1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 2 Collection of Data

Students can Download Economics Chapter 2 Collection of Data Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 2 Collection of Data

1st PUC Economics Collection of Data TextBook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Frame at least four appropriate multiple-choice options for the following questions.
i) Which of the following is the most important when you buy a new dress?
Answer:

  1. Colour
  2. Price
  3. Brand
  4. Quality of cloth

ii) How often do you use computers?
Answer:

  1. Every day
  2. 6 times a week
  3. 4 times a week
  4. 2 times a week:

iii) Which of the following newspapers / do you read regularly?
Answer:

  • The Times of India
  • The Hindu
  • Indian Express
  • Any other.

iv) Rise in the price of petrol is justified?
Answer:

  • Yes
  • No
  • Don’t Know
  • None of the above.

v) What is the monthly income of your family?
Answer:

  1. Less than Rs. 10,000
  2. Rs. 10,000 to Rs.20,000
  3. Rs.20,000 to Rs.30,000
  4. More than Rs.30,000

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Frame five two-way questions (with ‘yes’ or ‘no’)
Answer:

  1. Do you own car?
  2. Do you smoke?
  3. Do you own two-wheeler?
  4. Have you visited any foreign country?
  5. Are you satisfied with your present income?

Question 3.
There are many sources of data (true/false)?
i) There are many sources of data (true/false)
Answer:
False.

ii) Telephone survey is the most suitable method of collecting data, when the population is literate and spread over a large area (true/false)
Answer:
False.

iii) Data collected by investigator is called the secondary data (true/false).
Answer:
False.

iv) There is a certain bias involved in the non-random selection of samples (true/false)
Answer:
True.

v) Non-sampling errors can be minimised by taking large samples (true / false)
Answer:
False.

Question 4.
What do you think about the following questions. Do you find any problem with these questions? If yes, how?
i) How for do you live from the closest market?
Answer:
The question is not clear. The question can’t clarify how to show distance.

ii) If plastic bags are only 5 percent of our garbage, should it be banned?
Answer:
The question is too long which discourages people to answer and also it gives a clue about how the respondent should answer.

iii) Wouldn’t you be opposed to increase in price of petrol.
Answer:
The question contains two negatives which creates confusion to the respondents and may lead to biased reports.

iv)

  1. Do you agree with use of chemical fertilisers?
  2. Do you use fertilisers in your fields?
  3. What is the yield per hectare in your fields?

Answer:
The order of questions is incorrect. First, general questions should be asked then specific. The correct order should be:

  1. What is the yield per hectare in your field?
  2. Do you use fertilisers in your fields?
  3. Do you agree with the use of chemical fertilisers?

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
You want do research on the popularity of Vegetable Atta Noodles among children. Design a suitable questionnaire for collecting this information.
Answer: Questionnaire.
Name :_________________________
Age :_________
Sex : 1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 2 Collection of Data textbook img 1 Q 5

1. Do you eat noodles?
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 2 Collection of Data textbook img 2 Q 5

2. Do you like Vegetable Atta Noodles more than other snacks?
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 2 Collection of Data textbook img 3 Q 5

3. How many packets do you consume in one month?
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 2 Collection of Data textbook img 4 Q 5

4. Do you prefer Atta noodles over Maida noodles?
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 2 Collection of Data textbook img 5 Q 5

5. Which vegetable according to you should be added in present Atta noodles?
_____________________________

6. When do you prefer to have vegetable Atta Noodles?
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 2 Collection of Data textbook img 6 Q 5

7. Do your parents accompany you while having noodles?
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 2 Collection of Data textbook img 7 Q 5

Question 6.
In a village of200 farms, a study was conducted to find the cropping pattern. Out of the 50 farms surveyed 50% grew only wheat. Identify the population and the sample here.
Answer:
Population or the universe in statistics means totality of the items under study so, the population here is 200 farms. Samples refers to a group or section of the population from which information is to be obtained. Out of 200 farms, only 50 farms are selected for survey. Therefore, the sample population is 50 farms.

Question 7.
Suppose there are 10 students in your class. You want to select three out of them. How many samples are possible?
Answer:
There can be 10 samples.

Question 8.
Discuss how you would use the lottery method to select 3 students out of 10 in your class?
Answer:
Selecting 3 students out of 10 by lottery method. We shall select 3 students out of 10 by lottery method on the following way:

  1. Make ten paper slips with name of each student of equal size.
  2. Now there are ten cards available.
  3. Mix them well in a bowl.
  4. Now draw three slips at random without replacement one by one. By this method we can select 3 students.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Does the lottery method always give you a random sample? Explain.
Answer:
No, the lottery method does not always give us a random sample because this method is based on chances.

Question 10.
Explain the procedure of selecting a random sample of 3 students out of 10 in your class, by using random number tables?
Answer:
For selecting a random samples of 3 students out of 10 by random number tables we consult one digit random numbers and we will skip random numbers greater than the value 10 as it the largest social number. We have other 9 one digit numbers. Thus the 3 selected students out of 10 are with serial numbers 5,9,2.

Question 11.
Do samples provide better results than surveys?
Answer:
Sample provide better results than surveys because

  1. a sample can provide reasonably reliable and accurate information at a lower cost and shorter time.
  2. as samples are smaller than population, more detailed information can be collected by conducting intensive enquiries.
  3. sample need a smaller team of enumerators, it is easier to train them and supervise their work more effectively.

1st PUC Economics Collection of Data Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Economics Collection of Data Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the purpose of data collection?
Answer:
The purpose of data collection is to provide information regarding a specific topic or a problem.

Question 2.
What are economic variables?
Answer:
The economic variables are those observations which help on changing time to time, ex: literacy rate,
OR
The economic variables are those values which keep on changing time to time.

Question 3.
Give the meaning of primary data?
Answer:
When the data is collected for the first time by an investigator or institution it is called as primary data.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
What do you mean by personal interview?
Answer:
When the data is collected directly by the investigator from the individuals or people through interview it is called as personal interview.

Question 5.
Expand NSSO?
Answer:
NSSO – National Sample Survey Organisation.

Question 6.
Expand CSO?
Answer:
CSO – Central Statistical Office.

Question 7.
Expand CMIE?
Answer:
CMIE – Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 8.
What is Raw Data?
Answer:
The data which is not organised or unclassified can be called as Raw Data.

Question 9.
What is Quantitative Classification ?
Answer:
When the data are classified on the basis of certain characteristics like weight, height, income, age, production, marks etc., is called as quantitative classification.

Question 10.
What is Qualitative Classification?
Answer:
When the data are classified on the basis of attributes or qualities is called as ‘qualitative classificatioan’

Question 11.
Give the formula for the calculation of a range?
Answer:
Range = L – S
where L is the largest item and S is the smallest item.

Question 12.
What do you mean by class limit?
Answer:
A Class limit contains both class limits as parts of class interval.

Question 13.
Give the meaning of frequency Array?
Answer:
Frequency Array refers to classification of data for a discrete variable. It classifies the data which is not a continuous one.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
Define secondary data?
Answer:
When we use the data which will be already collected by some investigator or individuals it can be called as secondary data.

Question 15.
What will be the kind of data published by the Railway department regarding the progress of railways for an investigator?
Answer:
Secondary data.

Question 16.
What kind of data are contained on the census of population and nations income estimate, for the Government?
Answer:
Primary data.

Question 17.
What are the main sources of data?
Answer:
The main sources of data are:

  • Primary data
  • Secondary data.

Question 18.
Name any two methods of collecting primary data?
Answer:
The two methods of collecting of primary data are:

  • Personal interview
  • Telephone interview etc.,

KSEEB Solutions

Question 19.
Name the two important sources of secondary data?
Answer:
The sources of secondary data are:

  1. Published sources
  2. Unpublished sources.

Question 20.
What is meant by universe?
Answer:
In statistics universe or population refers to an aggregate of items to be studied for an investigation.

Question 21.
What is meant by Sample?
Answer:
Sample is only a part of the population or the universe.

Question 22.
What is meant by sample method?
Answer:
Sample method is that method in which data is collected from part of the sample on a group of items taken from the population for examination and conclusions are drawn on their basis.

1st PUC Economics Collection of Data Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name two types of data collection?
Answer:
The two types of data collection:

  1. Primary data
  2. Secondary data.

Question 2.
Write any two methods of collecting primary data?
Answer:
The two methods of collecting primary data are:

  1. Personal interview method
  2. Mailing questionaire method
  3. Telephone interviews

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Distinguish between census survey and sample survey?
Answer:
1. Census Survey:
If data are collected for each and every unit of ‘universe or population’ it is called census or the method of complete enumeration.

2. Sample Survey:
Sample survey refers to the method in which data are collected about the samples or a group of items taken from the ‘universe.’

Question 4.
What are published sources of secondary data?
Answer:
The published sources of secondary data include:

  1. International publications.
  2. Government Publications.
  3. Reports of Commissions and Committees.
  4. Semi-Government Publications.
  5. Newspapers, Periodicals etc.,

Question 5.
Why sample surveys are preferred most?
Answer:

  1. When it becomes difficult to survey the whole universe, sample survey method is used.
  2. Sample survey has more advantages because it provides reliable and accurate information at a lower cost and in a shorter time.
  3. They require less energy.
  4. Sample survey needs small team of enumerators.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Name the divisions of CSO?
Answer:
The divisions of CSO:

  1. Industrial Statistics Wing
  2. Manpower Research Division
  3. Population Division.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Spatial classification?
Answer:
The classification of data on the basis of geographical location such as countries, states, cities, districts etc., is known as spatial classification.
ex: Production of food grains in different states, literacy level in different districts of Karnataka.

Question 8.
Frame at least four appropriate multiple-choice options for the following questions.
i) Which of the following is the most important when you buy a new dress?
Answer:

  1. Colour
  2. Price
  3. Brand
  4. Quality of cloth

ii) How often do you use computers?
Answer:

  1. Every day
  2. 6 times a week
  3. 4 times a week
  4. 2 times a week.

iii) Which of the following newspapers / do you read regularly?
Answer:

  • a) The Times of India
  • b) The Hindu
  • c) Indian Express
  • d) Any other.

iv) Rise in the price of petrol is justified?
Answer:

  • Yes
  • No
  • Don’t Know
  • None of the above.

v) What is the monthly income of your family?
Answer:

  • Less than Rs. 10,000
  • Rs. 10,000 to Rs.20,000
  • Rs.20,000 to Rs.30,000
  • More than Rs.30,000

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
What are the types of variables? Explain?
Answer:
There are two types of variables:

  1. Continuous variables
  2. Discrete variables

1. Continuous variables:
A continuous variable can be assume any numerical value. It may take integral values (1,2,3,4,5,6..) etc.,

2. Discrete variables:
A discrete variable can take only certain values. It jumps from one value to another and values are not continuous.
For example: Number of students in a class. Here students can be 50, 65,90,100 etc.,

Question 10.
Give the formula to calculate class mid-point?
Answer:
\(\text { Midpoints }=\frac{\text { upper limit }+\text { lower limit }}{2}\)

Question 11.
What is the exclusive method of classification?
Answer:
Under this method we form classes in such a way that the lower limit of a class coincides with the upper class limit of the previous class.

Question 12.
While preparing the questionnaire what points should keep in mind?
Answer:
While preparing the questionnaire the points should keep in mind are:

  1. The questionnaire should not be too long
  2. The number of questions should be as minimum as possible.
  3. The series of questions should move from general to specific.
  4. The questions should not be complex.
  5. The question should not indicate alternatives to the answer.

Question 13.
What are the three basic ways to collecting data?
Answer:
There are three basic ways of collecting data:
1. Personal interviews:
This method is used when the researcher has access to all the members.

2. Mailing questionnaire:
When the data in a survey are collected by mail, the questionnaire is sent to each individual by mail with a request to complete and return it by given data.

3. Telephone interviews:
In a telephone interview the investigator asks questions over telephone. The advantage of telephone interview are that they are cheaper than personal interview, and can be conducted in a shorter time.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
Give advantages and disadvantages of personal interviews mailing questionnaire and telephone interviews?
Answer:
Advantages:
a) Personal interview

  1. Highest response rate
  2. Allows use of all types of questions

b) Mailing questionnaire

  1. Least expensive
  2. Only method to reach remote areas
  3. No influence on respondents
  4. Maintains anonimity of respondent
  5. Best for sensitive questions

c) Telephones

  1. Relatively low cost
  2. Relatively less influence respondents
  3. Relatively high responserate.

Disadvantages:
a) Personal interview

  • Most expensive
  • Possibility of influence respondents

b) Mailing questionnaire

  • Cannot be used by illiterates
  • Long response time
  • Does not allow explanation of unambiguous questions
  • Reactions cannot be watched.

c) Telephones

  • Limited use
  • Reactions cannot be watched.
  • Possibility of influencing respondents.

1st PUC Economics Collection of Data Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of collecting primary data by

  1. personal interviews and
  2. mailing questionnaire to respondents?

Answer:
1. Personal interview:
Advantages:

  1. The enumerator can personally explain to the respondent the objective of the enquiry and importance of study.
  2. This will help in getting better co-operation of the respondent and in obtaining accurate answers to the questions in the questionnaire.
  3. This will save time of the respondent and will keep him in good humour.

Disadvantages:

  • The method of expensive.
  • It need a large team of enumerators and spend on their training and travel, besides other expenses on food, stationary, lodging etc.,

2. Mailing questionnaire to respondents:
Advantages:

  1. The method of mailing questionnaire to respondents is far more convenient and less expensive.

Disadvantages :

  • The respondents may not understand or misinterpret some questions.
  • The respondent may not take enough care to answer all questions correctly.
  • The respondent may ignore and not return the questionnaire all.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
What are the main sources of errors in the collection of data?
Answer:
Primary data are obtained by a study specifically designed to fulfil the data needs of the problems at hand.
Data which are not originally collected but rather obtain from published or unpublished sources are known as secondary data.

The difference between primary and secondary data is only of degree. Data which are primary in the name of one become secondary in the hands of another.

The main sources of error in the collection of data are as follows:

  • Due to direct personal interview
  • Due to indirect oral interview
  • Information from correspondents may be misleading.
  • Mailed questionnaire may not be properly answered.
  • Scheduled sent through enumerators, may give wrong information.

Question 3.
Explain the meaning of ‘statistical enquiry’?
Answer:
The term enquiry means search for information or knowledge statistical methods such as collection of data analysis etc., Whenever a statistical enquiry is conducted, it is necessary to collect numerical data.

It is necessary to collect numerical data. It is the first step in all statistical enquiry. The investigator who collects the data should consider the following before he proceeds to collect them.

  1. purpose of enquiry
  2. sources of data
  3. methods of data collection
  4. nature and type of enquiry
  5. unit of collection

Question 4.
What precautions are needed before using the secondary data?

  1. The investigator must ensure that the data are suitable for the purpose of the enquiry.
  2. The investigator should also see what type of data adequate for the in estigation.
  3. The investigator must ensure whether the data are reliable to be used.
  • The status of the agency which collected the data.
  • The method used for collecting data.

Question 5.
What is direct personal investigation? What are its merits and demerits?
Answer:
Direct personal investigation:
According to this method, investigator organises personal contact with those from whom the information is to be obtained.
Merits:

  • The investigator personally collects the information, the data are original and accurate.
  • The questions can be explained to the informant according to his education standards.
  • Data obtained through this method are uniform and homogenous.

Demerits:

  • This method suffers from personal elements and hence conclusions and inferences are likely to be biased.
  • This method of collecting data is very complex.
  • This method involves unnecessary wastage of time and money.

Question 6.
Explain the mail questionnaire method of data collection?
Answer:
Some surveys can be conducted through the use of mail questionnaire. Under this method, a list of questions pertaining to the enquiry is prepared and sent to various informants by post.

The questionnaire contains questions, and provide space for answers. A request is made to the informants through a covering letter to fill up questionnaire and send it back within a specified time.

Merits:

  1. The merit of this method is that it does not allow the influencing of the respondent by the interviewer.
  2. Mailing costs are much lower than the costs of personal visits.
  3. It allow the respondents to remain anonymous.
  4. It can reach all groups including those whose personal specialization is not possible.

Demerits:

  1. This method can be adopted where the informants are literate people.
  2. It includes some uncertainty about the response.
  3. The informations supplied by the informants may not be correct.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
Distinguish between sampling and non-sampling methods.
Answer:

Sampling Non-sampling
1. We take a part (sample) of the information 1. We take every items of the information for studies.
2. Inference are drawn from the sample of universe. 2. Inferences are drawn from the data of complete universe.
3. This is the recent method 3. This is an old method
4. Less difficulties are faced because fewer units of the large universe are observed 4. Many difficulties are generally faced when the universe is large.
5. A small number of trained investigators can collect the complete data 5. A large army of investigators may have to be appointed to collect the data
6. It is more scientific 6. It is not so scientific
7. Possible and reliable in such cases 7. Only census method can be used in certain case such as for counting the population of a country.

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice

Students can Download 1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice, Karnataka 1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

  1. The question paper has five parts namely A, B, C, D and E. Answer all the parts.
  2. Part-A carries 10 marks. Part-B carries 20 marks. Part-C carries 30 marks. Part-D carries 20 marks, Part-E carries 10 marks.

Part – A

I. Answer all the questions ( 1 × 10 = 10 )

Question 1.
If set A = {1, 3, 5}, then find the number of elements in P(A)1

Question 2.
Find the value of tan \(\frac{19 \pi}{3}\).

Question 3.
Express (5t)( \(-\frac{3}{5}\) i ) in the form a + ib,. where a, b ∈ R

Question 4.
If \(\frac{1}{6 !}+\frac{1}{7 !}=\frac{x}{8 !}\) find x.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Find the tenth term of G.P : 5, 25, 125, ……………..

Question 6.
Find the slope of the line \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{y}{2}\) = 1.

Question 7.
Find the derivative of x2 – 2 at x = 0.

Question 8.
Write the contrapositive of “if a number is divisible by 9 then it is divisible by 3”.

Question 9.
Define mutually exclusive events.

Question 10.
If for some non empty sets A and B containing 3 elements A × B – {(3,4), (5, -3), (6,1)} . Find the set A.

KSEEB Solutions

Part – B

II. Answer any Ten questions ( 10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 11.
If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {2, 3, 5} and C = {3, 5, 6}, find A ∪ (B ∩C).

Question 12.
If X and Y are the two sets such that n(X) = 17, n(Y) 23 and n(X ∪ F) = 38. Find n(X ∩ Y)

Question 13.
Find the range and domain of the real function f(x) = \(\sqrt{9-x^{2}}\)

Question 14.
The minute hand of a clock is 2.1 cm long. How far does its tip move in 20 minute? ( use π = \(\frac{22}{7}\)

Question 15.
If sin A = \(\frac{3}{5}\) and A is in I quadrant, then find sin 2A.

Question 16.
Evaluate: \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sqrt{1+x}-1}{x}\)

Question 17.
A die is thrown. Write the sample space. Also find the probability of the event “A number greater than or equal to 3 will appear”.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 18.
Write the component statement of the following compound statement and check whether the compound statement is true or false; “Zero is less than every positive integer and every negative integer “.

Question 19.
The co-efficient of variation and standard deviation are 60 and 21 respectively. What is the arithmetic mean of the distribution?

Question 20.
Find the equation of the line perpendicular to the line x + y + 2 = 0 and passing through the point (-1, 0).

Question 21.
Represent the complex number z = -1 + i in polar form.

Question 22.
Solve 3x + 2y > 6 graphically.

Question 23.
Find the distance between the parallel lines 3x – 4y + 7 = 0 and 3x – 4y + 5 = 0

Question 24.
Show that the points A(l, 2, 3), B(-l, – 2, -3), C(2, 3, 2) and D(4, 7, 6) are the vertices of a parallelogram.

Part – C

III. Answer any Ten questions ( 10 × 3 = 30 )

Question 25.
In a survey of 600 students in a school, 150 students were found to be taking tea and 225 taking coffee, 100 were taking both tea and coffee.
Find how many students were taking neither tea nor coffee?

Question 26.
Write the relationR defined as R = {(x,; x + 5):x∈ {0,1, 2, 3, 4}} in roster system. Write down its range and domain.

Question 27.
Provethat (cosx + cosy)2 + (sinx – siny)2 = 4cos2 \(\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 28.
Solve the equation x2 + 3x + 9 = 0.

Question 29.
Find the real 0 such that \(\frac{3+2 i \sin \theta}{1-2 i \sin \theta}\) is purely real.

Question 30.
In a class of 60 students, 30 opted for NCC, 32 opted for NSS and 24 opted for both NCC and NSS. If one of these students is selected at random, find the probability that
(i) The student has opted for NCC or NSS
(ii) The student has opted for NCC but not NSS

Question 31.
Find the coefficient of x6y3 in the expansion of (x + 2y)6

Question 32.
Find the sum of the sequence : 7, 77, 777, 7777……………..  to n terms.

Question 33.
Find the value of n so that \(\frac{a^{n+1}+b^{n+1}}{a^{n}+b^{n}}\) may be geometric mean between a and b.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 34.
Find the derivative of the function ‘sin x’ with respect to ‘x’ from first principle.

Question 35.
Find the center and radius of the circle 2x2 + 2y2 + 8x + 10y – 8 = 0

Question 36.
Find the number of different 8-letter arrangements that can be made from the letters of the word DAUGHTER so that
(i) all vowels occur together
(ii) all vowels do not occur together.

Question 37.
Verify by the method of contradiction that √2 is irrational,

Question 38.
Find the probability that when a hand of 7 cards is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards, it contains
(i) 3 kings
(ii) At least 3 kings.

Part – D

IV. Answer any Six questions ( 6 × 5 = 30 )

Question 39.
The real-valued function f is defined by
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice - 1
Draw the graph of f(x) and hence find the domain and range

Question 40.
Prove that lim \(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0}\left(\frac{\sin \theta}{\theta}\right)=1\) (θ being in radians) and hence show that \(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0}\left(\frac{\tan \theta}{\theta}\right)=1\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 41.
Prove by mathematical induction that
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice - 2

Question 42.
A committee of 7 has to be formed from 9 boys and 4 girls. In how many ways can this be done when the committee consists of:
(i) exactly 3 girls ?
(ii) atleast 3 girls ?
(iii) at most 3 girls ?

Question 43.
The second, third and fourth terms in the binomial expansion (x + a)n are 240, 720 and 1080, respectively. Find x, a and n.

Question 44.
Derive an expression for the coordinates of a point that divides the line joining the points A(x1, y1, z1) and B (x2, y2, z2) internally in the ratio m:n. Hence, find the coordinates of the midpoint of A body of mass where A(2, -3, 4) and B(-1, 2, 1).

Question 45.
Derive the equation of the line in the form x cos α + y sin α = p where p is the length of perpendicular from origin to straight line and α is the angle made by the perpendicular with positive direction of x axis. Using this find the equation of the straight line with p = 4 and α = 120°.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 46.
Prove that
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice - 3

Question 47.
Solve the following linear inequalities 2x + y ≥ 6 and 3x + 4y ≤ 12 graphically.

Question 48.
Find the mean deviation about the median age for the age distribution of 100 persons given below:
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice - 4

Part – E

V. Answer any ONE question ( 1 × 10 = 10 )

Question 49.
(a) Prove geometrically that cos (x + y) = cos x cos y – sin x sin y using unit circle method and hence write the formula for cos (x – y). (6)
(b) Find the sum to n terms of the series: 1.2.3 + 2.3. 4 + 3.4.5 ……………………  (4)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 50.
(a) Define Hyperbola as a set of points and
Derive its equation in the form \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=1\)
(b)
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice - 5

Karnataka 1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

  1. The question paper has five parts namely A, B, C, D and E. Answer all the parts.
  2. Part-A carries 10 marks. Part-B carries 20 marks. Part-C carries 30 marks. Part-D carries 20 marks, Part-E carries 10 marks.

Part – A

I. Answer all the questions: ( 10 × 1 =10 )

Question 1.
If A= {1,2}, B = {x : x ∈ A and x2 – 9 = 0}. Find A x B.

Question 2.
Define subset of a set.

Question 3.
Convert \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\) radians into degree measure

Question 4.
Express \(\frac{5+i \sqrt{2}}{2 i}\) in the form x + iy.

Question 5.
Find n if (n – l)p3: np4 = 1: 9

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Find the tenth term of G.P : 5, 25, 125………….

Question 7.
Find the slope of the line joining the points (3, -2) and (-1,4).

Question 8.
Evaluate: \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0}\left(\frac{\cos x}{\pi-x}\right)\)

Question 9.
Write the contrapositive of “if a number is divisible by 9 then it is divisible by 3”.

Question 10.
Write the sample space for the experiment “a.coin is tossed repeatedly three times”.

KSEEB Solutions

Part – B

II. Answer Any Ten Questions ( 10 x 2 = 20 )

Question 11.
If the universal set U = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 } A = { 1, 2, 5, 7 } , B = { 3,4, 5, 6}. Verify (A ∪ B)’= A’ ∩ B’

Question 12.
In a class of 35 students, 24 likes to play cricket, 5 likes to play both cricket and football. Find how many students like to play football?

Question 13.
If A = { 1,2,3 }, B = { 3,4 },C={ 4,5,6 }. Find A x (B∪C).

Question 14.
A wheel makes 360 revolutions in one minute, through how many radians does it turn in one second ?

Question 15.
Find the value of (sin(15°))

Question 16.
Find the value of x and y, if (x + 2y) + i(2x – 3y) is the conjugate of 5 + 4i.

Question 17.
Solve 7x +1 ≤ 4x + 5 and represent the solution graphically on the number line.

Question 18.
Find the equation of the line passing through (-1, 1) and (2, -4)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 19.
Find the equation of the line passing through (-4, 3) with slope ( \(\frac{1}{2}\) )

Question 20.
Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points (4, 8,10) and (6,10, -8) is divided by YZ-Plane.

Question 21.
Evaluate : \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{1-\cos x}{x}\)

Question 22.
Write the component statement of the following compound statement and check whether the compound statement is true or false; “ Zero is less than every positive integer and every negative integer”.

Question 23.
The co-efficient of variation and standard deviation are 60 and 21 respectively. What is the arithmetic mean of the distribution.

Question 24. One card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. Calculate the probability that the card will be “not an ace”.

KSEEB Solutions

Part – C

III. Answer Any Ten Questions ( 10 x 3 = 30 )

Question 25. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 14} Define a relation R from A to A by R = {(.x, y): 3x -y = 0, x, y ∈ A} write its domain
and range.

Question 26.
Find the general solution of 2 cos2 x + 3 sin x = 0.

Question 27.
Express √3 + i in the polar form.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 28.
Solve: 3x2 – 4x + \(\frac{20}{3}\) = 0

Question 29.
How many numbers greater than 10,00000 can be formed by using the digits 1, 2, 0, 2, 4, 2, 4.

Question 30.
Using the Binomial theorem, which number is among (1.1)10000 and 1000.

Question 31.
In an A.P, if mth term is n and nth term is m. Then find pth term (m # n).

Question 32.
Find the sum of n terms of an A.P whose kth term is (5k + 1).

Question 33.
Find the co-ordinates of the foci and latus rectum of the hyperbola 3x2 – y2 = 3.

Question 34.
Find the derivative of sin x from first principle.

Question 35.
Given p : 25 is a multiple of 5 : q: 25 is a multiple of 8. Write the compound statement connecting these two statements with “and”, “or”. In 60th cases check the validity of the statement.

Question 36.
The student Anil and Ashima appeared in the examination, the probability that Anil will qualify the examination is 0.05 and that Ashima will qualify the examination 0.10. The probability that the both will qualify the examination is 0.02. Find the probability that only one of them qualify the examination.

Question 37.
A letter is chosen at random from the ward ‘ASSASSINATION’, Find the probability that the letter is (i) an vowel (ii) consonant.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 38.
In a survey of 600 students in a school, 150 students were found to be taking tea and 250 taking coffee, 100 were taking both tea and coffee. Find how many student were taking neither tea nor coffee.

Part -D

IV. Answer any Six questions ( 6 x 5 = 30 )

Question 39.
Define a polynomial function. If the function from f: R → R is defined as f(x) = x2 then draw the graph of/ and find the domain and range.

Question 40.
Prove that
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice - 6

Question 41.
Prove by mathematical induction that 13 + 23 + …………….n3 = \(\left[\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\right]^{2}\)

Question 42.
Solve graphically 2x + y ≥ 4,x + y ≤ 3, 2x – 3y ≤ 6

Question 43.
A group consists of 4 girls and 7 boys, In how many ways can a team of 5 members be selected if the team has
(i) No girl
(ii) At least one boy and one girl
(iii) At least three girls

Question 44.
State and prove Binomial theorem for all natural numbers.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 45.
Derive the formula for the angle between two straight lines with slopes m1 and m2 hence find the slope of the line which makes an angle \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) with the line x – 2y + 5.

Question 46.
Derive the formula for the distance between two points x – 2y + 5 and x – 2y + 5 And hence find the distance between (2, -1, 3) and (-2, 1, 3).

Question 47. Prove geometrically: \(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin \theta}{\theta}=1\) where θ is in radian and hence deduce that \(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0} \frac{\tan \theta}{\theta}=1\)

Question 48.
Find the mean deviation about the mean for the following data
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice - 7

Part – E

V .Answer any ONE ( 1 x 10 = 10 )

Question 49.
a) Prove geometrically that cos (x + y) = cos x cos y – sin x. sin y and hence prove that cos (x – y) = cos x. cos y + sin x. sin y. 6
b) Find the sum of first n terms of the series 12 + 22 + …. + n2.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 50.
a) Define ellipse and derive the equation of the ellipse in standard form as \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) = 1 (a > b)
b) Find the derivation of \(\frac{x^{5}-\cos x}{\sin x}\) with respect to x.

Karnataka 1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

  1. The question paper has five parts namely A, B, C, D and E. Answer all the parts.
  2. Part-A carries 10 marks. Part-B carries 20 marks. Part-C carries 30 marks. Part-D carries 20 marks, Part-E carries 10 marks.

Part – A

I. Answer all the questions: ( 10 × 1 =10 )

Question 1.
Define an empty set.

Question 2.
If ( \(\frac{x+1}{2}\) ,7 ) find ‘x’

Question 3.
Convert ( \(\frac{7 \pi}{6}\) ) into degrees .

Question 4.
Find the real number x if (x – 2i) (1 + i) is purely imaginary.

Question 5.
Given 5 flags of different colours how many different signals can be made if each signal requires the use of 2 flags, one below the other .

Question 6.
For what value of x the numbers \(\frac{-2}{7}\), x, \(\frac{-7}{2}\) are in G. P.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
Find the slope of the line \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{y}{2}\) = 1

Question 8.
Find the derivative of x2 – 2 at x = 0 .

Question 9.
Write the negation of ‘For all a, b ∈ I, a – b∈ I’.

Question 10.
Define sure event.

Part – B

II. Answer any Ten questions ( 10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 11.
In a school, there are 20 teachers who teach mathematics or physics. Of these 12 teach mathematics and 4 teach both physics and mathematics. How many teach physics?

Question 12.
If A ={1,2}, form the set A × A × A.

Question 13.
Taking the set of natural numbers as the universal set. If A = {x: x ∈ N, and 2x +1 > 10} and B = {x : x ∈ N, and 3x – 1 > 8 find A’ and B’.

Question 14.
Find the value of cos (- 1710°).

Question 15.
Prove that sin 2x = \(\frac{2 \tan x}{1+\tan ^{2} x}\)

Question 16.
Find the least positive integer m such that \(\left(\frac{1+i}{1-i}\right)^{4 m}\) =1

Question 17.
Solve {3 (2x-5 ) -7} ≥ 9(x-5).

Question 18.
Find the distance of a point (3,-5) from the line 3x – 4y – 5 =0.

Question 19.
Find the angle between the lines y – y√3 x – 5 = 0 and √3 y – x + 6 = 0.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 20.
Evaluate \(\lim _{x \rightarrow-2} \frac{\frac{2}{x}+\frac{1}{2}}{x+2}\) .

Question 21.
Show that the points P(-2, 3, 5), Q (1, 2, 3) and R (7,0,-1) are collinear.

Question 22.
Write the converse and contrapositive of ‘If a parallelogram is a square, then it is a rhombus’.

Question 23.
Write the mean of the given data 6,7,10,12,13,4,6,12 .

Question 24.
Given P(A) = \(\frac{3}{5}\) and P (B) = \(\frac{1}{5}\) find P (A or B)

Part – C

III. Answer any Ten questions ( 10 × 3 = 30 )

Question 25.
There are 200 individuals with a skin disorder. 120 has been exposed to the chemical A, 50 to chemical B and 30 to both chemical A and B. Find the number of individuals exposed to
(i) chemical A but not to chemical B
(ii) Chemical A or chemical B.

Question 26.
Let A = {1, 2}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4}, and C = {5, 6}. Verify that A × (B ∩C) = (A × B) ∩ (A × C)
sin A sin B sin C

Question 27.
Prove that in any triangle ABC, \(\frac{\sin A}{a}=\frac{\sin B}{b}=\frac{\sin C}{c}\)

Question 28.
Express \(\frac{-1+i}{\sqrt{2}}\) in the polar form.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 29.
Solve the equation x2 + \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{2}}\) + 2 = 0

Question 30.
In how many ways can 5 girls and 3 boys be seated in a row so that no two boys are together.

Question 31.
Find the middle term in the expansion of \(\left(\frac{x}{3}+9 y\right)^{10}\)

Question 32.
The number of bacteria in a certain time double every hour. If there are 30 bacteria present in the culture originally. How many bacteria will be present at the end of 2nd hour, 4th hour, and nth hour.

Question 33.
The difference between any two consecutive interior angles of a polygon is 5°. If the smallest angle is 120°. Find the number of sides of the polygon.

Question 34.
Find the equation of the ellipse whose center at origin, major axis on the X axis and passes through the point (4, 3) and (6, 2).

Question 35.
Find the derivative of tan x w. r. t x from first principle.

Question 36.
Verify by the method of contradiction that √2 is irrational

Question 37.
One card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. If each outcome is equally likely, calculate the probability that the card will be
(i) diamond
(ii) not an ace
(iii) a black card.

Question 38.
A fair coin 1 marked on one face and 6 on the other and a fair die are both tossed. Find the probability that the sum of numbers that turn up is (i) 3 (ii) 12.

KSEEB Solutions

Part – D

IV. Answer any Six questions ( 6 × 5 = 30 )

Question 39.
Define modulus function. Draw the graph of modulus function, Write down its domain and range.

Question 40.
Prove that cos2 2x – cos2 6x = sin 4x . sin 8x

Question 41.
Prove by mathematical induction that
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice - 8

Question 42.
Solve the following system of inequalities graphically: 5x + 4y ≤ 40, x ≥ 2, y ≥ 3;

Question 43.
What is the number of ways choosing four cards from a pack of 52 playing cards. In how many of these
(i) Four cards of the same suit
(ii) are face cards
(iii) two red and two black card
(iv) cards are of the same colour.

Question 44.
For all real numbers a, b and positive integer V prove that,
(a + b)n = nC0an + nC1 an-1b + nC2 an-2b2 + …………….+nCn-1 abn-1 + nCnbn
Hence prove that C2 + C2 + C2 + ………….Cn = 2n

KSEEB Solutions

Question 45.
Derive a formula for the perpendicular distance of a point (x1, y1) from the line Ax + By + C = 0.

Question 46.
Derive the section formula in 3-D for internal division. Also find the coordinates of the midpoint of the line joining the points A (1,-2,3) and B (3,4,8).

Question 47.
Prove that \(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin x}{x}\) = 1 (x being in radians) and hence evaluate \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin a x}{\sin b x}\)

Question 48.
The mean and standard deviation of 20 observations are found to be 10 and 2 respectively. On rechecking it was found that on observation 8 was incorrect. Calculate the correct mean and the standard deviation in each of the following cases
(i) if wrong item is omitted
(ii) if it is replaced by 12

KSEEB Solutions

Part – E

V. Answer any One question ( 1 × 10 = 10 )

Question 49.
(a) Prove geometrically that cos(A + B) = cos A cos S-sin A sin B
(b) Find the derivative of f(x) = 2x2 + 3x – 5, also prove that F'(0) + 3f'(-1) = 0

Question 50.
(a) Define parabola as a set of all points in the plane and derive its equation in the form y2 = 4ax, a > 0 and hence also find the focus and vertex.
(b) Find the sum to ‘n’ terms of the series 12 + (12 + 22) + (12 + 22 + 32) + …………..

Karnataka 1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

  1. The question paper has five parts namely A, B, C, D and E. Answer all the parts.
  2. Part-A carries 10 marks. Part-B carries 20 marks. Part-C carries 30 marks. Part-D carries 20 marks, Part-E carries 10 marks.

Part – A

I. Answer all the questions ( 1 × 10 = 10 )

Question 1.
Write the set {x : x e R and – 4 < x ≤ 6} as an interval.

Question 2.
IfA = {1,2}, B = {3,4) then show that A x (B ∩ Φ) = Φ

Question 3.
If cos x = -3/5, x lies in the HI quadrant then find the value of sin x.

Question 4.
Evaluate: \(i^{24}+\left(\frac{1}{i}\right)^{26}\)

Question 5.
Find the number of 4 digits that can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. If no digit is repeated.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Which term of 2, 2√2, 4 is 128.

Question 7.
Reduce 6x + 3y – 5 = 0 into slope-intercept form.

Question 8.
Find \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 5}|x|-5\)

Question 9.
Write the negation of “Every natural number is greater than zero”.

Question 10.
If \(\frac{2}{11}\) is the probability of an event A then what is the probability of the event ‘not A’?

Part – B

II. Answer any ten questions ( 2 × 10 = 20 )

Question 11.
If U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}, A = {2,4, 6, 8} and B = {2, 3, 5, 7} verify (A ∩B)’ = A’ ∪ B’.

Question 12.
If X and Y are two sets such that X ∪ Y has 50 elements, X has 28 elements and Y has 32 elements. How many elements does X ∩ Y have?

Question 13.
If A = {1, 2} and B = {3, 4} write A × B. How many subsets will A × B have?

Question 14.
The minute hand of a clock is 1.5 cm long. How far does its tip move in 40 Minute? (Use π = 3.142)

Question 15.
Prove that sin 3x = 3 sin x – 4 sin3x.

Question 16.
If x + iy = \(\frac{p+i q}{p-i q}\) prove that x2 + y2 = 1.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 17.
Solve the inequality (2x – 5) > (1 – 5x) and represent the solution graphically on the number line.

Question 18.
By using the concept of equation of the line prove that the three points (3, 0), (-2, -2) and (8, 2) are collinear.

Question 19.
Find the equation of the line parallel to the line 3x – 4y + 2 = 0 and passing through the point (-2, 3).

Question 20.
Find the ratio in which the YZ-plane divides the line segment formed by joining the points (-2, 4, 7) and (3, -5, 8).

Question 21.
Compute the derivative of sin2 x.

Question 22.
By giving a counter example, show that the following statements is false: “If n is an odd integer then n is a prime”.

Question 23.
The mean and variance of heights of XI students are 162.6cm and 127.69cm2 respectively. Find the C.V.

Question 24.
A card is selected from a pack of 52 parts calculate the probability that the card is (i) an Ace (ii) a black card.

KSEEB Solutions

Part – C

III. Answer Any Ten Questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 )

Question 25.
In a survey of 400 students in a school, 100 were listed as taking apple juice, 150 as taking orange juice and 75 were listed as taking both apple and orange juices. Find how many students were taking neither apple juice nor orange juice.

Question 26.
If f(x) = x2 and g(x) = 2x + 1 be two real functions find (i) (f + g) (x) (ii) (f – g) (x) (iii) (fg) (x)

Question 27.
Find the general solution of sec22x = 1 – tan2x.

Question 28.
Express \(\frac{1-i}{1+i}\) into polar form

KSEEB Solutions

Question 29.
Solve: 2x2 + √3x – 1 = 0

Question 30.
If 5.4Pr = 6.5Pr-1, then find r.

Question 31.
Find the coefficient of x5 of (x + 3 )8.

Question 32.
Insert five number between 8 and 26 such that resulting sequence is an A.P.

Question 33.
The sum of first three terms of a G.P. is \(\frac{13}{12}\) and their product if -1. Find the common ratio and the terms.

Question 34.
Find the equation of parabola with vertex at the origin, axis along x-axis and passing through the point (2, 3) also find its focus.

Question 35.
Differentiate \(\frac{x+1}{x}\) from first principle

Part – D

IV. Answer any six questions ( 5 × 6 = 30 )

Question 36.
Verify by the method of contradiction that √7 is irrational.

Question 37.
A bag contains 9 discs of which 4 are red 3 are blue and 2 are yellow. The discs are similar in shape and size.
The disc is drawn at random from the bag. Calculate the probability that will be ’
(i) red
(ii) no blue
(iii) either red or blue.

Question 38.
A and B are events such that P(A) = \(\frac{1}{4}\), P(B) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) and P(A and B) = \(\frac{1}{8}\). Find
(i) P(A or B)
(ii) P(not A and not B)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 39.
Define Signum function. Draw the graph of it and write down it Domain and Range.

Question 40.
Prove that cos2x cos \(\frac{x}{2}\) – cos3x cos \(\frac{9x}{2}\) = sin5x sin \(\frac{5x}{2}\)

Question 41.
Prove that 102n-1 + 1 is divisible by 11, ∀ n ∈ N by the principle of mathematical Induction.

Question 42.
Solve the following system of linear inequalities graphically. x + y ≥ 5, x – y ≤ 3.

Question 43.
Find the number of ways of selecting 9 balls from 6 red balls, 5 white balls and 5 blue balls. If each selection consists of 3 balls of each colour.

Question 44.
Prove Binomial Theorem for positive integers with real numbers. Hence prove that
nC0 + nC2 + nC4+ …………………. = nC1 + nC3 + nC5 + ………………..

Question 45.
P(a. b) is the midpoint of the line segment between axes. Show that the equation of the line is \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}=2\)

Question 46.
Derive the formulae for distance between two points (x1, y1, z1) and I(x1, y2, z2) and hence find the distance between P(1, -3, 4) and Q(-4, 1,2).

KSEEB Solutions

Question 47.
Prove that \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin x}{x}=1\) where x is in radian and hence evaluate: \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin 4 x}{\sin 2 x}\)

Question 48.
The mean and standard deviation of 100 observations were evaluated as 40 and 5.1 respectively. By a student who took by mistake, 50 instead of 40 for one observation. What are correct mean and standard deviation?

Part – E

V. Answer Any One Question: ( 1 × 10 = 10 )

Question 49.
a) Define ellipse as a set of all points in the plane and derive its equation in the standard form as \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\)
a > b
b) Find the derivate \(\frac{2}{x+1}-\frac{x^{2}}{3 x-1}\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 50.
a) Prove geometrically that cos(x+y) = cosxcosy-sinxsiny and hence show that cos ( \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) + x) = – sin x.
b) Find the sum to n terms of series:
\(\frac{1}{1.2}+\frac{1}{2.3}+\ldots \ldots \ldots \ldots\)

Karnataka 1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

  1. The question paper has five parts namely A, B, C, D and E. Answer all the parts.
  2. Part-A carries 10 marks. Part-B carries 20 marks. Part-C carries 30 marks. Part-D carries 20 marks, Part-E carries 10 marks.

Part – A

I. Answer all the questions ( 1 × 10 = 10 )

Question 1.
If A has 4 elements. How many subsets does A has?

Question 2.
Convert 520° in to radian measure.

Question 3.
Find the conjugate of √3i -1

Question 4.
If \(\frac{1}{6 !}+\frac{1}{7 !}=\frac{x}{8 !}\) then find x

Question 5.
Find the 20th term of the G.P. \(\frac{5}{2}, \frac{5}{4}, \frac{5}{8}, \cdots \cdots \cdots \cdots\)

Question 6.
Find the slope of the line making inclination of 60° with positive direction of x-axis.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
Find the derivative of 2 × – \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 8.
Write the negation of ‘For all a, b ∈ I, a – b ∈ I’.

Question 9.
Define mutually exclusive events.

Question 10.
If for some non empty sets A and B containing 3 elements A × B = {(3,4), (5,-3), (6,1)}. Find the set A.

Part – B

II. Answer any Ten questions ( 10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 11.
If A = {1,2, 3, 4}, B = {2, 3, 5} and C = {3, 5, 6}, find A ∪ (b ∩ C).

Question 12.
If X and Y are the two sets such that n (X) = 17, n (Y) = 23 and n (X∪ Y) = 38. Find n (X ∩ Y).

Question 13.
Find the range and domain of the real function f(x) = \(\sqrt{9-x^{2}}\)

Question 14.
The minute hand of a clock is 2.1 cm long. How far does its tip move in 20 minute? ( use π = \(\frac{22}{7}\) )
tan A:-tan y

Question 15.
Prove that tan(x – y) = \(\frac{\tan x-\tan y}{1+\tan x \tan y}\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 16.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow-1}\left[1+x+x^{2}+x^{2}+\cdots \cdots x^{10}\right]\)

Question 17.
A die is thrown. Write the sample space. Also find the probability of the event “A number greater than or equal to 3 will appear”.

Question 18.
Write the converse and contrapositive of ‘If a parallelogram is a square, then it is a rhombus’.

Question 19.
Two series A and B with equal means have standard deviations 9 and 10 respectively. Which series is more consistent?

Question 20.
Find the equation of the line perpendicular to the line x + y + 2 = 0 and passing through the point (-1, 0).

Question 21.
Represent the complex number z = -1 +i in polar form.

Question 22.
Solve 3x + 2y > 6 graphically.

Question 23.
Find the distance between the parallel lines 3x – 4y + 7 = 0 and 3x – 4y + 5 = 0.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 24.
Show that the points A(1, 2, 3), B(-1, -2, -3), C(2, 3, 2) and D(4, 7, 6) are the vertices of a parallelogram.

Part – C

III. Answer any TEN questions ( 10 × 3 = 30 )

Question 25.
In a group of 65 people, 40 like cricket, 10 like both cricket and tennis. How many like tennis? How many like tennis only and not cricket?

Question 26.
Write the relation R defined as R = {(x,x + 5)}: x ∈ {0,1,2,3,4} in roster system. Write down its range and domain.

Question 27.
Prove that (cosx + cosy)2 + (sinx – sin y)2 =4cos2 ( \(\frac{x+y}{2}\) )

Questioin 28.
Solve the equation x2 + 3x + 9 = 0.

Question 29.
Find the real θ such that \(\frac{3+2 i \sin \theta}{1-2 i \sin \theta}\) is purely real.

Question 30.
In a class of 60 students, 30 opted for NCC, 32 opted for NSS and 24 opted for both NCC and NSS. If one of these students is selected at random, find the probability that (i) the student has opted for NCC or NSS (ii) The student has opted for NCC but not NSS.

Question 31.
Find the coefficient of x6y3 in the expansion of (x + 2y)6

Question 32.
Find the sum of the sequence : 7,77,777,7777, ……………….

Question 33.
In If \(\frac{a^{n}+b^{n}}{a^{n-1}+b^{n-1}}\) is the A.M. between a and b, then find the value of n.

Question 34.
Find the derivative of the function ‘-x’ with respect to ‘x’ from first principle.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 35.
Find the centre and radius of the circle x2 + y2 + 8x + 10y – 8 = 0.

Question 36.
How many words with or without meaning can be made from the letters of the word MONDAY assuming that no letter is repeated, if (i) 4 letters are used at a time, (ii) All letters are used at a time (iii) All letters are used but first letters a vowel.

Question 37.
Verify by the method of contradiction that √2 is irrational.

Question 38.
Find the probability that when a hand of 7 cards is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards, it contains (i) 3 kings (ii) At least 3 kings.

KSEEB Solutions

Part – D

IV. Answer any Six questions ( 6 × 5 = 30 )

Question 39.
Define greatest integer function. Draw the graph of greatest integer function, Write the domain and range of the function.

Question 40.
Prove that \(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0}\left(\frac{\sin \theta}{\theta}\right)=1\) (0 being in radians) and hence show that \(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0}\left(\frac{\tan \theta}{\theta}\right)=1\)

Question 41.
Prove by mathematical induction that
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice - 9

Question 42.
How many words with or without meaning each of 3 vowels and 2 consonants can be formed from the letters of the word INVOLUTE?

KSEEB Solutions

Question 43.
Find “a” if 17th and 18th terms of the expansion (2 + a)50 are equal.

Question 44.
Derive an expression for the coordinates of a point that divides the line joining the points A(x1, y1, z1) and B(x2, y2, z2) internally in the ratio m : n. Hence, find the coordinates of the midpoint of AB where A(2,-3,4) and B(-1,2,1)

Question 45.
Derive the equation of the line with slope m and y-intercept c. Also find the equation of the line for which tan θ = \(\frac{1}{2}\) and y-intercept is \(\frac{-3}{2}\)

Question 46.
Prove that
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice - 10

KSEEB Solutions

Question 47.
A manufacture has 600 Utters of a 12% solution of acid. How many liters of a 30% acid solution must be added to it so that the acid content in the resulting mixture be more that 15% but less than 18%.

Question 48.
Find the mean deviation about the median age for the age distribution of 100 persons given below
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice - 11

Part – E

V. Answer any One question ( 1 × 10 = 10 )

Question 49.
(a) Prove geometrically that cos(x + y) = cosx cosy – sinx siny using unit circle method and hence find the value of cos ( \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) + x ) = – sin x. (6)
(b) Find the sum to n terms of the series: 1.2.3 + 2.3.4 + 3.4.5 …………….. (4)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 50.
(a) Define Hyperbola as a set of points. Derive its equation in the form \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=1\)
(b) Suppose
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 5 for Practice - 12
What are the possible values of a and b?

1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 Human Capital Formation in India

Students can Download Economics Chapter 5 Human Capital Formation in India Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 Human Capital Formation in India

1st PUC Economics Human Capital Formation in India TextBook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the two major sources of human capital in a country?
Answer:
The two main sources of human capital in a country are:
1. Education:
Education not only raises the standard and quality of living but also encourages modem attitude of the people. It increases the productive capacity and productivity of nation’s workforce by enhancing their skills.

2. Health:
It helps economic development indirectly by supplying active, energetic and healthy workforce which activates entire production process.

Question 2.
What are the indicators of educational achievement in a country?
Answer:
The indicators of educational achievement in a country are:

  • Adult literacy level
  • Primary education completion rate.
  • Youth literacy rate.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Why do we observe regional difference in educational attainment in India?
Answer:
There is great regional differences in educational attainment in India. Some states like:

  • Kerala
  • Tamil Nadu and Uttaranchal have higher literally rates.

While states like:

  • Bihar
  • Rajasthan
  • UP (Uttar Pradesh)
  • Arunachal Pradesh

has low literacy rates. This is due to inequalities in income and wealth on large scale also lack investment by Government on education.

1. The people of these states give less importance to education and are mainly employed in agricultural sector or informal sector that has very less to do with education.

2. The people among these states suffer due to lack of proper incentives for educational development.

3. The Government focuses more on metropolitan cities rather than the rural backward areas.

4. Availability of resources In India there are wide disparities in states in terms of availability of resources, availability of schools, colleges, and awareness for education, etc. Hence this is also one of the reasons responsible for the present regional differences in educational attainment.

5. Lack of proper implementation of Government policies. In some of states of India either the benefits of Government policies on education do not reach or if they reach, there is lack of proper implementation. Consequently, the children of these states are deprived of even elementary education.

Question 4.
Bring out the difference between human capital and human development?
Answer:
a. Human capital:
1. Human capital considers education and health as a means to increase labour productivity. It is narrow concepts which treat human beings as means to achieve an end which is higher productivity. Investment in education converts human beings into human capital.

2. Human capital represents enhance labour productivity, which is an acquired ability and an outcome of deliberate investment divisions with the expectations that it will increase future income sources.

3. Human capital treats human beings as a means to an end, the end being the increase in productivity.

b. Human development:
1. It is based on the idea that education and wealth are integral to human well being because only when people have the ability to read and write and the ability to lead a long and healthy life, they will be able to make other choices which they value.

2. Human development treats human beings as ends in themselves because human welfare should be increased through investment in education and health even if such investment does not result in higher labour productivity.

Question 5.
How is human development a broader term as compared to human capital?
Answer:
Human development is far broader concept than human capital. Human development includes all those factors which led to welfare and development of society and its members whereas human capital focuses only on human beings and their contribution to the economy.

Human development includes overall property of human beings through education and health while human capital considers human beings as a source of increasing productivity of the economy.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
What factors contribute to human capital formation?
Answer:
There are various factors which contribute to human capital formation as discussed below:
1. Education:
An educated individual has more knowledge and skills than an uneducated person. Hence, education imparts the neccessary attitude and aptitude for adopting new technologies and efficient management practices which help in raising productivity, education is an important factor in human capital formation.

which leads to higher efficiency and productivity in human beings and thus highter income and standard of living which again facilitates further investment in education and health.

2. Health:
A sound mind in a sound body, like education, investment in health is also considered as an important factor for human capital formation as it directly increases the supply of healthy labour force. A healthy person is an asset for the nation as he is more productive than a sick person who is unable to work efficiently due to bad health.

Therefore, investment in health facilities to build a physically as well as mentally strong human capital is essential for increasing productivity. Preventive medicine (vaccination), curative medicine (medical intervention during illness), social medicine (spread of health literacy) and provision of clean drinking water and good sanitation are the various forms of health expenditures. Health expenditure thus is a source of human capital formation.

3. On the job training:
Firms provide on – the – job training to their workers to enhance their skills which helps in human capital formation. The workers may be trained in the firm itself under the supervision of a skilled worker or the workers may be sent for off-campus training, Expenditure regarding on – the job training is an important factor of human capital formation as the return of such expenditure in the form of enhanced labour productivity is more than the cost involved.

4. Migration:
It contributes to human capital formation as it facilitates utilisation of inactive skills of the people. People from rural areas, migrate to urban areas in search of employment. Technically qualified persons, like engineers and doctors, migrate to other countries because of higher earnings in such countries.

Migration in both these cases involves cost of transport, higher cost of living in the migrated places and psychological costs of adapting to a new socio¬cultural setup. The increase in earnings in the new place outweighs the costs of migration. Hence, expenditure on migration is also a cause of human capital formation.

5. Information:
Information relating to the labour market and other markets is also a factor which contributes to human capital formation. Information regarding the level of salaries in various types of jobs, whether the educational institutions provide the required skills and at what is the associated cost is necessary to make decisions.

regarding investments in human capital as well as for efficient utilization of the acquired human capital stock Information is necessary to make decisions regarding investments in human capital.

Question 7.
How do government organisations facilitate then functioning of schools and hospitals in India?
Answer:
Expenditures on both education and health are to be carried out simultaneously by all the three tiers of the government namely Central Government, State Government and Local Government in India.

The ministries of education at the union and state level, departments of education and various organisations like National Counil of Educational Research and Training (NCERT), University Grants Commission (UGC) and All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE) facilitate institutions such as schools which come under the education sector.

Similarly, the ministries of health at the union and state level, departments of health and various organisations like Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) facilitate institutions like hospitals which come under the health sector.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 8.
Education is considered an important input for the development of a nation. How?
Answer:
Education is an important input for the development of a nation because:

  • It provides necessary knowledge and skills to people which helps in increasing their productivity.
  • It creates social awareness and develops mental abilities of people to make right choice at the time of need.
  • It enhances the earnings capacity of an individual which ultimately improve the quality of living of people.
  • An educated person understands the problems of population growth which brings decline in population growth rate. This makes more resources available per person.
  • It helps in acceptance of modernisation and modem techniques which gives boost in development of a nation.

Question 9.
Discuss the following as a source of human capital formation?
Answer:

  1. Health Infrastructure
  2. Expenditure on education.

The Source of human capital formation:

1. Health Infrastructure or Investment on Health:
The various forms of health expenditures are as follows:

  • Preventive medicine – vaccinations to prevent deadly diseases.
  • Curative medicine – obtaining medical treatment during illness.
  • Social medicine – spread of awareness about keeping good wealth and its importance.
  • Provision of clean drinking water and good sanitation

The healthy individuals are source of human capital as they directly contribute for regular and higher productivity of labour. A sick labourer without access to medical facilities has to remain absent from work. This leads to loss of productivity. Hence expenditure on health is an important source of human capital formation.

2. Expenditure on Education:
Investment in education is considered as one of the main sources of human capital formation. Spending on education by individuals is similar to spending on capital goods by companies to increase their profits in future. Similarly, the individuals invest in education in order to increase their earnings in the form of money income in future.

Investment on education also promotes individual development which ultimately promotes overall economic growth of the country. The investment on education by an individual provides following benefits:

  • Provide source of knowledge and enhance skills among individuals.
  • Improve efficiency of labour
  • They will be eligible for high salaried jobs.
  • The ordinary individual will turn into essential human capital for economic growth.

Question 10.
Establish the need for acquiring information relating to health and education expenditure for the effective utilisation of human resources.
Answer:
1. The information about availability of jobs, salaries and admissions related information are important for growth of human capital.

2. They enable the people to make better choice between various options available to them and leads to the effective utilisation of human skill and knowledge.

3. Also, investment made on health information improves health, efficiency, quality of living and life expectancy of people. The use of medical information and family welfare programmes ensures the supply of healthy workforce. Various health measures are not adopted due to lack of information can be minimised and helps in effective utilisation of human resources.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
How does investment in human capital contribute to growth?
Answer:
Investment in human capital contributes growth by:
1. Raisins productivity:
The skilled and healthy labours make utilisation of the material inputs and capital effectively which increases productivity and ultimately faster the rate of growth.

2. Innovation :
An educated person has the ability to develop new skills and innovative new techniques that can be more efficient and productive and adds to economic growth.

3. Hish participation rate:
If more people become able to do work through education and health, it will increase the participation rate of people which will accelerate the process of economic growth and development.

Question 12.
There is a downward trend in inequality worldwide with a rise in the average education levels Comment.
Answer:
Access to better education reduces the inequalities of income. Educated person has more ability and skills hence, the income is also higher. This improves the living standard and quality. The importance of education is felt worldwide and Government of nations have been investing heavily in the education sector. When the education rate rises it automatically reduces the inequalities.

Question 13.
Examine the role of education in the economic development of a nation?
Answer:
The role of education in the economic development of a nation are:
1. Knowledge and skills:
It provided people of quality skills and knowledge which enhances their productivity. This gives a greater opportunity to do work and earn high income.

2. Acceptability of modem method:
An educated individual is more able to adapt with new modem techniques which boost the economy of a nation.

3. Eradication of inequality:
Education proves to be an effective tool for reducing inequality. It increases the income earning capacity of economically backward sections of people in a country which reduces the slanted distribution of income.

4. Innovation:
An educated person has the ability to develop new skills and innovate new techniques that can be more efficient and productive which helps in the economic development of a nation.

5. Participation rate:
If a nation has more educated workforce, it will increase the participation rate of people which will accelerate the development of nation.

Question 14.
Explain how investment in education stimulates economic growth?
Answer:
Education is an important source of human capital formation.

  • Investment in education endows people with quality skills and knowledge which enhances their productivity.
  • It make people more able to adopt new modem techniques which helps the economy to grow. It raises the income of living.
  • It generates national development consciousness. Education meet cultural needs and develops human personality. Thus, investment in education increases economic growth.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
Bring out the need for on-the-job-training for a person?
Answer:
1. On-the-job-training is the most effective kind of training to a trainee, imparting him the technical skills and know-how at the actual work site.

2. The worker trained in the firm itself under the assistance of senior and experienced worker. This is needed because it improves the efficiency and morale of employees.

  • It enables the person to absorb the values, norms, and standards of an organisation.
  • It facilitates the better utilisation of raw materials.

Question 16.
Trace the relationship between human capital and economic growth?
Answer:
There is a positive relationship between human capital and economic growth. Human capital formation raises the process of economic growth which leads for growth of human capital formation.

If we want to increase economic growth then we must have to increase our human capital. Unhealthy or uneducated labour cannot add much value of economic growth. We must have to make people educate, about health and skills in order to accelerate our economic growth. It also contributes to information and more participation of people.

Question 17.
Discuss the need for promoting women’s education in India.
Answer:
Women have always been neglected when it comes to education in India. The access to education has always been biased towards male population due to our social system which is patriarchal. The lack of education has caused exploitation of women and has resulted in a lower social status of women in India. There is an imminent need for promoting female education in India because of the following reasons:

1. Women education is essential for providing than economic independence and empowering them to save them from exploitation and domestic violence.

2. Women education is essential in order to raise the social status of women so that the quality of life o f women can be improved.

3. Educating women help in promoting family welfare programmes and thus is population control.

4. Educated women are aware of the importance of health care and thus take proper care of their family members contributing in human capital formation.

5. Education a woman means educating a family. An educated woman can inculcate moral values in her children and Can facilitate their education.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 18.
Argue in favor of the need for different forms of government intervention in education and health sectors.
Answer:
There is a need for different forms of government intervention in education and health sectors because:
1. Both private and public institutions are involved in health and education sectors. Therefore, there should be some authority which should monitor their functioning.

2. Private institutions are guided by profit motive so the education and health facilities provided by them is higher.

3. Investment on education and health is to be carried out simultaneously by all different form of Government central, state and local as per the federal structure of India.

4. Government should set up or encourage private institutions to set up their educational and health care centres in remote and rural areas.

5. Government must maintain standard of education and health to develop human resources effectively.

Question 19.
What are the main problems of human capital formation in India?
Answer:
The main problems of human capital formation in India are:

  • The rise in the population
  • The formation of human capital is suffering due to lack of better quality.
  • The brain drain – people migrate from one to place to other place for better jobs and salaries ex: Doctors
  • There is problem of improper Manpower planning

Question 20.
In your view, is it essential for the Government to regulate the fee structure in education and health care institutions? If so, why?
Answer:
Yes, the Government must regulate the fees structure in education and health care institutions. Education and health sectors are two major sources for the formation of good quality of human capital.

The economic growth of a country depends on human capital formation There is a great contribution of private institutions in educational and health care facilities also, the fees of both are very high in private made institutions as these are guided by profit motive. Therefore, intervention in health and education sector to regulate the fees structure is must in order to enhance the quality of human capital.

1st PUC Economics Human Capital Formation in India Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Economics Human Capital Formation in India Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is human capital?
Answer:
Human capital refers to the skills, knowledge and experience of their value to an organisation or country, or It refers to the stock of knowledge and skills embodied in the ability of human beings to perform labour and create economic value.

Question 2.
Give the meaning of human capital formation?
Answer:
Human capital formation refers to the process of acquiring and increasing the number of persons who have skills, education and experience which are essential for the economic development of a country.

Question 3.
Expand NCERT?
Answer:
National Council of Educational Research and Training.

Question 4.
Why do people migrate?
Answer:
The people migrate from one place to other place due to :

  • In search of jobs and enhanced salaries.
  • For better higher education
  • For leading better standards of living
  • For better health and infrastructural facilities.

Question 5.
What is the literacy rate in India as per the 2001 census?
Answer:
The total literacy rate of India as per 2011 census is 74%.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Expand UGC?
Answer:
UGC – Union Grants Commission.

Question 7.
Who began the idea of human capital?
Answer:
The idea of human capital was begun by A.W.Lewis.

Question 8.
Expand AICTE?
Answer:
AICTE – All India Council for Technical Education.

Question 9.
Expand ICMR?
Answer:
ICMR – Indian Council for Medical Research.

Question 10.
Expand DSERT?
Answer:
DSERT – Directorate of State Educational Research and Training.

Question 11.
Which five-year plan gave importance to human capital formation.
Answer:
Seventh five-year plan gave importance to human capital formation.

Question 12.
A professor earns a higher wage than a peon in the college? Why?
Answer:
Because a professor has the skill or abilities to produce more whereas the peon in the college does not have this skill.

Question 13.
What is human developments?
Answer:
Human developments refers to development of individuals as distinct personalities by acquiring good education, training and good health.

Question 14.
What is investment in education?
Answer:
The investment in education refers to spending of money by the parents on the education of their words or children.

Question 15.
What do you mean by health?
Answer:
It is a positive state of physical and mental well being and not only avoidance of disease?

KSEEB Solutions

Question 16.
What is social infrastructure?
Answer:
The elements of social infrastructure are:

  • Education
  • Training
  • Research
  • Health
  • Housing & other civil amenities.

Question 17.
What is meant by human resources development?
Answer:
It means to make people better by increasing their level of productivity and efficiency.

Question 18.
Why is technical education essential?
Answer:
Technical education makes significant contribution in raising efficiency and productivity by encouraging science and technology in the country.

Question 19.
When was new education policy announced?
Answer:
The new education policy was announced in 1987-88.

Question 20.
Name the two communicable diseases yet prevalent in India?
Answer:
Economic development depends on quality, capacity and ability of the people.

Question 21.
What are the benefits of education?
Answer:
The benefits of education are as follows:

  1. The education helps in developing the knowledge or skill in individual.
  2. Education helps in increasing more values and humanity among individuals.
  3. It provides capacity and flexibility to the people and helps them to contribute in the economic development of the country.

Question 22.
What are the functions of medical education?
Answer:
Medical education improves the health of the people and provides appropriate medical facilities at the time of illness.

Question 23.
How is education the most crucial investment in human development?
Answer:
Education strongly influences improvement in

  • health
  • hygiene
  • demographic profile
  • productivity and quality of life.

Question 24.
What is the objective of National Policy of Education?
Answer:
The main objective of National Policy of Education is to provide free and compulsory education to all children up to age of 14 years.

Question 25.
What is the main reason for the rural-urban migration in India?
Answer:
Unemployment is the main reason for rural-urban migration.

Question 26.
What did Deutsche Bank – a German Bank identify about India in its report on Global growth centres?
Answer:
The Deutsche Bank – a German Bank identified that India will emerge as one among four major growth centres in the world by the year 2020.

Question 27.
Which type of education takes a major share of total education expenditure in Lidia?
Answer:
Elementary education takes a major share of total education expenditure in India.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 28.
Through which amendment of the constitution of India, the Government of India made free and compulsory education a fundamental right of all children in the age group 6-14 years?
Answer:
Through 86th amendment of the constitution of India.

1st PUC Economics Human Capital Formation in India Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why we need to invest on human capital?
Answer:
There is a need to undertake investments in human capital. It is necessary to invest in human resources because to make them more innovative, productive and useful by investing in their education, health and training. The Government is taking many steps to educate, train and protect the health of population to make it qualitative for economic development.

Question 2.
Give two reasons for promoting female education in India?
Answer:
The main reasons for promoting female education in India are:

  • It makes women become economically independent.
  • It improves their social status.
  • It provides general education and controls Birth Rate.
  • It prevents superstitious beliefs and promotes scientific thinking.

Question 3.
What is ‘on-the-Job Training’?
Answer:
On the job training is an arrangement where employees develop skills while they are working. This is beneficial for the employees and the organisation. It includes the following:

  • Training the workers in the firm itself under the supervision of a skilled worker.
  • Off-campus training.

Question 4.
How ‘on the job training’ helps Human Capital formation.
Answer:
The on-the-job-training facility helps human capital formation in following ways:

  • The employees come trainees get ample time for learning new methods of production under the supervision of skilled workers.
  • The employees get extra technical skills without incurring any expenditure.
  • The employees will get adjusted to technical advancement and get promotion in their job.
  • It helps in undertaking innovations.

Question 5.
Why do people spend money to acquire information?
Answer:
The on-the-job-training helps human capital formation in following ways:

  1. The employees cum trainees get ample time for learn new methods of production under the supervision of skilled workers.
  2. The employees get extra technical skill without incurring any expenditure.
  3. The employees will get adjusted to technical advancement and get promotion in their jobs.
  4. It helps in undertaking innovations.

Question 6.
Why do people spend money to acquire information?
Answer:
The people spend money to acquire information for the following reasons.
1. To know the labour market (about salary, type of jobs available, schools and colleges for right type of employable skills based education) and other markets like education and health.

2. They spend on the above information to take decisions regarding investments in human capital and for efficient utilization of acquired human capital stock.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
Why do individuals invest in education?
Answer:
Investment in education is considered as one of the main sources of human capital formation.

  • Spending on education by individuals is similar to spending on capital goods by companies to increase their profits in future.
  • Similarly, the individuals invest in education in order to increase their earnings in the form of money in future.
  • Investment on education also promotes individual development which ultimately promote the overall economic growth of the country.

Question 8.
Why does human capital lack free mobility?
Answer:
Human capital lacks free mobility due to the following reasons:

  • Due to high cost of transportation
  • Due to high cost of living
  • Regionalism – excessive attachment to once own region
  • Lack of proper information and insecurity feelings about strange places.

Question 9.
Mention the two major sources of human capital in a country?
Answer:
The two major sources of human capital in a country are :

  • Investment in education
  • Investment in health care facilities
  • On-the-job-training.

Question 10.
What are the various forms of health expenditures?
Answer:
The various forms of health expenditures are as follows:

  • Preventive medicine – vaccinations to prevent deadly diseases.
  • Curative medicine – obtaining medical treatment during illness.
  • Social medicine – spread of awareness about keeping good health and its importance.
  • Provision of clean drinking water and good sanitation.

Question 11.
Mention the important sources of human capital formation?
Answer:
The major sources of human capital formation are as follows:

  • Investment on education
  • Investment in health care facilities.
  • On-the-job-training
  • Migration and information.

Question 12.
Mention any four institution established to promote education in India?

  • National Council for education, research, and training.
  • Directorate of state educational research and training.
  • University grants commission.
  • All India council for technical education.

Question 13.
Mention any two steps undertaken by the Government to promote education in India?
Answer:
The following measures are in force to promote education in India:

  1. Free and compulsory education up to the age of
  2. Introduction of mid-day meals to attract children to the school.
  3. Free uniforms and free textbooks are provided.
  4. Ksheera Yojana – i.e., supply of milk to school children.
  5. Supply of bicycles to high school children.

Question 14.
Why is education sought?
Answer:
Education is sought as

  1. It confers higher earning capacity
  2. It gives one a better social standing and pride
  3. It enables one to make better choices in life.
  4. It provides knowledge to understand the changes taking place in society
  5. It also stimulated innovations.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
Name any five important powerty alleviation programmes?
Answer:
Following are main poverty alleviation programmes:

  1. National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme 2006
  2. National Food for Work Programme
  3. Swaranjayanthi Gram Swarozgar Yojana,
  4. Pradhan Manthri Gramodaya Yojana
  5. Anthyodaya Anna Yojana.

Question 16.
Write short notes on following :
Answer:

  1. Navodaya Vidyalayas
  2. Central Schools
  3. Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)

1. Navodaya Vidhyalayas:
They were established in 1987-88 to given modem education of good standard to talented students of rural areas.

2. Central Schools:
They have been established by the central Government for the benefit of children of transferable employees.

3. Indira Gandhi National Open University:
It was established in September 1985. It is responsible for the introduction and promotion of open university and distance education system on the educational pattern of the country and for the co-ordination and determination of such systems.

Question 17.
Why is the need to promote education for women in India still eminent?
Answer:
The need to promote education for women in India is still eminent for following reasons:

  1. For improving economic independence of women,
  2. For improving social status of women.
  3. For making a favourable inspect of fertility rate and health care of women and children.

1st PUC Economics Human Capital Formation in India Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain different sources of human capital formation.
Answer:
The main sources of human capital are :

  1. Investment in education
  2. Health expenditure
  3. On-the-job-training
  4. Information

1. Investment on Education:
spending on education by individuals is similar to spending on capital goods by companies with the objectives of increasing future profits over a period of time likewise individuals general invest on education with the objective of increasing their future income.

Investments on education promote economic growth. It helps in creating more productive force and endouring with increasing knowledge and skills. It also helps in providing wide spread employment and income generating opportunities for the people.

2. Health Expenditure:
Health is an important input for the development of a nation It is also necessary for individual development. Who can work better? A sick person or a person with sound health? A sick labourer is compelled to abstain from work and this leads to loss of productivity.

Hence expenditure on health is an important source of human capital formation. Health expenditure directly increases the supply of healthy labour force and is, thus a source of human capital formation.

3. Expenditure resardins on-the-job-trainins:
On the job training is an arrangement where employees develop skills while they are working. This is beneficial for the employees and the organisation. It saves the organisation extra training costs and gives a working experience for the trainees.

Firms spend on giving on-the-job-training to their workers. This may take any one of the following forms:

  • Training the workers in the firm itself under the supervision of a skilled worker.
  • Off-campus training

In both cases, firms incur some expenses. The firms will insist the workers work for a specific period of time after there on-the-job-training. During that period the firm can recover the benefits of the enhanced productivity owing to the training. Expenditure regarding on-the-job-training is a source of human capital formations as the return of such expenditure in the form of enhanced labour productivity is more than the cost of it.

1.Expenditure on Migration:
People migrate from one place to another in search of jobs and enhanced salaries. The technically qualified persons like Doctors, Engineers, Managers, etc., migrater to other countries to get higher salaries. Hence expenditure on migration is a source of human capital formation.

2. Expenditure on information:
People have to spend to get information relating to the labour market, education and health. Example:

  • People spend money to know the level of salaries offered to different types of jobs.
  • They spend money to know whether the educational institution provides the right of employable skills or not.

This information is necessary to make decisions regarding investments in human capital as well as for efficient utilisation of the acquired human capital stock. Thus, expenditure involved to acquire information relating to labour market, education and health is also a source of human capital formation.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Explain the role of the Government in human capital formation in India?
Answer:
It is a well known fact that education and health care services create both private and social benefits and this is the reason for the existence of both private and public institutions in the education and health service markets. Expenditures on education and health make substantial long term impact. Hence the Government intervention is essential.
For example:
1. Once a child is taken to school or hospital where the expected services are not available, before the decision is taken to shift to another institution, substantial amount of damage would have been done.

The consumers of these services may not be known the complete information about the quality of services and their costs of services. This may give opportunities to the private sector have monopoly and may involve in overexploitation.

2. The role of Government in this regard is to ensure that the private providers of these services adhere to standards fixed by the Government and to charge fair price for services.

3. The Government of India, under the ministers of education at the union and state level departmentof education and various organisations are working hard to create human capital.

4. The following are the major institutions which are providing intensive education and making human resources of India into human capital:

  • National Council for Education, Research and Training
  • Directorate of State Educational Research and Training
  • University Grants Commission
  • All India Council for Technical Education.

5. Central?MD state Government have been increasing expanditures in the education sector ever the years in order to fulfill the objective of attaining 100% literacy and considerably increase the overage educational attainment of Indians:

6. Recently the Government of India has started imposing 2% education cess on all central Government taxes. The revenues from the education cess has been kept for spending on education.

7. Apart from these, the Government is providing financial assistance to the backward communities and minorities for their higher education.

8. Similarly, the ministries of health at the union and state level, departments of health and various organisations like Indian Council for Medical Research facilitate which come under the health sector.

Question 3.
Explain briefly the major problems of educational development in India?
Answer:
The major problems of educational development in India:
1. Wastage of Resources:
There is a good amount of wastage of resources in our educational system. The dropout rate is very high. It leads to wastage of financial and human resources.

2. Illiteracy:
Illiteracy is one of the most major problem in India because many individuals in backward classes are yet struggling the pursue education.

3. Disparties in Standard:
Wide disparties in educational system exist among different states and educational institutions

4. Lack of Funds:
Most of the educational institutions in India lack funds. They fail to equate themselves with adequate buildings, libraries, laboratories and sports facilities.

5. Problem of Brain Drain:
Intelligent and talented persons are not getting good jobs in the country so they migrate to other countries for better salary and facilities.

1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data

Students can Download Economics Chapter 4 Presentation of Data Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data

1st PUC Economics Presentation of Data TextBook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Bar diagram is a
(a) One – dimensional diagram
(b) two – dimensional diagram
(c) diagram with no dimension
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) One – dimensional diagram

Question 2.
Data represented through a histogram can help in finding graphically the:
(a) mode
(b)mean
(c) median
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) mode

Question 3.
O gives can be helpful in locating graphically the
(a) mode
(b) mean
(c) median
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) median

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
Data represented through arithmetic line graph help in understanding:
(a) long term trend
(b) seasonality in data
(c) cylicity in data
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) long term trend

Question 5.
Width of bars in a bar diagram need not be equal (True/False)?
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Width of rectangles in a histogram should essentially be equal (True / False)?
Answer:
False

Question 7.
Histogram can only be formed with continuous classification of data? (True / False)?
Answer:
True.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 8.
Histogram and column diagram are the same method of presentation of data? (True/False)?
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Mode of a frequency distribution can be known graphically with the help of histogram. (True / False)?
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
Median of a frequency distribution cannot be known from the O gives. (True / False).
Answer:
False.

Question 11.
What kind of diagrams are more effective in representing the following :

  1. Montly rainfall in year
  2. Composition of the population of delhi by religion
  3. Components of cost in a factory

Answer:

  1. Bar diagram
  2. Sub – divided or Component Bar Diagram
  3. Component Bar Diagram.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 12.
Suppose you want to emphasise the increase in the share of urban non – workers and lower level of urbanisation in India. How would you do it in the tabular form?
Answer:
Increase in the share of urban non – workers:

Years No.of Urban non – workers
(in Percentage)
2001 20
2002 22
2003 20.4
2004 21
2005 22.3
2006 21.5

(Note: Arbitary figures have been taken)
Question 13.
How does the procedure of drawing a histogram differ when class intervals are unequal in comparison to equal class intervals in a frequency table?
Answer:
When the class intervals are equal, then by normal method we can make histogram which has equal width of rectangle. When the class intervals are unequal, heights of rectangles are to be adjusted to yield comparable measurements by using frequency density (Class frequency divided by width of the class interval) instead of absolute frequency.

Question 14.
The Indian Sugar Mills Association reported that ‘Sugar production during the first fortnight of December 2001 was about 3,87,000 tonnes, as against 3,78,000 tonnes during the same fortnight last year (2000). The off-take of sugar from factories during the first fortnight of december 2001 was 2,83,000 tonnes for internal consumption and 41,000 tonnes for exports as against 1,54,000 tonnes for internal consumption and nill for exports during the same fortnight last season.

  1. Present the data in tabular form.
  2. Suppose you were to present these data in diagrammatic form which of the diagrams would you use and why?
  3. Present these data diagrammatically

Answer:
1.
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 1

2. To present these data in diagramatic form we can use multiple bar diagram because these are effective in comparing two or more sets of data.

3.
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 2

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
The following table shows the estimated sectoral real growth rates (percentage change over the previous year)
Answer:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 3

1st PUC Economics Presentation of Data Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Economics Presentation of Data Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by presentation of data?
Answer:
Presentation of data means exhibition of the data in a clear and attractive manner.

Question 2.
What is a table? or tabulation?
Answer:
A table is a systematic organisation of data in columns and rows.

Question 3.
What are the kinds of tables?
Answer:
The different kinds of tables are:

  1. General purpose table
  2. Special purpose table
  3. Original table
  4. Derived table
  5. Simple or one way table
  6. Complex table.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
What are the two principal components of table?
Answer:
The principal components of table are:

  1. Table number
  2. Title and Head note

Question 5.
What is meant by bar diagram?
Answer:
When the data is represented with the help of vertical or horizontal rectangular bars then it is called as bar diagram.

Question 6.
What is a pie diagram?
Answer:
The circular representation of data is called as pie diagram.

Question 7.
What are the frequency diagram?
Answer:
Frequency diagrams are those diagram which present frequency distribution diagramatically.

Question 8.
What is a frequency curve?
Answer:
A frequency curve is a curve which is plotted by joining the midpoints of all tops of a histogram by free hand smoothed curves.

Question 9.
What are time series graphs?

OR

What are arithmetic line graphs?
Answer:
Graphs showing arithmetic values of variables are called as time-series graphs.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
State two limitations of graphic representation of time series data.
Answer:
The major two limitations of graphic presentation of time series data:

  1. Very limited use
  2. Easily can be misused.

Question 11.
Give the types of classification?
Answer:
The different types of classification are:

  1. Quantitative classification
  2. Qaulitative classification
  3. Spatial classification
  4. Temporal classification

Question 12.
What is quantitative classification?
Answer:
When the data is classified on the basis of weight, height, Kgs etc can be called as Quantitative classification.

Question 13.
Define chronological classification?
Answer:
When the data are classified on the basis of time is known as chronogical classification. Eg : hour, day, week, months, years etc.

Question 14.
Explain geographical classification?
Answer:
When the data is classified on the basis of place than it can be called as geographical classification or spatial classification.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
What is qualitative classification?
Answer:
When the data is classified on the basis of quality or attribute such as sex, literacy, beauty, honesty, education etc. than it is known as qualitative classification.

Question 16.
Give two advantages of tabulation?
Answer:
Advantages of tabulation are as follows:

  1. The tabulated can be easily understood.
  2. The data becomes attractive and leaves a lasting impression.

Question 17.
Give two advantages of diagramatic representation of data?
Answer:
Advantages of diagramatic representation of data:

  1. Diagrams give a very clear picture of data.
  2. Diagramatic representation makes easy to differentiate data from one information to another information.

Question 18.
Give two limitations of diagramatic presentation?
Answer:
Limitations of diagramatic representation:

  1. A limited set of data can be presented in the form of a diagram.
  2. Diagram does not present the small differences properly.

1st PUC Economics Presentation of Data Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an example of qualitative classification?
Answer:
Example of qualitative classification:
Literacy in Bihar (in percentage)
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 4

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Draw less than cumulative frequency curve with the help of the following frequency distribution?

Marks in Maths No. of Students
0-20 6
20-40 5
40-60 33
60-80 14
80 – 100 6
Total 64

Answer:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 5
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 6

Question 3.
Give an example of qualitative classification?
Answer:
Example of quantitative classification:

Age in year 2001 No. of Students
0-5 10
5-10 120
10-15 140
15-20 30
Total 300

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
Prepare a table showing spatial classification
Example of spatial classification:
Exports by India to other countries in a particular

Country Export (in Percentage)
1. America 21.8
2. U.K 5.7
3. Japan 4.9
4. Russia 2.1
5. Asia 19.0
6. OPEC 10.5
7. Germany 5.6
8. Other European Countries 14.7
9. Other Eastern European Countries 0.6
10. Other underdeveloped countries 5.6
11. Others 9.5
100.0
Country Exports (in Crores)
Japan 500
Germany 400
America 700

Question 5.
Give an example of the spatial classification?
Answer:
Example of Spatial classification:
Exports by India to other countries

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Give the purposes of classification.
Answer:
Following are the objectives (purposes) of classification:

  1. To condense the mass of data in such a manner that similarities and disimilarities are readily apprenended and relationships studies.
  2. To facilitate comparisons.
  3. To have a bird’s eye – view of the significant feature of the data.
  4. To enlight important information while giving less prominence to insignificant items.
  5. To utilise the data for tabulation and further statiscal analysis.
  6. To eliminate unnecessary details contained in the raw data.
  7. To present the complex, scattered in a concise, logical and understable form.

Question 7.
Draw a simple bar diagram to show the following figures relating to manufacturing of fans.
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 7
Answer:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 8

Question 8.
The following table gives the result of B.Com, students of a college for four years.
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 9
Answer:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 10

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Give steps in the preparation of pie – diagram.
Answer:
Following are the steps involved in the preparation of pie – diagram.

  1. Convert each component as a percentage of the total.
  2. Multiply the percentage by \(\frac{360^{\circ}}{100}\)= 3.6 + 0 convert into degrees.
  3. Starting with the twelve ‘O’ clock position on the circle (clockwise) draw the large component circle.
  4. Draw other components in clockwise succession in descending order of magnitude except for each -all components like all others and miscellaneous which are shown last.
  5. Use different columns or shades to distinguish between different components.
  6. Explain briefly the different components either within the components in the figure or outside by arrows.

Question 10.
Show the following data by means of a suitable diagram.
Answer:
Production of Tea, cocoa, coffee

Tea

Coca

Coffee

3260 tons

1850 tons

900 tons

Total 6010 tons

Answer:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 11

1st PUC Economics Presentation of Data Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Represent the following in double line graph
Production in tons
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 12
Answer:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 13

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Give an example of discrete frequency distribution?
Answer:
The formation of discrete frequency distribution is quite simple. The number of items a particular value is repeated is noted down and mentioned against that values instead of writing that value repeatedly. Eg : In the distribution 3,4,6, 6, 8, 8, 8, 8,1, 1, 1, we can write :

Value Frequency
3 1
4 1
6 2
8 3
1 3

Question 3.
How classes can be formed while presenting the data?
Answer:
Classes can be formed in two ways:

  1. Exclusive type
  2. Inclusive type

1. Exclusive type:
When the class intervals are so fixed that the upper limit of one class is the lower limit of the new class, it is known as the exclusive method of classification.
Example:

Marks (Percentage) No. of. Students
0- 10 15
10-20 17
20-30 22
30-40 30
40-50 39

2. Inclusive Type:
Under this method the upper class limit of the frequency class will not become the lower limit of next class. This type of classification is called as Inclusive type.

Marks (percentage) No. of. Students
0-9 5
10-19 8
20-29 7
30-39 10
40-49 12

Draw a histogram with the above data?
This is a case of unequal class intervals
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 14
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 15

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
Draw a histogram and a frequency polygon from the following frequency distribution table of marks in English

Class boundaries Frequency
12.5 – 17.5 3
17.5-22.5 6
22.5 -27.5 19
27.5 – 32.5 6
32.5 – 37.5 3
37.5 -42.5 1

Answer:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 4 Presentation of Data image - 16

1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 6 Rural Development

Students can Download Economics Chapter 6 Rural Development Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 6 Rural Development

1st PUC Economics Rural Development TextBook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by rural development? Bring out the key issues in rural development?
Answer:
Rural development is a comprehensive term. It essentially means a plan of action for the development of areas which are lagging behind in socio-economic development.
The key issues in rural development are:

1. Human Capital Formation:
Investment should be made in education, health and technical skills development to make people more efficient and able to do work.

2. Development of production resources:
The rural people are mainly dependent on agriculture to earn their livelihood that usually suffers from low productivity, lack of infrastructure and disguised unemployment. Therefore, efforts must be made towards development of alternative occupation through available resources.

3. Land reforms:
Land reforms with technical reforms allow the farmers to use modem techniques and methods which increase the productivity and aggregate volume of farm output. Land reforms also lead to efficient and optimum use of land enabling large scale production.

4. Development of infrastructure:
Infrastructure is the basic level for all kind development such as electricity, irrigation, bank, credit, transportation, development of markets, etc.,

5. Alleviation of poverty:
Special measures should be taken to tackle poverty and bringing about significant sections of the people emphasing access to productive employment opportunities

Question 2.
Discuss the importance of credit in rural development?
Answer:
Credit in rural development is important in the following ways:
1. To realise higher productivity in agriculture adequate credit is required by agriculturist.

2. The timely availability of credit helps in enhancing the confidence of the farmer as there is time gap between crop sowing and realisation of income after production.

3. Credit from Government agencies helps in relieving the farmers from the burden of local money lenders and traders. That provides strong base for the efficient growth of agriculture sector.

4. More than two thirds of India’s population depends on agriculture. It is only the credit and marketing facilities that can help them to meet not only their personal expenditures (marriages, ceremonies, other rituals, etc.,) but also productive expenditures.

5. Credit enables the farmers to have faith in themselves as Indian agriculture, even after fifty-nine years of Independence, is still dependent on the vagaries of monsoon.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Explain the role of Micro-Credit in meeting credit requirements of the poor?
Answer:
Micro-credit helps the fanners in the following manner in meeting their credit requirements:

  1. It helps in empowerment of women by providing credit for their consumption purposes.
  2. It helps in promoting the small savings which can be pooled and utilised in cases of emergencies.
  3. It helps in saving the agriculturalists from the exploitation of money lenders and traders.
  4. It provides loans to farmers at reasonable interest rates repays in small industries.

Question 4.
Explain the steps taken by the Government in developing rural markets?
Answer:
The Government has taken following measures to improve the rural markets:

1. Introduction of the concept of regulated markets:
The Government has tried to regulate the markets to create an orderly and transparent marketing condition

2 Provision of Physical infrastructure facilities:
The Government has tried to provide infrastructure facilities to farmers like roads, railways, warehouses, godowns, cold storage, and processing units. The current Government infrastructure facilities are quite inadequate to meet the growing demand and need to be improved.

Question 5.
Answer:
Agricultural diversification is essential or sustainable livelihood because:

  1. It helps in diversification of crop production which enables the farmers to earn money throughout the year.
  2. It facilitates shifting of workers from agriculture to other allied activities like animal husbandry poultry, fishing, horticulture, etc.,
  3. Diversification helps in reducing the risk of agriculturists and enables them to get various opportunities to get productive sustainable livelihood options.
  4. Diversification is essential to provide supplementary gainful employment and in realising higher levels of income for rural people to overcome poverty.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Critically evaluate the role of the rural banking system in the process of rural development in India?
Answer:
Rural Banking has played a crucial role in the process of rural development in India.

1. The National Bank for Agricultural and Rural development (NABARD) has made significant progress in the field of rural credit.

2. It cannot be denied that institutional credit has freed the farmers from the trap of money lenders.

3. But on the other hand, institutional credit is not free from defiencies. The rural or institutional credit has invariably been associated with securing or collateral. Consequently, a substantial number of farmers can’t avail of credit. Also, commercial banks failed to encourage the habit of thrift among farmers.

4. In addition to this, the leniency on the part of the Government to collect taxes was another set back in rural banking. This further led to the emergence of the feeling among the farmers of not repaying the borrowed amount. This increases the defaulter’s rate and led to financial unfeasibility for the rural banks.

Question 7.
What do you mean by agricultural marketing?
Answer:
The mechanism through which different agricultural goods like grains, vegetables, and fruits reach different places is known as agricultural marketing.

Question 8.
Mention some obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agricultural marketing?
Answer:
Some of the obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agricultural marketing are:

  1. Farmers suffer from faulty weighing and manipulate accounts.
  2. Due to misinformation about market prices and conditions, farmers are forced to sell their product at lower prices.
  3. The farmers lack access to proper storage facilities to store their produce for future sell at better price.
  4. The farmers cannot avail agricultural credit, leading to their exploitation by the money lenders.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
What are the alternative channels available for agricultural marketing? Give some examples.
Answer:
Previously, farmers used to sell their products to traders who used to exploit them by faulty weighing and manipulation of accounts and also paid lower price to the farmers. If farmers directly sell their product to consumers, it increases their incomes- due to elimination of intermediaries.

Question 10.
Distinguish between ‘Green Revolution’ and the ‘Golden Revolution’?
Answer:

 Green Revolution Golden Revolution
1. The combined use of seeds and increased use of fertilisers and develo­ped irrigation of production of food grains is called as Green Revolution 1. The rapid growth in the production of the cortical-cultural crops such as fruits, vegetables, tuber crops, flowers, etc. is known as Golden Revolution
2. It led to increase in the production of food grains, especially rice and wheat. 2. It led to increase in production of fruits, vegetables, flowers, spices, etc.
3. As a result of this revolution India became self-sufficient in the production of wheat and rice 3. As a result of this revolution, India became a world leader in the production of mangoes, bananas, coconut & spices.

Question 11.
Do you think various measures taken by the government to improve agricultural marketing are sufficient? Discuss.
Answer:
Government has adopted various measures for improving agricultural marketing such as regulation of markets, provision of physical infrastructure, co-operative marketing and policy measures like MSP, etc. But even after these measures taken by the government, agricultural markets are still predominated by moneylenders, rural political elites, big merchants and rich fanners which are doing private trade.

The current infrastructure facilities are inadequate to meet the growing demand and need to be improved further, co-operative are also suffering from problems like inadequate coverage of farmer members, lack of appropriate link between marketing and processing co-operatives and inefficient financial management.

Question 12.
Explain the role of non-farm employment in promoting rural diversification?
Answer:
The agricultural sector in India is overcrowded, a major portion of labour force needs to find alternate employment opportunities in other non-farm sectors. Diversification towards non-farm sectors not only to reduce the risk from agriculture sector but also to provide productive sustainable livelihood options to rural people.

Non-farm economy has several segments in it;

some posses dynamic linkages that permit healthy growth while others are in subsistence, low productivity propositions. The dynamic sub-sectors include agro-processing industries, food processing industries, leather industry, tourism, etc.,

Those sector which have the potential but seriously lack of infrastructure and other supports include traditional home based industries like pottery, crafts, handlooms, etc., Majority of rural women find employment in agriculture while men generally look for non-farm employment. In recent times, women have also begun looking for non-farm jobs.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 13.
Being out the importance of animal husbandry, fisheries, and horticulture as a source of diversification.
Answer:
Animal husbandry:
The animal husbandry i.e, livestock rearing includes:

  • cattle breeding
  • goats
  • fowl rearing etc.,

Livestock production provides stable income, food security, fuel and nutrition for the family in rural areas. In India, more than 70 million small and marginal farmers have got alternate livelihood options from animal husbandry. The poultry accounts for the largest share.

1. Fisheries:-
The fishing community regards the water body as mother. The major sources of life for fishing community are

  • rivers
  • lakes
  • oceans
  • natural and
  • aquatic ponds.

In India, after progressive increase in budget-allocation, we can see development of fisheries. About 49% of fish production comes from inland sources and remaining from ocean and sea. Among the states

  • Kerala
  • Gujarath
  • Maharashtra and
  • Tamil Nadu are the major producers of marine products.

Horticulture :
It is one of the types of farming in which cultivation of land is undertaken to grow crops like:

  • fruits
  • vegetables
  • flower
  • medicinal plants
  • spices and plantation of crops.

India is the second-largest producer of fruits and vegetables. The economic condition of many farmers engaged in horticulture has improved and horticulture has became a means of improving livelihood for many poor families of rural India.

Flower harvesting, nursery maintenance, hybrid seed production, and tissue culture, propagation of fruits and flowers and food processing are highly rememerative employment for women labourers in India.

Question 14.
‘Information technology plays a very’ significant role in achieving sustainability. development and food security’ comment.
Answer:
Information technology (IT) plays a very significant role in achieving sustainable development and food security. Government can predict areas of food insecurity and vulnerability using appropriate information and software tools so that action can be taken to prevent or reduce the livelihood of an emergency.

It also has positive impact on the agriculture sector as it can disseminate information regarding emerging technologies and its application, price, weather, and soil conditions for growing different crops, etc., Though It is by itself, no catalyst of change but it can act as a tool for releasing the creative potential and knowledge embedded in the society.

It also has potential of employment generation in rural areas. Thus, it can be said that it plays a vital role in assuring food security and sustainable development in India.

Question 15.
What is organic farming and how does it promote sustainable development.
Answer:
Organic farming is a whole system of farming that restores maintains and enhances the ecological balance. In other words, this system of farming relies upon the use of organic inputs for cultivation.

The tradition of farming includes the use of chemical fertilisers, toxic pesticides, etc., that harms the ecosystem drasticates so this type of farming is practised to produce toxic-free food for the consumers while simultaneously maintaining the fertility of soil and contributing the ecological balance.

This type of fanning enables eco-friendly sustainable economic development. So for unpolluted environment and sustainable development, organic farming is the answer. Organic farming helps in getting safe, healthy and nutritious food.

Question 16.
Identify the benefits and limitations of organic farming?
Answer:
a. Benefits of organic farming are:

  1. It offers a means to substitute costlier agricultural inputs with locally produced organic inputs that are cheaper and thereby generate good returns on investment.
  2. The use of chemical fertilizers leads to erosion of soil fertility. As organic farming discards the use of chemical fertilisers, this farming is practiced to produce non-toxic food for the consumers without degrading soil fertility.
  3. Organically grown food has more nutritions value than chemical farming thus providing us with healthy food.
  4. Since organic farming requires more labour input than conventional farming, India will find organic farming an attractive proposition.
  5. It also generates income through exports as the demands for organically grown crops is on a rise.

b. Limitations of organic farming:

1. Organic farming offers lesser yield that conventional farming. Therefore, the productivity of organic farming is lower than that of conventional farming.

2. The popularity of organic fanning depends on the awareness and willingness of the farmers . to adopt this technology. Due to lower productivity, farmers lack initiative to adopt organic farming.

3. The inadequate infrastructure and problem of marketing are the major concerns that need to be addressed to promote organic farming.

4. Organic farming offers lesser yield than conventional findings, this farming is not financially viable for the small and marginal land-holdings farmers.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 17.
Enlist some problems faced by farmers during the initial years of organic farming?
Answer:
Following are the problems freed by farmers during the initial years of organic farming:

  1. The percentage of produced goods remains less as compared to chemically produced goods.
  2. It is expensive hence it is impossible for small and medium scale farmers to use it on a large scale.
  3. It is unsuitable for seasonal farming.

1st PUC Economics Rural Development Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Economics Rural Development Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which is the major source of livelihood in the rural sector?
Answer:
Agriculture is the major source of livelihood in rural sector.

Question 2.
Define rural development?
Answer:
Rural development is a comprehensive term. It focuses on action for the development of areas which are lagging behind in the overall development of the village community.

Question 3.
What are two types of purposes for which Indian farmers require credit?
Answer:
Indian farmers require credit for :

  1. Productive purposes.
  2. Non-productive purposes.

Question 4.
Write the meaning of rural credit?
Answer:
The credit availed to the rural people for both agricultural and non-agricultural activities can be termed as rural credit.

Question 5.
Expand NABARD?
Answer:
NABARD – National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development.

Question 6.
What are the alternative channels available for agricultural marketing? Give examples? or Give an example for alternative market?
Answer:
The examples for alternative market are:
Rythara Santhe in Karnataka, Rythu Bazaar in Andra Pradesh (vegetables and fruit markets), Apni Mandi – Punjab, Vzhavar sandies – Tamil Nadu.

Question 7.
Write the meaning of organic farming?
Answer:
It is that farming which relies on crop rotation, green manure, compost and biological post for growing crops. It is whole system of farming that restores, maintains and enhances the ecological balance.

Question 8.
What is Green Revolution?
Answer:
Green revolution is a spectacular increase in the production of food grains during 1967-68 due to scientific methods of cultivation.

Question 9.
What do you mean by White Revolution / Operation of Flood?
Answer:
The white revolution or operation flood refers to a spectacular increase in the production of milk.

Question 10.
What is the Blue Revolution?
Answer:
A remarkable increase in the production of fish and other aquatic products is called as Blue Revolution.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
What do you mean by Golden Revolution?
Answer:
A remarkable increase in the production of fruits is called as Golden Revolution.

Question 12.
Mention any four reasons for slow growth of rural economy?
Answer:
The four causes for slow development of rural economy are as follows:

  1. poor infrastructural facilities
  2. lack of alternative employment opportunities
  3. seasonal unemployment
  4. rural indebtedness
  5. illiteracy.

Question 13.
Which bank is established to co-ordinate rural credit system in India?
Answer:
NABARD – National Bank for agriculture and rural development.

Question 14.
When did NABARD come into existence?
Answer:
NABARD came into existence in the year 1982.

Question 15.
What is the main objective of NABARD?
Answer:
The main objective of NABARD as an apex body is to co-ordinate the activities of all institutions involved in the rural financing system.

Question 16.
Expand RRB’s?
Answer:
RRB’s – Regional Rural Banks.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 17.
Expand SHGS?
Answer:
SHGs – Self Help Groups.

Question 18.
Expand FCI?
Answer:
Food Corporation of India established in 1965.

Question 19.
Expand KMF?
Answer:
KMF – Karnataka Milk Federation.

Question 20.
Name the two categories of agricultural finance (credit) in India?
Answer:

  1. Non-institutional sources &
  2. Institutional sources.

Question 21.
Name the policy instruments as measures initiated by Government for improvement of agricultural marketing system?
Answer:
The policy instruments are:

  1. Assurance of minimum support price for 21 agriculture products.
  2. Maintenance of buffer stock of wheat and rice by FCI
  3. Distribution of food grains and sugar through PDS (Public Distribution System)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 22.
Name the main sources of institutional agricultural finance in India?
Answer:
The main sources of institutional agricultural finance in India are:

  1. Co-operative sendees
  2. Regional Rural Banks (RRB’s)
  3. Commercial Banks
  4. Self help groups
  5. NABARD

1st PUC Economics Rural Development Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who is called as ‘Father of White Revolution’?
Answer:
The ‘Dr. Varghese Kurian’ is called the ‘father of White Revolution’.

Question 2.
Name the sources of life for Fishing Community?
Answer:
The major sources of life for Fishing Community are :

  1. Rivers
  2. Lakes
  3. Oceans
  4. Natural and aquatic ponds.

Question 3.
Why do rural youths move towards urban areas?
Answer:
The reasons why rural youths move towards cities are as follows:

  1. To get alternative jobs in industries
  2. To find jobs in contribution work and sendee sectors
  3. Inadequate infrastructure in rural areas
  4. Uncertainty of rainfall
  5. Complexities in agricultural work

Question 4.
Write short note on ‘Animal Husbandry’?
Answer:
In India the farming community uses the mixed crop livestock as shown in figure below.

1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 6 Rural Development img2

1. Livestock production provides increased stability in income food security, transport, fuel and nutrition for the family without disrupting other food producing activities.

2. Today livestock sector alone provides alternate livelihood options to over 70 million small and marginal farmers including landless labourers.

3. A significant number of women also find employment in the livestock sector among different categories of livestock as shown in chart above, Indian diary sector has performed well over the last three decades. Milk production in the country has increased by more than four times during 1960-2002.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
When and why NABARD was set up?
Answer:
There is quite a wide gap between the crop sowing and realisation of income after production hence, the farmers have to borrow money from various sources to meet their initial investments on seeds, fertilisers, implements and other family expenses (like marriage – death, religious ceremonies, etc.,).

At the time of independence, farmers were exploited by local money lenders and traders. To save the farmers from the exploitation of money lenders and traders, the Government adopted the concept of social banking and multi-agency approach during the year 1969.

In a to this attempt, it established National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) in 1982 as an apex body to co-ordinate the activities of all institutions involved in the rural financing system.

Question 6.
Classify the following non-agricultural activities into

  1. dynamic sub sector and
  2. traditional household – based industries.
  • Crafts
  • Agro-processing industries
  • Food processing industries
  • Pottery
  • Handloom
  • Leather industries
  • Tourism

Answer:
1. Dynamic sub sectors:

  • Agro-processing industries
  • Food processing industries
  • Leather industries
  • Tourism

2. Traditional household base industries:

  • Crafts
  • Pottery
  • Handloom

Question 7.
Write down the weakness of agricultural marketing system prior to independence?
Answer:
The weaknesses of agriculture marketing system prior to independence:

  1. There was absence of marketing information.
  2. There were superfluous middleman and mal-practices
  3. There was absence of grading and standardisation.
  4. The weak financial position of the farmers forced to sell their products to the money lenders and middlemen.
  5. There was faulty weighing.
  6. The agricultural markets lacked storing facilities.

Question 8.
What does the institutional structure of rural banking today consist of?

OR

What do you mean by multi agency approach in rural banking?
Answer:
1. Multi-agency approach to rural banking:
Multi-agency approach to rural banking means that there are many institutional sources of rural credit.

2. Institutional sources of rural credit:
The institutional structure of rural banking today consists of:

  1. Commercial Banks
  2. Regional Rural Banks (RRB’s)
  3. Co-operatives
  4. Land Development Banks
  5. Co-operative Credit Societies.

1st PUC Economics Rural Development Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain four measures taken by the Government to improve agricultural marketing?
Answer:
The Government has taken various measures to improve agricultural marketing such as regulation of markets, development of infrastructure like cold storage, roads, railways and policy instruments but despite various attempts of the Government private trade pre-dominate agricultural markets.

Also, there are many obstacles in successful agricultural marketing:

  1. It is found that farmers often fall prey to defecting weighing techniques and misappropriation of accounts.
  2. Farmers lack knowledge of market prices and market conditions which forces them to sell their produce at a lower price.
  3. Storage facilities are insufficient which forces the farmers to sell their produce at lower price right after marketing. Also, insufficient storage makes the crops valueable to pests and bad weather
  4. There is lack of institutional sources of finance which forces the farmers to fall back on money lenders for obtaining credit.
  5. Transportation facilities are insufficient as a result of which the farmers are unable to sell their produce at far off places.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Write down the problems associated with the use of fertilizer examine the need of organic farming?
Answer:
The ill effects of chemical fertilizers based farming. Following are the ill-effects of chemical based farming:

1. Heavy imports of fertilizers impose a huge burden on our balance of trade.

2. Continuous use of groundwater irrigation through tube wells has reduced the ground mater level much below. If groundwater resources are destroyed then it will be very difficult to restore them.

3. The use of chemical fertilizers will make the soil less fertile than even before. Its use led to the degradation of soil health. It is very much clear from the experience of farming in Punjab.

4. Excessive use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides is also responsible for health hazards and environmental pollution.

1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Students can Download 1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70

Instruction:

  1. The questions paper has five parts A, B, C, D and E. All parts are compulsory.
  2. Write balanced chemical equations and draw labeled diagram wherever allowed.
  3. Use log tables and simple calculations f necessary (use of scientific calculations is not allowed).

Part – A

I. Answer ALL of the following (each question carries one mark): ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
What is limiting reagent?
Answer:
In a reaction, the reactant which reacts completely and present in small amount than the other reactant is called limiting reagent.

Question 2.
How does viscosity varies with temperature.
Answer:
Viscosity ∝ \(\frac{1}{\text { Temperature }}\)

Question 3.
Give an example of acidic buffer.
Answer:
CH3COOH + CH3COONa

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
Which of the following ion is iso electronic with Na+
(a) Ca2+ (b) Mg2+ (c) Zn2+
Answer:
Mg2+

Question 5.
Define reduction based on electron transfer.
Answer:
Gain of electron by an atom/ion/molecule is called reduction.

Question 6.
Write the molecular formula of plaster of Paris.
Answer:
2CaSO4.2H2O

Question 7.
The maximum co-valency of boron is 4. Why?
Answer:
It has only four orbitals is its valence shell. (B = 5 = 1s22s2px2py2pz)

Question 8.
What type of hybridized carbon atom present in diamond?
Answer:
sp3

Question 9.
Write the IUPAC name of CH2=CH-CO-CH3
Answer:
But-3-ene-2-one.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
Name the catalyst used in Friedel-Craft’s reaction.
Answer:
Anhydrons aluminium chloride (Anhyd AlCl3).

Part – B

II. Answer any FIVE of the following questions carrying TWO marks: ( 5 x 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
Define molar volume. What is its value at STP?
Answer:
Volume occupied by one mole of a gas at STP. 22400cm3 or 22.4 dm3

Question 12.
What is the compressibility factor? What is its value for ideal gas?
Answer:
It is the ratio of pressure x volume and RT
i.e, Z = \(\frac{P V}{R T}\) or Z = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{nRT}}\)
For ideal gas, Z = 1

Question 13.
Write any two postulates of VSEPR theory.
Answer:

  1. Repulsion of electron pair is in the order BP – BP < BP – LP < LP – LP.
  2. The geometry of the molecule depends on the no of BP and LP electrons around the central atom.

Question 14.
Write the chemical reactions for the formation off
(a) Bleaching powder from milk of lime.
(b) Quick lime form lime stone.
Answer:
(a) 2Ca(OH)2 + 2Cl2 → CaCl2 + Ca(OCl)2 + 2H2O
(b)
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 1

Question 15.
How many carbon atoms are present in Buckminsterfullerene? What is the hybrization of each carbon atom in it?
Answer:

  1. C60
  2. Sp2 hybridised

Question 16.
Explain ozonolysis of propene.
Answer:
Propene reacts with O3 in CCl4 or CHCl3 at low temperature gives ozonides followed by reduction with Zn dust and water gives Ethanal and methanol.
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 2

Question 17.
Write the resonance structures and resonance hybrid structure of benzene.
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 3

KSEEB Solutions

Question 18.
Name any two gases responsible for Green House effect.
Answer:
CO2 and methane or H2O vapours or CFC.

Part – C

III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions carrying THREE marks: ( 5 x 3 = 15 )

Question 19.
(i) What is electron gain enthalpy? How it vary across a period in the periodic table?
(ii) Name the most electronegative element in the periodic table.
Answer:
(i) The amount of energy released during the addition of electron (s) to neutral gaseous isolated atom to form anion.
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 4
(ii) Electron gain enthalpy increases from left to right across periods.

Question 20.
Give the conditions for the linear combination of atomic orbitals to form molecular orbitals.
Answer:

  1. Atomic orbitals energy should be equivalent.
  2. Atomic orbitals should have same symmetry.
  3. The percentage of overlaping should be large.

Question 21.
(a) What is hydrogen bonding? What type of hydrogen bonding is present in o-nitrophenol?
Answer:
The force of attraction that binds hydrogen atom to electronegative atoms like oxygen, nitrogen and fluorine is called H bonding. In orthonitrophenol – Intramolecular hydrogen bonding present.

(b) Mention the shape of ammonia molecule based on VSEPR theory.
Answer:
Pyramidal shape.

Question 22.
(a) Write any two drawbacks of the octet theory.
Answer:

  1. Hydrogen not obeys octet rule in its molecules but completes duplet.
  2. Presence of less than 8 electrons in some compounds. Example: BeCl2, BF3, AlCl3 etc.
  3. Presence of more than 8 electrons on the central atoms in certain compounds.
    Example: PCl5, SF6, IF7, H2SO4

(b) Write the Lewis dot structure of CO molecule.
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 5

Question 23.
Balance the following redox reaction by half reaction method.
Fe2+(aq) + Cr2O72- (aq) → Fe3+ (aq) + Cr3+(aq) : Acidic medium.
Answer:
Step-1: Write the oxidation number of all the elements
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 6

Step-2: Oxidation and reduction half reactions
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 7

Step-3: 6Fe2+ → 6Fe3+ + 6e (change in oxidation number of Cr is +3)

Step-4: Balance the oxygen atoms and H+ ion
6Fe2+ + Cr2O7 + 14H+ → 6Fe3+ + 2Cr3+ + 7H2O

Question 24.
(i) Calculate the strength of 20 volume of solution of hydrogen peroxide.
(ii) What is the molecular formula of heavy water?
Answer:

  1. 20 volume H2O2 means, 2 litre of 20V of H2O2 gives 20 litres of oxygen at STP (NTP).
  2. Consider the reaction:

1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 8
∴ 20 litre of 02 at STP will be obtained from H2O2
= \(\frac{68 \times 20}{22.4}\)  = 60.7g
∴ Strength of 20 volume of H2O2 solution = 60.7g/c

(ii) D2O.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 25.
Give any one biological importance of each.
(a) Sodium (b) Magnesium (c) Calcium
Answer:
(a) (i) Helps in the transmission of nerve signals.
(ii) Maintaining water balance across the cell membrane.

(b) (i) Magnesium helps in photosynthesis.
(ii) Act as catalyst for phosphate linkages in ATP.

(c) (i) In blood clotting, to maintain regular heart beating.

Question 26.
Give the differences between diamond and graphite with respect to structure, hybridization and electrical conductivity.
Answer:
Graphite  :

  1. Hexagonal layer structure.
  2. Sp2 hybridised carbon atom.
  3. Good conductor of electricity (due to the presence of unpaired electron on each C-atom.

Diamond :

  1. Tetrahedral structure.
  2. Sp3 hybidised carbon.
  3. Bad conductor due to the absence of unpaired electron (s) on each carbon atom.

Part – D

IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions carrying FIVE marks: ( 5 x 5 = 25 )

Question 27.
(a) N2 and H2 react with each other to produce ammonia according to the equation N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
(i) Calculate the mass of ammonia produced if 2.0 x 103 g of N2 reacts with 1.0 x 103 g of H2.
(ii) Will any of the two reactants remain unreacted?
(iii) If yes, which one and what would be its mass?

(b) State and illustrate law of multiple proportions.
Answer:
(a) [28g of N2 (1 mole) reacts with 6g (3 mole) of H2
∴ 2.00 x 103 g of N2 react with H2 = \(\frac{6}{28}\) x 2.00 x 103g = 428.57g
∴ N2 is a limiting reagent, H2 is excess reactant.

(i) 28g of N2 produces 34g of NH3
∴ 2.00 x 103 g of N2 produces NH3 = \(\frac{34 \times 2.00 \times 10^{3} \mathrm{g}}{28} \) = 2428.57g.

(ii) H2 will remain unreacted (1.00 x 103 – 428.57).

(iii) Mass left unreacted = 1.00 x 103 – 428.57 = 571.43g.

(b) Two or more compound are formed from two elements, thus the masses of one of the element which combine with a fixed mass of the other element bear a simple ratio to one another.
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 9
Here mass of C is fixed, combines with 16 and 32 g of oxygen. Hence the ratio 1:2 or 16:32.

Question 28.
(a) Mention the conclusion drawn from the observation of Rutherford’s a-ray scattering experiment.
(b) Write all the possible values of 1, m and w when n = 2.
Answer:
(a) (i) Atom has large empty space
(ii) There should be a positive body present inside the atom.
(iii) The small positively changed body present within the atom was called nucleus.
(iv) The nucleus of the atom was heavier than cc-particles.

(b) When n = 2, l = 1 value
m = (2l + 1) ⇒ (2 x 1+1) = 3 values (+1, 0, -1)
S = + \(\frac{1}{2}\) and \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 29.
(a) Calculate the energy associated with the first orbit of He+ (Z = 2, RH = 2.18 x 10-18J).
(b) What is a black body?
(c) Name the spectral region in which the Lyman series are present.
What is the colour of the first spectral line of the Balmer series.
Answer:
(a) WKT = En = \(\frac{-2.18 \times 10^{-18} Z^{2}}{n^{2}}\) J/atom
For He+, n = 1, Z = 2
∴E1 = \(\frac{-2.18 \times 10^{-18} \times 2^{2}}{1^{2}}\) = -8.72 x 10-18

(b) Which is a perfect absorber and perfect emiter of energy.

(c) (i) ultra violet region/uv region
(ii) Red colour.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 30.
(a) Using Dalton’s law of partial pressure derive an expression for partial pressure of a gas in terms of mole fraction.
(b) With a suitable example explain dipole-dipole forces.
Answer:
(a) Consider a non-reacting gases A, B, C etc
Then apply PV = nRT
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 10
(b) The attraction between polar molecules is called dipole-dipole interaction.
eg: H+_______Cl_______H+_______Clδ-
Here hydrogen atom acuires partial +ve change and Cl atom acuires partial -ve change. .’. they are attracted each other.

Question 31.
(a) Calculate the lattice enthalpy of sodium chloride using Born-Haber cycle.
(b) Give one example each for intensive and extensive property.
Answer:
(a) Lattice enthalpy of NaCl:

(i). Sublimation of Na(s) to Na(g)
i.e., Na(s) → Na(g) ∆subH = ∆H

(ii) Dissociatiomn of Cl molecule to atom chlorine
\(\frac{1}{2}\) Cl2 → Cl(g), ∆H = 1/2 ∆dissH

(iii) Ionization of Na(g) to Na+(g)
Na(g) → Na+(g) + le ∆iH = IE

(iv) Conversion of Cl(g) to Cl ion
C(g) + le → Cl, ∆egH = EA

(v) Combining of Na+(g) and Cl(g) to form 1 mole of crystalline sodium chloride
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 11

(b) Intensive property = Pressure/density/BP/freezing point/mole fraction/molarity
Extensive property = Mass/volume/enthalpy/entropy.

Question 32.
(a) What is entropy? How does entropy changes in a spontaneous process?
(b) The molar enthalpy of combustion of benzene is -3264.6 kJ mol-1.
Calculate the amount of heat energy liberated when 39 grams of benzene is burnt in excess of air. [Given: Molar mass of benzene is 78 g mol-1].
(c) What is free expansion?
Answer:
Measure of disordemess of the system. Entropy is +ve for spontaneous process.

(b) 78g/mol of benzene on combustion gives = 3264.6 kJ
39g of benzene on combustion = \(\frac{39 \times-3264.6 \mathrm{kJ} / \mathrm{mol}}{78 \mathrm{g}}\) = 1632.3 kJ/mol
Heat of combustion of 39 g of benzene = -1632.3 kJ/mol.

(c)  The expansion of ideal gas against vaccum, the irreversible expansion is called free expansion.

Question 33.
(a) The value for the Kc. for the reaction 2A ⇌ B + C is 2 x 10-3. At a given time the
composition of reaction mixture is [A] = [B] = [C] = 3 x 10-4. In which direction the reaction will proceed?
Write the conjugate acid and base of water.
The equilibrium constant for the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) is K.
What is the equilibrium constant for the reaction HI(g) ⇌1/2 H2(g) + 1/2 I(g)?
Answer:
(a) Solution:
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 12
Here Qc > Kc. Hence the reaction will proceed is the backward direction, (b) Conjugate acid of water = H3O+
Conjugate base of water = OH
(c) K = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{K}}^{\mathrm{I}}}\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 34.
(a) The pKa of acetic acid and pKb of ammonium hydroxide are 4.76 and 4.75 respectively. Calculate the pH of ammonium acetate solution.
(b) State Le Chatelier’s principle? What is the effect of pressure on the following equilibria. CO(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ CH4(g) + H2O(g)
(c) Write the solubility product expression for BaSO4
Answer:
(a) Solution:
W.K.T
PH = 7 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) [ PKa – PKb]
= 7 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) [4.76 – 4.751 = 7 + 0.01 x \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 7 + 0.005 = 7.005
PH of ammonium acetate = 7.005

(b) Statement:
When a system in equillibrium is subjected to a change in concentration, temperature or pressure, the equillibrium shift in a direction to nullify that change applied.
For CO(g) + 3H2(g) = CH4(g)+ H2O(g), [∆RHS = 2, LHS = 4]
∴ On increasing the pressure, the equillibrium shifts in forward direction to reduce the pressure.

(c) Ksp = [B02+ ] [ \(\bar{S} O_{4}^{–}\) ] .

Part – E

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions carrying FIVE marks: ( 2 x 5 = 10 )

Question 35.
(a) 0.6723g of an organic compound gave on combustion 1.530g of carbon dioxide and 0.625 g of water. Find the percentage of carbon and hydrogen in the compound.
(b) Explain why an organic liquid vaporizes at room temperature below its boiling point in its steam distillation.
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 13

(b) At same temperature, on reducing the pressure on the liquid, boils at lower temperature without decomposition. Therefore a pressure of 10-20 mm Hg reduces the BP by 100 degrees. Hence liquid boils without decomposition.

Question 36.
(a) Explain Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen in the organic compound? (b) Define (i) Resonance stabilization energy. (ii) Theoretical plate.
Answer:
(a) Principle: A known mass of the organic compound is heated with cone H2SO4 in presence of potassium sulphate and little copper sulphate or mercury in a long-necked flask called Kjeldahl’s flask (K2SO4 rises the BP of H2SO4). Nitrogen present in the organic compound converted to ammonium sulphate, it in boiled with excess of NaOH solution to liberate NH3 gas which is then absorbed in a known excess of standard H2SO4 or HCl.
Calculation:

1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 14

(b) (i) Resonance stabilization energy: The difference in internal energy of the resonance hybrid and that of most stable canonical form or structure.
(ii) Theoritical plate: A separation process of hypothetical zone or stage in which two phases such as liquid phase and vapour phases of substance establish an equillibrium with each other.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 37.
(a) Explain the mechanism of Friedel-craft’s alkylation of benzene to get toluene.
(b) Complete the following reaction:
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 15
What happens to the colour of KMnO4 during the reaction ‘a’.
Answer:
(a) Mechanism of Fried-Crafts Alkylation:

Step-1: Generation of electrophile
R – Cl + AlCl3 → R+ + AlCl3 OR
CH3Cl + AlCl4 → \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{C}}\) H3 + AlCl4

Step-2: Attack of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{C}}\) H3 to Benzene ring and formation of carbocation
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 16
Step – 3:
Loss of proton ( H+ )
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 17

(b) (i)
1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 with Answers - 18

(ii) Pink colour of KMnO4 is discharged.

1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data

Students can Download Economics Chapter 3 Organisation of Data Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data

1st PUC Economics Organisation of Data TextBook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following alternatives is true?
i) The class midpoint is equal to:
a. The average of the upper class limit and the lower class limit.
b. The product of upper class limit and the lower class limit.
c. The ratio of the upper class limit and the lower class limit
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. The average of the upper class limit and the lower class limit.

ii) The frequency distribution of two variable is known as
a. Univariate Distribution
b. Bivariate Distribution
c. Multivariate Distribution
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Bivariate Distribution

KSEEB Solutions

iii) Statistical calculation is classified data are based on
a. the actual values of observations
b. the upper class limits
c. the lower class limits
d. the class midpoints
Answer:
d. the class midpoints

iv) Under Exclusive method
a. the upper class limit of a class is excluded in the class interval
b. the upper class limit of a class is included in the class interval
c. the lower class limit of a class is excluded in the class interval
d. the upper class limit of a class is included in the class interval
Answer:
a. the upper class limit of a class is excluded in the class interval

v) Range is the
a. difference between the largest and the smallest observations
b. difference between the smallest and the largest observations.
c. average of the largest and the smallest observations
d. ration of the largest to the smallest observation
Answer:
a. difference between the largest and the smallest observations

Question 2.
Can there be any advantage in classifying things? Explain with an example from your daily life.
Answer:
Advantage of Classifiction:

  1. It helps in the comparison of data.
  2. It helps us to understand the relationship among variable.
  3. It highlights significant features of the data at a glance.
  4. It makes the statistical analysis of the data easier.
  5. It arranges and presents huge volume of raw data in meaningful and condensed form.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
What is a variable? Distinguish between a discrete and a continuous variable.
Answer:
In Statistics the term variable is used, only if the changing characteristics can be numerically measured. The heights and weights of individuals are variables, as they can be measured in numerical terms. Prices of commodities vary in time and scope and they can be numerically measured, so the price is variable.

1. Continuous variable:
It can take all values in a given range for example, heights and weights of individuals, prices of commodities income o individuals may be treated as continuous variable.

2. Discrete variables:
If the variables can only some particular value like whole numbers, it is called as discrete variable for example number of students in different classes on different schools or the size of the households.

Question 4.
Explain the ‘exclusive’ and ‘inclusive’ methods used in classification of data.
Answer:
There are two methods of classifying the data according to class – intervals, namely exclusive method and Inclusive method.
1. Exclusive method:
This method is useful whether the value is complete number or in decimals. In case of exclusive series, value of the upper limit of a class is included in the lower limit of the next class interval. Value of the upper limit of the class is included in that very class interval.

2. Inclusive series :
In inclusive series value of the upper limit of a class is included in that very class interval. Inclusive series is useful when value is an incomplete number.

Question 5.
Use the data in Table (given below) that relate to monthly household expenditure, (in Rs.) on food of 50 households and
Answer:
(i) Obtain the range of monthly household expenditure on food.
(ii) Divide the range into appropriate number of class intervals and obtain the frequency distribution of expenditure.
(iii) Find the number of households, whose monthly expenditure on food is.

  1. Less than Rs. 2000
  2. More than Rs. 3000
  3. Between Rs. 1500 and Rs. 2500

Monthly household expenditure (in Rs.) on Food of 50 households.
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 1
(i) Range = Largest value – smalles value
= 5500 – 1007 = 4083

KSEEB Solutions

(ii)
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 2

(iii)

  1. Number of household whose expenditure on food is less than Rs. 2000 = 19 + 14 = 33
  2. More than Rs. 3000 = 2 + 1 + 2 + 1=6
  3. Between Rs. 1500 and Rs. 2500 = 14 + 6 = 20

Question 6.
In a city, 45 families were surveyed for the number of domestic appliances they used prepare a frequency array based on their replies as recorded below. (6)
Answer:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 3

Question 7.
Do you agree that classified data is better that Raw data?
Answer:
The data collected from Primary and Secondary Sources are raw data are summarised and made comprehensible by classification. When facts of similar characteristics are placed in the same class it enables one to locate them easily, make comparison and draw inferences without any difficulty.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 8.
Distinguish between univariate and bivariate frequency distribution
Answer:
1. Univariate Frequency Distribution:
The frequency distribution of a single variable is called a univariate distribution for example marks of a student.

2. Bivariate Frequency Distribution:
A private frequency distribution is the frequency distribution of two variables, for example the table shows the sales and advertisement expenditure of the firm. They are classed in different rows.

Question 9.
Prepare a frequency distribution by inclusive method taking class interval of 7 from the following data
Answer:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 4

1st PUC Economics Organisation of Data Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Economics Organisation of Data Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by classification?
Answer:
Classification is the grouping of related facts into different classes.

Question 2.
What is quantitative classification?
Answer:
Statistical Data classified into classes or groups on the basis of their numerical values is called quantitative classification.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
What is meant by Statistical services?
Answer:
Arranging of data in different classes according to a given order is called series.

Question 4.
What are the class limits?
Answer:
The extreme values of a classes are limits.

Question 5.
What is meant by exclusive series?
Answer:
Exclusive series is that series in which every class interval excludes items corresponding to its upper limit.

Question 6.
What is meant by inclusive series?
Answer:
An inclusive series is that series which include all items upto its upper limit.

Question 7.
What is meant by class interval or class magnitude?
Answer:
Magnitude of a class interval is the difference between the upper limit and the lower limit of a classes.

Question 8.
What is meant by ‘frequency’?
Answer:
Frequency is the number of times an item occur (or repeat itself) in the series.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
What is meant by individual series?
Answer:
Individual series are those series in which the items are listed singly.

Question 10.
What is discrete series?
Answer:
A discrete series of frequency array is that series in which data are presented in a way that exact measurement of items are clearly shown.

Question 11.
What is meant by a continuous series or frequency distribution?
Answer:
It is that series in which items cannot be exactly measured. The items assume a range of values and are placed within the range or limits.

Question 12.
What is an open ended series?
Answer:
An open ended series is that series in which lower limit of the first class interval and the upper limit of last class interval is missing.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 13.
What is meant by cumulative frequency series?
Answer:
Cumulative frequency Series is that series in which the frequencies are continuously added cooresponding to each class interval in the series.

Question 14.
Daily expenses of five persons are 15, 20, 35, 40, 55 Calculate the magnitude.
Answer:
magnitude = 55 – 15 = 40

Question 15.
Arrange the following series in an ascending order 8,14,5,4,2,25
Answer:
2, 4, 5, 8, 14, 25

Question 16.
Arrange the following series in descending order 17,13,22,15,32
Answer:
32,22,17,15,13

Question 17.
What do you understand by raw data?
Answer:
The data in their original form are called raw data.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 18.
What is frequency?
Answer:
The term frequency signifies the number of items or a value repeated in a given set of information.

Question 19.
What do you understand by the term ‘array’?
Answer:
When individual data are arranged in an increasing or decreasing order, it is known as an array.

Question 20.
What is a series?
Answer:
A series is a systematic arrangement of items in a particular order or sequence.

Question 21.
What are the three types of series?
Answer:
There are three types of series.

  1. Series of individual observations
  2. Discrete series
  3. Continuous series

Question 22.
What is discrete series?
Answer:
A series is called discrete when the frequency of various items are given separately.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 23.
What is frequency distribution?
Answer:
The presentation of observations of classes horizontally and individual items which fall in class are written according to ascending order of magnitude.

Question 24.
What is cumulative frequency series.
Answer:
The type of presentation where the frequencies are represented by adding the frequency of each previous class.

Question 25.
What is quantitative classification?
Answer:
Classification done according to quantitative varieties like marks, wages etc are quantitative classification.

Question 26.
What is quantative classification?
Answer:
Classification according to attributes like honesty, beauty is known as quantitative classification.

1st PUC Economics Organisation of Data Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by classification of data?
Answer:
‘Classification’ means arranging things in an appropriate order and putting then into homogeneous groups for example, in library, the books and periodicals are classified and arranged according to subjects. Students are grouped according to division they secure in a certain examination.

Plants and animals may be assigned to groups distinguished by structure, origin etc. Data may be arranged by time or space or both. For example, we have time series data on aggriegate income, aggregate consumption, size of the population

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Arrange the countries in ascending order and descending order of yield.
Yield of wheat of different countries
Answer:

Country Yield of wheat (Kg / acre)
America 1925
Brazil 127
China 893
Denmark 225
France 439
India 862

In Ascending order

Country Yield of wheat (Kg / acre)
Brazil 127
Denmark 225
France 439

In Descending order

Country Yield of wheat (Kg / acre)
America 1925
China 893
India 862
France 439
Denmark 225
Brazil 127

Question 3.
Distinguish between (a) variable and (b) attribute. Explain with example:
Answer:
Variable:
In Statistics, the term variable is used, only if, the changing characteristics can be numerically measured thus, heights and weights of individuals variables, as they can be measured in numerical terms, price of commoditites vary over time and space and they can be numerically measured therefore prices is a variable.

Similarly, income of individuals, household expenditures on various items of consumptions, size of household, input and outputs of firms are all variables.

Attribute:
The looks of people, their intelligence and aptitude for art and music change from one individual to the other, they cannot be measured numerically in the same way as heights and weights or prices and incomes.

Therefore, they are not called variable in the statistical sense. They are called ‘attributes’. We may rank individual according to the quality of attributes. The ranks are sometimes used as their numerical values for purposes of analysis.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
Explain the term ‘population’ as it is used in statistics Define

  1. Univariate
  2. Bivariate and
  3. multivariate Population.

Answer:
In common language the word ‘Population’ means the number of personal living in a certain region. We may find the population of certain animals in forests in a country or the population of certain plants in a garden and so on the term population implies ‘ head count ’.

However, in statistics, the data on any single variable, or a set of variables, for all individual units in a region, constitute the population of that variable, or variables.

1. Univariate:
If the data are on a single variable, the set of measurements constitutes a univariate population of that variable. We have a bivariate or multivariate population of the set variables. For example, we may have a univariate population of prices or a population of incomes, We may have a bivariate population of height and weights of all individuals in a region.

2. Multivariate:
A multivariate population of expenditure on various items of consumption of all households.

Question 5.
Define organisation of data.
Answer:
After the data has been collected either with the help of the sampling method or census method the work of its organisation starts. The organisation of data means a systematic artangements of collected figures so that the data becomes easy to understand and more convenient for further statistical treatment. This systematic arrangement changes into a satistical series.

Question 6.
What are the differences between exclusive and inclusive series?
Answer:
1. In case of exclusive servies, the upper limit of one class interval is the lower limit of the next class interval.

2. In case of exclusive series, value of the upper limit of a class is included in the lower limit of the next class interval. In inclusie series value of the upper limit of a class is included in that very class interval.

3. Exclusive series is useful whether the variables complete number or in decimals, but inclusive series is useful only when value is in complete number.

Question 7.
In the following time series in which year do you find the population of India to be the minimum. Find the year when it is the maximum.
Answer:

Year Population
1951 35.7
1961 43.8
1971 54.6
1981 68.4
1991 81.8
2001 102.7

India’s population in the year 1951 was the minimum It was 35.7 crores. Maximum population was in the year 2001. It was 102.7 crores.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 8.
In the given table frequency distribution of marks in mathematics of 100 students are given. Express the values of frequency as percentage of total frequency [Relative frequency] Which class has the maximum and minimum concentration of data?
Answer:

Marks Frequency
0- 10 1
10-20 8
20-30 6
30-40 7
40-50 21
50-60 23
60-70 19
70-80 6
80-90 5
90 – 100 4
Total 100

1. maximum conuntration of data is in class (50-60)
2. minimum concentration of data is in class (0-10)

Question 9.
Find the country whose yield of wheat is slightly more than that of India. How much would that be in terms of percentage
Answer:
Yield of wheat for different countries

Country Yield of wheat (Kg/acre)
America 1925
Brazil 127
China 893
Denmark 225
France 439
India 862

1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 5

1st PUC Economics Organisation of Data Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a frequency distribution? What are the main points underlying the construction of a frequency distribution?
Answer:
The largest value of ‘x’ is B and smaller value is A. then x = B – A is the total range of ‘x’. A large range indicates that the total the values of ‘x’ are spread over a large interval or the variation of values of ‘x’ is large. A small range indicates smaller variation in the values of ‘x’, this, the range is measures of variation (or dispersion) of ‘x’.

In order to get a better idea about the distibution of values within the range, we should subdivide the total range into a number of class intervals and find out the number of values in different classes. The main points underlying the construction of a frequency distribution are as follows.

a. Construction of Discrete frequency Distribution:
1. Prepare a table with three columns first for variable under study, second for ‘Tally bars’ and the third for the total, Representing corresponding frequency to each value of size of the variable.

2. Place all the values of the first column ascending order – beginning with the lowest end giving to the highest. The gap between one magnitude to another may preferably be the same.

3. Put bars (vertical lines) in front of the values according in the second column keeping in view the number of items a particular value repeats, itself. This column is for facility in counting blocks of five bars or 1st PUC Economics Organisation of Data Long Q 1 img 1 are prepared and some space is left between each block of bars.

4. Count the number of bars in respect of each value in the variable and place it in the third column made for total of frequency.

b. Construction of continuous frequency Distribution:
There are two methods of classifying the data according to class intervals.
Exclusive method:
Under this method upper limits are excluded. The upper limits of class intervals is the lower limit of the next class for example, if the students obtained marks are grouped as 5 – 10, 10-15, 15-20, 20-25, 25-30 etc. we include in first group of students whose marks are 5 or more but under 10. If the marks of a students are 10 he is not included in the first group but in the second, i.e., 10 -15

Inclusive method:
Under this method upper class limits of classes are included in respective classes for example, if the students obtained marks are grouped as 5 – 9, 10-14, 15-19, 20-24, 25-29 etc in the group 5-9, we include in first group students whose marks is between 5 and 9. If the marks of students are 10 he is included in the next class, i.e., 10 to 14. If there are no whole numbers, the classes can be made 5-9.9, 10-14.9, 15-19.9 and so on.

Question 2.
How many classes can we choose? How does one decide about the size of class intervals?
Answer:
There is no hard and fast rule about how many class we can choose, but as a working rule the number of classes should lie between 5 and 15. It should be noted that the number of classes will be large if we choose small size class intervals and it will be small if the size of class intervals in large.

As an illustration, suppose the range is 70, and we choose classes of width 2 each. We would require 70 ÷ 2 = 35 classes. However, the number of classes would be 14 if the width of each class was 5.

Size of class intervals:
We may choose all classes of the same width or of different width in the case of equal class intervals the size of the class interval is determined as soon as we have decided about the member of classes suppose ‘n’ is the number of classes and all classes are of width, ‘n’ then n × h = R.

Knowing the range R and number of classes n we can obtain \(\mathrm{h}=\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{n}}\) as the width of the class interval. If the range is 70 and we choose 10 classes, the width is 7.

Choice of class limits:
Suppose ‘X’ is a continous variable, such that it can take any value in a given range. In that case, it is possible to choose class limits which are not equal to any of the observed values for example, height of individuals is a continuous variable.

Even though, in practice, one can measure height to the nearest of the unit value (in centimeters) as 165, 170, 169m 171…. or to the nearest of tenth place of decimals as 165.3, 170.4, 168.9, 170.8…. we may specify class intervals as 160.55- 165.55,165.55 – 175.55,… So that none of the observed values of ‘x’ is equal to any of the class limits.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Distinguish between a frequency array and a frequency distribution.
Answer:
Frequency Array:
We obtain a frequency array if the variable ‘x’ is discrete and we have frequencies corresponding to each value (there are no…. intervals) let as illustrate with the following examples.

Examples:
A Survey of 100 house holds was carried out to obtain information on their size i.e., the number of members of households. The results of the survey are classified as a frequency array in table below:

Frequency Array of Size of households.

Size of the households
X
(1)
Number of household
f
(2)
1 5
2 15
3 25
4 35
5 10
6 5
7 3
8 2
Total 100

The coloumn (1) of the table gives the values which the variable x (size of the households) takes, and column (2) gives the corresponding frequencies (number of households) Thus, there are 5 households whose size is 1, there are 15 households of size 2, and so on.

Frequency Distribution:
The largest value of ‘x’ is B and smallest values is A. Then X = B – A is total range of X. A large range indicates that the values of ‘x’ are spread over a large interval or the variation of value of ‘x’ is large A small range indicates smaller variation in the values of ‘x’. Thus, the range is measure of variation (or dispersion) of ‘x’.

For example:
Suppose we have data on monthly income of 10,000 individuals, the maximum of which is Rs. 50,000 and minimum is Rs. 1,000 Thus, the range is Rs. 49,000. We observe that majority of individuals say, 70% have small incomes close to Rs. 5000 and minority, say 2% have income close to Rs. 30,000.

In order to get a better idea about the distribution of values within the range, we should subdivide the total range into a number of class intervals and find out the number of values in different classes.

Question 4.
What is meant by individual series? Give one example.
Answer:
Individual Series:
Under this method, the value of all the units are shown separately. The following example will illustrate this:
Example: The marks obtained by 10 students in statistics are following:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 6
The individual series may be arranged in following two orders:

a) Ascending orders:
When data are arranged in ascending order i.e., a small value to a big value it is known as arranging them in ascending order. The figures of above example may be arranged in ascending order as follows:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 7
b) Descending orders:
When data are arranged serially starting from a big value to small value it is known as the arrangement of data in descending order.
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 8

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
What is meant by discrete series? Give the examples.
Answer:
In these series all the items are divided in certain groups, but these groups are not continous therefore these series are known as discrete series. The numbered item that fall in very group are shown in each group which are known as frequencies. The following examples will illustrate this.
Examples:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 9

i) Discrete series in Ascending Order:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 10

ii) Discrete sries in Descending Order:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 11

Question 6.
What is meant by continuous series? Give example
Answer:
Under such series all the variables are divided in certain continuous groups and their respective frequencies will be written with them the following example will clear the form of such series.
Example:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 12

Following are the eiements of a continous series:

1. Class Intervals:
These are the measurement which some problems is measured and wirteen in continuous grup. In the above exaple (0-5), (5-10) etc are the class intervals of the series.

2. Limits of class intervals:
Each class interval figure is known as limits of class interval. Small figures class intervals are known as lower limit class interval. In class interval (0-5) O is lower limit and 5 is a upper limit of tins class interval.

3. Magnitude of class intervals:
The difference between upper limit and lower limit of a class interval (0-5),5 is the magnitude.

6. Mid Value:
The average of two limits of the class interval is known as mid value e.g., the mid value of the class interval 0-5 will be \(\frac{0+5}{2}\) = 2.5

5. Frequencies:
Number of repetition of items of various class intervals in the universe is known as frequencies wliich will be written with them.

Exclusive and Inclusive continuous series,
a. Exclusive series:
Where the value of upper limit is not included in the same group. But will be included in next group, it is known as exclusive series e.g.
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 13
In the above series, 10, 20, 30, 40, 50 and 60 will not be included in first, second, third, fourth fifth and sixth group respectively.

b. Inclusive series:
Where values of upper limit is included in the same group, it is known as inclusive series e.g.
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 14
In the above series, value 19,29,39,49, 59 will be included in the same groups in which they are written, therefore, this series will be known as inclusive series.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
Differentiate between absolute errors and relative errors.
Answer:
1. Absolute errors:
Absolute error is the difference between the true and estimated value
Absolute error = actual value – estimated value

2. Relative errors:
It is the ratio of obsolute error to the estimated value. It is found out by dividing the absolute error by the estimated error.

\(Relative Error =\frac{\text { Actual value – Estimated value }}{\text { Estimated error }}\)
Example:
If the actual value is 400 & estimated value is 350
Absolute error = actual error – estimated value = 400 – 350 – 50
Relative error = 50/350 = 0.14
The relative error can also be expressed as percentage of 100.

Question 8.
What is open-end series?
Answer:
In some series the lower class limit of the first class interval and the upper limit of the last class interval are missing, “less than” or below is specified in place of he lower class limit of the first class interval and “more than” or below is specified in place of the lower class limit of the first class interval and ‘more than’ or above is specified in place of the upper class limit of the last class interval.
Example:

Marks Frequencies
Below 5 2
5- 10 6
10- 15 8
15 and above 12

Question 9.
What is cumulative frequency series? Give an example?
Answer:
Cumulative frequency series is that series in which the frequencies are continuously added corresponding to each class interval in the series. The frequencies that become cumulative frequencies. The cumulative frequency for the first class interval is the same as frequency itself.

But for the second class interval the cumulative frequency for the first class interval is the same as frequency itself. But for the second class interval the comulative frequency would be the both the second as well as first class intervals, e.g.
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 15

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
How will you convert the cumulative frequency series into simple frequency series? Give an example
Answer:
Cumulative frequency series may be converted into simple frequency series in the following mannner:

Marks No. of Student
less than 10 8
20 40
30 80
40 96
50 100

Conversion into simple frequency table from cumulative frequency series simple frequency series.

Marks less than No. of students
10 8
20 40
30 80
40 96
50 100

Question 11.
In an entrance examination, for admission to the engineering course of a certain university, the top 50 students, who were selected, got the following percentage of marks in the aggregate:
Answer:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 16
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 167
i) Range = L – S[L = Largest, S = Smallest] =95% – 50% = 45%
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 18

ii)
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 19

iii) Error of grouping as per (ii) (a)
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 20
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 21

KSEEB Solutions

Question 12.
Distinguish between error and mistake.
Answer:
Statistical Error:
Term error is used in statistics in a technical sence. It is the difference between the estimated or approximated value and the true value.

Mistake:
The mistake arises because of miscalculations, use of wrong methods of calculations and wrong interpretation of the result these may arise due to the unrepresentative character of the data.
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 22

Question 13.
Distinguish between

  1. Continuous and
  2. Discrete variables.

Answer:
1. Continuous variable:
If a variable can take any numerical value within a certain range, it is called continuous variable. It passes one value of the next.

2. Discrete variables:
If a variable can take only some particular value, it is called discrete variable. There are gaps between one value and the next possible one.
Example: continuous series:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 23
Example: Discrete series:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Organisation of Data image - 24

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
Explain the following terms: Frequency distribution, class frequency, class limits, class interval, classmark, frequency curve.
Answer:
1. Frequency distribution:
It is a comprehensive way to classify raw data of a quantitative variable. It shows how the different values of a variable are distributed in different classes along with their class frequencies.

2. Class frequency:
It means the number of values in a particular class.

3. Class limit:
Each unit in a frequency distribution table is bounded by class limits class limits are the two ends of a class. The lowest value is called the lower class limit and the highest value, the upper class limit.

4. Class Interval:
Class interval or class width is the difference between the upper class limit and the lower class limit.

5. Class mark:
The class midpoint or class mark is the middle value of a class. It lies half way between the lower class limit and the upper class limit of a class.

\(\frac{\text { upper class limit }+\text { lower class limit }}{2}\)

6. Frequency curve:
It is a graphic representation of a frequency distribution To obtain the frequency curve we plot the class marks on the X-axis and frequency on the Y-axis.

1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 7 Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues

Students can Download Economics Chapter 7 Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 7 Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues

1st PUC Economics Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues TextBook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Who is a worker?
Answer:
People work for earning their livelihood. A person who is involved in production activity contributing to the flow of goods and services in the economy is called a worker. In other words, a worker is regarded as an economic agent who contributes to the production of goods and services, thereby, to the GDP during a particular year.

A worker renders services to others and receives rewards in the form of wages, salaries or in kind. Hence, we can say that when an individual is engaged in a production activity or self employed and contributes to the generation of GDP, then, that person is referred to as a worker. For example, a doctor, an engineer working in a factory, etc.

Question 2.
Define worker-population ratio.
Answer:
Worker-Population ratio is defined as the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services. It is measured by the ratio between the country’s workforce and its total population. This ratio acts as an indicator for assessing the employment level in a particular country at any point of time.

Higher the worker-population ratio higher is the engagement of people in productive activities and vice-versa. Worker- population ratio is estimated by dividing the total workforce by the total population and multiplying by 100. Algebraically.
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 7 Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues img2

Question 3.
Are the following workers, a beggar, a thief, a smuggler, a gambler? Why?
Answer:
No, a beggar, a thief, a smuggler, a gambler cannot be called as workers. A worker is involved in a production activity that contributes to the GDP of a country. As none of them (a beggar, a thief, a smuggler and a gambler are involved in any legal economic production activity that contributes to the national income of the country, hence, none of them can be regarded as workers.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4
Find the odd man out

  1. owner of a saloon
  2. a cobbler
  3. a cashier in Mother Dairy
  4. a tuition master
  5. transport operator
  6. construction worker.

Answer:
Tuition master and the owner of a saloon are the odd man out. This is because all others are hired while these two are self employed. Tuition master and the owner of a saloon are engaged in their own business and own profession, whereas, the cobbler, the construction worker, the transport operator and the cashier in the Mother Dairy are hired and render their services to others in exchange of rewards in the form of salaries or wages.

Question 5.
The newly emerging jobs are found mostly in the sector, (service/manufacturing).
Answer:
The newly emerging jobs are found mostly in the service sector. The service sector is taking a lead over the manufacturing sector as a source of employment. It includes trade, commerce, banking, insurance, health and other services. These services are developing at a faster pace than manufacturing and other allied production activities. This is because of the globalisation of the economy.

Question 6.
An establishment with four hired workers is known as (formal/informal) sector establishment.
Answer:
An establishment with four hired workers is known as informal sector establishment. An informal sector is an unorganised sector of the economy. It includes all enterprises that hire less than 10 workers, except farming and self employment ventures. Therefore, an establishment with four hired workers is known as informal sector establishment.

Question 7.
Raj is going to school. When he is not in school, you will find him working in his farm. Can you consider him as a worker? Why?
Answer:
Yes, Raj can be considered as a worker. This is because his work is contributing to the total output of the farm. Further, as implied by the definition of worker, a person who is engaged in an economic activity or is assisting anyone in an economic activity and, thereby, contributing to the GDP of the country is regarded as worker, so, Raj is a worker.

Question 8.
Compared to urban women, more rural women are found working. Why?
Answer:
The percentage of female workforce in the rural areas is nearly 30% while it is only 14% 1 in the urban areas. This depicts that as compared to the urban women more rural women accounts for higher share in the female workforce.

While on the one hand, the rural women are less educated, unskilled and low productive, on the other hand, urban women being more educated and more skilled and productive have higher probability to get employment. Ironically, f the urban female accounts for lesser share in the female workforce as compared to their rural counterparts. The following are the reasons for low share of urban females in the total female workforce:

1. As in the agricultural and allied activities, high degree of skills and specialisations is not required, so, rural women engage themselves to support their family on farms.

2. As poverty in the rural areas is more widespread than in the urban areas, so, the rural women engage themselves in low productive jobs just to support the livelihood of their families.

3. As the urban families usually earn comparatively higher income than the rural families and, further, poverty in the urban areas is not as widespread as that of in the rural areas, so, there is lesser need for female members to get themselves employed.

4. The decision to take up jobs by the female members rests on the family’s decision rather than her individual decision.

5. Although female literacy in India is improving, yet it has to get much better before urban female accounts for higher share in the total female workforce.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Meena is a housewife. Besides taking care of household chores, she works in the cloth shop which is owned and operated by her husband. Can she be considered as a worker? Why?
Answer:
Aperson who is involved in the production activity and contributes to the generation of GDP is referred to as worker. As here Meena works in the cloth shop to support her husband and contributes to GDP by rendering her services, so, she can be considered as a worker.

Question 10.
Find the odd man out

  1. rickshaw puller who works under a rick- shaw owner
  2. mason
  3. mechanic shop worker
  4. shoeshine boy.

Answer:
Shoe shine boy is an odd man out. All others (a rickshaw puller, a mason, and mechanic shop worker) are hired, workers. They render their services to their employers and receive rewards in the form of salaries or wages in return. On the other hand, shoeshine boy is a self- employed worker and carries out his occupation himself. In other words, he is engaged in his own profession.

Question 11.
The following table shows distribution of workforce in India for the year 1972 – 73. Analyse-it and give reasons for the nature of workforce distribution. You will notice that the data is pertaining to the situation in India 30 years ago!
Answer:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 7 Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues img3

1. The total workforce in India in the year 1972-73 was 234 million that includes 195 million workforce of rural and 39 million of the urban population. This indicates a greater involvement of rural workforce comprising 83 % of the total workforce as compared to 17% of the urban workforce. This is because a majority of rural population was engaged in agricultural and allied sectors.

2. The rural workforce comprises of 64% of the male workforce and 36% of female workforce. On the contrast, the urban workforce comprises of about 82% of male workforce and 18% of female workforce.

The participation of males in both rural as well as in the urban areas is higher than the females because of the lack of opportunities available to women for acquiring education. Also, families often discouraged female members to take up job and, consequently, women were confined to household works only.

3. Comparing urban female work force with that of the rural female workforce, we can conclude that the females in the rural areas formed 36 % of the workforce, whereas, the females in the urban areas formed only 18% of the workforce. In the rural areas, despite a majority of the population was engaged in farming and allied activities, agricultural sector had low productivity.

Consequent to the low productivity, rural people had low earnings that further led to widespread poverty in the rural areas. Thus, it can be concluded by analysing the above data that Indian economy suffered from low productivity, acute unemployment and widespread poverty, disguised unemployment in agricultural sector and low female participation rate in the workforce 30 years ago.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 12.
The following table shows the population and worker population ratio for India in 1999-2000. Can you estimate the workforce (urban and total) for India?
Answer:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 7 Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues img4

Question 13.
Why are regular salaried employees more in urban areas than in rural areas?
Answer:
Regular salaried employees are those hired workers who are on the permanent payrolls of their employers. They are usually skilled workers and are entitled to all types of social security benefits. The concentration of these workers is higher in the urban areas as compared to the rural areas because such jobs require skilled and specialised workers.

The opportunities to acquire and enhance such skills are available more in the urban areas. And these skills are acquired through the process of training and education that cannot be accessed in the rural area due to the lack of investment, infrastructure and low literacy level of rural people.

Further, the big companies are concentrated only in the urban areas due to the presence of infrastructure and availability of modem facilities like banks, transport and communication, etc. Therefore, the bulk of the jobs for the regular salaried employees are concentrated more in the urban areas resulting in the increase in number of the regular salaried employees.

Question 14.
Why are less women found in regular salaried employment?
Answer:
Lesser women are found in regular salaried employment as compared to men because. a larger proportion of women are engaged in economic activities without stable contracts and steady income. The stable contracts and steady income are two features prevalent in regular salaried employment. Women are engaged in informal segments of the economy, where they are not entitled to any social security benefits.

Moreover, women work in more vulnerable situations than men and have lower bargaining power and, consequently, are paid lesser than the male workforce. Thus, women workers are more likely to be found in the self- employment and casual work as compared to men rather than regular salaried employment.

Question 15.
Analyse the recent trends in sectoral distribution of workforce in India.
Answer:
The three major sectors of an economy i.e. Primary, Secondary and Tertiary collectively are known as occupational structure of an economy. The primary sector includes agriculture, forestry, fishing, mining, etc. The secondary sector consists of manufacturing and construction activities.

Tertiary sector includes various services like transport, communication, trade, etc. Primary sector is the prime source of employment for the majority of the workers in India. Its contribution is as high as 57.3 % of our total workforce. About 17.6% and 25.1% of the total workforce is employed in the secondary and the service sector respectively.

People living in urban areas are largely engaged in secondary and tertiary sectors and those in the rural areas are involved basically in primary sectors. Also, the tertiary sector is taking a lead over the secondary sector as a source of employment and increasing share in India’s GDP.

As far as the distribution of male and female is considered, a high percentage of total female workforces are engaged in the primary sector than in the secondary and tertiary sectors.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 16.
Compared to the 1970s, there has hardly been any change in the distribution of workforce across various industries. Comment.
Answer:
India being an agrarian economy has majority of population dependent on the agricultural sector to earn their livelihood. Although, the developmental strategies in India have aimed at the reduction of population dependent on agriculture, yet the reduction in the population engaged in agricultural sector has not been significant. In 1972-73, about 74 % of the workforce was engaged in primary sector which reduced to 60% in 1999-00.

On the other hand, the shares of secondary and tertiary sectors in employment rose from 11 % to 16 % and 15 % to 24 % respectively. The workforce distribution indicates that over the last three decades i.e. from 1972- 2000. People have moved from self-employment and regular salaried employment to casual wage worker.

This particular pattern of moving from self employment and regular salaried employment to casual wage work is termed as casualisation of workforce. Thus, it can be concluded that although changes in the distribution of workforce have taken place, yet industrial and tertiary sector need to increase their share in the workforce distribution by generating more employment opportunities and absorbing excess labour from the agricultural sector.

Question 17.
Do you think that in the last 50 years, employment generated in the country is commensurate with the growth of GDP in India? How?
Answer:
Economic growth implies growth in the GDP, i.e. growth in the aggregate output produced during an accounting period within the domestic territory of an economy. The increased output level is achieved by generating more employment opportunities and through employing better technology.

During the recent past, India has witnessed jobless economic growth that raised the aggregate output level without the proportionate rise in the employment opportunities and, consequently, unemployment continued to exist. The reason is that the rise in GDP is caused by employing modem and improved technology that substituted labour for machines. This failed to generate new employment opportunities in the industrial and tertiary sectors.

Thus, the industrial and the tertiary sectors failed to absorb the excess labour from the agricultural sector. As a result, disguised unemployment in the agricultural sector continued along with low levels of productivity and massive poverty.

In addition to this, MNCs that played an important role in India’s. economic growth provided employment only to the educated and specialised workforce. These MNCs aimed at achieving higher output levels by employing better technology rather than generating greater employment opportunities. Thus, employment generated in the country does not commensurate with the growth of GDP in India.

Question 18.
Is it necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector? Why?
Answer:
Yes, it is necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector because:

  • social security benefits are provided in the formal sector like pension, provident fund(PF) and gratuity, etc
  • workers and enterprises in the formal sector get regular and more income as compared to informal sector.
  • technology used in the formal sector enterprise is updated, therefore, generating employment in formal sector helps in reduction of poverty and income inequalities.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 19.
Victor is able to get work only for two hours a day. Rest of the day, he is looking for work. Is he unemployed? Why? What kind of jobs could persons like Victor are doing?
Answer:
Yes, Victor is an unemployed worker. He works for two hours a day but a major portion of the day he is looking for work and is unemployed. This implies that he is an underemployed worker. The situation of underemployment refers to a situation in which a person gets work for lesser time than the time he actually can and wants to work.

According to the National Sample Survey Statistics, a person who is employed for less than 28 hours in a week is called underemployed. Victor could do jobs that are part time in nature like dropping newspapers, working in a restaurant, delivering couriers, bank tellers, etc.

Question 20.
You are residing in a village. If you are asked to advise the village panchayat, what kinds of activities would you suggest for the improvement of your village which would also generate employment?
Answer:
The following are the suggestions that can generate employment opportunities in the village:
1. Increase Production:
It is of prime importance to increase production in the agricultural and industrial sectors in order to increase employment. For this purpose, small scale and cottage industries should be promoted. This will not only generate new employment opportunities but also assist the industrial sector, as the production of the small scale and cottage industries act as subsidiaries to the industrial sector.

2. Increase Productivity:
The demand and productivity for labour are directly related to each other. The higher productivity generates higher profits that in turn implies higher investment and generates higher demand for labour. Rural workers should be imparted technical knowledge and modem know-how that will not only increase their productivity but also enhance their acceptability of modernisation.

3. Control overpopulation:
Population explosion is one of the important concerns for India. It hinders economic growth prospects. The rising population leads to the rise in unemployment and, therefore, poverty. Thus, rural people should be made aware of various birth control measures and also the benefits associated with family planning and nuclear-family.

4. Creating Non-agricultural Employment:
India being an agrarian economy employs a major proportion of workforce in the agricultural sector. The development of this sector is still a far cry and, consequently, suffers from disguised unemployment. Moreover, as agriculture is a seasonal occupation, so, many farmers remain unemployed for three to four months in a year.

Thus, it is necessary to engage these people in non-agricultural sectors for the phase they are off from cultivation. Creation of non- agricultural job like pottery, handicrafts, not only reduces disguised unemployment but also contributes to enhanced income to the farmers in the off season, which could be invested in the farm to improve farm productivity and farm products.

5. Easy Credit and Finance:
Often, rural people find it difficult to access finance due to the lack of sufficient financial institutions in rural areas. Even if the finance or the credit is available, then this is provided at higher lending rates. The lack of credit acts as a bottleneck for rural growth. Thus, financial institutions and banks should be set up to provide easy credit to rural people.

6. Education and Health Facilities :
Rural areas have always lagged behind in education and health care facilities. This not only impedes their productivity but also reduces their life expectancy and quality of standard of living. Along with primary and secondary schools, night schools for adults, imparting technical education and technical know-how, proper sanitation and hospitals should be established in the rural areas.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 21.
Who is a casual wage labourer?
Answer:
Casual workers refer to those workers who do not work throughout the year. They only work for few months. Casual workers are not hired by employers on a regular basis. They do not enjoy social security benefits like provident fund, gratuity, etc. They are generally unskilled workers.
For example:
workers working at a construction site.

Question 22.
How will you know whether a worker is working in the informal sector?
Answer:
The following features help to recognise a worker working in the informal sector:
1. A worker working in an enterprise (other than the public sector establishments and the private sector establishments) hiring 10 or less than 10 workers.

2. This sector includes millions of farmers, agricultural labourers, owners of small enterprises and self employed. These sections of people are not hired, worker.

3. A worker working in informal sector does not enjoy social security benefits such as provident fund, gratuity, pension, etc.

4. The economic interest of the workers working in the informal sector is not protected by any Labour Laws other than Minimum Wages Act. Therefore, workers in the informal sector are highly exposed to the uncertainties of the market and have low bargaining power.

1st PUC Economics Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Economics Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation in which the persons willing to do a work are available but do not find a job.

Question 2.
What types of unemployment is found in underdeveloped countries?
Answer:
In underdeveloped countries, chronic and disguised unemployment are found due to the lack of capital.

Question 3.
What is structural unemployment?
Answer:
It is a problem of developed countries where there is no demand in the market, industries reduce their production and some workers are relieved from their jobs.

Question 4.
What do you mean by seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
Agriculture is a seasonal activity. In the absence of supplementary sources of employment, the farmers have to remain unemployed during slack agricultural season, similar is the position in some occupations like rice-millers, sugar mills, ice factories etc.

Question 5.
What is the open employment?
Answer:
When the country s labour force does not get opportunities’ for gainful employment, it is termed as open unemployment. This type of unemployment is mostly found in industrial sector of our economy.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
What is technical unemployment?
Answer:
This refers to persons who have been thrown out of work by the introduction of superior technology in their area of operation.

Question 7.
What is educated unemployment?
Answer:
when people do not get employment after getting education, they are called educated unemployed persons.

Question 8.
What is disguised unemployment?
Answer:
Disguised employment refers to a situation wherein more people are engaged in agricultural sector than required, there is a surplus workforce. If a part of them is withdrawn from there, the total produce would remain unaffected.

Question 9.
What are the main causes of educated unemployment?
Answer:
The main causes of educated unemployment are defective education system, lack of aptitude and technical qualifications, there is maladjustment between demand and supply of educated workers.

Question 10.
What is the main cause of urban unemployment?
Answer:
The population of urban areas is increasing very fast due to high birth-rate and migration from the rural sector but job opportunities are not increasing to the desired rate. It creates the problem of urban unemployment.

Question 11.
What are types of unemployment are found in rural sector of the country?
Answer:
The most prevalent form of unemployment in the rural sector are disguised unemployment and seasonal unemployment.

Question 12.
What are economic activities?
Answer:
Those activities that contribute to the gross domestic national product are called economic activities.

Question 13.
Why are women not called the workers?
Answer:
The women carry out works like cooking, fetching water and fuelwood and participate in farm labour, they are not paid wages in cash or any other form. So they are not categorized as workers.

Question 14.
Who are self employed persons?
Answer:
Those workers who own and operate an enterprise and earn their livelihood are known as self employed ex: shop keeper, a farmer, a doctor etc. are self employed persons and their income is called mixed income.

Question 15.
What type of workers are construction workers?
Answer:
They are casual wage workers.

Question 16.
Who are regular salaried workers?
Answer:
When workers are engaged by someone or an enterprise and paid their wages on a regular basis, they are known as regular salaried workers.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 17.
What are the different sectors of the economy?
Answer:
There are majorly three sectors of economy they are:

  • Primary sector
  • Secondary sector
  • Tertiary sector.

Question 18.
Define population?
Answer:
Population is defined as the total number of people who reside in a particular locality at particular point of time.

Question 19.
Which is the biggest formal sector employer?
Answer:
The government.

Question 20.
Uncertainly of employment is the feature of what type of workers?
Answer:
Workers employed in informal sector.

1st PUC Economics Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write down the features of casual labour force?
Answer:
Features of casual labour force in India:

  1. The percentage of casual labourers is very high. The casual wage labourers account fro 33% of India s workforce.
  2. The number of casual workers is increasing with time.

Question 2.
Write down the features of the workers in informal sector?
Answer:

  1. The workers in the informal sector do not get regular income.
  2. They do not have any protection or regulation from the government.
  3. Workers are dismissed without any compensation.
  4. Workers of this sector live in slums and quarters.
  5. The workers cannot form trade union.

Question 3.
Why is there scarcity of labour force with the beginning of rainy season?
Answer:
Most of the workers in the urban areas belong to villages. They live in urban areas for a limited time. They go back to their villages in the rainy season. There they do agricultural activities. On account of their going back to villages, there is scarcity of labour force in urban areas.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
Give the outline of occupation structure(sector-wise) in India?
Answer:
Occupational structure:

  1. Main source of employment is most of the workers of primary sector. More than 60% of workforce is employed in primary sector.
  2. About 16% of workforce is employed in secondary sector.
  3. About 24% of workforce is employed in service sector.

Question 5.
Outline the changes that have been taking place in the structure of workforce in India?
Answer:
Changes in the structure of workforce in India:

  1. Newly emerging jobs are found mostly in the service sector.
  2. Outsourcing of work is becoming common practice.
  3. The traditional notion of the modem facts or office has been altering in such a manner that for many, the home is becoming the workplace.
  4. The nature of employment has become informal with only limited availability of social security measures to the workers.

1st PUC Economics Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the difference between formal sector and informal sector?
Answer:
All the public sector establishments and those private sector establishments, which employ 10 hired workers or more are called as formal sector establishments and the workers working in these establishments are called formal sector workers.

a. Informal sector:
All the other enterprises and workers who do not work in formal sector are called informal sector workers, the informal sector includes millions of fanners, agricultural labourers, owners of small enterprises and working in those enterprises and self-employed who do not have any hired workers.

Question 2.
Give an account of increasing unemployment in India?
Answer:
Following are the main causes of ever increasing unemployment in India:
1. Slow economic growth:
Indian economy is underdeveloped and rate of economic is very slow. This slow growth rate fails to provide enough employment opportunities’ to rising population

2. Rapid growth of population:
Constant increase in population has been grave problem of India. It is one of the main cause of unemployment.

3. Agrculture:
Agriculture is also one of the major cause for unemployment in India because it is seasonal in nature so majority of population will have a job for partial of year. So it has led the farmers stay unemployed in odd seasons.

4. Lack of irrigation facilities:
Despite the completion of nine five year plans irrigation facilities could be provided only to 34% of agricultural area. For want of irrigation only one crop is grown in year on the large of agricultural land. Consequently, the fanners remain unemployed for quite some time during the year.

5. Joint family system:
It encourages disguised unemployment, in big families having large businesses, many such persons are found who do not do any work and depend on the joint income of the family. Joint family system is more prevalent in rural areas, hence a high degree of disguised unemployment exists there.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Why the share of rural women is more than the urban women in labour force? the main causes for the more work
Answer:
participation of rural women, when compared to urban women, are as follows:

  1. Low economic status of rural people in India.
  2. Lack of financial resources to support their family.
  3. Bad habits among male members in the rural family.
  4. Shortage of agricultural labourers.
  5. Many urban women are not let to work due to orthodox and traditional beliefs.
  6. The women in urban families are discouraged to take up job as the men are earning high income.
  7. Under estimation of number of women workers in urban area though they work at homes as homemakers in urban areas.

Question 4.
Give suggestions to solve the problem of unemployment in India
Answer:
Following are some important suggestions to solve the problem of unemployment in India:

a. Increase in production:
To increase employment, it is essential to increase production in agriculture and industrial sectors., development of small and cottage industries should be should be encouraged.

b. Increase in productivity:
Demand forlabour is directly related to the productivity of labour.’ Higher the productivity generates higher profits and therefore, greater demand for labour. Accordingly, productivity of labour must improve.

c. High rate of capital formation:
Rate of capital formation in the country should be accelerated. Capital formation should be particularly encouraged in such activities which generate greater employment opportunities.

d. More self employed persons:
Around 62% of people in India are self employed, most of them are engaged in agriculture. Besides they are also engaged in trade, cottage and small industries, building activities, restaurants, transport etc govt should provide facilities like irrigation, better seeds, manures, implements credit.etc. to small and marginal farmers.

e. Change in the technique of industrial production:
Technique of production should suit the needs and means of the country. It is essential that labour-intensive technology is encouraged in the place of capital intensive technology. Quick yielding industries be given preference.

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Students can Download 1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

  1. The question paper has five parts namely A, B, C, D and E. Answer all the parts.
  2. Part-A carries 10 marks. Part-B carries 20 marks. Part-C carries 30 marks. Part-D carries 20 marks, Part-E carries 10 marks.

Part – A

Answer ALL the questions. Each question carries one mark. (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Write the set {x : x ∈ R and -4< x ≤ 6) as an interval.
Answer:
{-3, -2, -1,0,1,2,3,4,5,6} ∴ x ∈ (-3,6)]

Question 2.
If (x + 1, y – 2) = (3,1), find the value of x and y.
Answer:
x + 1 = 3, ∴ x = 2
y – 2 = 1, ∴ y = 3.

Question 3.
Convert \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\) radians into degree measue.
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 1

Question 4.
Evaluate 7! – 5!
Answer:
7! – 5! = (7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1) – (5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1) = 5040 – 120 = 4920

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 5.
Find the 20th term of the GP. \(\frac{5}{2}, \frac{5}{4}, \frac{5}{8}, \ldots \ldots\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 2

Question 6.
Find n if nC7 = nC6
Answer:
If nC7 = nC6
∴ n = 7 + 6 = 13 (∵ nCr = nCr-1).

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 7.
Find the slope of the joining the points (3, 2) and (-1, 4)
Answer:
Slope of the line = m = \(\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}=\frac{(4)-(2)}{(-1)-(3)}=\frac{2}{-4}=\left[\frac{-1}{2}\right]\)

Question 8.
Evalaute \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\cos x}{x-x}\)
Answer:

Question 9.
Write the negation of the statement “√2 is a complex number. ”
Answer:
“√2 is not a complex no.”

Question 10.
If \(\frac { 2 }{ 11 }\) is the probability of an event, then what is the probability of the event ‘not
Answer:
P(not A) = p(Ā) = 1 – \(\frac { 2 }{ 11 }\) = \(\left[\frac{9}{11}\right]\)

Part – B

Answer any TEN Questions. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
If A and B are two disjoint sets and n(A) = 15 and n(B) = 10. Find n(A ∪ B) and n(A ∩ B).
Answer:
n(A ∩ B) = 0
∵ A and B are disjoint net
∴ n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) = 15 + 10 = 25.

Question 12.
If U = {x : X ≤ 10 and x ∈ N} is the universal set and A = {x : X ∈ N and x is prime}, B = {x : X ∈ N and x is even} are the subsets of U, find A ∩ B’ in Roster form.
Answer:
u = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}, A = {2,3,5,7), B = {2,4,6,8,10,….}
∴ B’ = {1,3,5,7,9} ⇒ ∴ A ∩ B’ ={3,5,7}.

Question 13.
If A = {1,2} B = (3,4), write A × B How many subsets will A × B have?
Answer:
A × B = {(1,3), (1,4),(2,3),(2,4)} and the number of subset = 2m×n = 22×2 = 16

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 14.
Find the value of sin 75°.
Answer:
sin 75° = sin (45° +30°) = sin Acos B + cos Asin B = sin 45o cos 30° + cos 45osin 30°
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 3

Question 15.
Find the radius of the circle in which a central angle of \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) radians intercepts an arc of length 37.4 cm (use π = \(\frac{22}{7}\))
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 4

Question 16.
Express \(\frac{1+3 i}{1-2 i}\) in the form of a + ib.
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 5

Question 17.
Solve 7x + 3 < 5x + 9. Show the graph of the solution on number line.
Answer:
7x + 3 < 5x + 9. ⇒ ∴ 7x – 5x < 9 – 3 ⇒ 2x < 6 ⇒ ∴[x < 3] x ∈ (-∞,3).
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 6

Question 18.
Find the equation of the line parallel to the line 3x – 4y + 2=0 and passing through the point (–2, 3)
Answer:
Line parallel to 3x – 4y + 2 = 0 can be assumed on
3x – 4y + k = 0 ∴ at (-2,3)
3(-2) – 4(3) + k = 0
∴ -6 -12 + k = 0
∴ k =18
∴ the line parallel to a given line is
3x – 4y + 18 = 0.

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 19.
Find the distance between the parallel line 15x + 8y – 34= 0 and 15x + 8y + 31 = 0
Answer:
Distances between the parallel line is given by
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 7

Question 20.
Find the distance between the points (-3,7,2) and (2,4,-1)
Answer:
d = \(\sqrt{(-3-2)^{2}+(7-4)^{2}+(2+1)^{2}}=\sqrt{25+9+9}=\sqrt{43}\)

Question 21.
Evaluate \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 2}\left(\frac{x^{3}-2 x^{2}}{x^{2}-5 x+6}\right)\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 8

Question 22.
Write the converse and contrapositive of the statement “If the two lines are parallel then they do not intersect in the same plane.
Answer:
P : the two lines are paraallel V : line do not internet in the some plane.
∴ converse = q → p = If the two lines do not internet in the same plane then they are parallel.
Contrapositive: If the two lines intersect in the same plane they are parallel.

Question 23.
If the coefficient of variation and standard deviation of the distributions are 60 and 21 respectively, find the arithmetic mean of the distribution.
Answer:
C.V. = 60, σ = 21, X̄ = 2, Formula: C.V.= \(\frac{\sigma}{\bar{X}} \times 100\)
60 = \(\frac{21}{\bar{X}} \times 100\) ⇒ ∴ X̄ = \(\frac{21 \times 100}{60}\) = 35

Question 24.
Three coins are tossed at once find the probability of getting atleast two heads.
Answer:
3 coins tossed the sample space.
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 9

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Part – C

Answer any TEN of the following questions. Each question carries THREE marks. (10 × 3 = 30)

Question 25.
If U = (1,2,3,4,5,6), A = {2,3}, B = {3,4,5} show that (A ∪ B)’ = A’ ∩ B’
Answer:
LHS = (A ∪ B) = {2,3,4,5}’ = {1,6}
RHS = A’ ∩ B’ = {1,4,5,6} ∩ {1,2,6} = {1,6} ∴ LHS = RHS.

Question 26.
Let f : R → R and g : R → R be defined by f(x) = x + 1, g(x) = 2x – 3, find (f + g)(x),(f – g)(x) and \(\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)\)(x)
Answer:
(i) (f + g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) = (x + 1) + (2x – 3) = 13x – 21
(ii) (f – g)(x) = f(x) – g(x) = (x + 1) – (2x – 3) = x + 1 – 2x + 3 = 4 – x
(iii) (f/g)(x) = \(\left[\frac{x+1}{2 x-3}\right]\)

Question 27.
Find the general solution of the equation sin 2x + cos x = 0
Answer:
Given sin 2x + cos x = 0, sin 2x = -cosx
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 10
sin 2x + cos x = 0, ∴ cos x=-sin 2x
cosx = cos \(\left(\frac{\pi}{2}+2 x\right)\)
∴ GS
x = 2nπ ± α (n ∈ z)
Put x = 2x ⇒ α = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) + 2x ⇒ x = 2nπ ± (\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) + 2x)
(x + 2x) = (2nπ ± \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)) ⇒ 3x = 2nπ ±\(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
∴ [x = 2nπ ± \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)]

Question 28.
Express √3 + i in polar form.
Answer:
(√3 + i) = [cose + isin) ….. (1)
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 11
r = \(\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}}=\sqrt{3+1}=2\) ⇒ θ = tan-1 \(\frac{y}{x}\) = tan-1 \(\frac{y}{x}\) = tan-1 \(\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)=\frac{\pi}{6}\)
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 50

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 29.
Solve the equation x2 + 3x + 9 = 0.
Answer:
Given
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 12

Question 30.
In how many ways can the letters of the word Permutations be arranged if (i) the words starts with P and end with S (ii) Vowels are all together. Answer:
n = 12
T repeats = 2 times ,
(i) the word starts with P and ends with S
(P ……… (5)
Total words = \(\frac{9 !}{2 !}\) = 9 × 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 = 1,81,440 ways

(ii) Vowels are together: vowels = E,U,A,I,O = S together
∴ they form 1 group remaining \(\frac{+7}{8}\) letters
∴ Total words = \(\frac{8 !}{2 !}\) = 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 = 20,160 ways.

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 31.
Find the middle term in the expansion of \(\left(\frac{x}{3}+9 y\right)^{10}\)
Answer:
x = \(\frac{x}{3}\), a = 9y, n = 10, r = 5
n = 10 (even) there is only one middle term is \(\left(\frac{n}{2}+1\right)=\left(\frac{10}{2}+1\right)\) = 6th term
General term Tr+1 = nCr xn-r ar ⇒ Ts+1 = 10C5 \(\left(\frac{x}{3}\right)^{10-5}\) (9y)5
T6 = 10C5\(\left(\frac{x}{3}\right)^{5}\) g5 y5 ⇒ T6 = 10C5 . \(\frac{x^{5}}{3^{5}}\) × 95 y5 = 10C5 (xy)5 × \(\left(\frac{3^{10}}{3^{5}}\right)\)
T6 = [10C5 (xy)5 35] is the middle term.

Question 32.
Insert Five Arithmetic means between 8 and 26 such that resulting sequence is an A.P.
Answer:
a = 8, an, = 26, n = 7, d = ?
Let the 5 AM’s are A1, A2, A3, A4, and A5
∴ (8), A1, A2, A3, A4, A5 (26) ⇒ Take an, = a + (n – 1) d
26 = 8 + (7 – 1)d ⇒ 18 = 6d ∴ d = 3
∴ Ar, = a + d = 8 + 3 = 11 ⇒ A2 = a + 2 = 8 + 6 =14 ⇒ A3 = 17, A4 = 20, A5 = 23.

Question 33.
In an A.P. if mth term is “n” and nth term is “m” where m ≠ n, find pth term..
Answer:
Given am = n, am = m ap = ? a = ? d = ?
nth term 2,
an = a + (n – 1)d
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 13

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 34.
Find the co-ordinate of the focus, equation of the directrix and length of the Latus Rectum of the parabola y2 = 8x.
Answer:
Equation of parabola y2 = 8x compare with the standard form
y2 = 4ax ∴ 4a = 8 ∴ a = 2
∴ focus = (a,0) = (2,0)
Equation of directrix : x = -a.
x = -2 or [x + 2 = 0]
Latus rectum = 4a = 8.

Question 35.
Find the derivative of sin x with respect of x from first principle.
Answer:
y = sin x as x → x + Δx, y + Δy
∴ (y + Δy) = sin(x + Δx)
Δy = sin(x + Δx) – y
Δy = sin(x + Δx) – sin x
÷ Δx and apply lt Δx → 0 on both side
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 26

Question 36.
Verify by the method of contradiction √2 is irrational
Answer:
Let us assume that √2 is rational i.e.. the gives statement is false.
∴ √2 = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) ≠ 0 a and b have no conunon factor.
Squaring ∴ 2 = \(\frac{a^{2}}{b^{2}}\) ⇒ [a2 = 2b2] ⇒ 2 divides a
Again put a = 2C(C ∈ Z) ⇒ ∴ (2c)2 = 2b2
∴ 4c2 = 2b2 or [b2 = 2c2] 2 divide b
i.e., 2 divides both a and b hence our assumption is i.e.. a and b does flot have common contradict out statement √2 is rational is false.
∴ √2 is irrational.

Question 37.
If E and F are the evens such that P(E) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) , P(F) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) and P(E and F) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\) . Find (i) P (E or F) (ii) P (not E and not F)
Answer:
(i) P(E or F) = P(E ∪ F) = P(E) + P(F) – P(E ∩ F)
\(=\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{7}=\frac{7+14-4}{28}=\left[\frac{17}{28}\right]\)
(ii) P(E’ ∩ F’) = P(E ∪ F)’ = 1 – P(E ∪ F) = 1 – \(1-\frac{17}{28}=\frac{11}{28}\)

Question 38.
A bag contain 9 discs of which 4 are red, 3 are blue and 2 are yellow. The discs are similar in shape and size. A disc is drawn at random from the bag. Calculate the Probability that it will be (i) red (ii) yellow (iii) blue
Answer:
Total ball = 4 Red + 3 blue + 2 yellow = 9 ball
(i) P (red ball) = \(\frac{4}{9}\)
(ii) P (Yellow) = \(\frac{2}{9}\)
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 14

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Part – D

Answer any SIX questions. (6 × 5 = 30)

Question 39.
Define a modulus function. Draw the graph and write down its domain and range.
Answer:
Definition of modulus function: The function f: R → R defined by f(x) = |x|. For each x ∈ R is called modulus function. For each non-negative value of n. f(x) = x. But for negative value
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 27

Question 40.
Prove that cos2x + cos2 \(\left(x-\frac{\pi}{3}\right)=\frac{3}{2}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 15
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 16

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 41.
Prove by Mathematical induction 13 + 23 + 33 + ………. + n3 \(\frac{n^{2}(n+1)^{2}}{4}\), n ∈ N
Answer:
at n = 1, LHS = RHS, \(\mathrm{l}^{3}=\frac{\mathrm{l}^{2}(1+1)^{2}}{4}\) [1 = 1]
at n = k(+)
13 + 23 + 33 + ………. + k3 \(\frac{k^{2}(k+1)^{2}}{4}\) ….. (1)
Add (k+1) on both side.
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 17
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 18
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 19
Hence the given series is true for n = 1, 2, …….., k, k + 1,….. for all positive integer of n.

Question 42.
Solve the following system of inequalities graphically 2x + y ≥ 4, x + y ≤ 3, 2x – 3y ≤ 6.
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 20

Question 43.
A group consists of 4 girls and 7 boys. In how many ways can a team of 5 members be selected if the team has (1) no girl (ii) atleast one boy and one girl.
Answer:
Given 4 girls and 7 boy’s
(i) no girls:
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 20

(ii) atleast 1 boy and 1 girls
Girls × boys
(a) 4C1 × 7C4 = 7 (b) 4C2 × 7C3 = 84.
(c) 4C3 × 7C2 = 210 (d) 4C4 × 7C1 = 140
Total number of selection 441 ways .

Question 44.
State and prove Binomial theorem for all positive integers.
Answer:
Statement: (a + b)n =nC0an + nc1an-1 b + nC2 an-2 b2 + nC3 an-3 b3 + …….. + nCn-1 a.bn-1 + nCnbn
Proof: By aplying principle of mathemaical induction
Let P(n) : (a + b)n = nC0an + nc1an-1b1 + ……. + nC nbn
For n = 1 p(1) = (a + b)1 = 1C0a1 + 1C1a1-1b1
[(a + b) = (a – b)] is true
For n = K(f). p(k) = (a + b)k = kC0ak + kC1ak-1b +….+ KCkbk …..(l)
is true for n = k
We shall prove that p(k + 1) is also true i.e..
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 29
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 30
Thus it has been proved that R(k + 1) is tense for p(K) is true and it is that for all positive integer n.

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 45.
Derive an expression for the co-ordinate of a point that divides the line joining the points A(x1, y1, z1) and B(x2, y2, z2)internally in the m : n. Hence find the co-ordinate of the midpoint of AB where A = (1,2,3) and B = (5,6,7)
Answer:
Proof: Let p(x1, y1, z1) and Q(x2, y2, z2) be the given points
Let R(x, y, z) divide PQ internally in the ratio m : n
Draw PL, QM, RN perpendicular to xy-plane.
∴ PL ∥ RN ∥ QM
∴ PL, RN, QM lie in one plane
So that the points L, N, M lie in a straight line which is the intersection of the plane and XY plane.
Through the point R draw a line AB It to the line LM. The line AB intersect the line LP externally at A and the line MQ at B.

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 31
Triangle APR and LIQR are similar.
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 32
∴ n(z – z1) = m(z2 – z)
∴ nz = nz1 = mz2 – m2
∴ (nz + mz) = (mz2 + nz1)
∴ z(m + n) = mz2 + nz1
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 33

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 46.
Prove that \(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin \theta}{\theta}=1\) (being in radians) and hence show that \(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0} \frac{\tan \theta}{\theta}=1\)
Answer:
\(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin \theta}{\theta}=1\)
Proof: Consider a circle with centre ‘O’ and radius ‘r’. Mark two point A and B on the circumference of the circle so that
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 34
At ‘A’ draw a tangent to the circle produce OB to cut the tangent at C. Joint AB.
Draw BM ⊥ OA,
Here OA = OB = r
From the figure
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 35
Area of triangle OAB < area of the sector AOB < area of triangle OAC
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 36
∴ BM < rθ < AC … (1)
In triangle OBM : sinθ = \(\frac{B M}{O B}\)
∴ BM = OB sinθ = rsinθ
In triangle OAC: tan θ = \(\frac{AC}{O A}\) ∴ AC = OA tan θ = r tan θ
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 37
sin θ < 0< tan θ
÷ sin θ
\(1<\frac{\theta}{\sin \theta}<\frac{1}{\cos \theta}\)
apply lt θ → 0
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 38
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 39

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 47.
Derive the expression for the length of the perpendicular drawn from the point (x1 y1) of the line ax + by + c = 0.
Answer:
Given ax + by + c = 0
∴ ax + by = -c
÷ C .
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 21

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 23
P(x, y)

Question 48.
Find the mean deviation about mean for the following data:
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 24
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 40

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Part – E

Answer any ONE question. (1 × 10 = 10)

Question 49.
(a) Prove Geometrically that cos(x + y) = cos x cos y.sin x sin y
Answer:
Prove that cos(x + y) = cos x cos y.sin x sin y
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 41
Proof Consider a unit circle (radius = 1 unit) with centre is (0, 0).
Consider 4 point P1, P2, P3 and P4
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 42
The co-ordinate of P1, P2, P3 and P4 are given by
P1 = (cosx,sinx) P2 = [cos(x + y). sìn(x + y)]
P3 = [cos(-y) sin(-y)] P4 = [1,0]
From the figure OP1OP3 is congruent to ∆P2OP4
∴ From distance formula
P1p3 = P2P4 …… (1)
Takè the distance (P1P3)2 = [cosx – cos(-y)]2 + [sin x – sin (-y)]2
= (cosx – cosy)2 + (sin x + sin y)2
= cos2x + cos2y = cosxcosy + sin2x + sin2y + 2sin cosy = 1 + 1 + 2(cosxcosy – sinxsiny)
(p1, P3)2 = 2 – 2 cos (x + y)
Again (P2P4)2 = [1(a-b)2-cos(x+y)]2 + |q – sin (x + y)|2
= 1 + cos2(x + y) -2cos(x + y) + sin2(x + y) = 1 + 1 – 2cos(x + y) = 2 – 2cos(x + y)
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 43
⇒ LHS = RHS
∴ [cos(x + y) = cosx cosy – sin x sin y]

(ii) Show that cos 2x = cos2x – sin x2x
Take cos(x + y) = cos xcos y – sin xsin y
Put y = x
∴ cos(x + x) = cosx cosx – sinx sinx
cos2x = cos2 x – sin2x

(b) Find the sum of the series 5, 55, 555, 5555, … to n terms.
Answer:
Sn = 5 + 55 + 555 + ……… to n term
Sn = 5[1 + 11 + 111 + ………to n term]
\(\frac{S_{n}}{5}\) = 1 + 11 + 111 +……. to n term.
Multiply both side by 9
∴ \(\frac{9 S_{n}}{5}\) = 9 + 99 + 999+ ………. n term
\(\frac{9 S_{n}}{5}\) = (90 – 1) + (100 – 1) + (1000 – 1) +
\(\frac{9 S_{n}}{5}\) = (10 + 100 + 1000 + … nth) GP (-1 – 1 – 1 … + n term)
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 25

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 50.
(a) Define ellipse as a set of all points in the plane and derive its equation as \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\)
Answer:
Let F2 and F2, be the focii. ‘O’ be the mid point of the line segment F1F2. ‘0 be the origin. And a line from O through F2, be + ve and F1 be -ve ∴ the co-ordinate of F1(C1 .0) and F2 (c2 o)
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 44
Let p(x,y) be a locus on the ellipse.
∴ PF1 + PF2 = 2a
Using distance formula
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 45
Squaring on both side
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 46
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 47

1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

(b) Find the derivative of \(\frac{x^{3}-\cos x}{\sin x}\) with respect to X.
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers - 48

1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation – An Appraisal

Students can Download Economics Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation – An Appraisal Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation – An Appraisal

1st PUC Economics Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation – An Appraisal TextBook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why were reforms introduced in India?
Answer:
The economic crisis at the end 1980’s created more hurdles in the process of growth and development in India, hence it resulted with introduction economic reforms.
The causes for introducing new economic reforms are:

  • The Government expenditure was more than its revenue.
  • The current account deficit was more than 2.5%
  • The fiscal deficit increased to 8.5%
  • Inflation was also one of the main cause
  • A sharp increase in imports caused decline in foreign exchange reserves.

Question 2.
Why is it necessary to become a member of WTO?
Answer:
The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was founded in 1995 as the successor to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (GATT). It is beneficial to become a member of WTO because of the following reasons:

1. Rule Based Trading:
WTO is formed to establish a rule based trading system in which arbitrary restrictions cannot be placed on trade by different nations. This helps in making the trade environment more stable.

2. Equality of Opportunities:
Under WTO, the member countries confer the status of Most Favoured Nation (MEN) to all other member countries. Thus, WTO provides equal opportunities to all countries in the international market for trading purposes.

3. Multilateral Negotiations:
The purpose of WTO is also to enlarge production and trade of services, to ensure optimum utilization of world resources and to protect the environment. The WTO agrements cover trade in goods as well as services to facilitate international trade through multilateral trade negotiations leading to removal of tariff as well as non tariflfbarriers.

This helps in providing greater market access to all member countries. However, some scholars question the usefulness of being a member of the WTO. They are of the view that while developed countries force the developing countries to open up their markets but do not allow access to their own markets. Similarly, developing countries are pressurized to remove non – tariff barriers such as subsidies but developed nations continue with them.

Question 3.
Why did RBI have to change its role from controller to facilitator of financial sector in India?
Answer:
The liberalisation policy paved the way to RBI to change its role from controller to facilitator of financial sector to enjoy freedom to take their decisions on several matters in India.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
How is RBI controlling the Commercial Banks?
Answer:
The RBI controls the Commercial Banks through:

  1. The RBI decides the amount of money that the banks can keep with themselves.
  2. RBI fixes the interest rates
  3. Nature of lending to various sectors
  4. It safeguards the interests of account holders
  5. What do you understand by devaluation of rupee?

Devaluation of rupee means a deliberate downward adjustment in the official exchange rate of rupee relative to other currencies, Devaluation is different from depreciation which is a fall in the value of a currency in a floating exchange rate due to supply and demand side factors and not due to government decision.

Under floating exchange rate system as followed in India at present, the RBI maintains the exchanges rate of rupee by buying or selling foreign currency, usually US Dollar. There were two important implications of devaluation of rupee.

First devaluation made India’s exports relatively less expensive for foreigners and increased their competitiveness and second, it made foreign products relatively more expensive for domestic consumers, discouraging imports. As is evident, this was done to reduce India’s Balance of Payments (BoP) deficit.

Question 6.
Distinguish between the following :

  • Strategic and Minority sale
  • Bilateral and Multi – lateral trade
  • Tariff and Non – tariff barriers.

Answer:
Difference between Strategic and Minority Sale.

Sl. No. Strategic Sale Minority Sale
i) Strategic sale involves the sale of minimum 51 % of a Public Sector Unit (PSU) to the private sector. Minority sale involves the sale of less than 49% stake of a PSU to the private sector.
i) The control and management of PSU is transferred to the private sector. The control and management of PSU remains with the government as it holds the majority stake.
iii) It is done through a process of competitive bidding and subsequent sales to the partner. Minority disinvestment are made via public offers.

Bilateral and Multi – lateral trade

Sl. No. Bilateral Trade Multi-lateral Trade
i) It is a trade agreement between two countries. It is a trade agreement among more than two countries
ii) Separate negotiations required to be done with different countries on one to one basis. Negotiations done with many countries together which saves time.
m) Encourages economic cooperation bet when two countries. Encourages globalisation integrating many countries of the world

Tariff and Non – tariff barriers.
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation - An Appraisal img 3

Question 7.
Why are Tariffs imposed?
Answer:
Tariffs are imposed to make imports from foreign countries relatively expensive than domestic goods. This discourage imports and protect domestically produced goods.

Question 8.
What is the meaning of Qualitative Restrictions?
Answer:
Qualitative restrictions are specific limits imposed by countries on the quantity or value of goods that can be imported or exported.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Those public sector undertakings which are making profits should be privatized. Do you agree with this view? Why?
Answer:
The PSU’s (Public Sector Undertakings) which are making profits should not be privatized because they are revenue generator for the Government. But if a PSU is an inefficient and loss making one, then the same PSU exerts unnecessary burden on the Government’s scare revenues and further may lead to budget deficit. The loss making PSU’s should be privatised.

Further some of the PSU’s like waterways, railways enhance the welfare of nation and is meant to serve general public at a very nominal cost. Privatisation of such important PSUs will lead to loss of welfare of poor people. Hence only less important PSUs should be privatised while leaving the core and important PSUs to be owned by the public sector.

Instead of privatisation of profit making PSU’s Government can allow more degree of autonomy and accountability in their operations, which will not only increase their productivity and efficiency but also enhance their competitiveness with their private counterparts.

Question 10.
Do you think outsourcing is good for India? Why are developed countries opposing it?
Answer:
Outsourcing is one of the important outcomes of the globalisation process. In outsourcing, a company hires regular services from external sources, mostly from other countries. Many of the services such as voice-based business processes, record advice, etc are being outsourced by companies in developed countries to India. Therefore, outsourcing has proved to be good for India in the following manner.

1. Employment Generation :
Outsourcing from developed nations has helped in creating more employment opportunities in India. It has resulted in generation of higher paying jobs that utilize the skills of educated youth of India.

2. Increased Foreign Investment:
Successful execution of processes outsourced to India has increased India’s international credibility and hence the inflow of foreign capital to India.

3. Promotes:
Other sectors outsourcing creates various backward and forward linkages which make it beneficial for other related sectors like industrial and agricultural sectors too.

4. Human Resource Development:
Outsourcing has helped in developing human resources by draining the youth and imparting skills required for specific jobs that have high remuneration.

5. Rise in Standard of Living :
Outsourcing has improved the standard of living of the people in India by generating more and better employment with rise in average salaries. Outsourcing is beneficial for India but developed countries oppose this because outsourcing leads to the outflow of capital from the developed countries to the developing countries, further, outsourcing leads to a reduction in employment in the developed countries as the same jobs are outsourced to the developing countries where these are done at relatively cheap wage rates.

Question 11.
India has certain advantages which makes it a favorite outsourcing destination. What are these advantages?
Answer:
Most multinational corporations, and even small companies, are outsourcing their services to India as India has the following advantages.

1. Availability of Cheap Labour:
India is a country with a large population and thus abundant supply of labour. Due to this reason, labour in India is available at low wage rates. This helps foreign companies in reducing cost of operation by outsourcing their business processes of India.

2. Skill and Accuracy:
India has a wide pool of talent in the form of educated and trained youth who have the required skill and can work with accuracy in the business processes such as accounting, record keeping, I.T. consultancy, etc. Here outsourcing plays a vital role, it gives a platform to the people so that they can use and enhance their skills and secondly they need low training period and thus, low cost of training.

3. Continuity and Risk Management:
Periods of high employee turnover will add uncertainty to the operations. Outsourcing those functions become cheaper and convenient to use.

Question 12.
Do you think the Navarathna policy of the Government helps in improving the performance of public sector undertakings in India? How?

Answer:
The Government has decided to give special treatment to some of the important profit-making PSUs. The granting of Navaratna status resulted in better performance of these companies. They were given greater managerial and operational autonomy.

In taking various decisions to run the company efficiently and thus increase their profits they also became highly competitive and some of them are becoming the giant global players. Therefore the Navarathna policy has certainly improved the performance of the PSU’s.

Question 13.
What are the major factors responsible for the high growth of the service sector?
Answer:
There are various factors which are responsible for the high growth of the service sector.

1. Reforms introduced in 1991, removes various restrictions on the movement of international finance which led to huge inflow of foreign capital, foreign direct investments, and outsourcing to India. This encouraged the service sector growth.

2. Availability of cheap labour and skilled labour at lower wage rate.

3. The revolution in information technology(IT) field in India has also played a major role in the high growth of the service sector.

4. Indian economy is experincing structural transformation that implies shift of economic dependence from primary to tertiary sector.

Question 14.
The agriculture sector appears to be adversely affected by the reform process. Why?
Answer:
The economic reforms of 1991 have not been able to benefit agriculture, where the growth rate has been decelerating. The reasons are:

1. Public investment in agriculture sector, especially in infrastructure, which includes irrigation, power, roads, market linkages and research and extension, have been reduced in the reform period.

2. Removal of subsidies on fertilizers pushed up the cost of production of agriculture. This made farming more expensive, thereby, adversely affecting the poor and marginal farmers.

3. Since the commencement of WTO, this sector has been experiencing a number of policy changes such as reduction in import duties on agricultural products, removal of minimum support price and lifting of quantitative restrictions on agricultural products.

4. They have to face international competition. Further, export oriented policy strategy in agriculture has encouraged the farmers to enter export market and take up the cultivation of cash crops. This has led to rise in prices of food grains.

Question 15.
Why has the industrial sector performed poorly in the reform period?
Answer:
The industrial sector has performed poorly in the reform period due to :

  • The cheaper imports of foreign goods have replaced the demands of domestic goods.
  • Due to lack of infrastructure, the domestic firms could not compete with their developed foreign counterparts in terms of cost of production and quality of goods.
  • Developing countries like India still do not have access to global markets of developed countries due to high non-tariffbarriers.

The domestic industries were given protection during the pre-liberalised period but at the time of liberalisation, the domestic industries were still not developed up to the extent it was thought and consequently they could not complete with the multi-national companies.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 16.
Discuss economic reforms in India in the light of Social Justice and Welfare?
Answer:
If the economic reforms have given us an opportunity in terms of greater access to global markets and high technology, it has also compromised the welfare of people belonging to poorer section.

It devasted the local producers as well as the farmers. It resulted in the greater inequalities of income and wealth.

Further, the economic reforms developed the areas that were well connected with the metropolitan cities leaving the remote and rural area underdeveloped. It resulted in growth of service sector of India especially in the form of quality education, superior health care facilities, IT (Information Technology), Tourism, multiplex, cinemas, etc., which were out of the reach of the poor section of the population.

Globalisation has given an opportunity to choose variety of goods at cheaper prices. There has been a revolution in telecommunication.

1st PUC Economics Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation – An Appraisal Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Economics Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation – An Appraisal Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by Liberalisation?
Answer:
Liberalisation is the process of removing the Government control and restrictions on economic activities.

Question 2.
State the meaning of devaluation of rupee?
Answer:
The deliberate reduction of the value of rupee against foreign currencies is called devaluation of rupee.

Question 3.
Expand IMF?
Answer:
International Monetary Fund.

Question 4.
Expand IBRD?
Answer:
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development.

Question 5.
What is Direct Tax?
Answer:
The direct tax is the tax which is imposed by the Government on individuals and companies and which cannot be shifted to others.

Question 6.
Give any two examples for Direct Taxes?
Answer:
The two examples for direct taxes are :

  1. Income Tax
  2. Corporation Tax
  3. Wealth tax

Question 7.
What is Indirect Tax?
Answer:
Indirect taxes are those in which tax burden is transferred to others. They are levied on goods and services.

Question 8.
Give any two examples for Indirect Taxes?
Answer:
The two examples for indirect taxes are:

  1. Sales Tax
  2. Service Tax
  3. Value Added Tax (VAT).

Question 9.
What is Tariff?
Answer:
Tariff is a tax which is imposed by the Government on imported goods and tariff is levied to restrict import trade and to protect domestic industries.

Question 10.
Give the meaning Foreign Exchange?
Answer:
Foreign exchange refers to exchange of one currency for another or the conversion of one currency into another currency.

Question 11.
Give the meaning of Exports?
Answer:
Exports is a process where all domestic goods are sold to other countries to gain more profits.

Question 12.
Give the meaning of Imports?
Answer:
Import is a process where the goods are purchased from other countries for the benefit of individuals in domestic country.

Question 13.
What is Globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation means opening up of the country’s economy for the world market.

OR

It simply means greatest integration between different economies of the world.

Question 14.
What is Privatisation?
Answer:
Privatisation refers to transfer of ownership or management of public enterprises to private people.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
What do you mean by Outsourcing?
Answer:
Outsourcing is a process where a company hires regular service from external sources, mostly from other countries.

Question 16.
Expand GATT?
Answer:
General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade.

Question 17.
Expand WTO?
Answer:
World Trade Organisation.

Question 18.
When did GATT came into existence?
Answer:
The GATT came into existence in 1948.

Question 19.
In which year WTO came into existence?
Answer:
The WTO came into existence on 1st January 1995.

Question 20.
What is the main objective of the WTO?
Answer:
The main objective of the WTO is to establish a rule based trade regime to ensure optimum utilisation of world resources.

Question 21.
When was the economic reform programme introduced in the Indian economy?
Answer:
The economic reforms programme was introduced in the Indian economy in 1991.

Question 22.
Write down the components of the New Economic Policy?
Answer:
The components of New Economic Po Hey are:

  1. Liberalisation
  2. Privatisation
  3. Globalisation

KSEEB Solutions

Question 23.
What does foreign direct investment mean?
Answer:
It refers to investment directly undertaken by foreign companies and nationals in various sector of the economy.

Question 24.
What are the main features of economic reforms?
Answer:
The main features of economic reforms are:

  1. Changes in fiscal policy
  2. Changes in monetary exchange,
  3. And changes in wage income policy and reforms in trade policy
  4. Industrial PO hey ……..
  5. Public sector
  6. Administered prices and tariff policy.

Question 25.
Which economic system has India adopted?
Answer:
India has adopted mixed economic system.

Question 26.
What is mixed economy?
Answer:
When all the economic activities which will be owned and managed by both the Government and private sector is called as mixed economy.

Question 27.
How is the new economic policy classified?
Answer:
The new economic policy classified into two groups namely:

  1. Stabilisation measures &
  2. Structural adjustment reform measures.

Question 28.
Expand LPG ?
Answer:
The LPG stands for liberalisation, privatisation, and globalisation in new economic policy introduced in 1991.

Question 29.
Expand GST?
Answer:
Good and Service Tax.

Question 30.
What are the main objectives of Privatisation?
Answer:
The main objective of privatisation was:

  • To improve financial discipline
  • To improve raise the productive efficiency
  • To facilitate modernization.

Question 31.
Mention any two benefits of Globalization?
Answer:
The two benefits of Globalization was:

  • Globalisation attracted foreign direct investment.
  • Globalisation created more employment opportunities
  • Globalisation brought technical expertise to our country.

Question 32.
Give any two areas where outsourcing is done in India?
Answer:
In India, the outsourcing is done in business areas like:

  1. Legal advice
  2. Computer service
  3. Advertisement
  4. Security etc.,

Question 33.
Expand BPO ?
Answer:
Business Process Outsourcing.

1st PUC Economics Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation – An Appraisal Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the major reforms of financial sector?
Answer:
The major reforms of financial sector are:

  1. The reform policies led to the establishment of new private sector banks.
  2. Even foreign banks are allowed to function in the country.
  3. The commercial banks have been given freedom to open new branches on fulfilling certain conditions.
  4. Foreign investment limit in bank was raised to 50percent.

Question 2.
Why has the Government removed trade barriers?
Answer:
Since 1991 the Government removed trade barriers because :

  1. To make Indian producers compete with producers across the world.
  2. The Government felt that competition would improve the quality and performance of producers within the country.
  3. To liberalize foreign trade and investment.
  4. To increase the volume of Foreign Direct Investment.

Question 3.
Do you think FDI is necessary for India? why?
Answer:
The FDI is necessary for India because :

  • FDI also helps in bringing technical expertise to our country.
  • FDI also helps in access to foreign markets.
  • FDI is also helpful to increase more employment opportunities.

Question 4.
Distinguish between the following.
Answer:

  1. Strategic and minority sale
  2. Bilateral and minority sale
  3. Tariff and non-tariff barriers.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
What do you mean by structural adjustment programmes? Name any two them.
Answer:
The structural adjustment programmes are those which bring structural change in the economy and improve its productivity. And these structural adjustment programmes are:

  • Industrial sector reforms
  • Trade reforms &
  • Public sector reforms etc.,

Question 6.
Do you think outsourcing is helpful for India?
Answer:
Yes, outsourcing is helpful to India. Outsourcing has intensified with the growth of information technology.

  • It helps our country to get valuable foreign exchange to cover imports.
  • And it helps in creation ofmore employment opportuni ties.

Question 7.
Why are small scale industries facing severe problems in India since 1991?
Answer:

  • There was decline indeman for domestic industrial products due to cheaper imports.
  • Domestic industries had to face foreign competition
  • Globalisation affected domestic industries and employment opportunities.
  • Hundred’s of SSI’s all over India were closed.

Question 8.
What are the major factors responsible for the high growth of the service sector?
Answer:
There are various factors which are responsible for the high growth of the service sector.

  • Reforms introduced in 1991, removes various restriction on the movement of international finance which led to huge inflow of foreign capital foreign direct investments and outsourcing to India. This encouraged the service sector growth.
  • Availability of cheap labour and skilled labour at lower wage rate.
  • The revolution in Information Technology(IT) field in India has also played a major role in the high growth of the service sector.
  • Indian economy is experiencing structural transformation that implies shift of economic dependence from primary to tertiary sector.

Question 9.
Name any four public sector industries?
Answer:

  • ONGC – Oil and Natural Gas Corporation.
  • NTPC – National Thermal Power Corporation.
  • BHEL – Bharath Heavy Electrical Limited BEL – Bharath Electronics Limited.

Question 10.
Mention any four Trade Policy Reforms introduced in India?
Answer:
The four trade policy reforms are as follows :

  • Removal of quantitative restrictions on imports and exports.
  • Reforms were introduced to remove trade barriers and liberalize foreign trade and investment.
  • Tariff rates have been reduced.
  • Exports restrictions have been liberalized and export duties have been reduced.

Question 11.
India has certain advantages which makes it a favourite outsourcing destination. What are these advantages?
Answer:
The advantages which make it a favourite out souring destination are :

  • Easy availability of cheap labour. As the wage rates in India are comparatively lower than that of in the developed countries.
  • Skills – Indians have reasonable degree of skills and techniques and knowledge of International language, English.
  • Stable Political Environment: The democratic political environment in India provides a stable and secured environment to the MNC’s to expand and grow.
  • Availability of raw material at cheaper rate India is well downed in natural resources. This ensures the MNC’s cheap availability of raw material and undisturbed and perennial supply of raw materials. This enables proper and smooth operation of MNC’s.

Question 12.
What are the monetary reforms under the New Economic Policy?
Answer:
Monetary measures play an important role in the development of a country. Under the’ new economic policy, several steps have been taken.
On the recommendations of Narasimham Committee:

  1. Abolition of direct credit programmes
  2. Free determination of interest rate
  3. Reconstitution of banking system
  4. More freedom to banks
  5. Improvement in banking system
  6. Reduction in liquidity ratio.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 13.
What are the causes of Globalisation?
Answer:
The main causes of Globalisation are as follows:

  1. Rapid growth of research and development.
  2. Removal of artificial barriers to the movement of goods, services, and capital.
  3. Spread out of the manufacturing processes by large companies.
  4. Deregulation of money market.
  5. Improvement in communication media and information technology.

Question 14.
Write down the foreign currency of the following data
Answer:
1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation - An Appraisal img 4

1st PUC Economics Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation – An Appraisal Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the background of economic reforms in India?
Answer:
The origin of financial crisis of Indian economy goes back to 1980’s. The Government expenditure exceeded its revenue. This forced the Government to borrow from public, banks and from international financial institutions. On the other hand, the Government had to spend its revenue to meet the problems like unemployment, poverty and population explosion.

The development programmes of the Government did not generate additional revenue from taxation. The income from public sector undertakings was insufficient. At times, the external borrowing was spent on meeting consumption needs. Sufficient attention was not given to reduce such expenditure and boost our exports to pay for the growing imports.

In the late 1980’s the Government expenditure started exceeding its revenue by huge margin. Even the borrowings were not enough to meet expenditure. Fiscal deficit rose to 8.5 percent of GDP.

Current account deficit in external balance rose to 2.5 percentage, rise in prices of essential goods, sharp increase in imports, sharp decline in foreign exchange reserves, erosion of international confidence etc., were other major problems.

India approached World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF) for loan. The country receives 7 billion as loan to manage the crisis.

These international agencies laid down certain conditions for loan. India was directed to liberalise and open up the economy. This was be achieved through removal of restrictions on the private sector, reducing the role of the Government in many areas and removal of restrictions in foreign trade.

India agreed to the conditions laid down by the World Bank and International Monetary Fund. The then prime minister Shri. P. V.Narasimha Rao and finance minister Dr.Man mohan Singh formulated a package of economic policy reforms. The new economic policy (NEP) was announced in July 1991.

It consisted wide range of economic reforms. The main thrust of the policy was to create a more competetive environment in the economy and removing the barriers to entry and growth of firms.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Explain the liberalization measures introduced in Industrial and Financial Sectors since 1991?
Answer:
The important areas where liberalisation measures were introduced in and after 1991 are given below:
a. Deregulation of Industrial Sector:
Industrial Sector was the first to attract the attention of the reforms. The reforms introduced
in and after 1991 removed restrictions which were prevailing in this sector. Industrial licensing was abolished for all industries except for few industries related to

  • security
  • strategy and
  • environmental concerns.

The number of industries reserved for the public sector have been reduced from 17 to 2. The only two industiy which are now reserved for the public sector are

  • atomic energy generation aid
  • railway transport.

The Government left all other industries to private sector.

b. Financial Sector Reforms:
Financial Sector includes financial institutions such as commercial banks, investment bank, stock exchange operations and foreign exchange market. This sector is controlled by the RBI, through various norms and regulations. One of the major aims of the financial sector reforms is to reduce the role of RBI from regulator to take their own decisions on several matters. Banks are given freedom to their own interest rates.

c. Tax Reforms :
Tax reforms relate to reforms in Government’s taxation and public expenditure policy (fiscal policy). Taxes are of two types, namely,

  • Direct taxes
  • Indirect taxes

d. Foreign Exchange Reforms:
The deliberate reduction of the value ofrupee against foreign currencies is called devaluation of rupee. This devaluation the prices of exports and at the same time, it increased the prices of imports this increases exports and reduce imports.

In 1991 as an immediate measure to resolve the balance of payments crisis, the rupee was devalued against foreign currencies. This led to increase in exports and in flow of foreign exchange

e. Reforms in Trade and Investment:
Tax on imports is one type of trade barriers. If the Government could place a limit on the number of goods that can be imprisoned, this is know as quotas. It is another type of barrier. Governments can use trade barriers to increase or decrease foreign trade. Since independence, Indian Government has put barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment. This was considered as necessary to protect our producers from foreign competition.

Question 3.
Write a short note on outsourcing?
Answer:
One of the important outcomes of globalisation is ‘outsourcing’. In outsourcing, a company hires service from external sources, mostly from other countries. It was earlier provided internally or within the country.

Outsourcing has intensified with the growth of information technology (IT). Many services such as voice based business process (Business process outsourcing, banking services, music recording, film editing, clinical advice, teaching, etc., are being outsourced by companies in developed countries to India).

Many companies are outsourcing their services to India due to lower cost, better skill and accuracy. The availability of skilled manpower at lower wages nowadays has made India a destination for global outsourcing.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
Mention any five financial sector Reforms of 1991.
Answer:
The major financial sector reforms introduced by Government of India in 1991 are as follows:

  • The role of RBI was made to facilitator of financial sector to financial controller.
  • Giving managerial autonomy to financial sector to take decisions.
  • Promotional schemes to establish private sector banks both Indian & foreign.
  • Increasing the foreign investment limit on banks to 50%
  • No more nationalization of banks.
  • Allowing the foreign institutional investors (Fils) like merchant bankers, mutual funds and pensions funds to invest in Indian financial market.

Question 5.
Write a note on Industrial Sector Reforms?
Answer:
1. Delicensing abolishing licensing system for starting industries which is applicable to all the industries but for products like alcohol, cigrates, hazardous chemicals, industrial explosives, electronics, aerospace and drugs and pharmaceuticals.

2.  To reduce number of industries relating to public sector and allowing private sector invest. There are only three industries reserved for public sector namely

  • production of defence equipments
  • atomic generation
  • railway transport

3. Dereserving the production of many products which meant for small scale industries.

4. Determination of prices of commodities produced by the industries through market forces i.e., demand and supply.

5. Following laissez faire policy i.e., minimizing the intervention of Government.

6. To increase and have liberalization of FDI.

Question 6.
Point out the Fiscal Policy Reforms (Tax Reforms).
Answer:
The fiscal policy reforms are the reforms introduced by the Government in respect of taxation, subsidies public borrowings etc., The major fiscal policy reforms are as follows:

  • Continuous reduction in tax rates on individual income in order to prevent tax evasion.
  • Gradual reduction of corporate tax.
  • Reducing Government expenditure by reducing the size of administration in the Government.
  • Reducing subsidies on food grains, chemical fertilizers, exports, etc.,

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
Increasing the tax revenue through bringing changes in Tax Structure.

  • Reduce maximum rate of Income tax.
  • To widen tax bases and introduce various schemes for small traders and re-traders.
  • To introduce service tax all over the country.
  • Proposal to introduced goods and service tax (GST) in place of VAT.

Question 8.
Write a note on Globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation refers to opening up economy for the world trade is called globalisation. In simple words it refers to encouraging the domestic entrepreneurs to invest abroad and at the same time allowing foreign entrepreneurs to invest in India.

  • Restriction is removed on the movement of goods, services capital and technology from other countries to India.
  • To get identification and recognition to Indian economy in the world market.
  • Approving and encouraging foreign direct investment into Indian economy.
  • Approving and encouraging movement of latest technology, goods, and services from others. countries to Indian economy.
error: Content is protected !!