ei)
H1: poisson distribution is not a good tit (0i ≠ Ei
Under H0, the χ2-test statistic is:-
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 46
Here λ is estimated from the data and so d.f. will be (n – 1 – 1) = (n – 2)
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 47
∴ χcal2 = 1-8309
At α = 5% for (n – 2) = 6 – 2 = 4d.f the upper tail critical value k2 = 9.49.
Here χcal2 lies in acceptance region.
∴ H0 is accepted
Conclusion: Poisson distribution is good fit (0i = Ei).

Section – E

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 41.
The distribution of monthly income of Rs. 5,000 workers of a factory follows Normal distribution with mean Rs. 10,000 and standard deviation Rs. 1,000. Find the probability of the number of workers.
(i) having income more than Rs. 9,000
(ii) having income in between Rs. 8,500 and Rs. 12,000.
Answer:
Let x be the monthly income is a normal variate with the parameters μ= 10,000 and σ = 1,000 and N = 5000. Then S N.V is
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 48
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 49
(i) P(income more than ₹9000) = P(X > 9000)
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 50
No. of workers = 0.8413 × 5000 = 4206.5

(ii) P(income between ₹ 8500 and ₹ 12,000) = p(8500 < x < 12000)
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Questio
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 52
= Area from (-1.5) to ∞ – Area from 2 to ∞
= 0.9332 – 0.0228 = 0.9104
No. of Workers = 0.9104 × 5000 = 455.2.

Question 42.
Samples of electric lamps manufactured by two firms gave the following results :
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 53
Test at 5% level of significance whether the average life of bulbs manufactured by firm A is les than the average life of bulbs manufactured by firm B.
Answer:
Given: n1, = 120, n2 = 160, x̄1 = 2540, x̄2 = 2600 S1 = 96, S2 = 108, α = 5%
H0: average life of firm A and firm B is same (i.e., μ1 = μ2)
H1 : Average life of firm A is less than firm B (i.e., μ1 < μ2) {Lower tail test}
Under H0, the test statistic is:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 54
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 55
At α = 5% the lower tail critical value -k = – 1.65
Here Zcal lies in rejection region (R.R)
∴ H0 is rejected and H1 is accepted.
conclusion: Average life of lamps of firm A is less than firm B lamps (i.e., μ1 < μ2).

KSEEB Solutions

Question 43.
A normal variate has variance 100. Twenty random observations of the variate has variance 144. Test at 1% level .of significance whether the variance of the population is 100.
Answer:
Given: σ2 = 100: n = 20, S2 = 144, a = 1%
H0: population variance is 100 (i.e., σ2 = 100)
H1 : population variance differs from 100 {i.e., σ2 ≠ lOO) (two tailed test)
Under H0, the χ2 – test statistic is:-
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 56
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 57
At α = 1% for (n – 1) = 20 – 1 = 19 d.f the two tail critical values are k1 = 6.84 and k2 = 38.6
Here χcal2 lies in acceptance region (A.R)
∴ H0 is accepted.
Conclusion: Population variance = 100 (i.e., σ2 = 100).

Question 44.
The demand for an item is 7,000 units per year. The cost of placing an order is Rs. 300 per year. The holding cost is Rs. 10 per unit per year. The shortage cost is Rs. 3 per unit per year. Find
(i) Economic Order Quantity
(ii) Minimum annual average inventory cost.
Answer:
Given: R = 7000, c3 = 3000, c1 = 10 and c2 = 3
c2 is given, so use EOQ model II
(i) Economic Order Quantity: EOQ =
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 58
= 648.074 × 2.0816= 1349.03 items/year

(ii) Min. Annual average invertory cost:
2nd PUC Statistics previous year Question paper March 2016 - 59
= 6480.74 × 0.4804 = ₹ 3113.35 / year.

 

2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Students can Download 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Paper 3 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in a sentence each. (10 × 1=10)

Question 1.
Which act transferred Power from Company to Crown?
Answer:
The Act of 1857 transferred Power from Company to Crown.

Question 2.
Who was the Chairman of Boundary Commission?
Answer:
The Chairman of Boundary Commission was Sir Cyril Radcliffe.

Question 3.
Expand EPIC.
Answer:
EPIC = Elector’s Photo Identity Card.

Question 4.
Where is the Lai Bahadur Shastri Academy of Administration situated?
Answer:
Lai Bahadur Shastri Academy of Administration is situated at Mussoorie.

Question 5.
Who appoints the members of State Public Service Commission?
Answer:
The concerned Governor appoints the members of the State Public Service Commission.

Question 6.
Who started the newspaper ‘Mooka Nayaka’?
Answer:
B.R. Ambedkar started the newspaper ‘Mooka Nayaka’.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
When did the ‘Domestic Violence Act’ come into force?
Answer:
The Domestic Violence Act came into force in 2005.

Question 8.
What is Nation Building?
Answer:
Nation Building is the process of uniting people with a sense of Nationalism.

Question 9.
Mention the root word of ‘Coalition’.
Answer:
The term coalition is derived from the Latin word ‘Coalition’. ‘Co’ means ‘together and ‘Alescere’ means to grow up’.

Question 10.
When did the Constitution of Bhutan come into force?
Answer:
The Constitution of Bhutan came into force on 18th.

II. Answer any 10 of the following in 2-3 sentences. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
When was Federal court established in India and where?
Answer:
Federal court was established in 1937 at Delhi.

Question 12.
What is Universal Adult Franchise? Give an example.
Answer:
It is the right to vote given to all citizens after attaining a particular age. e.g. In India, it is 18 years.

Question 13.
What is Single party system? Give an example.
Answer:
Existence of only a single political party in the country, e.g. China.

Question 14.
When is a Coalition Government formed?
Answer:
In the elections, if no single party obtains absolute majority, a few like minded, parties may come together on a common platform to form a Government which is called a coalition Government.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
What was the slogan of Dr B.R. Ambedkar?
Answer:
‘Educate, Agitate and Organise’ was the popular slogan of Ambedkar.

Question 16.
What is good governance?
Answer:
Good governance ensures accountability, transparency, efficiency, responsibility and responsiveness.

Question 17.
What is compulsory education?
Answer:
Compulsory education means the obligation of the Government to provide free elementary education and compulsory admission.

Question 18.
Write the meaning of Illiteracy.
Answer:
Illiteracy means the inability of a person to read and write in any language.

Question 19.
What is Brain Drain?
Answer:
In most of the developing and underdeveloped nations, job opportunities are minimal. Educated persons, seeking better living conditions and earning options, migrate to developed countries. So the nations get drained of their intellectuals and face the problem of brain drain. These nations get deprived of their Scientists, Engineers and others.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 20.
Define International Relations.
Answer:
According to Ola Joseph- “International Relations are the study of all forms of interactions that exist between members of separate entities or nations within the international system”.

Question 21.
Name any two organs of UN.
Answer:

  1. General Assembly.
  2. Security Council.

Question 22.
Write any two member countries of NAM.
Answer:
India, Indonesia, Ghana, Egypt.

III. Answer any eight of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each. (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 23.
Write a note on Interim Government.
Answer:
The Interim Government of India was formed on 2nd September 1946. The constituent Assembly had 389 members. It was drawn from the newly elected Constituent Assembly of India. It had the task of assisting the transition of India and Pakistan from British rule to independence.

It remained in force until 15th August 1947, when India became independent. The Constituent Assembly became a sovereign body and performed the role of legislature for the new State. It was responsible for framing the constitution and making ordinary laws as well.

Question 24.
Explain the features of Civil Services.
Answer:
Features of Civil Services:-
1. Professional body:
As Herman Finer puts it, Civil Service is a professional body of officials who are, permanent, paid and skilled. It is a whole time job and career service.

2. Hierarchy:
As per the scaler system, each civil servant has to obey his immediate superior, where higher ranking administrative officers with discretionary powers supervise their subordinates. The authority runs from above and helps to make administration stable.

3. Political Neutrality:
Civil Servants refrain always from political activities. They perform their duties without being aligned to any one political regime.

4. Anonymity:
Civil servants work behind the screen and remain anonymous even though they work for the Government. Recognition for good work or censure for any omission goes only to the concerned minister and not to. the civil servants.

5. Impartiality:
The Civil Servants have to apply the laws of the state while performing the duties without showing any favour, bias or preference to any groups or sections of the society.

6. Service motto:
They have to work for the welfare of society. They must be humble and service minded towards the public and not authoritative.

7. Permanent:
Civil Servants are called permanent executives. They discharge duties until they attain the age of superannuation. Both at the central and in Karnataka State Services, the age of retirement is sixty years. Even though disciplinary action is taken as per rules, there is security of service.

8. Jurisdiction of Law:
Every Civil Servant has to function within the prescribed jurisdiction of law. If they cross the limit, they are met with disciplinary actions.

9. Special Training:
Once the candidates are selected for top civil services, they are deputed to in-service training to acquire special skills in administration, like the Lai Bahadur Shastry Academy of Administration located in Mussoorie for the training of the newly appointed IAS officers. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Police Academy located in Hyderabad trains the newly appointed IPS officers.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 25.
Write about the composition of Union Public Service Commission.
Answer:
Article 315 provides for the establishment of the Union Public Service Commission. UPSC is an independent constitutional body entrusted with the work of recruitment on the basis of merit.
1. Composition:
At present, the UPSC is composed of a Chairman and 10 members. Members are appointed by the President. It provides for half of the members of the Commission to be administrators with a minimum of the 10 years experience in government service. Nothing is mentioned regarding the qualifications of the remaining members.

2. Tenure:
A member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a period of 6 years or till he attains the age of 65 years, whichever comes earlier. Chairman or members of the commission are not eligible for re-appointment after retirement. The Chairman of the UPSC is also not eligible for further employment under Central or State Governments, however, a member of the UPSC may be appointed as a Chairman of the UPSC or the state Public Service Commission.

3. Removal:
The Chairman and members of the UPSC can be removed from the office only by on order of the President, on the ground of misbehaviour proved by the Supreme Court. All these provisions have been made to make the Commission an independent and impartial body.

Functions:
Article 320 of the Indian Constitution enumerates the. functions of the UPSC :

  1. To conduct examinations for appointment to the services of the Union and All India Service.
  2. To assist two or more states, on request for joint recruitment for any services.
  3. To advise the government on matters relating to the methods of recruitment, promotions, transfers, disciplinary actions and inter service matters.
  4. To present annual report regarding its working to the President.
  5. To exercise such additional functions as provided by an act of Parliament.
  6. To serve all or any needs of the State Government on request by the Governor and with the approval of the President.

Question 26.
What are the causes for the rise of identity politics?
Answer:
Identity politics is defined by one’s own identity based on race, ethnicity, gender, language religion. It is the politics of recognition and a movement to claim recognition. A person may have multiple identities but he perceives only a single identity at a time. Movements of lesbians, black civil rights, wave of feminists etc., have brought legitimacy to identity politics.

Causes for the rise of identity politics are as follows:

  1. Maladministration leads to the poor economic growth of a particular region or geographical backwardness of the people of a particular ethnic identity.
  2. The rise of regional parties has created the local awareness of language or region.
  3. Extreme poverty, exploitation, lack of opportunity and threat to existing group privileges to the ethnic groups.
  4. Ethnic groups’ fear of assimilation resulting in cultural dilution.
  5. Rise in standard of living, literacy and aspiration, socio-political awareness have led to identity politics.
  6. Lack of share in natural resources, fear of loss of land, political power and economic growth.
  7. Fear of losing scope in educational employment fields.
  8. Fear of losing ethnic identities like language and culture.

Question 27.
Describe the role of youth against Terrorism.
Answer:
1. Youth against Terrorism:
Terrorism is used in various forms like international terrorism, domestic terrorism, economic terrorism, cultural terrorism, cyber terrorism etc., Terrorism means deliberately and violently targetting civilians by inflicting physical or mental agony, wound or death that creates fear psychosis, for political gains.

2. Role of youth against terrorism:
The concept of minority leads to fear of attack and results in religious fundamentalism. Hence, both the youth and the society have to pressurise the Government concerned, to create awareness and educate those who are indulging in anti-national and inhuman terrorist activities. Particularly for the youth priority should be given to peace and security of the inhabitants of the country.

Youth have to develop patriotism that is national feeling and involve themselves in constructive activities like nation-building by helping the Government against terrorist and militant activities taking place in their neighbourhood which is their prime duty.

Youth have to take the initiative within the Jurisdiction of law, to fight against terrorism as it happened in Naxalite prone states like Bihar, Jharkhand and Chattisgarh, where Salwajudum (village army) fought against the Naxalites. Youth must understand the complicated and multi faceted terrorism rationally. They have to isolate the terrorism and inoculate their potential recruits.

A successful counter terrorism action requires a combination of coercive and conciliatory policies. It is the responsibility of the youth to spread the importance of education that saves the younger generation from the clutches of terrorism and communalism as it happened in the case of Ms Malala Yusufa Zai of Pakistan, who survived the terrorist attack.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 28.
Explain the nature of Crony capitalism.
Answer:
Crony capitalism is a negative term used to refer to the business dealings carried out by the Government officers in a capitalist economy.
Nature of crony capitalism are as follows:-
1. Favours political authorities:
Crony capitalism is a system in which, close associates of the people in power who enact laws and execute policies, get favours that have large economic impact.

2. Cronies are rewarded:
with the provision to charge higher prices for their output, than would prevail in a competitive market. Funds are funnelled to the enterprises of cronies through government controlled banks.

3. Protection of assets:
Crony capitalism allows Government to guarantee a subset of asset holders that their property rights are protected. As long as their assets are protected, these asset holders will continue to invest as if there were universal protection of property rights.

4. Share in the rents generated by the asset holders:
The members of the Government or members of their families, share the rents generated by the asset holders. This may take the form of jobs, co-investments or even transfers of stock. Crony capitalism goes hand in hand with corruption.

5. The concentration of economic Power:
A few business groups which are cronies, influence state policies and pool their assets in private corporate sectors. Such concentration gives birth to crony capitalism. Crony capitalism is an economic phenomenon with political consequences. In crony capitalism, the Government makes deals in closed doors, without public review and approval.

Question 29.
Explain the democratic movements in Nepal.
Answer:
21st century is known as the era of democratic movements. These movements in Afro-Asian nations started to overthrow despotic, autocratic and other authoritarian governments. Nepal is a small landlocked kingdom in Southern Asia, lying between India to the south and Tibet to the North. Monarchy was prevalent in Nepal since the 18th century.

During the rule of Birendra Bir Bikram Shah Dev, democratic Maoist movements started mainly because of the influence of India and China. Nepal’s democratic experiment suffered a serious setback in December 1960, when the first elected government led by National Congress leader Koirala was dissolved and the whole party activities were banned in Nepal in later parts of the decade which continued till 1979.

In 1980, limited democracy resulted in the creation of a multiparty parliamentary monarchy. The political war was launched by the Communist Party of Nepal (Maoist) in 1996, with the overthrow of the Nepalese monarchy and establishing a people’s Republic. Maoist insurgency began in 1996 and ended with the Communist victory in 2001.

The comprehensive Peace Accord was signed on 21st November 2006. The crown prince killed king Birendra and the royal family members, bringing the unpopular Gyanendra to the throne. Nepal witnessed a popular movement in 2006. The movement was aimed at restoring democracy.

At the same time, the king reinstated the old Nepal house of Representatives, with an assurance of permanent peace and the multiparty democracy. The king called upon the Seven party Alliance (SPA) to bear the responsibility of taking the nation on the path of national unity and prosperity. The popular Government assumed office on 18th May 2006 and withdrew all the privileges given to the king unanimously.
The bill included the following.

  • Imposing tax on the royal family and its assets.
  • Ending the Raj Parishad, a Royal Advisory Council.
  • Eliminating Royal references from army and Government titles.
  • Declaring Nepal a secular country and not a Hindu kingdom.
  • Scrapping the national anthem until a new one is composed.
  • Eliminating the king’s position as the supreme commander of the army.

This is popularly known as the “Nepalese Magna Carta”.

Question 30.
Write about the principles and objectives of UN.
Answer:
The Basic principles mentioned in Article 2 of the Charter are:

  1. The UN is based on the Sovereign equality of all its members.
  2. All members shall fulfill in good faith the U.N Charter obligations.
  3. They shall settle international disputes by peaceful means.
  4. They have to retain their international relations from the threat or use of force against other states.
  5. They have to extend all help to the actions being taken by UN.
  6. The UN shall ensure that States who are not members, act in accordance with the principles of UN.
  7. The Organisation shall not intervene in matters essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any State.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 31.
Describe the political implications of privatization.
Answer:
The political implications of privatisation are as follows:
1. Concentration of Wealth:
Privatisation encourages concentration of wealth in the hands of a few big business groups. It results in great disparities of income and wealth. It goes against the principle of egalitarian society.

2. More profits:
Corporate sectors generate more profits. But they share a meagre percentage with the shareholders. They enjoy the lion’s share out of the shareholders’ investment. As a result, the gap between the rich and the poor gets widened.

3. Bane to local industries:
Local people borrow money from indigenous banks and also get loans from government concerns with subsidised rates of interest to start an industry. Multi-national companies with good financial back up survive even in case of loss.

4. Threat to national interest:
Key areas of a Nation like Defence, Space, Science and Technology are to be retained with the Government: Assigning these areas to private sector may harm National interests.

5. Lack of service motto:
Private firms are concerned more about their profit rather than providing good service conditions to their staff and do not bother about extending welfare programmes to their employees and even to society.

6. No job security:
Private companies extract work from employees as long as they are fit. They ruthlessly sack them when they suffer from ill health or fitness problems. In the long run, they become a burden to the Government. The employees of private sectors suffer from job insecurity and this results in psychological disorders.

Question 32.
Write a note on BRICS.
Answer:
It is important to note that BRICS is the acronym for an Association of five major emerging national economies
like Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. The grouping was originally known as “BRIC” before the inclusion of South Africa in 2010.

The BRICS members arc either developing or newly industrialized. They are distinguished by their large fast growing economies and significant influence on regional and global affairs. All five are G-20 members. Presently, South Africa holds the chair of the BRICS group.

Summit level , meetings:
The leaders of RIC Countries. Russian President Valdmir Putin, Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and Chinese President Hu-Jintao-held the first summit in St.Petersburg on July 17, 2006, as part of the G-8 Summit conference program. Later, Brazil jointed the summit meeting.

The Foreign Minister of the initial four BRIC states met in New York in September 2006. They singled out agriculture, prevention of natural calamities and elimination of their aftermath and promotion of healthcare as the promising areas.

A full fledged diplomatic meeting was held in Yekaterinburg Russia. The summit focussed on the means of improving the global economic situation and reforming financial institutions. In the aftermath of the Yekaterinburg summit, the BRIC nations announced the need for a new global reserve currency, which would have to be “diversified, stable and predictable”.

Question 33.
Write about the role of India in the establishment of SAARC.
Answer:
During 1960’s and 70s the tendency towards regional arrangements became much more prominent despite many hurdles. The emergence of Bangladesh and the Simla Agreement of 1972, became the turning points towards regional cooperation. President Zia-ur-Rahaman discussed the issue of regional co-operation with the new Indian Prime Minister, Moraji Desai.

He had also informally discussed the idea of regional co-operation with the leaders of South Asian countries during the regional and international meetings. Several factors seem to have influenced President Zia-Ur-Rahaman regarding the establishment of a regional organisation in South Asia during 1975-1979.

For Zia-Ur-Rahaman’s successful contribution in the process of Regional Organisations in South Asia, he is called as the founding father of SAARC. Between 1980 and 1983, four meetings at the Foreign Secretary level took place to establish the principles of organisation and identify areas for co-operation. Several Foreign Ministers level meetings were held between 1983 and 1985.

The first meeting of Foreign Ministers in New Delhi was held on 1st and 2nd of August 1983. In her inaugural address, the then Prime Minister of India Mrs Indira Gandhi described South Asia as a troubled region and said “I am glad we are making a beginning, we have our political differences, but economic co-operation will give a strong impetus to closer friendship and greater stability in South Asia.

With unity, we can hope to move ahead for future freedom, peace and prosperity.” She also warned that we should be ever vigilant against the attempts of external powers influencing our functioning. SAARC marks the establishment of an Association to promote and develop co-operation. Finally, the first Summit meeting of the Heads of States or Governments of South Asian countries was held at Dhaka on 7th and 8th of December 1985.

Its members are 8 countries of South Asia, namely Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. Ip 2010, Afghanistan became the 8th member of SAARC. Six observers of SAARC are China, Japan, European Union, Republic of Korea, United States and Iran.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 34.
What are the areas of disputes between India and Sri Lanka?
Answer:
From the mid 1950s to early 1980s, there was hardly any dispute between the two countries on matters of security
and sovereignty. There had been negotiated settlement of bilateral issues e.g. the question of jurisdiction over Kachathivu Island in the middle of the Palk Straits. One of the main disputes between India and SriLanka has been regarding the political status of Tamil people of Indian origin taken to SriLanka by the british as plantation labourers. There are four groups of Sri Lankan Tamil population,

  • ancient Tamils in the Jaffna peninsula,
  • professional elite Tamil in urban areas
  • non-Hindu Tamils and
  • Tamil immigrant labour.

The long standing problem of accepting the Tamil speaking population of Sri Lanka as its citizens and giving them
regional autonomy could not be solved. The majority of Sinhalese demanded that Tamils should return to India. They denie citizenship to Tamils by enacting the Ceylon Citizenship Act of 1948. This has disentitled them franchise and others rights.

In 1965 Indian Prime Minister Lai Bahadur Shastri and Sri Lankan Prime Minister Mrs. Sirimao Bandaranaike signed an agreement about Tamils citizenship, but in vain. In 1981, agreement between Indira Gandhi and Sirimao Bandaranaike was not implemented due to the Tamil people’s refusal to return to India.

IV. Answer any 2 of the following in 30 to 40 sentences: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Explain the nature of party system in India.
Answer:
Nature :
The nature of Indian party system can. be traced back to the Indian National Movement. Indian National Congress (INC) was founded by A.O. Hume in 1885. It was a forum to unite the people of India to fight against the British Imperialism. Due to ideological differences, Muslim League was founded in 1906.

Other parties like Hindu Maha Sabha, Communist Party of India, Forward Block and Praja Socialist Party etc., emerged in the successive years. Later, in the post independence period, Jan Sangh, Janatha Party, Bharatiya Janatha Party, Janata Dal, Nationalist Congress Party, according to the needs of the time and they started to work to get power etc were floated.

1. Extra Constitutional growth :
There is no reference in the Constitution of India about M how many political parties are to exist in the country. According to Article 19 of the Constitution, all citizens can have the freedom to form associations or unions. Political parties are established on the basis of this liberty. Hence, political parties have no constitutional base.

2. Prevalence of Multi-party system:
India is a divergent country with many religions, tribes, languages, culture and traditions. This heterogeneity leads to the emergence of many political parties to protect their interests in the mainstream of the country.

3. Spilt and merger:
It is a common phenomenon in the Indian party system. Various reasons contributed for this split like ideological differences, egoism, power hunger, etc.

4. End of a single-party era:
India was under Congress rule till 1977. The happenings between 1975-1977, forced small parties to unite and fight against Congress and capture power and put an end to the single-party era.

5. Dissident activities:
Meanness of leaders like personal attitudes, favouritism, nepotism lead to dissident activities. Repetition of such happenings instigates leaders to go against the ideology of the party and paves way to political instability.

6. Defection:
Elected members of the Legislature change their parties often for personal benefits or differences of opinion and other reasons. It ruins the values of democracy and destabilizes the government.

7. Leader worship:
Most of the political parties in India emphasize the leaders rather than the ideologies of the parties. The leader decides the destiny of the political party e.g. Jawaharlal Nehru and Indira Gandhi of Congress, A.B. Vajpayee of BJR Leaders with charisma dominate the whole party.

8. Alliances without principles:
Political parties are formed with principles of democracy and secularism but they ignore them for want of power and make unholy alliances.

9. Dominance of Regional parties:
The presence of regional parties during the first general elections did not influence the voters and they were rejected. During the 1980s, they emerged very strong and dominated the political scenario, e.g. DMK, ALADMK, Telugu Desam, Shiv Sena, National Conference, AGP, JD(S), RJD, SJP, BJD and other parties playing a significant role during the formation of Governments.

10. Religious, Lingual and Regionalism:
The basis of political parties in India is religion, language, regionalism and the like. e.g. Muslim league, Akalidal, Shiv Sena, DMK, AIADMK, Maharashtra Ekikaran Samiti (MES) Telangana Rashtriya Samiti (TRS) and others. In spite of the rules of the Election Commission, such political parties exist.

11. Leftist and Rightist Parties:
Party system in India consists of Leftist and Rightist ideologies, e.g. CPI, CPI (M), Forward Block, RPI and Socialist parties who have belief in revolutionary ideology and drastic changes in the system form the left front. Parties like Congress, BJP, SP, NCP, BSP, RJD, JD (U), JD (S) and others who believe in moderate changes in the system form the right front.

12. The era of the coalition
When no single political party secures absolute majority like minded political parties come together and join as a single largest group to form a coalition Government. The era of coalition started during 1977 when Janata Party came to power headed by Sri Morarjee Desai as Prime Minister at the centre along with other parties. This was followed by National Front, United Front, NDA, UPA etc.

Question 36.
Describe the causes for Labour Movement and explain its political implications.
Answer:
Labourers are those workers who invest their physical labour either on agriculture or industries. The wages they get for their work is their livelihood. But in most of the cases, they are not getting the mininum wages and they work under hazardous conditions which many a times takes their lives as toll. For want of congenial working conditions and adequate wages, they unite together and go for agitations.
Causes:
1. Interest of Labourers:
Generally the industrialists concentrate on their profit rather than on workers and their welfare. Labourers are exploited by way of giving lesser wages, not declaring bonus, extended hours of work, denial of medical facilities, dismissal from service and the like. To overcome such situations, the affected labourers organize and voice their grievances through agitations which leads to labour movement. During 1920 All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was organised and got legal recognition by the British Government.

2. Negligence towards employees:
The matters concerning to labourers were decided U unilaterally by the Apex body of the Company. Naturally, the interests of labourers were neglected. As a result, hostile relationship was the order of the day.

3. To get facilities:
As the labourers are engaged in monotonous physical strain they need to have a break in between. To get proper facilities for both male and female workers as per their requirements like potable water, cafeteria, toilet facilities, restrooms, creaches, medical facilities etc., movements have started.

4. Welfare programs:
The fate of the companies depends upon the welfare and well being of the workers. To get the social security measures like Bonus, Allowances, Loans, insurance, Free quarters, Transport and Educational facilities, workmen compensation, pension, family pension etc., they came together to form organisations that paved the way for labour movements.

Political Implications:
To meet the demands of work and to provide welfare programmes the Government has taken some measures and they are:-
1. Constitutional measures:
Part IV of the Indian Constitution which deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy directs State Government to adopt socialist measures like equal pay for equal work for both men and women and to provide leave facilities for pregnant women for both prenatal and postnatal care. The Concurrent list empowers the governments to legislate on workers welfare.

2. Government of India has made legislation on personal labour laws as follows:
The labour laws of 1970 have fixed the wages of workers appointed on contract basis. Workmen Compensation
Act of 1923, Salary payment Act of 1936, Weekly Holiday Act of 1942, Minimum wage Act of 1948, Employees State Insurance Act of 1948. Employees Provident Fund Act of 1952, Bonus Act of 1965 are some of the important labour acts.

Some prominent labour orgnisations are:
1. All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC):
With the belief in Socialistic pattern of Society, this started in 1920. It was working as a Labour Union and came under the grip of communists after independence. Its aim was nationalising the industries, protection of labour rights, labour welfare etc.,

2. Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC):
Because of ideological differences, some congressmen came out of AITUC and started INTUC in May 1947 with
the support of Congress party on non-violent philosophy.

3. Bharateeya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS):
Founded by Dattopanth Thengdi for upholding the patriotic spirit among the labour population during 1955 on the Birthday of Sri Bal Gangadhar Tilak. It is not affiliated to any International Trade Union Confederation. An estimated 5860 labour unions are affiliated to BMS and it is one of the largest central Trade Unions of India according to the 2002 statistics of Ministry of Labour.

4. Centre for Trade Union (CITU):
Communist leaders like S.A Dange and E.M.S. Namboodaripad took the stand to oppose the imperialistic attitude of the trade unions. In 1964, Marxists started CITU because of differences between leftist and rightist ideologies of AITUC. West Bengal, Kerala, Tripura are the Marxist strongholds.

5. Other major organisations:
Hindu Mazdoor Sabha (HMS), Hindu Mazdoor Panchayath (HMP), United Trade Union Congress (UTUC) and other organisations are also struggling hard to protect the interests of labourers.

In total, Labour Movements are trying to improve the welfare and standard of living of the workers. The success of these movements can be seen through Government programmes. As Karl Marx said, “Unite the workers of the world, you are going to lose shackles of slavery, but nothing else.”

The celebration of May Day throughout the world on 1st May of every year proves the significance of labour force and the movement.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 37.
Explain the causes for the communalism and write about the measures to eradicate communalism.
Answer:
Communalism is an ideology of the followers of one particular religion, witnessed as a homogenous and distinct group, disrespecting other religions.
cases:
1. Policy of British India:
The discriminatory policies of the East India Company regarding divide and rule destroyed the unity between Hindus and Muslims. It manifested in the Sepoy Mutiny (1857). During the period of Viceroy Lord Curzon, Bengal was divided (1905) on the basis of religion. Communal electorate for Muslims was introduced during the period of Lord Minto. All these intensified the cause of communalism.

2. Hind-Muslim Nationalism:
Communal organizations were formed by separatists. In 1906, Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha came into existence. Mohammad Ali Jinnah who was called as ‘Muslim Gokhale’ of India was brainwashed by the Britishers. He became the champion of the two nation theory based on religion. Extremists of the Indian National Congress began to assert their demands. These developments created suspicion and distrust between Hindus and Muslims before Independence.

3. Communal Riots:
Large scale communal riots took place in India after Independence. Religious minorities both in India and Pakistan became victims during this situation and were attacked and tortured. Later communal riots occurred in Bhagalpur, Meerut, Kanpur. Lucknow, Ayodhya, Ahmadabad, Mumbai and in many other places. The demolition of Babri Masjid at Ayodhya by a mob on 6th December 1992, largely contributed for the animosity between Hindus and Muslims and the successive events intensified the mistrust between these communities.

4. Politically manipulated:
In India, many issues are politically manipulated by leaders for their selfish gain. This leads to hatred among the communities.

5. Communality in organization:
Different communities in India have established their own organizations based on communality, to support particular political parties in their own interest.

Promotion of secularism and National integration as remedy:
1. Secularism:
The constitution makers adopted secularism in order to create sense of security and equality among different religious groups. The state also follows a policy of neutrality in religious matters. Article 26 provides that every religious denpmination or any section has the right to establish religious institutions and manage their affairs.

In December 2013, the Central Cabinet approved the “Prevention of Communal Violence (Access to justice and Reparations) Bill” to punish the offenders who instigate and indulge in communal riots. It is yet to be passed by parliament.

2. National Integration:
It is the process of uniting people emotionally and politically. India is a land of diversity. It is in a limited sense to call this a single nation because it has various religions, languages, castes cultures etc., So for the success of Indian democracy, promotion of national integration is necessary.

To preserve and sustain National integration many provisions have been adopted in the Constitution, like National integration Council, Zonal Councils, National security Council and armed forces play a greater role in the protection of National integration.

3. Neighbourhood Peace Committees:
The aftermath of Babri Masjid demolition and subsequent communal riots and social tensions in different places and ineffective Governmental measures has made it vital to establish Neighbourhood Peace Committees with eminent or.prominent people as its members. These members must be nominated from each community in riot prone or communally sensitive areas.

The main objectives are arresting and containing social tensions which may flare up communal riots in the neighbourhood areas, taking precautionary measures to prevent the eruption of communal clashes, in the aftermath of conflict restoring normalcy and pacifying affected people, establishing harmonious relationship between the communities and extending all possible help to affected people.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 38.
Explain the relationship between India and Russia.
Answer:
Russia is the world’s largest country extending halfway around the globe. To the west, it borders Finland, Norway, Estonia, Latvia and Belarus. The much longer southern frontier extends into Central Asia. India’s relation with the former USSR has been a part of history, but it developed rapidly after the visits of Khrushchev and Bulganin to India and Nehru’s visit to the Soviet Union.

Since 1955, Indo- Soviet relations have reached a new scale and dimension and regarded as a good example of bilateral and inter-state relations. The Soviets have openly declared that Indo-Soviet friendship has become a part of their ‘tradition’. People to people relationship is a comer stone of their foreign policy. Soviet Union contributed immensely for the development of industries and technology in India. The defence ties between the two countries helped India in building a credible defence structure.

Its steadfast diplomatic support in the UN, on the Kashmir and Goa issues, is commendable. The use of Veto-power in the Security Council to support India in 1971 war with Pakistan was crucial. Soviet Russia adopted the Communist ideology and India accepted Democratic Socialism. Despite the ideological differences, the two countries forged a long time Treaty of friendship for 20 years.

Factors of Indo-USSR close ties:

  1. Both India and USSR consider that the peaceful settlement of disputes between states as most crucial for the future of human race.
  2. Both believe in natural freedom and social equality as prerequisite of just world order.
  3. Support to liberation movements across the world are recognized by both the countries.
  4. Both Countries opposed all forms of colonialism, imperialism, and racial discrimination.

Thus, India and USSR have realized geopolitical significance and the need to strengthen bilateral ties. This is to ensure the settlement of regional problems and establishment of global peace and prosperity.

1. Disintegration of Soviet Union:
In 1985 Mikhail Gorbachev, the President of USSR introduced economic and political reforms of ‘Perestroika’(restructuring ) and ‘Glasnost (openness). That stopped the arms race with US, withdrew Soviet troops from Afghanistan, helped the unification of Germany, ended the cold war.

Other weaknesses inherent in the Soviet Union led to the disintergration of USSR and formation of 15 new countries in 1991. India recognized all of them as Sovereign states and established new diplomatic relations. Ten of them joined together to form a new associations with Russia called (CIS) (Commonwealth of Independent States).

2. Bilateral relations:
The new leadership in Russia and other Republics of the erstwhile Soviet Union hold India in high regard due to India’s secular approach to politics, its stable democratic system of assuring rights and equality to all its citizens, self reliant industrial and conomic base and its genuine concern for vital global issues e.g. peace, disarmament, economic development, human rights and democratization of international organization particularly of the UN and its agencies.

Russia continues its support to India to become a permanent member in UN Security Council. India and Russia both have multi faceted relationship involving strategic and high level cooperation. The process of bilateral annual summits has given great impetus to bilateral relations. Indo- Russia cooperation has continued to move stronger on the basis mutual interest, faith, friendship and past relations.

V. Answer any two of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39.
List out the States of India. Write a note on Gandhi Jayanthi being celebrated as “Swachatha Divas”.
Answer:
Our Prime Minister, Sri Narendra Modi launched our country’s biggest ever cleanliness drive on Gandhiji’s birth anniversary in 2014. It is a well known fact that among other things Gandhiji advocated cleanliness in every walk of our lives, be it personal hygiene, behaviour in public places, public administration, political field or public life of our leaders.

This drive is a five year Abhiyan – a campaign to clean India at every level. It is expected to cost over two lakh crores. Sri Modi publicly acknowledged the fact that Gandhiji’s dream of a clean India – in more senses than one, has remained unfulfilled so far. It is the bounden duty of every citizen of our country to motivate themselves to stand behind our Prime Minister in carrying out this operation of cleaning up every comer of the country.

Instead of declaring Gandhi Jayanthi of 2014 a holiday as has been the practice till now, Sri Modi expressed the idea of making it a full working day for Government employees to carry out the Swachatha Divas in the correct sense. The bureaucrats were given instructions to lead their department staff in cleaning their offices and surroundings including toilets.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 40.
Corruption is a menace to Democracy
Answer:
1. Power Politics:
Today Nehru’s ‘Goodness Politics’ is replaced by ‘Power Politics’. Money power muscle power has become dominant. Politics has become a gainful profession to make money and to get publicity which is a prime example of political corruption.

2. Criminalization of Politics:
The prevalence of large scale criminalization of politics has increased illegal and illegitimate expenditure on elections. As the scenario is rampant, it has become a menace to democracy.

3.Demoralization of Bureaucracy:
Corruption takes the form of favouritism, red tapism and nepotism. Destabilization of governments due to illegal political operations and administrative corruption by bureaucracy has become a major threat to democracy.

4. Violations of Social Justice:
Accumulation of wealth through corruption getting concentrated in only a few people, violates the principle of socio- economic justice. Such people enjoy luxurious life, hence majority suffer from poverty due to deprivation. This creates socio-economic inequality and imbalance which is against democratic values.

OR

Write a note on “India Against Corruption” headed by Anna Hazare.
Answer:
Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan the pioneer of the total revolution, inspired youth during 1970’s to revolt against the corrupt administration and travelled all over India to fight against the evil. During 1980s, All Assam Student’s Union (AASU) fought against the corruption which threatened North Eastern States.

Today, the mood of the country especially the mood of youth is against corruption on war footing. The war against corruption is perceived the mother of all wars. Anti corruption movement gathered moment when Anna Hazare kick started the movement and gave a call to the youth to join him in a fight against corruption under the banner of India against corruption. (IAC)

Youth against corruption:
Independent India has seen scams like-Bofors, Fodder scam, Share Market scam etc., where billions of rupees of public money has been swindled by unscrupulous people. Inspite of exposure of these scams, corruption still persists in all walks of life including education, health, administration and politics.

The overall effect of the youth movement against corruption is the creation of the institution of Lokpal, passing of Acts like Right to Information (RTI), Right to Education (RTE), Sakaal, introduction of transparency in election funding etc.

2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017

Students can Download 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017, Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

  1. Statistical table and graph sheets will be supplied on request.
  2. Scientific calculators may be used.
  3. All working steps should be clearly shown.

Section – A

I. Answer any ten of the following questions: ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
Define fertility.
Answer:
Fertility refers to the births occurring to women of child bearing age.

Question 2.
Does Marshall-Edgeworth’s Index number satisfy factor reversal test?
Answer:
No

Question 3.
Which price of the commodities is used in the construction of cost of living index number?
Answer:
Retail/consumer prices.

Question 4.
Give an example for seasonal variation.
Answer:
Incease in employement during harvest season in agriculture sector.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
In which distribution mean and variance are equal?
Answer:
Poisson distribution.

Question 6.
Write the mean of /-distribution.
Answer:
Mean = 0.

Question 7.
What is point estimation?
Answer:
‘While estimating the unknown parameter, if a specific’value is proposed as an estimate, which is called Point estimation’.
‘While estimating the unknown parameter instead of a specific value, an interval is proposed, which is likely to contain the parameter is called Interval estimation’

Question 8.
What is power of a test?
Answer:
It is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is not true. (1 – β ),
Here β = P (Type II Error) which is referred as ‘consumers risk

Question 9.
When is the pooling of the frequencies done in testing of goodness of fit?
Answer:
When expected frequencies are less than 5.

Question 10.
What is defect?
Answer:

  • A defect is a quality characteristic, which does not conform to specifications.
  • The presence of one or more defects in a product/article is a defective.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
Mention a need of replacement of an item.
Answer:

  • As the equipment grow older, its maintenance cost would be costlier.
  • Production cost would be lesser in new equipments.

Question 12.
What is meant by inventory?
Answer:
An Inventory is a physical stock of goods, which is held for the purpose of future production or sales.

Section – B

II. Answer any ten of the following questions: ( 10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 13.
Mention two uses of life table.
Answer:

They are used in computation of actuarial of premium, bonus etc, of policies by Insurance Agencies. OR

  • Life Tables are used in research activities in Biology, Medicine, Pharmacology, Demography, Psychology, Sociology etc.
  • They are used to study population growth and forecast the size and sex distribution of the
    Population. OR
  • Life Tables give Mortality and Survival ratios at different ages.
  • Life tables give the life expectancy at different age. OR
  • These are useful in public administration, heath care, planning and population control

Question 14.
Why is Fisher’s index number called as an ‘Indeal Index Number’?
Answer:
Fisher’s Index Number is called as ideal because, it is free from bias in use of weights ie. it takes both current and base year quantities as weights.

  • It is based on geometric mean which is considered as best average
  • It satisfies both time reversal tests and factor reversal tests

Question 15.
If Iptq = 600 and Epgq = 500 then, find suitable price index number.
Answer:
Kelly’s P.I.No.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 0

Question 16.
What are the different phases in a business cycle?
Answer:
(1) Prosperity (2) Decline (3) Depression and (4) Improvement.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 17.
Write down the assumptions of interpolation and extrapolation.
Answer:

  • The assumptions made in interpolation and extrapolations are:
  • There are no sudden jumps in the values of dependent variable(Y) from one period to another(X).
  • The rate of change of figures (Y) from one period to another(X) is uniform.
  • There will be no consecutive missing values in the series.

Question 18.
Write down the p.m.f. of Bernoulli distribution with parameter p = 0.4.
Answer:
p(x) = px q1 – x; x = 0,1, : p(x) = 0.4x 0.61 – x; x = 0,1
Here = 1 – p = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6

Question 19.
If Z1 and Z2 are two independent SNV’s, then name the distribution of Z12 + Z22 and find its mean.
Answer:
It is a chi-square distribution with 2 d.f. Mean = n = 2.

Question 20.
Define type – I and type – II errors.
Answer:
Type I Error is taking a wrong decision to reject the null hypothesis when it is actually true.
Type II Error is taking a wrong decision to accept the null hypothesis when it is actually not true.3

Question 21.
If n = 10, s2 = 20 and σ2 = 25, find chi-square test statistic.
Answer:
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 01

Question 22.
What do you mean by process control and product-control?
Answer:

  • Controlling the quality of the product during the manufacturing process itself is called process control.
  • Controlling the quality of the finished products/manufactured products is called product control.

Question 23.
If the depreciation and the cumulative maintenance costs of an equipment for the third year are Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 10,400 respectively, find the annual average cost.
Answer:
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 1

Question 24.
Given R = 3600 units/year, C3 = Rs. 50 and C1 = Rs. 4/unit/year, find Q0.
Answer:
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 2

Section – C

III. Answer any eight of the following questions: ( 8 × 5 = 40 )

Question 25.
Find standardized death rate for the follwoing data:
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 3
Answer:
Let A be ASDRS and Ps be the standard population.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 4

Question 26.
Mention any five steps involved in the construction of Index number.
Answer:
Any two of the following :

  1. Purpose and the scope
  2. Selection of base period or
  3. Selection of commodities or items
  4. Obtaining price quotations
  5. Choice of an average
  6. 6. Selection of weights
  7. Selection of suitable formula

KSEEB Solutions

Question 27.
Find cost of living index number for the following data.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 5
Answer:
Weights – W are given, use family budget method.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 6
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 7

Question 28.
Find five yearly moving average for the following data.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 8
Answer:
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 9

Question 29.
Following is the data regarding annual nt life insurance premium. Using binomial expansion method estimate the premium at the age 30 and 45.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 10
Answer:
Let X and Y be the age and premium. The number of known values of y : n = 4, the Binomial exponsion (y – 1)4 = 0. .
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 11
y4 – 4y3 + 6y2 – 4y1+ y0 = 0 ……………(1)
By increasing sufficiences of y by T we get
y5 – 4y4 + 6y3 – 4y2 + y1 = 0 …………. (2)
From (1) 2256 – 4(1996) + 6y2 – 4(1581) +1426 = 0.
2256 – 7984 + 6y2 – 6324 + 1426 = 0 ,
6y2 – 10626 = 0
∴ y2 = Rs.1771
From (2) y5 – 4(2256) + 6(1996) -4(1771)+ 1581 =0
y5-9024 + 11976 – 7084 + 1581 =0
∴ y5 = Rs. 2551

Question 30.
On an average a typist makes 2 mistakes per page. Find the probability that a page types by him has (i) 2 mistakes (ii) at most 1 mistake.
Answer:
Let X be the number of typing mistakes is a poisson variable with the parameter λ = 2.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 12
(i) P(2 mistakes) =p(x = 2) = \(\frac{e^{-2} 2^{x}}{2 !}=\frac{0.1353 \times 4}{2}\) = 0.2706
(ii) P(at most 1 mistake) =p(x ≤ 1) – p(x = 0) + p(x = 1)
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 13

KSEEB Solutions

Question 31.
A box contains 8 red and 4 white balls. From this box 5 balls are drawn at random What is the probability that the sampel contains 3 red balls?
Answer:
Let X be the number of red balls is a Hypergeometric variate then : a(x) = 8, b = 4 and n = 5.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 14

Question 32.
Following is the data regarding mean weights of randomly selected boys and girls of PUC students. Test whether, mean weight of boys is less than mean weight of girs. [Use 5% I.o.S]
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 15
Answer:
Given: n1 = 64, n2 = 48, x̄1 = 50, x̄2 = 54, S1 = 8, s2 = 12.
H0 : Mean weight of Boys and Girls is same (µ1 = µ2)
H1 : Mean weight of Boys is less than Girls (µ1 < µ2) {Lower fail test -k}
Under H0 the test statistic is:
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 16
At a = 5% the lower critical value -k = – 1.65
Here Zcal lies in rejection region (RR).
∴ H0 is rejected and H1 accepted.
Conclusion: Mean weight boys is less than girsl.

Question 33.
A specified brand of automobile tyre is known to have average life of 40000 km. A random sample of 10 types of this brand, when tested resulted in the average life 39000 km and S.D 1200 km. At 1% I.o.s what is your conclusion regarding average life of tyres?
Answer:
Given : µ = 40,000, n = 10, x̄ = 39,000, s = 1200, α = 1%
H0: Mean life of tyres is 40,000 kms(µ = 40,000)
H1: Mean life of tyres differs from 40,000 kms/(µ ≠ 40,000) (two tailed test)
Under H0 the t-test statistics is :-
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 17
At α = 1.1 the two tail critical values for (n – 1) = 10 – 1 = 9 d.f are ±k = +3.25
Here tcal lies in Acceptance region (A.R).
∴ H0 is accepted
Conclusion: Mean life of tyres is 40,000 kms

Question 34.
For the following data find control limits of X̄ chart. (Given A2 = 0.729]
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 18
Answer:
Standards are not known, for x̄ – chart
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 19
The control limits are:
C.L = X̿ = 50,
L.C.L= X̿ – A2 R̄ = 50 – (0.729 × 5) = 46.355
U.C.L= X̿ + A2 R =50+ (0.729 × 5) = 53.645

Question 35.
Solve the following LPP graphically.
Maximize Z = 100X + 170Y ‘
s.t 2X + 3Y ≤ 36
X + 2T ≤ 20 and X,Y ≥ 0.
(For visually challenged students only)
A tailor gets a profit of Rs. 100 from a shirt and Rs. 170 from a pant. In a week of 56 hours, he uses 36 hours for cutting and 20 hours for stitching. For cutting he requires tw0 hours for a shirt and three hours for a pant. He, requires one hour to stitch a shirt and two hours to stitch a pant, formualte L.P.P.
Answer:
Consider the constraints as equalities (i.e., as equaion).
2x + 3y = 36 Co-ordinates (x, y)
put x = 0: we get y = \(\frac{36}{3}\) = 12: (0,12) .
put y = 0; we get x = \(\frac{36}{2}\) = 18; (18 , 0)
and x + 2y = 20
put x = 0 ; y = \( \frac{20}{0}\) =10; (0, 10)
put y = 0; x = 20 (20 , 0)
Also x = 0, y = 0
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 20
From the graph teasible region exhists at the corner points 0(0,0), A(0, 10), B( 12,4), C( 18,0) optimum value of the objective function is:
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 21
From the above table the objectivity of an L.P.P maximises at the corner point B(12,4). The optimum solution is: x= 12, y = 4 and the optimum value ZB= 1880.
For visually challenged students.
(OR)
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 22
The L.P.P is : objective function : Max z = 100x + 170y
Subject to constraints : Cutting: 2x + 3y ≤ 36
Stiching: x + 2y ≤ 20
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

KSEEB Solutions

Question 36.
Solve the following game by dominnance rule.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 23
Answer:
By dominance rule, all the pay-off of B1 less than all the pay-offs of B1 B3 [B1 < B2, B3]

B1 dominates B2, B3, So delete B2, B3
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 24
Pay-ofFof A2 is more than, A1, A3, A4, A2 dominates A1, A3. So, delte A1, A3
A2[7] Saddle point occurs at (2, 1)
The suggested best strategies are : for player A: A2: for player B : B1
The value of the game : V = 7

Section – D

IV. Answer any two of the foilwing questions: ( 2 × 10 = 20 )

Question 37.
Calculate GRR and NRR for the following data and comment on the result.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 25
Answer:
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 26

G. R.R = (i) \(\sum_{i=15}^{49}\) W.S.F.R = 5 × 220 = 1100 female
Children born per 1000 women
N.R.R = (i) \(\sum_{i=15}^{49}\) (W.S.F.R × S) = 5 × 194.6 = 973
Female children bom per 1000 women.

Question 38.
For the following data find Laspeyer’s, Paasche’s and Dorbish-Bowley’s price index numbers.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 27
Answer:
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 28

Question 39.
For the following data fit a straight line trend and find trend values also estimate the production of 2017.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 29
Answer:
Let x and y be the year and production
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 30
Here x̄ = 2013
From the normal equaiton na + bΣx = Σy
From Σa + bΣx2 = Σxy b = \(\frac{\Sigma x y}{\Sigma x^{2}}=\frac{84}{28}=3\)
Since Σx \(\frac{\Sigma y}{n}=\frac{630}{7}\) = 90 and
The fitted straight line trend equation is
y = a + bx : ŷ = 90 + 3x
Trend values : (2010) = 90 + 3(-3) = 81
ŷ(2011) = 90 + 3(-2) = 84.
Similarly all remaining trend values can be compated.
Estimation of production for 2017; x = 4
ŷ (2017) = 90 + 3(4) = 102 Tons.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 40.
(a) Five unbiased coins are tossed 128 times. Calculate the expected freuencies for the number of heads obtained. .
Answer:
Let x be the number of heads obtained is a Binomial variate is with the parameters n = 5
and p = 1/2 = 0.5 [coin is unbiased] N = 128. Then the p.m.f is :
p(x) = ncxpxqn – x; x = 0,1,2, …… n
p{x) =5cx 0.5x 0.55 – x; x = 0,1,2, …… 5
Theoretical/Expected frequency : Tx = p(x) N
T0 = p(x = 0) N = 5c00.500.55 – 0 × 128 = 4
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 31
The expected frequencies of number of heads is:
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 32

(b) Seventy accidents that have occurred in a state in a week are tabulated as follows:
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 33
Test whether accident occurs uniformly throughtout the week.
[Given K2 = 16.81].
Answer:
H0 : Accidents occur uniformly throughout the week
H1 : Accidents does not occur uniformly throughout the week…(upper tail test)
The test statistic is :
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 33(i)
Let ‘O’ and ‘E’ be the observed and expected number of accidents.
Since accidents occur uniformly throughout the week.
Expected frequencies each is \(\frac { 70 }{ 7 }\) = 10
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 33(ii)
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 33(iii)
∴ χ2cal= 6.8
For (n – 1) = (7 – 1) = 6 degrees of freedom at 1% level of significance, the upper tail critical value given k2= 16.81 (χ2tab)
Here χ2cal < k22cal lies on (AR-) acceptance region.
∴ H0 is accepted.
Conclusion: Accidents occur uniformly throughout the week.

Section – E

V. Answer any two of the following questions: ( 2 × 5=10 )

Question 41.
X is a normal variate with mean 100 and standard deviation 5. Find the probability
that (i) X ≥ 105 (ii) 90 ≤ X ≤ 110.
Answer:
X is a normal variate with the parameters
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 34
µ = 100 and σ = 5. Then S.N.V.Z = \(\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\) N(0,1);
\(\mathrm{z}=\frac{\mathrm{X}-100}{5}\)
(i)
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 35
= p(z > 1) = Area from 1 to ∞ = 0.1587

(ii)
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 36
= p(-2 < Z < 2)
= Area from (-2) to 2 = Area from (-2) to
= Area from (-2) to ∞ = 0.9772 – 0.0028 = 0.9544.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 37

Question 42.
In a sample of 400 people ¡n Kerala 220 are tea drinkers and the rest are coffee drinkers. Can we assume that both tea and coffee are equally popular in this state?
Use 5% level of significance.
Answer:
Given : n 400, x – Tea drinkers 220, po = 0.5 [equally popular].
Sample proportion p = \(\frac{x}{n}=\frac{220}{400}\) = 0.55
H0: Tea and coffee drinkers are equally popular [Po = 0.5]
H1 : Tea and coffee drinkers are not equally poular [Po ≠ 0.5] {Two tailed test)
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 38
At α = 5% the two tail critical values are ±k = ±1.96
Here zcallies in Rejection Region (R.R). Therefore-H0: is rejected and H1: is Accepted. Conclusion: Tea and coffee drinkers are not equally popular (p0: ≠0.5)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 43.
For the following data test whether the attributes ‘smoking’ and literacy’ are independent. Use 1% level of significance.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 39
Answer:
H0: Literacy and smoking are independent.
H1 : Literacy and smoking are dependent {upper tail test)
The 2 × 2 contingency table is:
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 40
Under H0 the χ2 – test statistic is
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 41
At α = 1% for 1 .d.f. the uppertail critical value k2 = 6.65
Here χ2 lies in acceptance Region (A.R)
.’. H0 is accepted
Conclusion: literacy and smoking are independent.
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 42

KSEEB Solutions

Question 44.
For the following transportation problem find initial basic feasible solution by NWCR method. Compute transportation cost. Is the solution degenerate?
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 43
Answer:
Here Σai = Σbj the T.P is balanced
By NWCR first allocation is made at the cell (1, 1) as :
X11 min (a1 b1) = min (500,400) = 400
D1 is satisfied and replace 500 by (500 – 400) = 100
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 44
Next allocate in the same row at (1, 2).
Similarly allocations can be made.
The suggested I.B.F.S and the total transporation lost is:
2nd PUC statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 - 45
Here no. of allocation = 5 = m + n- l= Origin + Destinations = 3 + 3 – 1 = 5: Solution is Non-degenerate.

2nd PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2016

Students can Download 2nd PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2016, Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2016

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in a word or a sentence each. (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
What is Dyarchy?
Answer:
Diarchy is Dual government.

Question 2.
Who was the Vice-President of the Viceroy’s Executive Council?
Answer:
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru was the Vice President of the Viceroy’s Executive council.

Question 3.
Who appoints the Election Commissioners of India?
Answer:
The President of India appoints the Election Commissioners of India.

Question 4.
When did the Anti-Defection law come into existence?
Answer:
Anti defection law came into existence on 1st April 1985.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Who started the newspaper ‘Mooka Naika’?
Answer:
Dr. B.R Ambedkar.

Question 6.
Which day is celebrated as Labours day?
Answer:
May 1st is celebrated as Labour day.

Question 7.
Write the meaning of coalition.
Answer:
According to F.A.Ogg “Coalition is a system where members of multiple political parties unite to form a government or Ministry”.

Question 8.
What is the root word of corruption?
Answer:
The word corruption comes from the latin ‘cor’ which means – altogether or with together and ‘rumpere’ which means to break Corruption can break or destroy one’s trustworthiness.

Question 9.
What is Liberalisation?
Answer:
Liberalization is the “Willingness to respect or accept behaviour or opinions different from one’s own, being open to new ideas”.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
Expand NAM.
Answer:
Non-Aligned movement.

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in two words or two sentences each: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
How many states was Punjab divided into? Which are they?
Answer:
Two – Punjab and Haryana.

Question 12.
What is ‘Anonymity’ in Civil Services?
Answer:
Civil Servants work behind the screen and remain anonymous even though they work for the Government. Recognition for good work or disrepute for any omission goes only to the concerned minister and not to the civil servants.

Question 13.
What is environment?
Answer:
Environment is the sum total of all biotic and non-biotic (living and non-living factors) and conditions that surround and potentially influence organisms without becoming their constituent part.

Question 14.
What is National Integration?
Answer:
It is the process of uniting the people emotionally, psychologically and politically. Sardar Vallabh Bai Patel, Vinoba Bhave, Lai Bahadhur Shastri, J.B. Kriplani and Achaiya Narendra Dev played a key role in the National Integration. November 19th is being observed as National integration day.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
Write the meaning of Identity Politics.
Answer:
Identity politics is a pattern of belongingness, a search for comfort, an approach to community, to attain empowerment, representation and recognition of the social groups.

Question 16.
What is Common Minimum Programme?
Answer:
When the partners of an alliance who have formed a Government, set aside their political ideologies to run a coalition Government on some common policies, it is called Common Minimum Programme.

Question 17.
What is Brain drain?
Answer:
In most of the developing and underdeveloped nations, job opportunities are minimal. Educated persons, seeking better living conditions and earning options, migrate to developed countries. So the nations get drained of their intellectuals and face the problem of brain drain. These nations get deprived of their Scientists, Engineers and others.

Question 18.
Name any two organs of the UN.
Answer:

  1. General Assembly
  2. Security Council.

Question 19.
Name any two members of the SAARC.
Answer:
Bangladesh, Bhutan, India.

Question 20.
Write any two principles of Panchsheel.
Answer:

  1. Mutual Non-aggression
  2. Peaceful co-existence.

Question 21.
Name any two military alliances.
Answer:
SEATO ANZUS, NATO.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 22.
Who were the signatories of Simla Agreement?
Answer:
Simla Pact was signed in 1972 at Simla. The signatories of this pact (agreement) were Smt. Indira Gandhi – Indian Prime Minister and Pakistan Prime Minister, Z.A. Bhutto.

III. Answer any eight of the following questions in 15-20 sentences ehch: (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 23.
Explain the provisions of Indian Independence Act, 1947.
Answer:
1. The Act Provided that on 15th August 1947, the appointed date, two independent dominions, India and Pakistan, would be set up and the Act provided for complete transfer of power.

2. The dominion of India got the territories of Bombay, Madras, UP, Central Provinces, Bihar, Assam, Delhi, Ajmer, Coorg etc., and the rest of India except Sindh, Baluchistan, West Punjab, East Bengal, North West Frontier Province and Sylhet in Assam, which became the territories of Pakistan. For demarcating the boundaries, a Boundary Commission was formed with Sir Cyril Radcliffe as the Chairman.

3. The Crown was no longer the source of authority.

4. The Governor General and provisional Governors were to act as constitutional heads. They lost extra-ordinary powers to legislate.

5. The office of the Secretary of State was abolished.

6. From 15th August 1947, the British Crown lost all rights of Paramountcy over India and the Indian states were free to join either Indian Union or Pakistan.

7. The power in each dominion was transferred to the Constituent Assembly which became fully sovereign from 15th August 1947 and were absolutely free to frame the constitution. The Constituent Assemblies had a dual role i.e. Constituent and Legislative. They functioned as Central Legislature, till the new Legislatures were formed.

8. Until the new Constitution was framed, the Act of 1935 would govern the Centre and the Provinces with necessary modifications.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 24.
Explain the features of Indirect Election.
Answer:
Features of Indirect Elections are:
1. Selection of best candidates:
In this method, candidates are elected by intelligent voters. At the first instance General public elect their representatives to the electoral college and at the second instance the elected representatives in turn judiciously elect the final representatives of legislature or head of the nation. This method involves double election. Elected representatives act wisely with political acumen.

2. Prevents unhealthy campaigning:
It avoids all sorts of evils like dirty propaganda tricks and instigation of people lover petty issues to divide them. For example in the election of the President of India, the average voters are kept outside but only elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament participate. These intelligent and responsible members keep away from all sorts of party gimmicks.

3. Peaceful voting:
In this method, there is no scope for illegal activities or fights during the election as it happens in the direct election. In the electoral process only small members of enlightened voters peacefully exercise their votes judiciously. The elections are conducted according to well defined norms and values.

4. Little scope for emotions:
Elected representatives are not carried away by passions or sentiments nor can be influenced like an average voter. There is no chance for misusing sensitive issues for political gains. The higher level leaders are elected by people’s representatives who act with a sense of responsibility.

5. Suitable to developing nations:
Since majority of the voters are ignorant, not educated and intelligent, only a small group of politically educated and wise voters elect responsible and public spirited representatives.

Question 25.
Write a note on Central Services.
Answer:
India is a Union of States and hence it provides for division of powers. Subjects mentioned in the union list are to be managed by a separate body of officials under central services. Art. 312 of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to create Central Services.

The officials appointed to these services come under the exclusive control of the Central Government. The Central Services are classified into Class-I, Class-II, Class-Ill and Class-IV:
Some of the Central Services are:

  1. Indian Foreign Services.
  2. Indian Audit & Accounts Sendees.
  3. Indian Revenue Services.
  4. Indian Railway Services
  5. Indian Defence Services
  6. Indian Information Services
  7. Indian Postal Services
  8. Indian Engineering Services
  9. Indian Economic Services.

Question 26.
Write a note on Chief Secretary.
Answer:
Chief Secretary is the head of the Secretariat in every state. He is in charge of the administrative setup. His authority includes all departments of the Secretariat. By reason of his experience and standing, he is able to ease out difficulties and frictions to give general guidance to other officers. Thus he gives leadership to the administrative set up of the state. He maintains rapport between the State government and the Union government and other State governments.
Functions:
The Chief Secretary performs the following functions:

  1. He is the Principal Adviser to the Chief Minister.
  2. He acts as the Cabinet Secretary and attends cabinet meetings.
  3. He exercises general supervision and control over the entire Secretariat.
  4. He looks after all matters beyond the purview of other secretaries.
  5. As chief of all the secretaries, he presides over a large number of committees and is a member of many others.
  6. He is the secretary by rotation, of the zonal council of which the state is a member.
  7. He has control over the staff attached to the ministers.
  8. He is the bridge between that State and Central or other state Governments.
  9. He receives confidential communication from the Government of India and conveys them to the Chief Minister.

As the head of the administrative Machinery, Chief of the Civil Services, Mentor and conscience keeper of Civil services, he plays a significant role in the state administration.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 27.
Explain the causes of Dalit movement,
Answer:
Causes for Dalit Movement are as follows:
1. Social injustice:
As per the law of nature, all men are born equal. But in practice, equal treatment and equal opportunities have been denied. Exploitation in society was widespread. To get their legitimate rights and opportunities, dalits rebelled under the leadership of many reformers which took the form of movement against the injustice.

2. Economic inequality:
Dalits worked in the lands of high caste Elindus and were responsible for the wealth of the feudalist upper castes. Inspite of it, they were treated inhumanly and were not given proper share of wealth. Hence, their position was pathetic. Added to the this, they were victims of exploitation, atrocity, harassment and other heinous Acts. Their opposition was expressed in the form of agitations.

3. Discrimination:
Discrimination was rampant in all walks of life. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar himself was the victim of such discrimination. He dared to enter the Kalaram Temple of Nasik against all opposition with his fellow dalits. He publicly used the water of Mahad tank. With this, he started democratic struggle against discrimination to attain social equality. This became the stepping stone for Dalit Movement.

4. Lack of awareness:
Dalits were deprived of educational facilities which lead to lack of awareness. Hence, exploitation atrocities mounted up. To get relieved of such situations and to create awareness, movements like Bahishkrith Hitakarini Sabha (1924), Dalit Sangharsh Samiti (1974) and others were initiated nationwide.

5. Political Backwardness:
Basically Dalits were kept away from political participation and decision making processes due to denial opportunities. Social boycott, exploitation and subordination were responsible for political backwardness. To come out of these barriers, Dalits were forced to organise agitations and protests which finally got converted into movements.

6. Political implications:
Dalit movement is named as Dalit Andolan in Karnataka, Asprushya (untouchable) Aandolan in Maharashtra, Adi Dravida Andolan in Tamilnadu, Pulaya Aandolan in Kerala, Adi Dharma Andolan in Punjab and Namasudra Aandolan in West Bengal.

As a result of Dalit Movements, in the post Independence period, several measures were taken to improve the status of Dalits. The Constituation of India has provided many provisions for the upliftment of Dalits to bring them into the main stream. Many rights have been incorporated to empower Dalits.

Question 28.
What are the causes of Feminist Movement?
Answer:
The causes for Feminist Movement are as follows.
1. Inequality:
It is evident that Indian society is male dominated and preference is given to the male members. Though men and women are born equally and the Consitution also upholds the equality between the two, women are deprived of education, employment, decision making, and property rights. This has led to agitations.

2. The evils of dowry:
The evils of dowry have forced parents to become debtors, the girls to brothels and uneven ratio through female foeticide and infanticide. As a result of this uneven ratio of men and women in the society, rape and other heinous crimes are on the rise.

3. Denial of human rights:
The attrocities on women have denied them human rights and other rights like right to life, liberty, freedom of expression and others. Their existence and survival depends upon the mercy of the male members. Decision making is the birth right of men in matters of education, marriage, property rights and family issues.

4. Social strata based on gender:
Men have not spared any of the fields including cultural, social, religious, political and exercise their monopoly and continue their attrocities on women. Women are treated as slaves and bonded labourers. This has made the women to organize themselves and start an agitation.

5. Sexual abuse and molestation:
Irrespective of the age, time and place, the above heinous crimes are taking place. To regain the right to decide about children or to get aborted without the interference of husband or politicians through governmental policies, women are uniting together and fighting for justice.

6. Domestic violence:
Women shoulder the entire household responsibilites like raring and caring of children, domestic work and the related tasks. The cohabitants of the family become the victims of domestic violence because of irresponsible, illiterate and drunkard husbands who lack discreation. This may take the form of physical, mental, sexual harassment and finally it may take women’s life as toll. To avoid such violence, women organisations are established.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 29.
Explain briefly the various components of Nation building.
Answer:
Nation building is the process whereby the State becomes a true nation-state, its people become a well organised, united and cohesive group and the society becomes democratic and developed. It also involves the process of making the political system autonomous and legitimate to meet the demands and aspirations of the people and overcome threats, crises and all other challenges. Thus, nation building is the transformation of a country into a great society or a powerful nation.

Components:
1. Community support:
To realize the process of nation building, collective support and endeavour of people are essential. The quality of the people reflects the quality of a nation. Disciplined work culture and patriotic feeling also contribute for nation building.

2. Good Governance:
Good governance ensures accountability, transparency, efficiency, responsibility and responsiveness. In addition, the use of technology has given rise to e-Governance.

3. Committed Leadership:
History depicts many examples of committed leadership. The US President F.D Roosevelt solved the crisis of Economic depression by adopting the new deal policy. In India, Nehru’s leadership largely contributed to the process of nation building.

4. Political Culture:
Political culture constitutes a set of values, attitudes and behaviour towards political system. It requires an ideal political behaviour for national reconstruction.

5. Power sharing:
To realize the goal, political power needs to be shared among all sections of society. The consentration of political power in the hands of a few people and some families, leads to the emergence of authoritarianism and dictatorship.

6. Universal education:
For the development of a Nation universal education is of paramount importance. It enables a person to understand their potentiality and strengthens dignity. As Gandhi said ‘Education is the light of life’, it encourages people to develop the spirit of enquiry, the ability to analyze the nation’s problems and to work for national progress.

7. National Character:
Nationalism and patriotism are the foundations to build a national character. Each country has its distinct national character which denotes one’s nativity as the conservatism of UK, ‘Land of Liberty’ of US, ethnic city of Africa, Aborigines of Australia and cultural diversity of India. Love and respect for one’s country and national symbols such as national flag, national anthem and national monuments are the prerequisites.

8. Mass Media:
Mass Media is regarded as the Fourth Estate in Democracy as it plays a vital role in nation building. It highlights the omissions and commissions of the Government and acts as a bridge between the Government and the public.

9. Responsible Intelligentsia:
The contribution of intellectuals is recognized all over the world. Research and innovations in important areas of human life have contributed to the national development. In India, the development in the field of social sciences by M.N. Srinivas, Amarthya Sen, Gail, Vandana Shiva, Ashish Nandy, and others and in science and technology, Sir M. Vishveshwaraiah, Sir C.V. Raman, Dr. Raja Ramanna, Dr. M.G.K. Menon, Dr. C.N.R. Rao, Dr.U.R. Rao, Dr. A.PJ. Abdul Kalam and others have greatly contributed for India’s present position at global level.

10. National Integration
It is process of uniting the people emotionally, psychologically and politically. SardarVallabhaBai Patel, Vinoba Bhave, Lai Bahadhur Shastri. J.B. Kriplani and Acharya Narendra Dev have played a key role in the National Integration. November 19th is being observed as National integration day.

Question 30.
Socio-economic development is a remedy to terrorism. Discuss.
Answer:
1. Socio-Economic Measures:
Socio economic development in the terrorist prone areas would provide a long-lasting solution to the problem.

2. Social acceptance:
Measures have to be taken to bring the terrorists back to the mainstream of social life. They should not be made to suffer the stigma of a terrorist.

3. Education:
Lack of nation oriented and moral education at the young age is a must youth are lured by terrorist adventurism. Providing proper education would help them to realize that there are other rational and human values to achieve their goals.

4. Employment opportunities:
Generation of employment at the right age to everyone avoids undemocratic and anti-national activities. By providing proper employment opportunities, youth can be effectively prevented from embracing terrorism.

5. Financial Assistance:
More and more youth should be encouraged to become self employed by financial assistance through banks and other non-banking financial institutions. Fundamentalists cannot achieve success in capturing the employed youth for their selfish motto.

6. Economic equality:
Government has to take initiatives, to formulate large scale economic measure to eliminate extreme poverty and exploitation and ensure economic equality.

7. Rehabilitation:
Government has to undertake measures to immediately compensate the uprooted and evacuated people while executing large scale national policies and programmes.

8. Removal of Regional disparity:
Not all parts of the nation are equality developed. Government should take special measures and legislative actions to remove the regional disparity. Many terrorists originate from the regionally imbalanced and underdeveloped areas.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 31.
Explain various emergency provisions in our Constitution.
Answer:
Part XVIII of the Constitution of India deals with three types of emergency provisions.
1. National Emergency:
Act 352 empowers the President to declare National emergency when there is threat of external aggression. Till now, it has been imposed thrice. In such circumstances, individual rights are suspended except Art. 21 (protection of life and personal liberty) and Art. 22 (protection against arrest and detention in certain cases).

2. State Emergency:
Art 356 authorise the President to declare President’s rule in a state on the recommendation of as Governor during the breakdown of the constitutional machinery in that state. Hitherto, it has been implemented.

3. Financial Emergency:
Article 360 empowers the President to declare financial emergency if the financial conditions of the nation are precarious.

Question 32.
Explain the importance of privatisation.
Answer:
The political implications of Privatisation are as follows:
1. Concentration of Wealth:
Privatisation encourages concentration of wealth in the hands of big business groups. It results in great disparities of income and wealth. It goes against the principle of egalitarian society.

2. More profits:
Corporate sectors generate more profits. But they share a meagre percentage with the shareholders. They enjoy the lion’s share out of the shareholders’ investment. As a result, the gap between the rich and the poor gets widened.

3. Bane to local industries:
Local people borrow money from indigenous banks and also get loans from government concerns with subsidised rates of interest to start an industry. Multi-national companies with good financial backup, survive even in case of loss.

4. Threat to national interest:
Key areas of Nation like Defence, Space, Science, and Technology are to be retained with the Government. Assigning these areas to the private sector may harm National interests.

5. Lack of service motto:
The private firms are concerned more about their profit rather than providing good service conditions to their staff and do not bother about extending welfare programmes to their employees and even to the society.

6. No job security:
Private companies extract work from employees as long as they are fit. They ruthlessly sack them when they suffer from ill health or fitness problems. In the long run, they become a burden to the Government. The employees of private sectors suffer from job insecurity and this results in psychological disorders.

Question 33.
Bring out the importance of International Relations.
Answer:
1. The study of International relations enables us to understand the basic policies and principles which contribute the international sphere.

2. It provides concrete solutions for international problems, by means of dialogues, bilateral, multilateral, mutual cooperations and the like.

3. It substitutes internationalism to narrow nationalism which delimits the boundaries of States.

4. It avoids war, military actions or alliances, and international conflicts.

5. It considers the acceptance of the principles of collective security and disarmament, world peace and progress. It creates a global feeling among the citizens of the world and promotes universal brotherhood.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 34.
Explain briefly the basic principles of Indian Foreign Policy.
Answer:
The foreign policy of a nation represents its external sovereignty and freedom. India adopted its own foreign policy after the emancipation from British colonialism and emerged as a sovereignty nation in the world.

India’s foreign policy is born of a country’s principles, interests and objectives. It is the result of interplay of complex forces like History, Geography, Domestic environment, Ideology and the influence of National Leaders. It emphasizes the glory of Indian freedom struggle, importance of India’s geographical location for its economic
development and patriotism.

An important fact of India’s foreign policy is the concern for Gandhian ideas of peace and non violence. India achieved its independence by using these weapons and succeeded in inspiring the world.

India’s foreign policy comprises of economic developments and political stability to ensure the unity and integrity of the country. National security was conceived to present aggression or threat of aggression to protect the independence, territorial integrity, self reliance and promote economic independence.

India belived in fostering friendly relations with her neighbours. She promotes good will, friendship and co-operation in the South Asian region for mutual benefit. India opposes big power intervention or interference in the internal affairs of South Asian region. India calls for making Indian ocean a peaceful zone to avoid big power naval confrontation.

India supports liberation on movements, democratic struggles for national independence and right of self determination. She is opposed to imperialism, colonialism, racism, authoritarianism and militarism in the world.

India supports the Human Rights as a basic condition for democratic world and for an egalitarian world. India believes in promotion of the principle of Panchasheel and strengthening of Non Align Movement (NAM) and UN for easing global tension. This is to build a world free from fear, hate, scarcity and inequality.

IV. Answer any two of the following in 30 to 40 sentences: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Explain the nature of party system in India.
Answer:
Nature:
The nature of Indian party system can . be traced back to the Indian National Movement. Indian National Congress (INC) was founded by A.O. Hume in 1885. It was a forum to unite the people of India to fight against the British Imperialism. Due to ideological differences, Muslim League was founded in 1906. Other parties like Hindu Maha Sabha, Communist Party of India, Forward Block and Praja Socialist Party etc., emerged in the successive years.

Later, in the post independence period, Jan Sangh, Janatha Party, Bharatiya Janatha Party, Janata Dal, Nationalist Congress Party, according to the needs of the time and they started to work to get power etc were floated.

1. Extra Constitutional growth:
There is no reference in the Constitution of India about M how many political parties are to exist in the country. According to Article 19 of the Constitution, all citizens can have the freedom to form associations or unions. Political parties are established on the basis of this liberty. Hence, political parties have no constitutional base.

2. Prevalence of Multi party system:
India is a divergent country with many religions, tribes, languages, culture and traditions. This heterogeneity leads to the emergence of many political parties to protect their interests in the main stream of the country.

3. Spilt and merger:
It is a common phenomenon in the Indian party system. Various reasons contributed for this split like ideological differences, egoism, power hunger, etc.

4. End of single party era:
India was under Congress rule till 1977. The happenings between 1975-1977, forced small parties to unite and fight against Congress and capture power and put an end to the single party era.

5. Dissident activities:
Meanness of leaders like personal attitudes, favouritism, nepotism lead to dissident activities. Repetition of such happenings instigates leaders to go against the ideology of the party and paves way to political instability.

6. Defection:
Elected members of the Legislature change their parties often for personal benefits or differences of opinion and other reasons. It ruins the values of democracy and destabilizes the government.

7. Leader worship:
Most of the political parties in India emphasize on the leaders rather than the ideologies of the parties. The leader decides the destiny of the political party e.g. Jawaharlal Nehru and Indira Gandhi of Congress, A.B. Vajpayee of BJR Leaders with charisma dominate the whole party.

8. Alliances without principles:
Political parties are formed with principles of democracy and secularism but they ignore them for want of power and make unholy alliances.

9. Dominance of Regional parties:
The presence of regional parties during the first general elections did not influence the voters and they were rejected. During 1980s, they emerged very strong and dominated the political scenario, e.g. DMK, ALADMK, Telugu Desam, Shiv Sena, National Conference, AGP, JD(S), RJD, SJP, BJD and other parties playing a significant role during the formation of Governments.

10. Religious, Lingual and Region alism:
The basis of political parties in India is religion, language, regionalism and the like. e.g. Muslim league, Akalidal, Shiv Sena, DMK, AIADMK, Maharashtra Ekikaran Samiti (MES) Telangana Rastriya Samiti (TRS) and others. In spite of the rules of the Election Commission, such political parties exist.

11. Leftist and Rightist Parties:
Party system in India consists of Leftist and Rightist ideologies, e.g. CPI, CPI (M), Forward Block, RPI and Socialist parties who have belief in revolutionary ideology and drastic changes in the system form the left front. Parties like Congress, BJP, SP, NCP, BSP, RJD, JD (U), JD (S) and others who believe in moderate changes in the system form the right front.

12. The era of coalition:
When no single political party secures absolute majority, like minded political parties come together and join as a single largest group to form a coalition Government. The era of coalition started during 1977, when Janata Party came to power headed by Sri Morarjee Desai as Prime Minister at the centre along with other parties. This was followed by National Front, United Front, NDA, UPA etc.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 36.
Explain the causes of illiteracy. How does it threat Indian Democracy?
Answer:
Illiteracy means inability of a person to read and write in any language. Amartya Sen described illiteracy as one of ‘unfreedoms’. According to the census report of 2001, a person who can read and write with understanding in any language may be called a literate person and a person who can only read but cannot write is not a literate person.

Illiteracy is both a curse and an impediment to democracy. Illiterates are easily exploited and mislead by politicians and vested interests to realize their goals. The successful working of democracy depends upon political awareness which can be acquired only through education.

2nd PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2016 img 1

The 2011 census report records the literacy rate in Kerala as 94%, Karnataka at 75.36% and Bihar at 61.80%.

1. Lack of Political Awareness:
Illiteracy contributes for political apathy. Illiterate masses due to their ignorance and indifferences do not take part in political process. They are not able to understand the importance of vote, they do not understand the idealogies of political parties, their manifestos and the performance of ruling party, election rules, and process.

2. Low Percentage of votes:
Since the first general election, the percentage of polling has not crossed 60%. This is due to illiteracy and lack of political awareness. Political legitimacy cannot be achieved to a full extend by low percentage of polling.

3. Money and Muscle Power:
The nexus between politicians and businessmen is noticeable. The politicians are tactful enough to get votes from the poor people who are illiterate through dubious means like rigging and booth capturing and threatening the voters using muscle power. This has led to criminalization of politics.

4. Politics of Populism:
The voters in India are attracted by politics of populism. Illiteracy and poverty force them to depend upon the facilities of the Government. They fail to understand that the populist programmes bring them into mainstream of the Society. Indulgence in politics of populism makes the people to depend on the Government for everything without becoming creative individuals. This becomes an impediment to national development.

5. Emergence of Dictatorship:
When people are not politically conscious, show apathy to vote, an ambitious leader transforms democracy into a dictatorship.

Question 37.
Explain the importance of globalisation and bring out its political implications.
Answer:
Globalisation is the process of intergrating the economy of the country with world economy. It is a movement towards greater interaction. Integration and interdependence among people and organisation across borders. The strongest manifestion of Globalisation has been the increasing economics intergration among the countries in trade and investment.

An important attribute of globalization is the increasing degree of openness, which has three dimensions, ie. international trade, international investment and international finance. It involves creation of networks and activities transcending economic, social and geographical boundaries. The Economy of India had undergone significat policy shifts in the beginning of the 1990’s. This new model of economic reforms is commonly known as the liberalization, privatizaton and globalisation(LPG) model.

The chain of reforms that took place with regard to business, manufacturing and financial industries targeted at the strengthening the economy of the country to a more proficient level. These economic reforms had influenced the overall economic growth of the country in a significant manner.
In brief the salient points of Globalisation are

  1. Efficiency
  2. Transfer of technology
  3. Concept of a global village
  4. Mobility of labour force
  5. Global competion resulting in better performance
  6. Outsourcing and
  7. Optimum utilization of human resources.

The political implications of globalisation are as follows:
1. Power subjugation:
The effects of globalisation has brought a lot of changes in the world economy. For small countries, it is inevitable to accept the economic decisions of big countries, which leads to power subjugation.

2. Affects the sovereignty:
As a result of globalisation in the fields of economy, trade, transportation, etc., the sovereign countries are bound by the decisions of stronger countries. Hence it affects the sovereignty of a country in totality.

3. Cultural invasion:
Culture is a complex, wholesome and exclusive to each country. The influence of globalisation in the name of cultural exchange not only invades but also degenerates the youth who are the architects of the future.

4. Enslavement of lifestyle:
Globalisation has largely affected the younger generation. Food habits, general behaviour, mutual relationship, respect to elders, human values and ultimately the whole generation has become slave in the clutches of globalisation.

5. Elimination of subsidies:
The major impact of globalisation is the curtailment of subsidies to all sectors including agriculture, in a phased manner. The worst hit are the peasants who are the backbone of the country.

6. Political Instability:
The impact of globalisation mainly is economic depression, boom or even recession which directly affects the political stability of a country. Hence development comes to a stand still. Thus globalisation as a process of integrating the economy of the country with world economy has gone a long way.

Question 38.
Discuss the concepts of International Relations.
Answer:
The core concepts of International Relations pertaining to politics are as follows:
a. State Sovereignty:
Jean Bodin has described the concept of Sovereignty in his work “De Republica”. He emphasizes on the state Sovereignty within their territorial jurisdiction. No State can dictate others and all States are equal in matters of status, dignity and honour. For instance, India under the British imperialism lost its sovereignty and gained its state hood only in 1947. Iraq during the Gulf war in 1990, is an example for aggression on the Sovereignty.

b. National Interests:
It is the action of the State in relation to other States. As Frankel opined, it refers to the aspiration of the state. The determinants of national interest are qualities of personalities and ideals of the decision makers.

c. Power Blocs:
With the beginning of the cold war, two power blocs emerged, i.e., USA and USSR. President of U S. Harry S. Truman believed in the spread of democracy whereas the Warsaw Pact under Soviet policy sought the spread of Communism. Capitalistic ideology spread in UK, France, Germany and Communist ideology spread in Poland, Bulgaria, Rumania and Hungery.

d. Polarity:
Polarities in international relations refer to the arrangement of power within the international system. The concept arose from bi-polarity during the cold war between the two super powers. The disintegration of the USSR has led to uni-polarity with the United States as the superpower.

With rapid economic growth in 2010, China became the world’s second largest economy. Combined with the respectable international position, China has emerged as a major power in the multi-polar world.

e. Balance of Power:
The concept of Balance of Power refers to relative power position of States as actors in international relations, with its emphasis on the cultivation of power and the utilization of power for resolving the problems. Morgenthau used the term ‘Balance of Power’ as an approximately equal distribution of power. It is an inseparable part of the power politics.

V. Answer any two of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39.
Write a note on ‘Kannada Rajyotsava’ day celebration of your college.
Answer:
November 1st, every year is a great day. At the time of independence, there were more than 500 provinces in India ruled by rebellious kings and nawabs. Sardar Patel persuaded them to form states based on their native languages. In that way Kannada speaking people residing in the areas called Kannada Nadu or Mysore together to from the Mysore state, which was then only 9 or 10 districts came to be formed.

Later other areas were also added. Now there are 29 districts. On 1973 November 1st Mysore was renamed as Karnataka. From that day onwards, every November 1st Rajyotsava is celebrated. This is an official programme. All schools and colleges in Karnataka, celebrate this function. In Bengaluru, capital of the state, the celebration extends for the whole month.

In colleges, students celebrate with the photo on idol of Sri Bhuvaneshwari. Kannada flag (yellow-red) is hoisted and cultural programmes are conducted. After speeches and distribution of sweets, the function comes to an end.

OR

What is Patel scheme?
Answer:
Sardar Patel took charge of the Indian states Department and V.P. Menon became secretary on 5th July 1947. They dealt with matters arising between central Government and the Indian states. The biggest individual factor in the above spectacular event was the personality of Sardar Patel. The success of Integration is attributed to his astute statesmanship, intense patriotism and great administrative skill. He handled the Kings of Princely states with patience, tact and sympathy. He was a man of Iron will. The integration of states is his greatest contribution to independent India.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 40.
Write a note on any Indian political leader.
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is acknowledged as the leader of the untouchables and underprivileged in the Indian social strata. For his work in piloting the Constitution of Independent India through the Constituent Assembly, he is also hailed as the Modem Manu.

Dr. Ambedkar was the 14th child of Ramaji Sakpal and Bhimabai of the Mahar community in Maharashtra. He was born on 14th April 1891. He lost his mother when he was only six and was brought up by his aunt. He had his school education in Satara. He completed his graduation in Bombay with the support of the Maharaja of Baroda. He did his M.A. and Ph.D degrees from Colombia University in 1915 and 1916 respectively.

Later he got his Law and D.Sc degrees also. In 1924, he started an asspciation for the welfare of the depressed classes. He also started the newspapers ‘Bahiskrit Bharat’ in Hindi and ‘Mooka Nayaka‘ in Marathi. These were to motivate the people to fight for independence and also to champion the cause of the depressed classes for social reforms. His important works were ‘Administration and Finance of the East India Company’, ‘Buddha and Karl Marx’ and ‘Caste in India’ among others.

He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee for framing our Constitution. In the Interim government, he was the Law Minister in Nehru’s cabinet. He renounced active politics and embraced Buddhism. He spent the rest of his life propagating the message of Buddhism. He passed away on 6th December 1956. Dr. Ambedkar’s memory will remain long in our hearts.

OR

Describe the similarities in Indo-USSR relations.
Answer:
Russia is the world’s largest country extending half way round the globe. To the west it borders Finland, Norway, Estonia, Latvia and Belarus. The much longer southern frontier extends into Central Asia.

India’s relation with the former USSR has been a part of history, but it developed rapidly after the visits of Khrushchev and Bulganin to India and Nehru’s visit to Soviet Union. Since 1955, Indo- Soviet relations have reached a new scale and dimension and regarded as a good example of bilateral and inter-state relations. The Soviets have openly declared that Indo-Soviet friendship has become a part of their ‘tradition’. People to people relationship is a comer stone of their foreign policy.

Soviet Union contributed immensely for the development of industries and technology in India. The defence ties between the two countries helped India in building a credible defence structure. Its steadfast diplomatic support in the UN, on the Kashmir and Goa issues is commendable.

The use of Veto-power in the Security Council to support India in 1971 war with Pakistan was crucial. Soviet Russia adopted Communist ideology and India accepted Democratic Socialism. Despite the ideological differences, the two countries forged a long time Treaty of friendship for 20 years.

Factors of Indo-USSR close ties:
1. Both India and USSR consider that the peaceful settlement of disputes between states as most crucial for the future of human race.

2. Both believe in natural freedom and social equality as pre-requisite of a just world order.

3. Support to liberation movements across the world are recognized by both the countries.

4. Both Countries opposed all forms of colonialism, imperialism, and racial discrimination.

Thus, India and USSR have realized geo-political significance and the need to strengthen bilateral ties. This is to ensure the settlement of regional problems and establishment of global peace and prosperity.

Disintegration of Soviet Union:
In 1985 Mikhail Gorbachev, the President of USSR introduced economic and political reforms of ‘Perestroika’(restructuring ) and ‘Glasnost (openness). That stopped the arms race with US, withdrew Soviet troops from Afghanistan, helped the unification of Germany, ended the cold war.

Other weaknesses inherent in the Soviet Union led to the disintergration of USSR and formation of 15 new countries in 1991. India recognized all of them as Sovereign states and established new diplomatic relations. Ten of them joined together to form a new associations with Russia called (CIS) (Commonwealth of Independent States).

Bilateral relations:
The new leadership in Russia and other Republics of the erstwhile Soviet Union hold India in high regard due to India’s secular approach to politics, its stable democratic system of assuring rights and equality to all its citizens, self-reliant industrial and economic base and its genuine concern for vital global issues e.g. peace, disarmament, economic development, human rights and democratization of international organization particularly of the UN and its agencies.

Russia continues its support to India to become a permanent member in UN Security Council. India and Russia both have multi-faceted relationalship involving strategic and high-level cooperation. The process of bilateral annual summits has given great impetus to bilateral relations. Indo-Russia co-operation has continued to move stronger on the basis mutual interest, faith, friendship and past relations.

2nd PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper June 2018

Students can Download 2nd PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper June 2018, Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper June 2018

Time: 3 hrs 15 min
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in one word or a sentence each: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Who was the Vice President of Viceroy’s Executive Council?
Answer:
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 2.
When was the State Reorganisation Committee formed?
Answer:
The State Reorganisation Committee formed in 1953.

Question 3.
What is the minimum age of voter in India?
Answer:
18 years.

Question 4.
Expand NOTA.
Answer:
None Of The Above.

Question 5.
Who was the first Dalit leader to enter Nasik Kalarama temple?
Answer:
Dr B. R. Ambedkar.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
When was the Domestic Violence Act enforced?
Answer:
2005.

Question 7.
What is post-poll alliance?
Answer:
Coalition government will be formed by the opportunist political leaders after elections it is called post-poll alliance.

Question 8.
What is the root word of terrorism?
Answer:
The word Terrorism is derived from the Latin word “terrere”.

Question 9.
What is meant by crony capitalism?
Answer:
A close relationships between business people and government officials to get benefit is called crony capitalism.

Question 10.
Who were the signatories of Simla Agreement?
Answer:
Indian Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and Pakistan Prime Minister Z.A. Bhutto.

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in two words or two sentences each: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
How many state was Punjab divided into? Which are they?
Answer:
Punjab was divided into two states. They are Punjab and Haryana.

Question 12.
What is central services? Given an example.
Answer:
A group of officials who are appointed by the central government, working and regulated by the central government is called central services.
Example: Indian Railway Services, Indian Foreign Services.

Question 13.
What is “Maryada Hatya”?
Answer:
Due to modernisation youth are heading towards inter-caste and inter-religion marriages. Elders of tradition-bound families to maintain family honour and values, go even to the extent of killing the parties involved and their supporters. This honour killing is called Maryada Hatye’.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
What is National Integration?
Answer:
A process of uniting the people emotionally, psychologically and politically is called National Integration.

Question 15.
Mention any two coalition partners of National Democratic Alliances.
Answer:

  1. BJP
  2. Shivasena.

Question 16.
What is Common Minimum Programme?
Answer:
The partners of the alliance set aside their political ideologies and accept one programme to run the coalition, it is called common Minimum Programme.

Question 17.
Mention any two terrorist groups of Afghanistan.
Answer:
Taliban and A1-Qaeda.

Question 18.
What is a power block? Given an example.
Answer:
After the second world war two blocks emerged on the basis of democracy and communism, it is called power block.
Example: America and USSR.

Question 19.
Name two members states of SAARC.
Answer:

  •  India
  • Srilanka.

Question 20.
Write any two causes for the liberation of Bangladesh.
Answer:

  1. Ignores the interests of East Pakistan.
  2. Not allow Mujibur Rehman to become Prime Minister.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 21.
What is “Perestroika” and “Glasnost”?
Answer:
Perestroika means economic rehabilitation and Glasnost means openness in administration.

Question 22.
Write any two principles of Indian Foreign Policy.
Answer:

  • Policy of non-alignment.
  • Anti-apartheid and racial discrimination.

III. Answer any eight of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 23.
Write a short note on interim government.
Answer:
The interim government of India was formed on 2nd September 1946. The Constituent Assembly had 389 members. It was drawn from the newly elected Constituent Assembly of India. It had the task of assisting the transition of India and Pakistan from British rule to Independence.

It remained in force until 15th August 1947, India became Independent. The Constituent Assembly become a sovereign body and performed the role of legislature for the new state. It was responsible for framing the constitution and making ordinary laws as well.

Question 24.
Describe the accession of Junagadh, Hyderabad and Kashmir.
Answer:
1. Junagadh:
The Nawab of Junagadh declared accession to Pakistan much against the wishes of the people of the state. They were in favour of joining India. After the declaration of accession, they rose in rebellion against the Nawab. As a result, he fled to Pakistan. A Plebiscite was held in which the people voted to accede to Indian Union. Later Junagadh was merged with Saurashtra.

2. Hyderabad:
Hyderabad, the largest of the Princely States was surrounded by Indian Territory. Its ruler the ‘Nizam’ wanted an independent status. He made a ‘Standstill Agreement’ with India in November 1947 to maintain the status quo which existed before 1947. But the Indian Government felt that an independent Hyderabad would pose security threat.

In the meantime, there was a movement against the oppressive rule of the nizam. The peasantry and the women joined in large numbers. His paramilitary forces named Razakars, raped, maimed, looted, murdered and targeted the non-Muslims.

To end this anarchy, the Indian army entered into Hyderabad in September 1948. This police action is known as ‘Operation Polo’. The Nizam surrendered and it was followed by complete accession of Hyderabad into Indian Union.

3. Kashmir:
Jammu and Kashmir was a Princely State. Its ruler Hari Singh, was a Hindu and the population was largely Muslims (77%). They did not merge with India or Pakistan but wanted an independent status for the state. There was a popular movement led by Sheikh Abdullah. They were against joining Pakistan also. They thought of themselves as Kashmiris.

In October 1947, Kashmir was invaded by tribal infiltrators of Pakistan. This forced the Maharaja to seek Indian military help. India reacted positively after ‘Instrument of Accession’ was signed on 26th October 1947. To resolve the crisis, the Constituent Assembly of India made a special provision through Art. 370, to provide a separate constitution to the state along with other provisions.

In 1951, the Constituent Assembly met in the state to frame a Constitution. In February 1954, the accession of the state to India was ratified by the constitution, legalising it. In November 1956, it adopted a constitution legalising the status of J & K as a unit of the Indian Union.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 25.
Describe the powers and functions of Election Commission.
Answer:
Powers and functions:
According to Art. 324

1. The Election Commission:

  • Prepares electoral roll and its periodical revision.
  • Holds elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and offices of President and Vice President.
  • After the announcement of elections, it decides the time table.
  • It conducts by-election to vacant seats.
  • It grants recognition to political parties as National and State level parties.

According to Election Emblem Act 2000.

2. For National Party:

  • 6% of casted valid votes in 4 more states in Lok Sabha or Vidhana Sabha election and 4 Loka Sabha seats in any state or states (or)
  • Minimum 2% of Lok Sabha seats in 3 states.

3. For State Party:

  • 6% of valid votes in the Lok Sabha or Vidhana Sabha elections form the state and 2 Vidhana Sabha seats (or)
  • 3% seats of total Vidhana Sabha seats in the states or success at least in the 3 constituencies.
  • It scrutinizes the nomination papers.
  • It allots symbols to political parties and independent candidates.
  • It appoints officers and other staff members to conduct elections and make necessary arrangements.
  • It can order for re-poll in any constituency or any polling booth.
  • It can withhold the election results on valid grounds.
  • The President or the Governor acts on the advice of the election commission at the time of disqualification of members of the house.
  • It enforces the code of conduct for the candidates and political parties, i.e. the elections expenses and submission of accounts after elections environmental protection against noise pollution, etc. during elections.
  • As per the Representation of People Act (RPA) of 1950 and 1951 Election Commission of India conducts the process of election.

Question 26.
Discuss the features of Civil Service.
Answer:
Features of civil services are:-

1. Professional body:
As Herman Finer puts it, civil service is a professional body of officials who are, permanent, paid and skilled. It is a whole-time job and career service.

2. Hierarchy:
As per the scaler system, each civil servant has to obey his immediate superior, where higher-ranking administrative officers with discretionary powers supervises their subordinates. The authority runs from above and helps to make administration stable.

3. Political neutrality:
Civil servants refrain always from political activities. They perform their duties without being aligned to any one political regime.

4. Anonymity:
Civil servants work behind the screen and remain anonymous even though they work for the government. Recognition for good work or censure for any omission goes only to the concerned minister and not to the civil servants.

5. Impartiality:
The civil servants have to apply the laws of the state while performing the duties without showing any favour, bias or preference to any groups or sections of the society.

6. Service motto:
They have to work for the welfare of the society. They must be humble and service-minded towards the public and not authoritative.

7. Permanent:
Civil servants are called permanent executives. They discharge duties till they attain the age of superannuation. Both at the central and in Karnataka State Services, the age of retirement is sixty years. Even though disciplinary action is taken as per rules, there is security of service.

8. Jurisdiction of Law:
Every civil servant has to function within the prescribed jurisdiction of law. If he crosses the limit, he is met with disciplinary action.

9. Special training:
Once the candidates are selected for top civil services, they are deputed to in-service training to acquire special skills in administration, like the Lai Bahadur Shastry Academy of Administration located in Mussoorie for the training of the newly appointed IAS officers. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Police Academy located in Hyderabad trains the newly appointed IPS officers.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 27.
What are the powers and functions of Union Public Service Commission?
Answer:
Article 315 provides for the establishment of the Union Public Service Commission. UPSC is an independent constitutional body entrusted with the work of recruitment on the basis of merit.

1. Composition:
At present, the UPSC is composed of a Chairman and 10 members. Members are appointed by the President. It provides for half of the members of the Commission to be administrators with a minimum of the 10 years experience in government service. Nothing is mentioned regarding the qualifications of the remaining members.

2. Tenure:
A member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a period of 6 years or till he attains the age of 65 years, whichever comes earlier. Chairman or members of the commission are not eligible for re-appointment after retirement.

The Chairman of the UPSC is also not eligible for further employment under central or State Governments, however, a member of the UPSC may be appointed as a Chairman of the UPSC or the state Public Service Commission.

3. Removal:
A Chairman and members of the UPSC can be removed from the office only by on order of the President, on the ground of misbehaviour proved by the Supreme Court. All these provisions have been made to make the Commission an independent and impartial body.

4. Functions:
Article 320 of the Indian Constitution enumerate the functions of the UPSC:

  • To conduct examinations for appointment to the services of the Union and All India Service.
  • To assist two or more states, on request for joint recruitment for any services.
  • To advise the government on matters relating to the methods of recruitment, promotions, transfers, disciplinary actions and inter-service matters.
  • To present annual report regarding its working to the President.
  • To exercise such additional functions as provided by an act of Parliament.
  • To serve all or any needs of the state government on request by the Governor and with the approval of the President.

Question 28.
What are the main causes for peasants movements?
Answer:
The main causes for peasants movements are as follows:

1. Feeling of deprivation:
Peasants are deprived of the facilities when compared to organized sectors like industry. They face problems like shortage of quality seeds, fertilizers and pesticides, lack of adequate price and support price, waiving of loans, subsidies for agricultural implements insurance for crops and the like. The demand for these have made farmers to unite together to agitate.

2. Negligence of farmers’ problem:
The British government neglected the problem of agriculture sector and peasants. At the same time, the Bengal Government banned the blue crop and acquired farmers lands. In addition to this, they imposed heavy taxes and enhanced the prices. Ail these caused for Kheda
Movement.

3. Unbearable debts:
Peasants raise loans from Bank and financial institutions but they are not in a position to repay it for reasons like market fluctuation, the tactics of brokers, etc. This intensifies the burden of debts and interest. All these force them to commit suicide. This adversely affects the family. Incidents like this creates horror among others and leads to protests.

4. Natural calamity:
Peasants depend more on monsoon which are usually irregular. Hence it is popularly known as ‘Indian agriculture is playing gamble with monsoons’. As a result floods and famine, diseases to crops, soil erosion leads to infertility of the soil. These situations force them to become victims and they go for agitation.

5. Unscientific Land acquisition:
In the wake of urbanization and industrialization, the governments are acquiring cultivable land of farmers. Many times, proper compensation is not given and they are not provided any alternate-, As a result, they become landless and unemployed. Such measures of government leads to movement.

6. Support price:
Amidst innumerable problems, farmers do not get adequate price to their, produce. At that time, the government has to intervene and announce support price to the farmers produce. When the government fails to do so, they intensify agitation.

Question 29.
Discuss the political implications of labour movement.
Answer:
1. Political implications:
To meet the demands of work and to provide welfare programme, the government have taken measures. They are:

2. Constitutional measures:
Part IV of the Indian Constitution which deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy directs state governments to adopt socialist measures like equal pay for equal work for both men and women, to provide leave facilities for pregnant women for both prenatal and postnatal care. The concurrent list empowers the governments to legislate on the workers welfare.

3. Government of India have made legislation on personal labour laws as follows:
The labour laws for 1970 have fixed the wages of workers appointed on contract basis. Workmen Compensation Act of 1923, Salary Payment Act of 1936, Weekly Holiday Act of 1942, Minimum Wages Act of 1948, Employees Provident Fund Act of 1952, Bonus Act of 1965.

Some Prominent Labour Organisations are :

1. All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC):
With the belief in socialistic pattern of society, it was started in 1920, It was working as a Labour Union and came under the grip of Communist after independence. It aims at nationalization of industries, protection of labour rights and labour welfare, etc.,

2. Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC):
Because of ideological differences, some congressmen came out of AITUC and started INTUC in May 1947, with the support of Congress Party on non-violent philosophy.

3. Bharateeya Mazdur Sangh (BMS):
Founded by Dattopanth Thengdi for upholding the patriotic spirit among the labour population during 1955 on the birthday of Sri Bal Gangadhar Tilak. It is not affiliated to any international trade union confederation. An estimated 5860 labour unions are affiliated to BMS and it is one of the largest central Trade Union of India according to the statistics of Ministry of labour in 2002.

4. Centre for Trade Union (CITU):
Communist leaders like S.A. Dange and EMS. Namboodiripad took the stand to oppose the imperialistic attitude. In 1964, Marxists started CITU because of the difficulties raised out of leftists and rightists in AITUC. West Bengal, Kerala and Tripura are the strong belt of Marxists.

5. Other major organizations:
Hindu Mazdoor Sabha (HMS), Hind Mazdoor Panchayath (HMP), United Trade Union Congress (UTUC) and other organization are struggling hard to protect the interest of labourers. Totally, Labour Movement are trying to improve the welfare and standard of living of workers. The success of these movements is seen through governmental programmes.

As Karl Marx said, “Unite the workers of the world, you are going to lose shackles of the slavery, but nothing else”. The celebration of May day throughout the world on the 1st of May every year proves the significance of labour force and the movement.

Question 30.
What are the causes of Casted based inequality?
Answer:
1. Caste-based inequality:
Inequality means denying opportunities and privileges to some classes, making discrimination on the basis of caste, religion, gender, birthplace etc., Discriminating people on the grounds is prevalent of caste is caste-based inequality. From the ancient period, caste-based inequality in Hindu Society.

Hindu society was divided into four vamas and the contents of Manu Smriti were followed. In modern society, inequality is based on the available privileges for upper and lower castes, which also has contributed to social inequality.

Varna System was based on the professions such as Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vysyas and Sudras. Gradually it got converted into caste-based discrimination by the law of Manu. Later on, inequality prevailed in Hindu society.

2. Social Distance:
Due to lack of interaction individual among different castes, their cultures, traditions, folkways, mores, food habits, social intercourse and so on are not known to others and not appreciated or acknowledged. Hence, it is called a closed society. It has leads to strong caste bias amongst them.

3. Illiteracy and conservation:
Illiteracy and ignorance among people make them conservative and moulds them to narrow mindedness and superstitions. They believe in old customs and traditions. Such people are very orthodox in their nature. They oppose strongly to any change in society and consider their own caste as superior and others as inferior.

4. Sense of prestige:
The strong desire of the people belonging to a particular caste enhances the prestige of their own, to get benefits and privileges from the society. Other castes which get neglected remain unprivileged and suffer from social status inequality.

5. Marriage restrictions:
In this closed society, only endogamous marriages are accepted. Elders do not honour marriages fixed outside their subsects. In such a situation, strong caste feeling develops and leads to inequality.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 31.
Explain the organisation and functions of Lokayukta.
Answer:
Though the institution of Lokayukta was introduced for the first time in Odisha it was not able to implement. Maharashtra was the first state to implement in 1973 and Karnataka in 1984. It investigates the allegation against officials like corruption, favouritism, nepotism, injustice and other grievances.

It does not include Judges, Speaker, Chairman, Accountant General, Chairman and Members of State Public Service Commission, Judges of civil and criminal court. The Lokayukta receives the petition from the public and conducts enquires. It has power to raid on the houses and offices of the corrupt officials.

Lokayukta in Karnataka:
The Government headed by Sri Ramakrishna Hegde adopted the institution of Lokayukta in 1984. It comprises of retired judge of the Supreme Court or Chief Justice of the High. Court is Upa Lokayukta.

The committee consisting of Chief Minister, Chief Justice of High Court, Speaker of the Assembly, Chairman of the Council and leaders of opposition are consulted by the governor regarding the appointment. They are appointed for 5 years. They can be removed from the office by the governor, on the charge of misbehavior or incapacity proved in the state Legislature.

Question 32.
What are the causes for the raise of identity politics?
Answer:
Identity politics is defined by one’s own identity based on race, ethnicity, gender, language religion. It is the politics of recognition and a movement to claim recognition. A person may have multiple identities but he perceives only a single identity at a time. Movements of lesbians, black civil rights, wave of feminists etc., have brought legitimacy to identity politics.
Causes for the rise of identity politics are as follows:

  1. Maladministration leads to the poor economic growth of a particular region or geographical backwardness of the people of a particular ethnic identity.
  2. The rise of regional parties has created the local awareness of language or region.
  3. Extreme poverty, exploitation, lack of opportunity and threat to existing group privileges to the ethnic groups.
  4. Ethnic groups’ fear of assimilation resulting in cultural dilution.
  5. Rise in standard of living, literacy and aspiration, socio-political awareness have led to identity politics.
  6. Lack of share in natural resources, fear of loss of land, political power and economic growth.
  7. Fear of losing scope in educational and employment fields.
  8. Fear of losing ethnic identities like language and culture.

Question 33.
What are the principles of United Nations Organisations?
Answer:
The basic principles mentioned in Article 2 of the Charter are:

  1. The UN is based on the sovereign equality of all its members.
  2. All members shall fulfill in good faith the UN charter obligations.
  3. They shall settle international disputes by peaceful means.
  4. They have to retain their international relations from the threat or use of force against other states.
  5. They have to extend all help to the actions being taken by the UN.
  6. The UN shall ensure that states who are not members, act in accordance with the principles of the UN.
  7. The organisation shall not intervene in matters essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any state.

Question 34.
Write about Non-Alignment Policy of India.
Answer:
The basic principles of Indian Foreign Policy are Non-Alignment. After the II World War, the world was divided into two military blocs,
one led by USA and another by USSR. Many countries of the world became the allies of these two military blocs. But India was not aligned to any of the military blocs. India was the first country to speak of non-alignment and major contributor to the emergene of Non- Align Movement.

Jawaharlal Nehru Prime Minister of India, Gen. Sukarno President of Indonesia, Josif Broz Tito President of Yugoslavia, Kwame Nkrumah Prime Minister of Ghana and Gamal Abdel Nasser leader of Egypt were the founders of this movement. This first summit of NAM which was held at Belgrade, Yugoslavia in 1961 with 25 member countries. At present, it has 128 members. Recent NAM summit concluded in August 2012 at Tehran, Iran Venezuela will host the next 17th summit in 2015.

IV. Answer any two of the following questions in 30 to 40 sentences: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Explain the functions of political party.
Answer:
Functions:

1. Preparation of election manifesto:
The election agenda is arranged through a manifesto. Its main intention is capturing power with popular support. It reflects the ideological commitments of the party, which include voter’s requirements like good governance through infrastructure development.

2. Selection of the candidate:
The selection of the best candidate is made on the basis of popularity, acceptability and responsiveness to the grievances of people. Usually, all parties prepare a list of such candidates, to win the elections.

3. Political education and awareness:
Political parties impart political education to the people and make them realize their responsibilities. The ideologies along with the previous achievements are highlighted to attract the voters during electioneering. Through this, voters compare and contrast and decide their future course of action. Thus, the people have an opportunity to get political education and awareness about national and regional issues.

4. To contest elections:
Through proper filing of nominations and getting ‘B form’, it is ascertained that the candidature is official. It is filed in the respective offices of the Returning officers of the concerned constitutencies.

5. Election campaign:
The candidates who are in the fray are supported by their parties in all possible ways. Provision for election expenses, using public platform by speeches from the leaders of parties, and through electronic and mass media to win the election.

6. Formation of the government:
After the declaration of the results, the party which secures majority will form the government. The administration is carried on within the constitutional framework along with implementing the assurances mentioned in the manifes to at the time of elections. At the same time, it maintains discipline within the party by imposing party norms.

7. Acts as opposition party:
The political parties which fail to secure majority in the election, act as opposition parties. They apply the brake to the unconstitutional decisions and policies of the ruling party and help to streamline the administration. The opposition party is always ready to step into the shoes of the ruling party by highlighting the wrongdoings in the administration. It acts as the ‘watch dog’ of democracy.

8. Formation of Public opinion:
The political party acts as the best agency in formulating the public opinion. The achievements of the ruling party are published and highlighted through media and public platforms. Opposition parties organize rallies, conduct road shows and seminars to expose the failures of ruling party. Such activities of the parties enlighten the masses and lead to the formation of healthy public opinion.

9. Bridge between the government and the people:
Political parties act as bridge between the government and the people. The leaders of the parties try to reach the people through policies and programmes. They draw attention of the government towards the problems of the people and get remedies.

10. Promotes the National Interest:
It is the task of all the political parties to protect the unity and integrity of the nation. Whenever there is threat from internal violence and external aggression the parties have to unite themselves keeping aside their ideological and parochial differences.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 36.
Describe the hindrances and remedial measures to eliminate nation-building.
Answer:
1. Poverty:
Large sections of our societies live in the villages and their major occupation is agriculture. They rely upon monsoon which is quite irregular. Hence, the output is very low. As a result, more than 1 /5th of total population is living below poverty line. Poverty denies access to good health, sanitation facilities and basic infrastructure necessary for personalities development.

2. Population explosion:
Census Reports of 2011 prove that India is overpopulated (1.2 billion). Though a resource, it is not properly utilized to strengthen the nation. Population explosion has led to unemployment, housing shortage, shortage of food and other basic amenities.

3. Regional imbalance:
All the regions of our country are evenly developing. This leads to separatist tendencies that curbs national development. e.g. Marathawada and Vidharbha in Maharashtra, Telangana region in Andhra Pradesh, Korapaf and Kalahandi region in Odisha, North Eastern region and Gorkha hill areas.

4. Social and political disturbances:
In India, social and political disturbances have become common in recent years causing tension. Assam, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal and Kerala have become communally sensitive states. Likewise, caste conflicts, terrorism, the centre-state and inter-state disputes have affected nation’s march towards development.

5. Political crisis:
The coalition politics and the emergence of too many political parties, regional and sectarian feelings have created political parties, regional and sectarian feelings have created political crises on many occasions.

The vested interests have prevented the parliament and state legislatures to enact necessary laws for the development of nation. Money power and muscle power have led to the growth of leaders without principles and it has become a gainful employment.

Remedies

1. Political stability:
The government elected by the people has to continue for the full term so as to adopt and implement the policies for development. Frequent changes in government result in slow development and political uncertainty. In order to maintain political stability. The Constitution Review Commission headed by Justice M.N. Venkatachalaiah suggested the adoption of constructive vote of no-confidence system in 2002.

2. Selection of priorities:
The government has to choose the areas of priority necessary for nation-building. These priorities are to be decided on the basis of the needs of the people. Infrastructure, education, transport, employment, agriculture, industries and health services may be accorded priorities for national development.

3. Effective implementation of plans:
Since April 2012, Twelfth Five Year Plan is under progress. To fill gap of the previous plans, it is aimed at channelising the sources and implementing effectively.

4. Mixed economy:
Public and private partnership not only strengthens the economy but also contributes for its substance. The contribution of the private enterprises has been phenomenal in the economic front. Eg. Tata’s Birla’s Wipro, Infosys and other have not only generated employment but also contributed for economic progress.

5. Implementation of Directive Principles of State Policy:
Part IV of the Indian Constitution emphasizes the establishment of socio-economic democracy through the adoption of revolutionary policies. Concentration of wealth in a few hands is an obstacle for the development of SCs, STs and backward classes to implement the ideals of egalitarian type of society. Hence, implementation of Directive principles of State Policy is necessary at this juncture.

6. Role of civil society:
In India civil society organization are playing an important role in nation-building. They are fighting against political and administrative corruption, Red Tapism, political apathy and anti-people polices. These activities need to be strengthened to hasten the process of national development.

Movements like India against corruption, association for democratic reforms. Election watch and other NGOs are playing constructive role in this direction. Nation-building is a long and challenging process. It requires charismatic and dynamic political leadership, competent civil services, active participation of the people and vigilant media.

Question 37.
Explain the importance of globalization and its political implications.
Answer:
Globalisation is the process of inter grating the economy of the country with world economy. It is a movement towards greater interaction. Integration and interdependence among people and organisation across borders. The strongest manifestion of Globalisation has been the increasing economics inter gration among the countries in trade and investment.

An important attribute of globalization is the increasing degree of openness, which has three dimensions, ie., international trade, international investment and international finance. It involves creation of networks and activities transcending economic, social and geographical boundaries.

The Economy of India had undergone significant policy shifts in the beginning of the 1990’s. This new model of economic reforms is commonly known as the liberalization, privatizaton and globalisation(LPG) model.

The chain of reforms that took place with regard to business, manufacturing and financial industries targeted at the strengthening the economy of the country to a more proficient level. These economic reforms had influenced the overall economic growth of the country in a significant manner.

In brief, the salient points of Globalisation are

  1. Efficiency
  2. Transfer of technology
  3. Concept of a global village
  4. Mobility of labour force
  5. Global competition resulting in better performance
  6. Outsourcing and
  7. Optimum utilization of human resources.

The political implications of globalisation are as follows.

1. Power subjugation:
The effects of globalisation brought lots of changes in the world economy. For small countries it is inevitable to accept the economic decisions of strong countries. Hence it affects the soverignty of a country in totality.

2. Affects the Soverignty:
As a result of globalisation in the fields of economy, trade, transportation etc., the sovereign countries are bound by decisions of strong countries. Hence it affects the soverignty of a country in totally.

3. Cultural Invasion:
Culture is a complex whole and exclusive to each country. The influence of globalisation in the name of cultural exchange not only invades but also degenerates the youth who are the architects of the future.

4. Enslavement of Lifestyle:
Globalisation has largely affected the younger generation. Food habits, general behaviour, mutual relationships, respect to elders, human values and ultimately the whole generation has become slave in the clutches of globalisation.

5. Elimination of subsidies:
The major impact of globalisation is the curtailment of subsidies to all sectors including agriculture in a phased manner. The worst-hit are the peasants who are the back bone of the country.

6. Political Instability:
The impact of globalisation mainly is economic depression, boom or even recession which directly affects the political stability of a country. Hence development comes to a standstill.

Thus globalisation as a process of integrating the economy of the country with world economy has gone a long way.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 38.
Define International relations and its importance.
Answer:
International relations is a dynamic discipline which tries to explain political activities across the state boundaries. According to Ola Joseph, “ International relations are the study of all forms of interactions that exist between members of separate entities or nations within the international system”.

International relations is concerned with all the exchange transactions, contracts, flow of information and the resulting behavioural response between and among separate organised societies. International relations could encompass many different activities such as social, economic, religious and others.

According to H.J. Morgenthau, Power is the key to international relations. He viewed that international relations are the subjects that deal with those relations among nations which involve power status. External developments constantly influence the domestic policies. Nations are compelled to enter into dialogues, form alliances with Other nations. This is to ensure the power and prestige of nations in the international system.

It is of immense importance for the student of international relations to understand that the world of today is marked by two factors. One is to do with the nature of power in the nuclear age and the other concerned with the interdependence of mankind.

V. Answer any two of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39.
Prepare a report on “Karnataka Rajyotsava” celebration in your college.
Answer:
November 1st, every year is a great day. After independence, there were more than 500 provinces in India ruled by rebellious kings and nawabs. Sardar Patel persuaded them to form state according to their native language. In that way, Kannada speaking people residing in area called Kannada Nadu or Mysore State which was only 9 or 10 districts then came to be formed.

Later other areas were also added. Now 30 districts are there. In 1973, November 1st, Mysore was renamed to Karnataka. From the day onwards every November 1st Rajyotsava is celebrated. This is an official programme. Every school and college in Karnataka celebrate this function. In Bangalore, capital of the state, the celebration extends for the whole month.

In colleges, students celebrate with photo of Bhuvaneshwari. Kannada flag (yellow-red) will be hoisted and cultural programmes will be conducted. After distribution of sweets function will come to an end.

OR

Explain the importance of liberalisation.
Answer:
Liberalization is the “willingness to respect or accept behaviour or opinion different from one’s own; open to new ideas”. Liberalization is the process of liberating the economy from various regulatory mechanisms and elimination of customs and tariffs. Economic liberalization is the policy of relaxation over economic and trade policies.

Importance of liberalization are as follows:

1. Consumer-friendly:
This leads to lower costs and prices for consumers to get the goods and services according to their wishes. There are many number of companies which bring lots of quality products to suit the consumer’s interests and demands. In liberalised economy, consumer gets more benefits.

2. Free from government regulations:
Government provides free movement of ‘ trade and commerce where any private company can easily carry on their business activities without any restrictions. The companies need not undergo any procedural delay by the government.

3. Promotes competition:
Liberalisation extends competition within different company’s trade firms. Basically, they maintain the. standards but offer lower prices for the consumers. Competition promotes efficiency and avoids wastage of resources.

4. Promotes world business class:
Liberalization provides the business class and opportunity to share their knowledge and exchange technology with confidence at the international level. Business firms can learn and earn at global level. They can enrich their knowledge by equipping new machinery and tools for better performance as per international standards.

5. Provides for more private funding agencies:
Liberalization allows financial markets to provide loans to companies which previously were not able to access, loans that they can pay off, and it allows more financial private funding agencies like ICICI, HDFC and HSBC.

6. Improve the economy: ‘
Liberalization is expected to improve nation’s GDP growth. It helps nation’s economic development and improves the standard of living in a shorter period. Most of the developing nations adopt liberalised economy.

7. Promotes technological advancement:
Liberalisation makes new changes in an advanced technology and logistics for better services. That can be useful to save time, energy and money. It promotes for high quality of products and making the supplies in time.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 40.
Write about disintegration of USSR and bilateral relations in Indo-Russian relation.
Answer:
In 1985 Mikhail Gorbachev, the President of USSR introduced economic and political reforms of ‘Perestroika’ (restructuring) and ‘Glasnost’(openness). That stopped the arms race with US, withdrew Soviet troops from Afghanistan, helped the unification of Germany, ended the cold war.

Other weaknesses inherent in the Soviet Union led to the disintegration of USSR and formation of 15 new countries in 1991. India recognized all of them as sovereign states and established new diplomatic relations. Ten of them joined together to form new associations with Russia called CIS (Commonwealth of Independent States).

Bilateral relations:-
The new leadership in Russia and other Republics of erstwhile Soviet Union hold India in high regard due to India’s secular approach to politics, its stable democratic system assuring rights and equality to all its citizens, self-reliant industrial and economic base, and its genuine concern for vital global issues, e.g. peace disarmament, economic development, human rights and democratization of international organizations particularly of the UN and its agencies.

It continues its support to India to become permanent member in UN Security Council. India and Russia both have multifaceted relationship involving strategic and high-level co-operation. The process of bilateral annual summits has given great impetus to bilateral relations. Indo-Russia co-operation has continued to move stronger on the basis mutual interest, faith, friendship and past relations.

OR

Write a note on anyone Karnataka political leader.
Answer:
Sri Siddaramaiah:
Sri Siddaramaiah is acknowledged as the leader of the backward class and minorities in the Karnataka social strata. He was born on 12th August 1948 and was the 22nd Chief Minister of Karnataka from 2013 to 2018. He was the first Chief Minister to complete a full 5-year term in the top post in Karnataka in 40 years.

Siddaramaiah was a member of various Janata Parivar fuctions for several years. Earlier as a Janatha Dal (Secular) leader, he was Deputy Chief. Minister of Karnataka on two occasions. On 13th May 2013, he was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Karnataka.

Siddaramaiah is also regarded as the leader of ‘Ahinda’. His programmes are most popular and familar with relates to the sections of below poverty line. During the time of his rule as a Chief Minister, his main popular programmes are Anna Bhagya, Ksheera Bhagya, Shaadi Bhagya, Mythri Bhagya, Indira Canteen, Arogya Bhagya, etc. still he remained as an unquestionable leader in Indian National Congress.

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