1st PUC

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Karnataka 1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

समयः : 3 घण्टाः 15 निमेषाः
अङ्काः : 100

I. एकवाक्येन संस्कृतभाषया उत्तरं लिखत (1 × 10 = 10)

प्रश्न 1.
ब्रह्मणः ज्येष्ठपुत्रः कः?
उत्तरः
ब्रह्मणः ज्येष्ठपुत्रः अथर्वः।

प्रश्न 2.
त्यागे रामः केन समः?
उत्तरः
त्यागे रामः धनदेन समः।

प्रश्न 3.
कपिञ्जलः कुत्र वसति स्म?
उत्तरः
कपिञ्जलः कस्मिंश्चिदृक्षस्य अधस्तात्कोटरे वसति स्म।

प्रश्न 4.
हनूमतः पिता कः?
उत्तरः
हनूमतः पिता वायुः।

प्रश्न 5.
दशरथस्य कृते महर्षिभाषितं कीदृशम् अभूत्?
उत्तरः
दशरथस्य कृते महर्षिभाषितं सशल्यान्तःकरणोऽभूत्।

प्रश्न 6.
कन्यार्थेषु के गृहिणीनेत्राः भवन्ति?
उत्तरः
कुटुम्बिनः कन्यार्थेषु गृहिणीनेत्राः।

प्रश्न 7.
कुत्र अन्धकारः आवृतः?
उत्तरः
ज्यौतिषिकस्य कार्यक्षेत्रे अन्धकारः आवृतः।

प्रश्न 8.
गोपकन्यकाः दामोदरं वारयितुं कम् आकारयन्ति?
उत्तरः
गोपकन्यकाः दामोदरं वारयितुं संकर्षणम् आकारयन्ति ।

प्रश्न 9.
नभसोऽपि किं महत्?
उत्तरः
नभसोऽपि ब्रह्मा महत्।

प्रश्न 10.
वैशाली नाम पुरी कः प्रशशास?
उत्तरः
सेनजिदभिदो राजा वैशाली नाम पुरी प्रशास।

II. द्वित्रैः वाक्यैः संस्कृतभाषया – कन्नडभाषया – आङ्ग्लभाषया वा उत्तरं लिखत। (पञ्चानामेव) (2 × 5 = 10)

प्रश्न 11.
ब्रह्मविद्यायाः परम्परां लिखत ।
उत्तरः

Brahma, the creator of the universe and the sustainer of the world, was the first among the Gods. He told his eldest son Atharva about the knowledge of Brahman, the foundation of all knowledge. The knowledge of Brahman about which Brahma told Atharva, Atharva, in olden times, told Angir. Angir taught it to Satyavaha belonging to the clan of Bharadwaja and Satyavaha taught it in succession to Angirasa.

प्रश्न 12.
वायस-कपिञ्जलयोः कालः कथं गच्छति स्म?
उत्तरः
सदैवास्तमनवेलायांमगतयो वायस-कपिञ्जलयोः अनेक सुभाषितगोष्ठ्या देवर्षिब्रह्मर्षिराजर्षिभिः पुराणचरित कीर्तनेन च पर्यटनदृष्टानेककौतूहलप्रकथनेन च परमसुखनुभवतो कालो गच्छति स्म।

Every day, at sunset, the crow and Kapinjala would return home and tell each other stories about Rishis and such things, and talk over together what had happened during the day. In this way, they passed their time happily.

प्रश्न 13.
भीमसेनः हनूमतः विषये किं वदति?
उत्तरः

Bheemasena says thus about Hanuman: He was my brother, excellent in all accomplishments and endowed with both intelligence and strength. That handsome and foremost of monkeys is celebrated in the Ramayana.

प्रश्न 14.
मुनयः किमर्थं हिमवतः समीपम् आगताः?
उत्तरः

Shiva, who is the bestower of happiness on all, the witness of the doings of the world and the bestower of desired objects upon all, desired to marry Parvathi, the daughter of Himavan, the lord of the mountains. Hence, the divine sages go to Himavan with a marriage proposal on behalf of Lord Shiva.

प्रश्न 15.
सुभाषितोक्तरीत्या लोकस्थितिः कीदृशी?
उत्तरः

Courtesy towards his own people (kinsmen), kindness to others, toughness with wicked people, love for good people, diplomacy with royal people, simplicity with the learned, courage against enemies, patience with elders, respect to women – thus, those men skilled in the fine arts become responsible for the permanence of the world.

प्रश्न 16.
‘श्री’ महोदयस्य शिष्यवात्सल्यम् ।
उत्तरः

The love of ‘Shri’ for his students remained unparalleled. He always encouraged bright and talented students by praising them. Prof. A.N. Murthyrao, the popular Kannada writer, was a student par excellence of Shri. When he was his student he would show all the articles written by him in English to his teacher. Seeing the articles, Shri was surprised. Having read the articles, in the classroom he praised the student wholeheartedly thus:”This kind of excellent composition is not possible even from me”.

प्रश्न 17.
कूडलसङ्गम प्रसादनस्य पद्धतिः का?
उत्तरः

The root of religion is compassion. Indeed God has given us water, food, air and other enjoyments primarily due to compassion for us. We are incapable of returning the favour. Hence, we must show compassion for all creatures. Only then Kudalasangamadeva, who is found in all creatures of this universe, will be pleased.

III. पाठनाम उल्लिख्य श्लोकानाम् अनुवादं कन्नडभाषया आङ्ग्ल-भाषया वा कुरुत (त्रयाणाम एव) (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 18.
मृदुश्च स्थिरचित्तश्च सदा भव्योऽनसूयकः।
प्रियवादी च भूतानां सत्यवादी च राघवः॥
उत्तरः

Sri Rama (a scion of Raghu) is gentle and stable of mind, ever gracious and uncapping speaks kindly to all living beings and is veracious too.

प्रश्न 19.
उत्तिष्ठ देहि मे मार्गं पश्य वा मेऽद्य पौरुषम्।
मच्छासनमकुर्वाणं त्वां वा नेष्ये यमक्षयम् ॥
उत्तरः

Arise, therefore, give me the way or witness my prowess today. If you fail to do what I say, I shall send you to the abode of Yama.

प्रश्न 20.
एते वयममी दाराः कन्येयं कुलजीवितम् ।
ब्रूत येनात्र वः कार्यं अनास्था बाह्यवस्तुषु ॥
उत्तरः

Here I am, here is my wife; here is my daughter, who is the life of my family. Tell me which ne of us you want to be at your service. Or else, our wealth has no worth.

प्रश्न 21.
चलन्ति गिरयः कामं युगान्तपवनाहताः।
कृच्छ्रेऽपि न चलत्येव धीराणां निश्चलं मनः॥
उत्तरः

Even the hills and mountains waver when hit by destructive hurricanes. But, the steady minds of great people will not waver even when faced with difficulties.

प्रश्न 22.
तृणानि भूमिरुदकं वाक् चतुर्थी च सूनृता।
एतानि तु सतां गेहे नोच्छिद्यन्त कदाचत ॥
उत्तरः

Grass, land, water, words which are truthful are all found in the houses of virtuous or noble people and they are never uprooted. (The above verse is found in Vishnusharma’s ‘Panchatantra’ (1-181). Once a monk by name Devasharma was looking for a place for an overnight stay in an unknown village. He found the house of a carpenter and started thinking thus – “One can nourish the cattle by grass, food grains by ploughing the land and supplying water to fertile lands. Thus, in whose house these three benefits are there such a house would be prosperous. Along with these, where the owner of the house has pleasant speech and treats the guests well in such a house one can live happily.)

IV. पाठनाम उल्लिख्य कः कं प्रति अवदत्? इति – संस्कृतभाषया लिखत (चतुर्णामेव)। (4 × 2 = 8)

प्रश्न 23.
सर्वमिदं विज्ञातं भवतीति।
उत्तरः
इदं वाक्यं ‘द्वे विद्ये वेदितव्ये’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम् ।
वाक्यमिदं महाशालं शौनकः अङ्गिरसं प्रति अवदत् ।

प्रश्न 24.
यो हीनवादी स ते भक्ष्यः।
उत्तरः
इदं वाक्यं ‘विवादः विनाशाय’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम् ।
इदं वाक्यं कपिञ्जल शीघ्रगौ तीक्ष्णदंष्ट्रो नाम अरण्यमार्जारं प्रति अवदताम् ।

प्रश्न 25.
व्यापदनीया त्वयेति।
उत्तरः
इदं वाक्यं ‘महर्षिवचनपालनम्’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम्।
इदं वाक्यं विश्वामित्रः श्रीरामं प्रति अवदत्।

प्रश्न 26.
अत्यन्तं श्रान्तोऽसि।
उत्तरः
इदं वाक्यं ‘ज्यौतिषिकस्य दिनम्’ इति गद्यभागात् उद्धृतम् ।
वाक्यंमिदं ज्यौतिषिकः गुरुनायकं प्रति अवदत् ।

प्रश्न 27.
नागं मे वशं करोमि।
उत्तरः
इदं वाक्यं ‘सान्तःपुरः शरणागतोऽस्मि’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम्।
इदं वाक्यं दामोदरः संकर्षणं प्रति अवदत्।

प्रश्न 28.
अहो धिङ् मां इमौ स्वार्थिनौ सखायौ।
उत्तरः
इदं वाक्यं ‘सन्मित्रम्’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम् ।
इदं वाक्यं देवव्रतः स्वमनसि अचिन्तयत्।

V. दशवाक्यैः संस्कृतभाषया कन्नडभाषया, आङ्ग्लभाषया वा लघुटिप्पणीः लिखत। (चतुर्णामेव) (5 × 4 = 20)

प्रश्न 29.
मार्जारस्य धर्मोपदेशः।
उत्तरः

A wild tomcat, by the name of Teekshadaunstra, came to know about their dispute. He went and stood in their path, on the bank of the river. In his paw, he held a blade of Kusha grass. He closed his eyes, stood on his hind legs, facing the sun, and began giving a discourse on morals.

“Ah! Life is transitory and this world is futile. The company of loved ones is nothing but a dream and the presence of the family like the trick of a conjurer. They say:
Our bodies are perishable And even our money does not last forever, We face death continually, So we must live according to the Shastras. A man who passes his days irreligiously, Is like an ironsmith’s bellows Which breaths, yet has no life!
“Why make a long story of it? I’ll tell you what religion is, in a nutshell. To do good to others is virtuous but harming others is a sin.”

I have given up that violent way of life which leads directly to hell. The sages have declared non-violence to be the essence of true religion. It’s wrong to kill even lice, bugs and mosquitoes.

प्रश्न 30.
भीमसेनस्य पात्रचित्रणम् ।
उत्तरः

Bheema is one of the most famous characters in the epic ‘Mahabharata’. Bheema was the second of the Pandavas. He was born of Kunti. However, his father was Vayu. When Draupadi, during their exile in the forest, wanted to have the Saugandhika flower, it was Bheema who volunteered to search for it. This shows his love for his wife.

As he goes in search of the flower he finds a monkey sitting coolly, blocking his way. Bheema asks the monkey to move out of his way. But, the monkey says that being told he has no strength to move and asks Bheema to leap over him and go. But, Bheema replies that it is disrespectful to an elder, otherwise, he would have jumped over him. This shows that Bheema was not only modest but also had good knowledge of the scriptures.

प्रश्न 31.
ताटकावधसन्दर्भे श्रीरामस्य सन्देहः कः? सः कथं निवारितः।
उत्तरः

Once, after Sunda was killed, Maricha committed an outrage against sage Agastya and was turned into a demon by his curse. Tataka also became a man-eater. She got the strength of a thousand elephants by a boon of the lotus-born, Brahma, and together with her son, began causing calamities to the countries. Now, she is to be slain by you.

Hearing this, Rama had a doubt about killing a woman. But, Viswamitra cited the example of Manthara, daughter of Virochana, being killed by Indra for her crimes against the earth, and also that of Bhargava’s (sage Sukra’s) mother i.e., the wife of Bhrugu, being killed by the Lord Vishnu. He thus removed Rama’s great perplexity about the killing of Tataka. Rama gave word to kill Tataka.

प्रश्न 32.
ज्यौतिषिकस्य पूर्वजीवनवृत्तान्तः।
उत्तरः

The astrologer was devoid of any professional training. During his youth, he used to drink, gamble and quarrel. He had left his village without any prior thought or plan. If he had continued there he would have carried on the work of his forefathers namely, tilling the land. Once he hit a fellow villager hard on his head and assuming the person dead, he pushed him into a well. To hide from the police he ran away and settled as an astrologer in a small town. Even though he lacked training, he had all the shrewdness and understanding of the human mind and the causes of human worries. That is why he could answer the questions of his clients convincingly.

प्रश्न 33.
‘सान्तःपुरः शरणागतोऽस्मि’ इति पाठस्य शीर्षिकां समर्थयत।
उत्तरः
‘सान्तःपुरः शरणागतोऽस्मि’ इति पाठ्यभागे दामोदरः दुष्टमहोरगस्य कालियस्य गर्वभङ्गं कथं करिष्यतीति वर्णितमस्ति। एकदा दामोदरः मित्रै सह यमुनाह्रदं गच्छति। कालियोनाम दुष्टमहोरगः परिवारेण सह यमुनाह्रदं प्रविश्य वसति स्म। कालियविषेण यमुनाजलं विषयुक्तं भवति। गोकुलवासिन्यश्च सर्वाः जीवराशयः महासंकष्टान् अनुभवन्ति। व्याघ्रा वराहा हस्तिनः हृदस्य पानीयं पीत्वा तत्र तत्रैव विम्रियन्ते। एतद्विषयं ज्ञात्वा दामोदरः कालियमर्दनं कर्तुं निश्चिनोति। तदा कालियः स्वभोगेन प्रहारं करोति। दामोदरः कालियस्य मूर्धाञ्चितैकचरणः चलबाहुकेतुः हल्लीसक नाम नृत्यं करोति। यदा कालियस्य गर्वभङ्गं भवति तदा सः सपरिवारो क्षमा याचति अभयं च। दामोदरः यमुनाहृदं त्यक्त्वा गन्तुं आदिशति सोऽपि तस्य अभयं प्राप्त्वा सपरिवारो यमुनाह्रदं त्यक्त्वा गच्छति।

In the play ‘सान्तःपुरः शरणागतोऽस्मि’ Lord Damodara breaks the pride of the wicked serpent by name Kaliya. Once, Lord Damodara along with his friends went to the river Yamuna. The wicked serpent by name Kalia resided there along with his family. The water of the river Yamuna was contaminated due to the poison of Kaliya. The residents of Gokula faced problems due to this. Damodara, having learnt about this, made up his mind to break the pride of Kalia. Seeing Damodara, Kaliya became very angry and tried to seize him in his coils.

Damodara immediately pressed down the serpent’s hood and jumped up on them and waving his arms like flags he performed the dance called Hallisaka. Then the serpent fell at Damodara’s feet and begged his pardon. Damodara took pity on him and told him to leave the river Yamuna along with his family. Finally, having sucked the poison from the river Yamuna, Kaliya went away along with his family. Thus the title ‘सान्तःपुरः शरणागतोऽस्मि ‘ is appropriate.

प्रश्न 34.
देवव्रत – चन्द्रधरयोः मैत्री वर्णयत।
अथवा
‘श्री’ महोदयस्य कन्नडसेवा।
उत्तरः

On the way, Devavrata saw Chandradhara, his childhood friend. He had never been honoured. He became extremely happy seeing Devavrata. Being disappointed with his friends, Devavrata.entered the house of Chandradhara. Chandradhara offered him a seat and water for washing his hands and feet. The happiness experienced by Chandradhara was inexplicable.

Having heard his story Chandradhara consoled him Ignoring the order of the king he said, Oh friend, if for saving the life of my learned friend my life is at stake, then also I will not swerve from the path of my duty (responsibility). My relatives consider it as my luck if life is given up: for the sake of a friend. In reality, a friend alone is very important on this earth (in this world)’. Thus, he honoured his friend in his difficulty.
अथवा

B.M. Srikantaiah was the foremost among the scholars who laid a strong foundation for the study of Kannada language, literature and culture during the first few decades of the 20th century. His contribution is significant not merely because of his personal writings, but also due to the sense of direction and commitment that he gave to generations of scholars. He was responsible for building a dedicated band of creative writers and scholars who strived hard to realize his dreams and added many new dimensions to his ideas.

His great desire was that the youth must engage themselves in the cause of Kannada. He arranged seminars for the sake of students. Under his editorship, the “Mysore Viswavidyanilaya Granthamala” was established to enable common people lay their hands on stories, different forms of poetry, plays and works on criticism. He brought out books relating to knowledge and science that helped the people immensely.

Before independence, the Britishers used English as the administrative language. Everywhere English was used. Just as sage Kanva brought Sakuntala, who was abandoned by her parents and who was looked after by birds and beasts in the forest, to the hermitage and brought her up, similarly Shri nourished the Kannada language which was in a miserable condition, enriched it and reinstated it to its original position. Thus, he served Kannada.

VI. एतासां कृतीनां कवीनां नाम सूचयत (संस्कृतभाषया)। (5 × 1 = 5)

प्रश्न 35.

1. रामायणम् ।
2. नैषधीयचरितम्।
3. पञ्चतन्त्रम्।
4. दशकुमारचरितम्।
5. मेघदूतम्।

उत्तरः

1. वाल्मीकिः
2. श्रीहर्षः
3. विष्णुशर्मा
4. दण्डिः
5. कालिदासः

प्रश्न 36.
दशवाक्यैः संस्कृतभाषया, कन्नडभाषया, आङ्ग्लभाषया वा लघु टिप्पणिं रचयत। (एकस्य) (5 × 1 = 5)

i) उपनिषदः।
उत्तरः
भूमिका
अथवा
ii) पुराणानि।
उत्तरः
भूमिका

VII. मझूषातः सूक्तं पदं चित्वा रिक्तंस्थानं पूरयत। (1 × 3 = 3)

संसारः, प्रथमः, रक्षिता

प्रश्न 37.

1. ब्रह्मा देवानां ………… सम्बभूव ।
2. ………… स्वस्य धर्मस्य।
3. असारोऽयं ………..। VII. संयोजयत –

उत्तरः

1. प्रथमः
2. रक्षिता
3. संसारः

प्रश्न 38.
अ – आ
i) विश्वामित्रः – अ) महाकाव्यम्
ii) कुमारसम्भवम् – आ) गाधिनन्दनः
iii) सङ्कर्षणः – इ) हृदः
iv) यमुना – ई) बलरामः
उत्तरः
i – आ; ii – अ; iii – ई; iv – इ।

IX. रेखाङ्कितानि पदानि आश्रित्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत (द्वयोः) (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 39.

1. ते परिसररक्षणम् आद्यं कर्तव्यं मन्यन्ते स्म ।
2. सकलेष्वपि प्राणिषु दया आपेक्ष्यते।
3. मङ्गलालङ्कृतां सुताम् आददे।

उत्तरः

1. ते किम् आद्यं कर्तव्यं मन्यन्ते स्म?
2. सकलेष्वपि प्राणिषु किम् अपेक्ष्यते?
3. मङ्गलालंकृतां काम् आददे?

X. एतेषाम् उपप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतभाषया लिखत (षण्णामेव) (6 × 2 = 12)

प्रश्न 40.
सन्धिं विभजत (द्वयोः)
देवासुरः, बहून्यहानि, तुल्योऽहम् ।
उत्तरः

• देवासुरः = देव + असुरः।
• बहून्यहानि = बहूनि + अहानि ।
• तुल्योऽहम् = तुल्यो + अहम् ।

प्रश्न 41.
सन्धिं योजयत (द्वयोः)
सर्वस्य + औषधम्, पिशित + अशनः, यावत् + निशासमये।
उत्तरः

• सर्वस्य + औषधम् = सर्वस्यौषधम् ।
• पिशित + अशनः = पिशिताशनः ।
• यावत् + निशासमये = यावन्निशासमये ।

प्रश्न 42.
रिक्तस्थाने सूक्तं विभक्तिरूपं लिखत। (द्वयोः)

1. इमाम् इमे ………. ।
2. तृणं …………. तृणानि।
3. ……… मुनि मुनयः।

उत्तरः

1. इमाः
2. तृणे
3. मुनिः

प्रश्न 43.
रिक्तस्थाने सूक्तं क्रियापदरूपं लिखत। (द्वयोः)

1. रक्षतु रक्षताम् …………..।
2. भवेयम् …………. भवेम।
3. ………… आस्ताम आसन्।

उत्तरः

1. रक्षन्तु
2. भवेव
3. आसीत्

प्रश्न 44.
विग्रहवाक्यं लिखत। (द्वयोः)
अनित्यानि, सूर्यातपः, महावीर्यः।
उत्तर:

• अनित्यानि = न नित्यानि।
• सूर्यातपः = सूर्यस्य आतपः।
• महावीर्यः = महत् वीर्यं यस्य सः।

प्रश्न 45.
समस्तपदं लिखत। (द्वयोः)
भूतानां योनिः, शास्त्रेषु विहितम्, पीवरा तनुः यस्य सः।
उत्तरः

• भूतानां योनिः = भूतयोनिः।
• शास्त्रेषु विहितम् = शास्त्रविहितम् ।
• पीवर तनुः यस्य सः = पीवरतनुः।

प्रश्न 46.
पदपरिचयं कुरुत (द्वयोः)
गत्वा, निरीक्षितुम्, अथ।
उत्तरः

• गत्वा – क्त्वान्ताव्ययम।
• निरीक्षितुम् = तुमुन्नन्ताव्ययम् ।
• अथ = अव्ययम्।

प्रश्न 47.
समानार्थकपदं लिखत।
दुहिता, सचिवः।
उत्तरः

• दुहिता = तनया।
• सचिवः = अमात्यः।

प्रश्न 48.
विरुद्धार्थकपदं लिखत।
स्वदेशः, स्थावरः।।
उत्तरः

• स्वदेशः = विदेशः।
• स्थावरः = जङ्गमः।

XI. संस्कृतभाषया अनुवदत – (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 49.

प्रश्न 50.
कन्नडभाषया आङ्ग्लभाषया वा अनुवदत। (1 × 4 = 4)

XII. परिच्छेदमिमं पठित्वा प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखत – [4]

प्रश्न 51.
कविकुलगुरुरिति विख्यातः महाकविः कालिदासः गुप्तनृपाणाम् आस्थाने अविद्यत। सः सरस्वतीसेवया कवित्वे नैपुण्यम् अलभत। तेन विरचितं काव्यद्वयं महाकाव्यमिति प्रसिद्धिं प्राप्नोत् । तथैव त्रीणि नाटकानि तस्मै विख्यातिम् अदापयन्। अपि च द्वे खण्डकाव्ये सहृदयान् समाकर्षयताम्। तस्य कृतिभिः संस्कृतसाहित्यक्षेत्रं समृद्धं जातम्। एवं कविषु कालिदासः नभसि चन्द्रमा इव अशोभत। अतः अद्यापि कवयः कालिदासं बहादरेण पश्यन्ति।

प्रश्नाः

1. कालिदासः किमिति विख्यातः?
2. कालिदासः केषाम् आस्थाने आसीत्?
3. सः सरस्वतीसेवया किम् अलभत?
4. कालिदासस्य कृतिभिः किम् जातम्?

उत्तरः

1. कालिदासः कविकुलगुरुरिति विख्यातः।
2. कालिदासः गुप्तनृपाणाम् आस्थाने आसीत्।
3. सः सरस्वतीसेवया कवित्वे नैपुण्यम् अलभत।
4. कालिदासस्य कृतिभिः संस्कृतसाहित्यक्षेत्रं समृद्धं जातम्।

Students can Download Economics Chapter 1 Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 1 Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence

1st PUC Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What was the state of agriculture in mid-eighteenth century in India?
Answer:
a. In mid-eighteenth century agriculture was the main source of livelihood, land was in abundance and the population was limited. So most of the people were engaged in agriculture. The surplus over the family requirements was exchanged with other commodities of requirements.

b. The fanners mainly produced food grains for their survival. The production of cash crops, such as jute, cotton, sugarcane, etc., was limited.

c. Production for the market was not the idea behind farming.

d. Methods and techniques of production were old and backward. It involved more physical work for people and animals.

e. Agricultural society was predominantly feudal in character. The cultivators used to pay land revenue to the rulers. There was heavy rate of land revenues Very little was left with the peasants after their hard labour.

Industrial base was allowed to come up to be pride place so long enjoyed by the farmer.

1. Low erade modern industrial structure:
The progress of modem industry remained very slow. British meters neither permitted modernisation of industries nor they encouraged the growth of heavy industries in India.

2. Lacking of capital goods industries:
Capital goods were lacking. There was hardly any capital goods industry to help or promote further industrialisation in India. There were a few manufacturing units here and there. But they were no substitute to the near wholesale displacement of the country’s traditional handicraft industry.

3. Limited operation of the public sector:
Another significant drawback of the new industrial reach was the very limited area of operation of the public sector. This sector remained confined only to the railways, power generation, communication, ports, and some other departmental undertakings.

Question 2.
What was two fold motive behind systematical industrialisation effected by British in pre-independence India?
Answer:
The twofold motive behind systematical industrialisation effected by British are following:

1. To make India exporter of raw material.
2. To turn India into major consumer of finished goods.

Question 3.
What objectives did the British intend to achieve through their policies of infrastructure development in India?

OR

What were the objectives of British Government in bringing about infrastructure change in the Indian economy?
Answer:
Under the colonial period, there was development of roads, railways, ports, water transport, posts, and telegraphs. The motive behind this development was not to provide basic amenities to the people but to serve colonial interest in the construction of roads to serve the interest of mobilising the army within India and drawing out raw materials from the countryside to the nearest railway station or the port to send these to faraway England and other countries.

There always remained an acute shortage of all weather roads to reach into the rural areas during the rainy season. The Britishers introduced railways in India in 1853. It is the most important contribution of Britishers in India. The railway affected the structure of Indian economy in many ways. It helped the people go to distant places and in commercialisation of agriculture.

The volume of India’s, foreign trade expanded but its benefits rarely reached the Indian people. The colonial rule also developed the Indian waterways. The introduction and expansion of electric telegraph system in India served the purpose of maintaining law and order. The postal services served a useful public purpose.

Question 4.
Name some modern industries which were operation in our country at the time of independence?

OR

List some modem industries which were in operation during the British rule?
Answer:
At the time of independence, there were cotton and jute textile mills in India, the cotton textile mills were located in the western parts of India namely Maharashtra and Gujarat. The jute mills were mainly concentrated in Bengal, the iron and steel industry began coming up in the beginning of 20^thcentury. There were few other industries like sugar, cement, paper, etc., at the time of independence.

Question 5.
What was the two-fold motive behind his systematic de-industrialisation effected by the British pre-independence India?

OR

How was the systematic de-industrialisation done in pre-independence era?
Answer:
Before independence, India’s industries were very famous throughout the world. Under the colonial rule, the country’s world famous handicraft industries declined. The primary motive of the colonial Government behind the policy of systematically de-industrialising india was two fold.

1. The intention was first to reduce India to the status of a mere exporter of important raw material for the industries in Britain.

2. To turn India into a market of finished product of those industries which were established in Britan. At the time of independence, there were very few industries in India. The systematic de-industrialisation created unemployment in India.

Question 6.
The traditional handicrafts industries were ruined under British rule. Do you agree with this view? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
Durihg the British rule country’s world famous handicraft industries declined. These handicrafts were very famous throughout the world. These traditional handicrafts got set back during the colonial rule. The Britishers wanted materials for the upcoming modem industries in Britain. They wanted to turn India into a sprawling market for the finished products of those same industries to ensure their continuous expansion to the maximum advantage of their native home country.

Question 7.
What objectives did the British intend to achieve through their policies of infrastructure development in India?
Answer:
Objective to be achieved through the policies of infrastructure development under the colonial regime Basic infrastructure such as railway, ports, water transport, posts, and telegraph developed. The main objectives of development of these structure were as follows:

1. Mobilising the army:
Roads were built for mobilising the army with in India.

2. Drawing out raw materials:
The roads we built for drawing out raw materials from the countryside to the nearest railway station or the port to send these to faraway England.

3. Earning profits:
For earning profits through foreign trade railways were linked as with major ports and marketing centres.

4. Effective control on administration:
Improper administration and military centres were linked through railway lines for having effective control and administration over the vast Indian territory.

Question 8.
Critically appraise some of the short falls of industrial policy pursued by the British colonial administration.
Answer:
Following were some of the short falls of industrial policy pursued by the British colonial administration.
1. De-industrialisation:
India could not develop a sound industrial base under the colonial rule. Even the country’s world famous handicraft industries declined. No corresponding modem.

Question 9.
What do you understand by the drain of Indian wealth during the colonial period?
Answer:
Dadabhai Naoroji propounded the theory of ‘Drain of Wealth’ in the 19^th century. The colonial period was characterized by the exploitation of Indian resources. The primary motive of Britain was to own a perennial source of cheap raw material to feed its own industrial base in Britain.

On the other hand, income of Indians was spent on expensive imports of finished goods from Britain which made Britain richer at the expense of India. Further, British Government used India’s manpower to spread its colonial base outside India. Indians served in the British army at lower salaries than their British counterparts.

Also, the expenses of war and administrative expenses that were incurred by the British Government to manage the colonial rule in India were drawn from the revenue collected from Indians and the export surplus generated through foreign trade of India. Thus, the British rule drained out Indian wealth for the fulfillment of its own interests.

Question 10.
What was the motive behind the infrastructure development during the British rule?
Answer:
The real motive behind the development of roads, railways, ports, water transports, post and telegraph, etc was not to provide basic amenities to the people but to serve various colonial interests.

Question 11.
Give a quantitative appraisal of India’s demographic profile during the colonial period.
Answer:
India’s demographic conditions during the British rule depict our economy as stagnant and backward. Due to high birth rate and high death rate the population growth was stagnant before 1921, the Infant Moratality Rate was also very high at about 218 per thousand which today stands at 47.57 per thousand. The life expectancy rate was low at 32 years while presently, it is around 66.8 years.

The literacy rate was less than 16% with female literacy rate of just 7% which denotes social backwardness and gender bias in the economy. We can infer from the above figures that India was featured with massive poverty, low standard and quality of living and low survival rate in the country. The lack of health care facilities and lack of health awareness were the main causes behind such demographic conditions of India.

Question 12.
Highlight the salient features of Indian pre-independence occupational structure?
Answer:
Features of India’s pre-independence occupational structure. The following were the features of India’s pre-independence occupational structure.

1. Pre-dominance of agricultural sector:
During pre-independence period agriculture was pre-dominant About 85% population of the country lived mostly in villages and.derived their livelihood directly or indirectly from agriculture.

2. Regional variation:
There was growing regional variation The cotton textile mills mainly dominated by Indian’s were located in western parts of the country namely Maharashtra and Gujarat. The jute mills dominated by foreigners were mainly concentrated in Bengal.

3. Unbalanced growth:
There was unbalanced growth in the economy. All the sectors of the economy were not growing equally during the second half of the 19^th century. Modem industry began to take root in India but its progress remained Very slow. There was hardly any capital goods industry to help and promote further industrialisation in India the growth of the new industrial sector and its contribution.

Question 13.
Underscore some of India’s most crucial economic challenges at the time of independence.
Answer:
The exploitative colonial rale created a damaging effect on almost every sphere of Indian Economy. As a result, India faced major economic challenges at the time of independednce such as:
1. Low Agricultural Productivity:
During the colonial rule Indian agricultural sector was exploited by the British to serve their own interest. As a result, Indian agricultural sector experienced stagnation, low level of productivity and lack of investment in technology, fertilizers and irrigation facilities. This resulted in poor condition of landless farmers and peasants. Commercialization of agriculture created shortage of food gains in India.

Thus, the immediate concern for India was to develop its agricultural ., sector and its productivity to become self – reliant and ensure food security for people. Some v of the immediate reforms needed at die time of independence were abolition of zamindari system, heed of land reforms, reducing inequality of land ownership and upliftment of the peasant’s apart from increasing the use of fertilizers and better technology.

2. Under-developed Industrial Sector:
India Med to develop a sound industrial base during the colonial rule. There was a need of huge capital investments, infrastructure, human skills, technical know – how and modern technology for industrialization. Further, due to stiff competition from the British industries, India’s domestic industries had failed to sustain.

Thus, development of small scale and large scale industries simultaneously while facing capital shortage was matter of concern for india. The need to increase the share of industrial sector to India’s GDP was one of the important economic challenges for India.

3. Inadequate Infrastructure:
Although, the British brought about significant infrastructural development in the country, but k was done only for serving their interests and was not sufficient to improve the performance of Agricultural and industrial sector in the country. Also, there was a need to upgrade and to modernize the existing infrastructure to enhance connectivity.

4. Poverty and inequalities
India was trapped in the vicious circle of poverty and inequality. The colonial rule drained out a significant portion of India’s wealth to Britain. Consequently, majority of India’s population was living in abject poverty. Economic inequalities were present across the country due to the different economic classes that had emerged due to British policies like zamindari system.

Question 14.
What do you mean by Colonialism?
Answer:
The practice of acquiring colonies by conquest or other means and making them dependent was one of the ways to extend political and economic life of areas outside its borders.

Question 15.
Indicate the volume and direction of trade at the time of Independence?
Answer:
Before independence India had extensive trade relations with other countries of Asia and Europe. India’s exports were cotton textiles, raw silk, and silk fabrics. Indigo, rice, wheat, sugar, Pepper and spices, precious stones.

Lac, mica, opium, and drugs Imports consisted of pearls, Wool, dates, dry fruits, glass, iron and steel, copper, lead, tinhorn paper, perfumes, etc., The cotton textile of India enjoyed a worldwide reputation and the demand for cotton textiles was all over the world. India exported more than it imported it had a favorable balance of trade, large quantities of gold and silver flowed into India. India enjoyed a very important and unique position in world trade.

Question 16.
Were there any positive contribution made by the British in India? Discuss.

OR

Discuss the positive contribution of the British Rule in India?
Answer:
The contribution of the British rule can be studied as follows:

1. Development of means of transport, especially railway and communication.
2. Political and economic unification of the country.
3. Evolution of banking and monetary system.
4. Introduction of the modem techniques of production and management.
5. Evolution of new social order based on progressive ideas.
6. Stability, peace, and order.
7. Emergence of market economy and capital enterprise.
8. Introduction of new system of education.
9. Establishment of civil laws and courts.

1st PUC Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Tertiary Sector?
Answer:
Tertiary sector maybe defined as that sector which includes trade and commerce transport storage communication, trade, financing, etc.,

Question 2.
What is meant by subsistence agriculture?
Answer:
Subsistence agriculture means producing crops for self-consumption rather then for marketing.

Question 3.
Define occupational Structure?
Answer:
Occupational structure refers to distribution of working population across primary secondary and tertiary sectors of the country.

Question 4.
What do you mean by commercialization of Agriculture?
Answer:
Commericalization of agriculture means producing crops for the market rather then for self consumption.

Question 5.
What was the purpose of the British colonial rule in India?
Answer:
The sole purpose the British colonial rule in India was to reduce it into a Feeder economy for Great Britian’s own rapidly expending industrial base.

Question 6.
What is productivity in Agriculture?
Answer:
Productivity in agriculture means output per hectare of land.

Question 7.
Name the economists who estimated Indians per capita income during the colonial period?
Answer:
V.K.R.V. Rao, DadaBhaiNaoroji, Findlary Shilar, WilliamDigby, R.C.DesaiRao, etc,,

Question 8.
What type of Indian economy was at the time when Britishers came to India.
Answer:
Agriculture was the main source of income and livelihood for most people.

Question 9.
What was the main aim of the Zamindars?
Answer:
The main interest of the Zamindars was only to collect rent regardless of the economic condition of the cultivators causing immense misery and social tension.

Question 10.
What is meant by Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
Infant Mortality rate is death rate of children below the age of one year.

Question 11.
What was the main causes of stagnation-lathe agricultural sector during the British rule?
Answer:
The stagnation of the agricultural sector was caused mainly because of us systems of land settlement introduced by the colonial Government.

Question 12.
What is life expectancy?
Answer:
Life expectancy means average life of a person.

Question 13.
What was the state of secondary sector of the Indian economy on the era of independence?
Answer:
On the era of independence barely 9.0 percent of the working population in India was engaged in manufacturing industries etc. It suffered systematic destruction during British rule. It was largely due to discriminatory policy of the Government.

Question 15.
What was the adverse effect of partition at the time of independence?
Answer:
A sizeable portion of the undivided country’s highly irrigated and fertile land went to Pakistan.

Question 16.
What was the intension of the British regarding industrial development in India?
Answer:
The intention was to reduce India to the status of a mere exporter of important raw material, for the upcoming modem industries in British and to turn India into a market for the finished product.

Question 17.
When did India achieve Independence?
Answer:
India achieved independence on 15^th August 1947.

Question 18.
Why was the population growth rate not high before 1921?
Answer:
Poverty, malnutrition and poor health facilities were the main causes for slow growth rate of population.

Question 19.
Which industries were set up in India during the second half of the 19^th Century?
Answer:
Cotton and Jute Mills were set up in the Eastern part of the country which were dominated by the foreigners and textile industry in Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Question 20.
What are primary occupations?
Answer:
All activities connected with procuring gathering or producing things from material provided by nature are called primary occupation.

Question 21.
Which industries were set up in India after the second world war?
Answer:
Steel, sugar, cement, paper industries were set up in India after the second world war.

Question 23.
Name the first steel industry of India?
Answer:
The first iron and Steel company and Tata Iron Steel Company were established in Jamshedpur. The plant began production in 1912.

Question 24.
What activities are included in a Primary Sector?
Answer:
In primary sector occupations like gathering, fishing grazing or rearing of animals, agriculture, lumbering, mining, etc., are included.

Question 25.
What are Capital Goods Industries.
Answer:
Capital goods industries means industries which can produce machine tools used for producing articles for current consumption.

Question 26.
What is a Secondary Sector?
Answer:
The sector of the economy engaged in the manufacturing, processing, construction, electricity gas and water supply are known as secondary sector.

Question 27.
What factors are responsible for limited foreign trade of India.
Answer:
The restrictive policies of commodity, production, trade and tariff pursued by the colonial government adversely affected the structure, composition and volume of India’s foreign trade.

Question 28.
What was the objective of Britisers to develop roads in India?
Answer:
The roads that were built primarily serve the interests or mobilising the army within India and drawing out raw material from the countryside to the nearest railway station or the port.

Question 29.
When was India’s first official census operation undertaken?
Answer:
India’s first official census took place in 1881.

Question 30.
Why was half of India’s foreign trade restricted to Britain in pre-independence period?
Answer:
For all practical purposes Britain maintained a monopolistic control over India’s exports and imports as a result, more than half of India’s foreign trade was restricted to Britain.

Question 31.
What was the main characteristic of Indian Foreign trade throughout the colonial period?
Answer:
Throughout the colonial period there was the generation of a large export surplus.

Question 32.
Why is 1921 important year in demographic history of India?
Answer:
1921 is considered as the defining year before 1921 India was in the first stage of demographic transition, the second stage of transition started after 1921.

Question 33.
What are the invisible items of balance of Payment?
Answer:
Invisible items are services like tourism, transport by shipping or by airways and financing services such as insurance and banking. They also include gifts and interest profits and dividend.

Question 34.
What is Tariff?
Answer:
A tax or duty on import which can be Levied either on physical units eg. per tonne or on value Tariff may be imposed for a variety of reasons including to rise Government revenue, to protect domestic industry or law, wage, imports to boost domestic employment or to reduce a deficit on the balance of payment.

Question 35.
Write down the three causes which were responsible for the slow growth of population during colonial period?
Answer:
Poverty, malnutrition and poor health.

Question 36.
What is the first stage of demographic transition?
Answer:
In the first stage birth rate and death rate are high and there is very slow population growth and death rate is high because of lack of knowledge of disease prevention and cure and food shortages.

Question 37.
Which sector accounted for the large share of workforce during the colonial and what was its share?
Answer:
The agriculture sector accounted for the largest share of workforce during the colonial period and its share was 70-75 percent.

Question 38.
What is considered as the most important contribution of the Britishers?
Answer:
The introduction of railways in India is considered as the most important contribution of the Britishers.

Question 39.
What were the main characteristics of Indian economy before the British rule in India?
Answer:
The village community was self sufficient, had fairly developed system of handicraft trade relationship with outside world. Developed indigenous banking and a favourable balance of trade.

Question 40.
When were railways introduced in India?
Answer:
Railways were introduced in 1850.

Question 41.
When were the various details about the population of British first collected through a census.
Answer:
In 1881.

Question 42.
After how many years are census operation carried out in India?
Answer:
After every ten years.

Question 43.
When was India in the first stage of demographic transition?
Answer:
Before 1921 India was in the first stage of demographic transition.

Question 44.
When did the second stage of demographic transition begin in India?
Answer:
After 1921.

Question 45.
Name the various social development indicators?
Answer:
The various social development indicators are literacy level, public health facilities, life expectancy, low infant mortality rate.

Question 46.
How did the railways affect the structure of the Indian economy?
Answer:
The railways affected the structure of the Indian economy in two important ways First it enabled people to undertake long distance travel land thereby break geographicall and cultural barriers Secondly it fostered commercialisation of Indian agriculture.

Question 47.
When was the Tata Airlines established in India.
Answer:
Tata Airlines was established in 1932 in India.

Question 48.
Name the three land settlements formulated in India during the colonial period?
Answer:
The three land settlements formulated in India during the colonial period were

1. Zamindari system
2. Ryotwari system and
3. Mahalwari system

Question 49.
What caused immense misery and social tension among the cultivators during. colonial?
Answer:
Collecting rent from the cultivators by the zamindars regardless of their economic condition caused immense misery and social tension among the cultivators.

Question 50.
What is Muslin?
Answer:
Muslin is a type of cotton textile which its origin in Bengal particularly places in and around Dhaka (now the capital city of Bangladesh).

Question 51.
What is Mulmal?
Answer:
The finest variety of muslin was called Mulmal.

Question 52.
What is Per Capital Income?
Answer:
Per capita income is the average income per come It is calculated by dividing national income by population.
Per capita income = National income , Population

Question 53.
When did modern industry begin to take root in India?
Answer:
Modem industry began to take root in India during the second half of the 19^th century.

Question 54.
What does MuImalShahi/MalmalKhas imply to?
Answer:
Mulmal Shahi or Mulmal k has implied that it is worn by or fit for the royalty.

Question 55.
Where were cotton textiles located during the second half of the 19^th century? Who dominated those textile industries?
Answer:
Cotton industries were located in the western part of the country namely Maharashtra and Gujarat. Indian’s dominated the textiles.

Question 56.
In which part of India were jute mills mainly concentrated? By whom were those mills dominated?
Answer:
Jute mills were mainly concentrated in Bengal they were dominated by foreigners.

Question 57.
Where were jute mill concentrated?
Answer:
Jute mill were concentrated in Bengal.

Question 58.
By whom were jute mill situated in Bengal dominated in colonial rule?
Answer:
Jute mills situated in Bengal were dominated by foreigners.

1st PUC Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the impact of partition of agriculture at the time of independence?
Answer:
India’s agricultural production received a set back due to the country’s partition at the time of independence, sizeable portion of the undivided country’s highly irrigated and fertile land went to Pakistan which impacted adversely upon agricultural production The whole of the jute producing area become part of East Pakistan (Now Bangladesh). India’s jute industry suffered heavily for lack for raw materials.

Question 2.
What were the important features of Industries before the British rule in India?
Answer:
There were small production units in which machines and equipment were of old style. These production units produced goods in small quantities.

There was simple division of labour, division of work was restricted on the basic of caste There were very limited chance of discoveries inventions and innovations. The simple and cheap technique deprived us of industrial development.

Question 3.
How did the French traveller Bernier describe 17^th century Bengal?
Answer:
The French traveller Bernier describes 17^th century Bengal in the following way ‘The knowledge I have acquired of Bengal in two visits inclines me to believe that it is richer than Egypt. It exports, in abundance cotton and silk, rice, sugar, and butter. It produces amply for its own consumption wheat, vegetables, grains, food, alcohol and grains, fowls ducks and geese It has immense herds of pigs and fish, sheep and goats. Fish of every kind, it has in profusion.

Question 4.
State the various forms of colonial exploitation of the Indian economy during the British Raj.
Answer:
Various forms of colonial exploitation of the Indian economy during the British Raj are
1. Colonial exploitation of agriculture sector:
Agriculture was exploited though Zamindari system of land revenue. Zamindars were declared as owners of Land. They were to pay a fixed sum to the Government by way of land revenue They were free to extract as much as they wished from tillers of the soil.

2. Colonial exploitation of industrial sector:
Handicrafts dominated in Indian economy before British rule. They were system actically destroyed by allowing tariff-free import of machine made goods from Britain.

3. Colonial exploitation of international trade:
India’s international trade was exploited through discriminatory tariff policy, duty free export of Indian raw material and dutyfree import of British goods were encouraged for the benefit of British rule.

1st PUC Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were the main causes of Indian’s agricultural stagnation during the colonial period?
Answer:
India’s economy under British rule remained fundamentally agrarian. About 85 percent of the country population who lived mostly in villages was deriving their livelihood from agriculture. The productivity in agriculture during the British rule was low. There were certain factors responsible for it. They are:

1. The stagnation of agriculture sector was caused mainly because of the various systems of land settlement in India.

2. Under the Zamindari system which was introduced by the Britishers, the profits accuring out of the agricultural surplus went to the Zamindars instead of the cultivators.

3. The British Government did nothing to improve the condition of agriculture.

4. There was immense misery and social tension among the cultivators because of the exploitation by the zamindars.

5. Low level of technology, lack of irrigational facilities and the use of negligible amounts of fertilizers were also responsible for low production in agriculture.

Question 2.
What was the focus of the economic policies persued by the colonial government in India? What were the impacts of these policies?
Answer:
The focus of the economic policies persued by the colonial Government was the protection and promotion of economic interest of her home country. These policies intended to transform India into supplier of raw materials and consumer of finished industrial products from Britain.
Impact of policies:
The impacts of these policies were as under:

1. India become supplier of raw materials and consumer of finished goods produced in Britan.
2. The agriculture sector continued to experience stagnation and deterioration during British rule.
3. The vast majority of people in India led a miserable life.
4. Many of the cottage and small scale industries declined under the British rule.
5. More than half of India’s foreign trade was restricted to Britain.
6. The country’s growth of aggregate real output during the first half of the 20^th century was less than this percent.
7. There was hardly any capital goods industry to promote further industrialisation of India.
8. The contribution of new industrial sector to the gross domestic product remained very small.
9. The industrial sector cried for modernisation and diversification.
10. There was rampant poverty and unemployment.

Students can Download 1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

Time: 3.15 minutes
Max. Marks: 100

SECTION – A

I. Answer any eight questions. Each question carries one mark. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Accounting begins with the identification of transactions and ends with the preparation of Statements.
Answer:
Financial

Question 2.
A concept that a business enterprise will not be sold or liquidated in the near future is known as:
(a) Going Concern.
(b) Economic Entity.
(c) Monetary Unit.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Going Concern.

Question 3.
The process of recording transactions in Journal is called
Answer:
Journalising.

Question 4.
Ledger records transactions in
(a) Chronological order.
(b) Analytical order.
(c)Both a and b above.
(d)None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Chronological order.

Question 5.
Trial Balance is a Statement. (State True or False)
Answer:
True

Question 6.
A bill is drawn a 1/04/2017 for 3 months. Find out the date of Maturity.
Answer:
The maturity date of Bill is 4-6-2017.

Question 7.
How do you treat interest on capital while preparing Profit and loss account?
Answer:
How do you treat interest on capital is debited to profit and loss account

Question 8.
Why the Statement of Affairs is prepared?
Answer:
To find out capital i.e. both opening as well a/c losing capital.

Question 9.
Expand AIS.
Answer:
Accounting information system.

Question 10.
Give an example for Accounting Software.
Answer:
Tally, ERP.

SECTION – B

II. Answer any five questions. Each question carries two marks. (5 × 2= 10)

Question 11.
Define Accounting.
Answer:
“The art of recording classifying and summarising in a significant manner and in terms of money transactions event which are, in part atleast, of a financial character and interpreting the results there of “American certificed public accountants”.

Question 12.
What is Double Entry System?
Answer:
The system of making two sides in the books of each contracting party for recording a transactions completely called double entry system.

Question 13.
State the Rules of Debit and Credit of Assets Account.
Answer:
Debit what comes in credit what goes out.

Question 14.
Why the Bank Reconciliation Statement is prepared?
Answer:
To reconcile, two Balance i.e., Balance as per cash book, Balance as per pass book.

Question 15.
Purchase of Machinery for 25,000 has been entered in the Purchases Book. Give the Rectifying Entry.
Answer:
Machinery a/c Dr 25000
To purchase a/c 25000
(Being machinery purchased on credit wrongly entered in purchase book know rectified)

Question 16.
Name any two example of ‘Provision’.
Answer:

1. Provision for depreciation
2. Provision for taxation.

Question 17.
Give an example for Closing Entry.
Answer:
Trading a/c Dr XXX
To opening stock a/c XXX
(Being opening stock a/c closed by transferring to debit side of trading account)

Question 18.
What are the functional components of Computer System?
Answer:

• Input unit
• Untral processing unit
• Output unit

SECTION – C

III. Answer any four questions. Each question carries six marks. (4 × 6 = 24)

Question 19.
Classify the following Accounts into Assets, Liabilities, Capital, Revenue/Gains & Expenses/Losses:

Answer:
Cash a/c – Asset – Real A/c
Purchase a/c – Asset – Real A/c
Computer a/c – liability – personal a/c
Building a/c – Asset – Real a/c
Salary a/c – Expenses – Nominal A/c
Interestion investment a/c – Income – nominal a/c
Sales -a/c Assets – Real a/c
Liability-personal a/c
Liability- personal a/c
Asset-real A/c
Assets – personal a/c

Question 20.
Enter the following transactions in an Analytical Petty Cash Book:

Answer:

Question 21.
From the following transactions, prepare Purchases Book:

Answer:

Question 22.
From the following ledger balances, prepare the Trial Balance as on 31/03/2017:

Answer:

Question 23.
Compute cost of goods sold for the year 2017:

Answer:
Calculation of cost of goods sold for the year 2017:
Cost of goods sold = opening stock + Purchased + Direct expenses – closing stock
= 30,000 + 1,50,000 + (10,000 + 10,000) – 40,000
= 30,000 + 1,50,000 + 20,000 – 40,000
= 2,00,000 – 40,000
Cost of goods sold = ₹ 1,60,000
Note: Direct expenses includes both wages as well as carriage inwards.

Question 24.
Find out the Credit Sales by preparing Total Debtors A/c:

Answer:

Question 25.
Distinguish between Manual Accounting System and Computerised Accounting System.
Answer:

SECTION – D

IV. Answer any four questions. Each question carries twelve marks. (4 × 12 = 48)

Question 26.
Journalise the following transactions in the books of Shri Ganesh:


Answer:

Question 27.
From the following transactions, prepare Double Column Cash Book.

Answer:

Question 28.
From the following information, prepare Bank Reconciliation
Statement:

Answer:

Question 29
On 01/04/2013, Santosh Company Ltd. purchased a Plant costing ₹ 85,000 and spent ₹ 15,000 for its erection. On 31/03/2015, the Plant was sold ₹ 75,000. On 01/04/2015, a new Plant was purchased for ₹ 50,000. The firm charges depreciation @ 10% PA under Straight Line Method. Accounts are closed on 31^st March every year.
Prepare 1. Plant A/c and
2. Provision for Depreciation Ale for the first 4 years.
Answer:

Question 30.
On 01/04/2017, Prakash drew a Bill on Suresh for ₹ 50,000 payable after 3 months. Suresh accepted the Bill and returned it to Prakash. On the same date, Prakash endorsed the Bill to Ramesh: on the above date, the Bill is discounted by Ramesh @12% pa. On the due date the Bill is honoured.
Pass the Journal Entries in the books of Prakash, Suresh, and Ramesh.
Answer:


Note: No Journal entry in the books of endorser (Prakash) when the bill is honoured at the date of maturity.

Question 31.
From the following ledger balances and adjustments, prepare Trading Ale, Profit and Loss A/c and Balance Sheet.


Adjustments:

1. Closing Stock was valued at ₹4,000.
2. Depreciate furniture by 10% pa. and building by 15% pa.
3. Bad Debts written off ₹500.
4. Salary Outstanding ₹1,000

Answer:

Question 32.
Anand keeps his books under Single Entry System: From the following information, prepare Statement of Profit and loss and Revised Statement of Affairs as on 31/03/2017.

During the year, Anand withdrew ₹10,000 for his personal use and introduced a further capital of ₹7,500.
Adjustments:

1. Depreciate Machinery by 10% pa & Furniture by 12% pa.
2. Provide for Bad and Doubtful Debts @5% on Sundry Debtors
3. Prepaid Insurance ₹500.
4. Legal Expenses due but not paid ₹1,000.

Answer:

SECTION – E
(Practical Oriented Questions)

V. Answer any two questions. Each question carries five marks. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 33.
Write the Accounting Equation for each item and find the missing figure:

Answer:
a. Assets = Liabilities + Capital
1,00,000 = 60,000 + Capital
Capital = 100000 – 60000
Capital = ₹ 40,000
Formula to find out capital:
Capital = Assets – liabilities

b. Formula to find out liability
Assets – Capital = Liability
90,000 – 45,000 = 45,000
Liability = ₹ 45,000

c. Formula to find out assets
Assets = Liabilities + capital
= 24,000 + 56,000
Assets = ₹80,000

Question 34.
Prepare Machinery Ale for two years with imaginary figures under. Written Down Value Method.
Answer:

Question 35.
Write the accounting equations and find out the missing figures

Answer:
a. Assets – Liabilities = Capital
₹ 50,000 – ₹ 30,000 = ₹ 20,000

b. Asset = liabilities + Capital
₹ 45000 = ₹ 25,000 + ₹ 20,000

c. Liabilities = Assets – Capital
₹ 24,000 = ₹ 40,000 – ₹ 16,000

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Karnataka 1st PUC Political Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3.15 minutes
Max. Marks: 100

SECTION – A

I. Answer any 8 questions each carries 1 mark. (1 × 8 = 08)

Question 1.
What is accounting?
Answer:
Accounting is an art of recording, classifying, measuring and summarizing in terms of money, of the business transaction.

Question 2.
What is cost concept?
Answer:
An assets acquired by a concern is recorded in the books of accounts at cost called cost concept.

Question 3.
Classify the English system of account.
Answer:
The three types of accounts under English system are:

• Personal account
• Real account
• Nominal account
• Revaluation or valuation account

Question 4.
What are contra entries?
Answer:
A single transaction entering both the side of two or three column cash book called contra entries.

Question 5.
What is Trial balance?
Answer:
Trial balance is the list of all debit and credit balances of accounts taken out from the ledger at a given period.

Question 6.
What is Bills Payable?
Answer:
A bill which is accepted by a party and for which he has to pay money called bills payable. Bills payable is a liability.

Question 7.
Mention any four items appeared in Trading account debit side.
Answer:
The items appeared in trading a/c debit side are:

1. Purchases
2. Wages
3. Freight charges
4. Factory expenses

Question 8.
What is Adjusted closing capital under Single Entry system?
Answer:
Under single entry system adjusted capital means, closing capital adjusted with drawings and additional capital called adjusted capital [Closing capital + Drawings – Additional Capital = Adjusted Capital].

Question 9.
State any two types of computers.
Answer:
The types of computer are:

1. Super Computer
2. Main Frame Computer
3. Mini Computer
4. Micro Computer.

Question 10.
What is computerised accounting system?
Answer:
It is an accounting information system that processes the financial transaction and events as per GAAP.

SECTION – B

II. Answer any 5 questions each carries 2 marks. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 11.
If accounting information is not clearly presented, which of the qualitative characteristics of accounting is violated?
Answer:
If accounting information is not clearly presented, then the qualitative characteristics like comparability, reliability & understandability are violated.

Question 12.
State the two systems of book-keeping.
Answer:
The two systems of book-keeping are:

1. Single entry system of book-keeping.
2. Double entry system of book-keeping.

Question 13.
Write the rule of capital a/c under American system.
Answer:
Capital a/c rule, under American system is:

“Debit decrease in capital.
Credit increase in capital”.

Question 14.
State any one reasons for the difference between cash book balance and pass book balance.
Answer:
The differences between cash and pass book casuse are:

1. Cheque deposited into bank but not realised
2. Cheque issued to parties but not presented
3. Any expenses directly debited by bank book and not in the cash book.
4. Any income directly received by bank and not recorded by business.

Question 15.
State any two examples for errors of omission.
Answer:
Examples for omission are:

1. Purchase goods from Murthy not recorded in purchase book. It is a omission of original entry.
2. Sold goods to Mary recorded in sales book but not posted to ledger. It is a omission of postings.

Question 16.
Why do you prepare final accounts?
Answer:
For knowing the exact financial position and financial result of the concern, final accounts to be prepared.

Question 17.
What is meant by Voucher Entry?
Answer:
Voucher entry is a proof of transaction which is also copy of transaction.

Question 18.
What is Capital reserve?
Answer:
Capital reserve is created out of Capital profits which is used for writing off capital losses or issue of bonus shares.

SECTION – C

III. Answer any 4 questions each carries 6 marks. (6 × 4 = 24)

Question 19.
What practical difficulties are encountered by a trader due to incompleteness of accounting records?
Answer:
The following are the difficulties that are encountered by a trader due to incompleteness of accounting records:
a. Accuracy of accounts:
Arithmetical accuracy of accounts cannot be ascertained, since proper records of accounts are not maintained. Consequently, Trial Balance cannot be prepared.

b. Encourages fraud:
As the arithmetical accuracy cannot be determined; so, this encourages fraud and provides sufficient scope for bluffing and carelessness.

c. Difficult to ascertain correct profit or loss:
Since all expenses and income are not recorded, true profit or loss cannot be correctly ascertained.

d. Difficult to analyse the true financial position:
As profit or loss cannot be ascertained easily, so the balance sheet cannot be easily prepared. Hence, the absence of balance sheet will not reflect the true financial position of the business.

e. Difficulty in comparison:
Due to the incomplete records and non-availability of previous years data, comparison is not possible. By the same token, comparisons with other firms are also not possible.

f. Unacceptable to tax authorities:
It does not reflect the true and acceptable presentation of expenses and revenues. Hence, these are not acceptable by the tax authorities.

g. Raising funds:
Since analysis of solvency, profitability and liquidity of business cannot be done, it is difficult to raise fund from outside.

Question 20.
Write a note accrual basis of accounting.
Answer:
The accrual method records income items when they are earned and records deductions when expenses are incurred. Accrual basis of accounting matches revenue to the time period in which they are earned and matches expenses to the time period in which they are incurred.

While it is more complex than cash basis accounting, it provides much more information about the business. The accrual basis allows matching revenue to the expenses incurred in earning them giving more meaningful financial report.

Question 21.
Write the Advantage / Merits of incomplete records system.
Answer:
The important uses/merits of incomplete records are:

1. It is a simple and easy method of book – keeping.
2. It is less costly, because only few books of accounts are maintained.
3. Only personal and cash accounts are main trained.
4. It is suitable for small business concern.
5. Accounting knowledge is not much required

Question 22.
Explain the disadvantages of Computerized Accounting.
Answer:
Disadvantages of computerized accounting are as follows:

• Extremely high cost is involved in developing, introducing and using the system.
• Special training for personal is required.
• There is dependence on machines.
• There is an inability to check unanticipated errors.
• There are ill-effects on health.

Question 23.
Calculate gross income from the following information:

Answer:
Gross income = Net sales – Cost of goods sold
= ₹ 9,800 – ₹ 6,700 = ₹ 3100

Working Notes :
a. Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Net purchases + wages + freight – Closing stock
= ₹ 1,000 + ₹ 5,900 + ₹ 700 + ₹ 300 – ₹ 1,200
= ₹ 6,700
b. Net sales = Sales – Sales Returns
= ₹ 10,000 – ₹ 200
= ₹ 9,800
c. Net Purchases = Purchase – Purchase returns
= ₹ 6,000 – ₹ 100
= ₹ 5,900 (2+ 1 + 1 + 1)

Question 24.
Enter the following transactions in a simple cash book for the month of Jan 2014. 2014
Jan
1. Amar started business with ₹ 80,000
4. Purchased goods for cash ₹ 40,000
6. Received from Suresh ₹ 20,000
10. Opened an account with Canara Bank by paying in ₹ 5,000
15. Sold goods for cash ₹ 30,000
16. Paid advertising charges ₹ 2,000
20. Purchase office furniture for cash ₹ 35,000
24. Paid for electricity charges ₹ 1,000
28. Paid office rent ₹ 2,000
30. Paid salaries to staff ₹ 6,000
Answer:

Question 25.
From the following balance prepare a Trial Balance:

Answer:

SECTION – D

IV. Answer any 4 questions each carries 12 marks. (12 × 4 = 48)

Question 26.
Journalise the following transactions and open only the personal accounts in the ledger.
Govind started his business with the following :

Answer:

Question 27.
X sold goods on credit to A/c for ₹ 5,000 on 10.04.2014. On the same date, A accepted a bill drawn by X payable after 3 months. On the due date, the bill is dishonoured by A. Noting charges paid by X amounted to ₹ 200. Pass entries in the books of both the parties.
Answer:

Question 28.
Answer:

Question 29.
From the following information prepare a statements showing profits for the year ended 31.12.2014 and a revised statement of affairs as on the that date.

During the year drawings amounted to ₹ 1,600 and investment in 6% debentures of ₹ 2,000 on 1.7.2014, which is treated as a business asset. Tools should be written down by 20%.
Answer:

Notes :
1. The amount of debentures ₹ 2,000 is treated as a business asset and also as additional capital introduced during the year.
2. The difference between the opening balance and closing balance of furniture is assumed to be sale of furniture. (4 + 5 + 5)

Question 30.
Enter the following transactions in purchases book and post them into ledger accounts.
2014
April 1.
Purchased from Kala Enterprises
100 bags of wheat at ₹ 400 per bag
50 bags of rice at ₹ 500 per
bag 50 bags of sugar at ₹ 450 per bag

April 10.
Bought from M/S Chandra & Sons
200 bags of rice at ₹ 400 per bag
20 bags of sugar at ₹ 400 per bag
Less trade discount at 15%

April 28.
Purchased from Brook-Bond India
100 cases of tea at ₹ 150 per bag

April 30.
Purchased from Satya Traders
100 bags sugar at ₹ 350 per bag
So cases of coffee powder at ₹ 500 per case
Less trade discount at 5%
Answer:

Question 31.
Prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement as at 31.01.2014 from the following:

1. Balance as per cash book (cr.) ₹ 80,000
2. Cheques sent to bank without entering in to cash book ₹ 3,000.
3. Cheques entered in cash book but not sent to Bank ₹ 10,000
4. Payment side of cash book is undercasts by ₹ 1,000
5. As per advice, book payment of ₹ 5,000 omitted in cash book
6. Bank charges entered twice in cash book ₹ 100.
7. Customer’s cheque of ₹ 4,000 was dishonoured but not entered in cash book.
8. Issued cheques of ₹ 3,000 later on dishonoured without an entry in cash book.
9. Collection of bill by bank of ₹ 20,000 only appeared in pass Book,
10. Cheques sent to bank for collection ₹ 50,000 but passbook collected ₹ 49,980, difference being bank commission.
11. Cheques received of ₹ 5,000 entered twice in cash book.

Answer:

Question 32.
On 01.04.2009, a company purchased Machinery for ₹ 60,000. On 30.09.2011, a part of the Machinery which was purchased on 01.04.2009 costing ₹ 10,000 was sold for ₹ 7,000. On 01.04.2012 new Machinery was purchased for ₹ 20,000. Depreciation was charged at 10% p.a. on straight line method. Accounts are closed on 31st March every year. Show Machinery a/c and Depreciation A/c for the period ending 31.03.2013.
Answer:

SECTION – E

V. Answer any 2 questions each carries 5 marks. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 33.
Prepare a statement of affairs using five imaginary figures.
Answer:

Question 34.
Draft a specimen of an invoice.
Answer:

Question 35.
Prepare a specimen of Bills of Exchange.
Answer:

Students can Download 1st PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper 2017 (South), Karnataka 1st PUC Political Science Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 (South)

Time: 3:15 Hours
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in ONE sentence each: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Who is the father of Political Science?
Answer:
Aristotle is known as father of Political Science.

Question 2.
Give an example of ancient Greek City State
Answer:
Sparta/Athens is the example of Ancient Greek City Sate.

Question 3.
What is Sovereignty?
Answer:
A supreme power of the state is called sovereignty

Question 4.
Write the root word of constitution.
Answer:
The word Constitution is derived from the Latin word‘Constituere’

Question 5.
When ddi the Indian Constitution came into existence?
Answer:
The constitution of india came in to force on 26^th January 1950.

Question 6.
Who presides over the Rajyasabha?
Answer:
Vice – President Presides over the Rajyasabha.

Question 7.
What is a term of office of the President of Supreme Court of India?
Answer:
The term of office of the president of India is 5 years.

Question 8.
Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?
Answer:
The President of India appoints the chief justice of India.

Question 9.
Expand P.I.L.
Answer:
Public Interest Litigation.

Question 10.
How many family courts are there in India?
Answer:
There are 190 family courts in India.

II. Answer any Ten of the following questions in 2-3 sentences each. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
How is man a Social Animal
Answer:
Man is a social animal because he can fulfill his basic needs, desires requirements in society only. He cannot live away from the Society.

Question 12.
Who are called the Greek Philosopher ‘Trio’?
Answer:
Socrates, Plato, and Aristotle are the Greek Philosopher Trio.

Question 13.
What are the four elements of the State?
Answer:

1. Population
2. Definite Territory
3. Government
4. Sovereignty

Question 14.
Name any two political rights.
Answer:

1. Right to vote.
2. Right to contest for election.

Question 15.
What is the meaning of Liberty
Answer:
A power of man to do anything for the development of his individual personality is called liberty

Question 16.
What is written constitution? Give an example
Answer:
A written document deliberately framed by the constitutional experts is called written constitution
Ex:
India.

Question 17.
What do you mean by federal government?
Answer:
A government whee the powers have been distributed between union and state government is called federal government.

Question 18.
What do you mean by universal adult franchaise?
Answer:
All the citizens who attained the particular age are having right to vote irrespective of caste, creed, religion is called universal adult franchaise.

Question 19.
Name the two Houses of the American congress.
Answer:

1. House of Representative
2. Senate

Question 20.
Which are the qualifications necesary for Governor?
Answer:

1. He must be a citizen of india.
2. Must attained the age of 35 years
3. Must not be a member of either state or union legislature,

Question 21.
What is Revenue Court?
Answer:
The courts which deals with the cases relating to the maintenance of land records its assessment and collection of land revenue are called revenue courts.

Question 22.
Name subordinate courts.
Answer:

1. District courts
2. Revenue courts
3. Family courts
4. Consumer courts
5. Lokadalats

III. Answer any EIGHT of the following question in 15-20 sentences each : (8 × 5= 40)

Question 23.
Explain the scope of Political science.
Answer:
Aristotle described political science as a ‘master science’ which made it perhaps the greatest contribution to the making of political science scientific. Hie term “Scope” refers to the subject or the boundaries of a particular branch of knowledge. There is no perfect agreement among the political thinkers as to the problems, which come under the study of political science.

Broadly speaking, there are three groups of writers holding different views on the scope of political science.The first group of writers like Garies, Gamer, Goodnow, and Bluntschli restricted the scope of political science only to the study of the state.

The second group of writers like Prof. Sheley and Dr. Stephen Leacock said that political science deals with government only.

The third group of writers like Gettell, Gilchrist, Paul Janet, and Prof. Laski maintained that the scope of political science extends to both state and government. Prof. Laski maintains that the state, in reality, means the government.

We may agree with the third group of writers that political science is a study of both state and government is the steering wheel of the ship of the state. There can be no state without a government, the state remains the central subject of our study, and the whole mechanism of government revolves around it.

Scope according to the UNESCO; the international Political Science Association at its Paris Conference in 1948 discussed the scope of political science and marked out its subject matter as follows:

1. Political Theory:
Political Theory, History of Political Ideas.

2. Government:
The Constitution, the Government-Regional and Local Government, Public Administration, Economics and Social functions of government, Comparative political institutions.

3. Parties, Groups and Public Opinion:
Political Parties, Group and Associations, Citizen Participation in Government and administration, Public Opinion.

4. International Relations:
International relations, International organization, and Administration, International Law.

Question 24.
Distinguish between State and Association.
Answer:

State	Voluntary Association
1. Definite territory is essential element of state	1. Associations have no definite territory.
2. Membership is compulsory man cannot Give up the membership.	2. Membership is temporary; man can give up the membership.
3. Individual can get the membership of only a state.	3. Individuals can get the membership of various associations as he pleases.
4. State is permanent and continuous.	4. Associations are temporary. State can control and abolish them at any time.
5. State has sovereignty.	5. Associations have no sovereignty.
6. State’s functions are wider.	6. Functions of associations are narrower.

Question 25.
Discuss the kinds of Equality.
Answer:
1. Natural Equality:
It implies that nature has created all men equal. It can also be defined that it insists on removing all man-made and artificial inequalities and treat all equally.

2. Civil and legal Equality:
Implies that all are equal before law and all are protected equally irrespective of caste, class, colour, race, etc.,

3. Political Equality:
Implies that all the citizens, irrespective any type of difference are entitled to participate in the affairs of state. All have equal voice in the government. It is based on principle of universal adult Franchise.

4. Economic Equality:
Implies removal of inequalities based on wealth and insists on certain minimum standard of income to all to meet their basic needs.5. Social Equality:Implies every individual without any discrimination must be given equal opportunity for the development of their personalities.

Question 26.
Explain the features of Sovereignty.
Answer:
Jean Bodin – who was the first to explain the concept of sovereignty said: “Sovereignty is the supreme power over citizens and subjects unrestrained by law.”

According to Hugo Grotius: “Sovereignty is the supreme power vested in him whose acts are not subjected to any other who will can’t be can override.”

Characteristics of Sovereignty:
a. Permanent:
Sovereignty is permanent. Every state is sovereign it is accordingly permanent. The death of the rules or the change in government doesn’t mean any change in sovereign power. It comes to an end when the state is destroyed or is conquered and ruled by some external power.

b. Universality:
Sovereignty embraces each and every person and every association within the territory of the state. No individual or association in the state can disobey the sovereign authority of the state.

c. Sovereignty can’t be transferred:
The state has no right to give away its sovereignty. When a state loses or has to give up a part of the territory and population to another state, that part comes under the control of that state.

d. Indivisible:
Sovereignty can’t be divided. Division of sovereignty leads to the destruction of sovereignty.

e. Absoluteness:
Sovereignty is absolute. There can be no legal power within the state, superior to it. All individuals, associations come under the absolute power of the state. The state is completely independent.

Question 27.
Explain the features of unitary government.
Answer:
Features of Unitary Government:
1. Concentration of Power:
A Unitary government is characterized by the presence of a single centre, which is omnipotent and omnipresent all over the territory. All decisions of the state flow from one single centre.

2. No Provincial Autonomy:
The provinces or local units in a unitary system are created by the centre for the sake of administrative convenience. It carries out the orders of the centre without having any powers to make decisions. Thus, the local units only act as subordinate agents of the centre without any authority or autonomy.

3. Single legislature:
In a Unitary system of government there will be only one single supreme legislative assembly which makes laws for the whole country and are faithfully implemented by the local units.

4. Constitution may be written or unwritten:
The constitution, in a unitary government, may be written or unwritten as there is one single central authority wielding power all over the state without any other centres of power.

Question 28.
Write the essentials of an ideal Constitution.
Answer:
The essentials of an ideal constitution are explained as below
1. It should be definite :
An ideal constitution should not be vague but clearly narrate the provisions which relates to the organization of the government. The principles should be precise and clarity.

2. It should be comprehensive:
An ideal constitution must be comprehensive enough to mention the functions of the government and rights, duties of the citizens. The constitution should not be too big but include all the information on the government.

3. Method of amendment:
An ideal constitution should possess the method of amendment. As the social condition of the people is going on change, the constitution must also undergoes change. It should represent the future needs of the future generation.

4. It should correspond to reality:
An ideal constitution should correspond to the real, conditions obtained within the state, otherwise, it cannot work properly.

Question 29.
Write the text of the preamble of the India Constitution.
Answer:
The preamble of the constitution of India explains the aims and ideology and reads as: WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN, DEMOCRATIC, SOCIALIST, SECULAR and REPUBLIC Nation and securing to all its citizens.

• JUSTICE – social, economic and political.
• LIBERTY – of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.
• EQUALITY – of status and of opportunity and to promote among them all.
• FRATERNITY – assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation.

The idea of the preamble has been borrowed from constitution of U.S.A.

Question 30.
Write a short note on RTE
Answer:
RTE stands right to education which means all the children in India are entitled to get compulsory and free education. The 86th amendment act of 2002 provides an opportunity to get free and compulsory education to all the children from the age 6 to 14 years.

Parliament passed the compulsory education act on 2009 and in compliance of the central government, the Karnataka government framed rules and enforced from 28th April 2012. Main provisions of RTE

• All the children from the age of 6 to 14 should get free and compulsory education.
• The responsibility of the parents are to send their children to the school.
• The provisions are made to ensure the education facilities especially to the weaker section and child belonging to a disadvantaged group.
• The central and state government have jointly responsible to carry over this scheme.
• To provide the education to all the children, the government should establish the schools accesses to the children.
• The government should bear the expenses of education and should pay the same to education institutions.
• The concerned BEO and DDPI should have responsibility to look after this.

Question 31.
Write about composition of Vidhan Parishad of Karnataka State.
Answer:
The Composition of the legislative council is as follows:

• 1/3 – of the members are elected from the local bodies such as municipalities and district boards;
• 1/3 – of the members are elected from members of the Legislative Assembly;
• 1/12 – of the members are elected by the graduates from graduate constituencies.
• 1/12 – of the members are elected from teacher’s constituencies consisting of secondary- school, college and university- teachers; and
• 1/6- of the members are nominated by the Governor from the fields of science, art, social service, the co-operative movement, literature, etc.

Question 32.
Explain the emergency powers of the President.
Answer:
1. The President may declare internal emergency under Article 352, if, in his opinion, there is a threat to India’s security due to war or external aggression.

2. The President may impose ‘President’s Rule’ under Article 356 if he is convinced that in that particular state the law and order have completely deteriorated and it cannot be governed as per the constitution. Though the President’s rule is imposed on the recommendation of the governor of the concerned state, it is not compulsory.

3. If the President is convinced that the financial stability and prestige of the nation are at risk, he may impose a financial emergency under Article 360. However, the imposition of internal and financial emergency should be placed before Parliament and its consent was taken within 2 months of the declaration of emergency, otherwise, it is considered invalid.

Question 33.
Mention the measures necessary to ensure the Independent of the Judiciary.
Answer:

• Selection of judges regardless of their political affiliation.
• Appointment of judges by the Chief Executive.
• Long and Security of tenure.Salaries and allowances are paid from Consolidated Fund.
• Bar on practice after retirement.
• Separation of judiciary from the executive and legislature.
• Impartiality in the administration of justice.
• Avoiding ambiguity in the judgement.
• Appointment of highly qualified judges and making judicial process less expensive.

Question 34.
Explain the functions of Grama Panchayath
Answer:
Functions of gram panchayat.

• Formulate plans for the development of Gram panchayat.
• Preparation of Budget of Gram panchayat.
• Collection and maintenance of necessary information and statistics relating to the panchayat.
• Provide relief during natural calamities like floods, famine or earthquakes.
• Encouragement to agriculture.
• Encouragement and development of poultry and pisciculture.
• Support to khadi and cottage industries.
• Protection of public health and support family welfare programmes.
• Encouraging rural housing by providing houses and sites to weaker sections.
• Promote cleanliness through underground drainage system.
• Provide drinking water and prevent water pollution.
• Construction and maintenance of roads, buildings, and bridges.
• Rural electrification.Encourage primary and higher education.
• Support and implement poverty alleviation programmes.
• Support adult education and informal education.
• Construction and maintenance of libraries and reading rooms.
• Regulation of market and fairs.Strive for the welfare of women and children.
• Strive for the welfare of weaker sections.
• Preservation of Public distribution systemMaintenance of public gardens and stadiums.
• Maintenance of graveyards.
• Strive and support welfare of physically challenged (handicapped) and mentally retarded.
• Function as per directed by Panchayat Raj Act from time to time.

IV. Answer any Two of the following in 30 to 40 sentences each: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Describe the features of democratic government.
Answer:
1. The government in a democracy is responsible to the people. The government will also have to function according to public opinion. Self-government makes the people more disciplined and there will be more responsible citizens than in any other form of government.

2. Democracy upholds the principles of liberty and equality. Political and economic equality are assured in a democracy.

3. Democracy respects the dignity of human being. It provides rights and liberties for the development of the personality of individual.

4. A democratic government promote the welfare of the people, where as in other forms of government only particular class may be benefitted.

5. Democratic government is stable and efficient government. It avoids the revolution because it tarried on according to the wishes of the people.

6. Unlike other forms of government, democracy is self-corrective. In democracy the freedom of speech and freedom of press creates an enlightened public opinion

7. Democracy is progressive and educative force. In a democracy, people have full civil and political rights. It is a training ground for active, healthy and intelligent citizenship.

8. In democracy, there is order, peace and progress. It is flexible government which adopts itself to change peacefully.

9. As the people have a share in the government of country, the spirit of patriotism is strengthened and everybody is willing to work and undergo sacrifices for the welfare of the community.

10. Democracy protects the minority. A written constitution guarantees the rights of the minorities.

Question 36.
Discuss the composition powers and functions of the Loksabha.
Answer:
The members of Lok Sabha are elected by the people. All adult citizens unless disqualified for other reasons have the right to select their representatives. Qualifications to become the members are must be a citizen of the country and must have attained the minimum age fixed by the constitution. The term of office is five years. Speaker is the presiding officer. He is elected from among the members of the house.

The powers and functions of LokSabha are as follows
1. Legislative functions:
The power of Loksabha extends to all subjects falling under the Union List and the Concurrent List. In case of emergency in operation, its power also extends to the State list as well. No bill can become a law without the consent of Loksabha. The Loksabha has equal powers of law-making with Rajyasabha except on financial matters where the supremacy of Loksabha is total.

In case of disagreement between the two houses on a matter of legislation, it is resolved by a Joint Sitting of both the houses presided over by the Speaker. In a Joint Sitting, Loksabha would emerge triumphant because the decisions are taken by a majority of the total number of members of both the house present and voting in which the numerical superiority of Loksabha prevails.

2. Financial functions:
On financial matters, the supremacy of the Loksabha is total and complete. “One, who holds purse, holds power” said James Madison. By establishing its authority over the national purse, Loksabha establishes its authority over the Rajyasabha.

It is expressly stated that the Money bill can originate only in the house of people. Regarding budget, Loksabha being a representative house enjoys total authority. Loksabha’s position on financial matters is such that the demands for grants are placed only before the Loksabha.

3. Control over the executive:
The Loksabha enjoys direct control over the executive because; the executive is directly responsible to the lower house and stays in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of the house. The Loksabha not only makes laws but also supervises the implementation. The lower house being a debating house, the members are free to seek information from the executive and raise questions and seek clarifications.

The members can effectively seek information from the government by way of discussions and debates during the Question Hour (seek clarification), the Adjournment Motion (raises issues of national importance), the Zero Hour, the Cu motion, the Call-attention motion, etc. The soundest way of controlling the executive is by way of moving the No-confidence motion, if the executive fails to win the support of Lok sabha, they must step down.

4. Constituent functions:
The Loksabha shares equal powers in regard to amending provisions of the constitution. An amendment may be initiated either in the Rajyasabha or Loksabha and must be passed by a 2/3 majority in both the houses present and voting. The agreement of Rajyasabha is compulsory for the success of the constitutional amendment.

5. Electoral functions:
The Loksabha and Rajyasabha elect the highest constitutional functionaries such as the President and the Vice-president. The President is elected by the members of Loksabha and Rajyasabha along with the members of Legislative Assemblies of the states. The Vice-president is elected by members of Loksabha and Rajyasabha.

6. Judicial functions:
The Loksabha acts as a judge in the impeachment of the President. Either house can prefer the charge of impeachment. If. Rajyasabha prefers the charge, Loksabha investigates the charge and if it passes a resolution by a 2/3 majority of the total membership of the house. President stands impeached from the office.

The Loksabha also sits in Judgement along with the Rajyasabha, in removing high constitutional functionaries such as the Comptroller and Auditor General, The Chief Vigilance Commissioner, the Chief Election Commissioner, etc.

Question 37.
Explain the powers and functions of Chief Minister.
Answer:
The power and position of the Chief Minister is so powerful that he is referred to as “the first among equals’” (Primus intersperes). Article 164 of the constitution states that “there shall be a Council of ministers headed by the Chief Minister for the state”.

The Chief Minister is elected from among the members of the majority party in Vidhana Sabha. In case no party enjoys majority it is left to the discretion of the Governor to pick the Chief Minister, who in his opinion will prove majority’ in a stipulated time. Traditionally, the Chief Minister should be from the Vidhana Sabha.

1.Formation of Ministry:
The primary task of the Chief Minister on assuming office is the formation of the Council of ministers. Normally ministers are picked from the same political formation to ensure uniformity and continuity of policy. However, nothing prevents the Chief Minister from picking anyone as minister from any party. The Chief Minister enjoys the authority to pick and choose his ministry because he is responsible for the efficiency and performance of the government.

2. Allocation of Portfolios:
After forming the ministry the next important task is the allocation of responsibilities to ministers. Certain key or heavy’ weight portfolios such as Home, Revenue, Finance, Industry, Public works are to be given to key and heavyweights who enjoy clout and following among party workers. Also to ensure efficiency and stability of the government. The Chief Minister enjoys the power of expanding and reforming the ministry.

3. Chairman of the Cabinet:
The cabinet meetings are held under the chairmanship of the Chief Minister. The cabinet is a deliberating forum and differences may come up. It is the responsibility of the Chief Minister to mediate and soften things and arrive at decisions.

The Chief Minister has the authority to decide the matters to be taken up by the cabinet and may accept or reject proposals. Normally the proposals brought by ministers for discussion are not rejected. In the era of coalition politics, it is a challenge for the Chief Minister to hold the flock together. It is very difficult to chair a cabinet meeting full of divergent views, ideologies and principles.

4. Leader of Vidhana Sabha:
Chief Minister is the leader of Vidhana Sabha. All major decisions and announcements of the state government are made by the Chief Minister. It is the responsibility of the Chief Minister to ensure that all bills brought before Vidhana Sabha for approval are passed. And he has to defend the government on the floor of the house.

Though ministers are individually responsible to their ministries, it is the Chief minister who provides general leadership and direction. If any minister makes a mistake, the Chief Minister has the power to guide and correct him.

5. Leader of the Government:
The decisions of the government however good, are subjected to scrutiny and criticism. The opposition parties lose their identity if they do not criticize the government. So to guard against it, the Chief Minister, as leader of the government has to defend policies and programmes of the government both in and out of legislature.

6. Co-ordination and Supervision:
In running the administrative machinery Chief Minister will have to encounter numerous problems ranging from routine to serious. Under the circumstances it is essential to integrate different departments and see that they work smoothly and the ability of the Chief Minister is tested on this count. A Chief Minister should not only pick a team but also retain it as a team till the end of the term.

Whenever problems arise between departments, he has to mediate and sort it out amicably through dialogue and goodwill.The Chief Minister is the general head of the government. Hence he has the responsibility of supervising the administration. Though each minister is in charge of a ministry, lack of general supervision results in poor administrative quality.

To maintain quality in administration, the Chief Minister will have to supervise it, not only gives him a generalfeel of the administration but also makes the ministers more responsible. The Chief Minister may correct the working of a particular ministry and offer suggestions.

7. Bridge between the Governor and the State Legislature:
The Chief Minister acts as a link between the Governor and state legislature in a parliamentary government. As all executive powers are vested in the hands of the Governor, the Chief Minister is duty bound to keep the Governor informed about the decisions taken by the government.

Also, the Governor himself can call for any information from the government. The Chief Minister not only acts as a bridge but also as the advisor to the President. Whenever necessary’ the President will look forward for advice. For example, the Governor seeks the advice of the Chief Minister before dissolving Vidhana Sabha.

8. Power of Dissolution:
The Vidhana sabha exists as long as the Chief Minister wishes because even before the expiry of 5 years term, Chief Minister may seek the dissolution of Vidhana Sabha. The Vidhana Sabha may be dissolved if deep differences surface within the government or within the ruling party or the government loses a motion of no confidence.

9. Power of Appointment:
Though civil appointments are made by the Governor, it is based on the recommendation of the Chief Minister.

Question 38.
Describe the powers and functions of the Supreme court of India.
Answer:
The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme court on the advice of the council of ministers in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. Article 124 which deals with the appointment of judges, makes it obligatory on the part of the President of India to consult the Chief Justice of India.

In appointing the Chief Justice of India, the President shall, besides the advice of the council of ministers, consult the judges of the Supreme Court and the High courts if he considers it necessary. But, neither the constitution nor the law provides for Chief Justice’s recommendation as to his successor. It is a practice sanctioned by convention.

Normally, the Chief Justice of India is appointed from among the senior-most judges of the Supreme Court. The following are the powers of the Supreme Court:
1. Original Jurisdiction:
Article 131 of the constitution deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is so exclusive that no court in India can take up cases falling under the original jurisdiction.

The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is purely federal in character. Matters relating to the problems and disputes arising between the union and the states or between the states are taken up by the Supreme Court. The disputes entertained under the original jurisdiction are:

• A dispute involving the Government of India Vs the state of Union of India.
• A dispute involving the Government of India plus one or more states Vs one or more states.
• A dispute involving one or more states on one side Vs one or more states on the other.

2. Appellate Jurisdiction:
The Supreme Court is the highest court in India. Under Appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme court only takes up such cases that come on appeal. It has no power to take up such cases, which is not asked to take up.The appellate jurisdiction can be studied under the following three heads:
a. Constitutional Cases:
The cases that come before the Supreme court are as follows:

• The cases involving a question of law relating to the interpretation of the constitution or certification by the High court.
• The Supreme Court can take up a case if the High court in its opinion feels that the case involves a substantial
• question of law, which should be decided by the Supreme court.

b. Civil Cases:
Originally Article 133 provided for an appeal against the high court order if it certified that the amount involved was less than Rs. 20,000 and the case is fit for appeal. But, the Law Commission found the logic unreasonable and as a result, the 30^th Amendment of 1972 did away with the ceiling of Rs. 20,000.

The Supreme Court can take up the civil appeal, if the High court certifies that the case involves a substantial question law of general importance. The certification by the High court is essential in these cases.

c. Criminal Cases:
Article 134 provide for an appeal to the Supreme court against the judgment of the High Court under the following conditions:

If the High Court has reversed a decision of release of an accused and has given him a death sentence.
In a case where the High court has exercised the authority of a lower court and given a death sentence to the accused.
In any criminal case if the High court certifies that the case is fit for appeal in the Supreme Court.

3. Special Leave Jurisdiction:
Article 136 confers a special power in the hands of the Supreme Court to grant special leave. In hearing appeals the Supreme Court may grant Special Leave petition against any judgment or order made by any court or tribunal, except military tribunal, in a case.

The decision is entirely left to the discretion of the Supreme Court. This power, however, is to be used only under exceptional circumstances like matters involving general public interest or in cases of grave injustice or cases in which no appeal is otherwise provided by law.

4. Advisory Jurisdiction:
Article 143 confers the power of advisory opinion. In order to break authoritative opinion, the President of India may seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on the matter which is, in his opinion, important and necessary such as disputes arising out of treaty of agreement. However, the advice of the Supreme Court is purely advisory in nature and it is up to the executive to accept it or not. The Supreme Court may decline to give advisory opinion if it finds unnecessary.

5. Power of Judicial Review:
The supremacy of the Supreme Court as the guardian of the constitution is emphasized by the power of judicial review. The Supreme court has the power of declaring a law made by the legislature or an executive action as ultra vires (intra vires) or null and void or unconstitutional if it is not in tune with the provisions of the constitution or violative of the fundamental law of the land.

This acts as an effective, check on both the legislature and the executive as any decision made or action taken whimsically without regard to the constitution is declared invalid.

6. The Court of Records:
The proceedings and judgments of the Supreme Court are kept preserved to be made use of in future cases and judgments, whenever necessary by the lower courts. Those decisions are authoritative records on law whose validity cannot be questioned in any court. The courts of records also have the power to correct its own clerical errors.

7. The Contempt of court:
The Supreme Court enjoys the authority of imposing fines or imprisonment for violating the orders of the court (Article 129).

8. Self-correcting Court:
The Supreme Court has the power of correcting its own judgments. This is to ensure any loss or damage, physical, emotional or material that may be caused to any person seeking justice. To put it in legal terms, this is to ensure against ‘miscarriage of justice’.

9. Guardian of the Constitution:
The Supreme Court enjoys the privilege of protecting the constitution against violation of its provision either by the government or by the people, It is the responsibility of the Supreme Court to see that the laws of the constitution are respected and adhered to by all in India.

By acting as the watchtower of the constitution, it checks against the violation of laws. As guardian of the constitution, the Supreme Court also exercises the power of interpreting the contents of the constitution. Any matter relating to technical interpretation of details or definitions of terms in the constitution is the sole prerogative of the Supreme Court.

10. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights:
The Supreme Court is empowered by the constitution to act as the protector and guarantor of the fundamental rights. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court enjoys the power of issuing constitutional writs, also called as writ jurisdiction, for the enforcement of fundamental rights. The writs may be against the government or individuals. The writs are briefly explained as follows:

a. Habeas Corpus:
This literally means ‘to have a body’. It calls upon the authority, which arrests a person to produce in court, the person to set him free if he has done nothing wrong. It protects an individual against wrongful confinement.

b. Mandamus:
This literally means a command. It is a command issued by the court asking a person to perform his legal duty, which is of public nature.

c. Prohibition:
It is a writ issued by the Supreme court to an inferior court restraining it from exercising powers which are not invested in them.

d. Certiorari:
It is a writ by which a case is removed from a lower court, which does not enjoy jurisdiction to deal with it.

e. Quo warrato:
This writ is issued to prevent a person from illegally occupying a public office to which he is not entitled.

11. Defender of the Federation:
The constitution vests the power of settling the disputes and problems between the centre and the states. In order to prevent the conflict of power between the two, the Supreme Court interprets the laws, which help in maintaining the unity of the federation.

12. Miscellaneous functions:
The following are the miscellaneous functions of the Supreme court.

• The Supreme Court has the power of regulating the practice and procedure of the court.
• It appoints its own clerical establishment and exercises supervision over lower courts.
• The Supreme Court decides matters relating to the election of the President and Vice-president.
• The Supreme Court if satisfied, may withdraw a case on its own or on appeal pending before one or more High
• courts on a matter involving substantial question of law of general importance (Article 139).
• The Supreme Court, if necessary, can transfer any case pending before any Highcourt to any other High court.
• The Supreme Court may also transfer a criminal case from one high court to the other.

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39.
Write a note on ‘Kannada Rajyotsava’ day celebration of your college.
Answer:
Kannada Rajyotsava is an exciting meaningful celebration for all the Kannadigas in Karnataka. A day before Rajyotsava the lecturers along with the students decorated the college ground. On the day of 1st November all lecturers, principal, parents, and students were present exactly at 9.A.M. The chief guest hoisted the Rajyotsava flag followed by Naada Geetha.

During the speech of chief guest highlights the ideals of Nadahabba and urges the students to have loyalty their mother tongue. Cultural programs attracted students. A senior lecturer of the college proposed vote of thanks, finally sweet were distributed and students were disbursed.

OR

Explain the meaning and importance of Democratic decentralization system.
Answer:
Distribution of constitutional powers from union level to village level is called democratic decentralisation The importance of local governments is so paramount that it is called the “Primary school of democracy”.

1. Welfare state:
Modern states are welfare states. If the overall development of the state is to take place; the development of local governments is very vital. Because national progress can’t be divorced from rural progress.

2. Cradle of Democracy:
A citizen, not aware of the working of democracy is a burden on the nation. In local governments, people are introduced to functioning of democracy step by step and over a period of time they learn the nuances of democracy. Democracy can survive only when majority of the masses living in rural areas participate. That’s why local governments are called “cradles of democracy”;

3. Power to the People:
The other name of local government is power of the people; the local governments take power to the doorsteps of the people and empower them not only identify problems but also to solve them.

4. Knowledge of Administration:
Local governments aim at imparting knowledge of administration to locals, though the local people are aware of the government, they are not aware of the working of administration. But when interacted with officials, due to proximity, they get working knowledge of administration.

5. Local Solutions:
The basic principle of local government is, local problems must be solved at the local level. The centre or state government can’t understand local problems due to paucity of time, interest and information. But locals can, based on experience, identify suitable solutions to problems.

Question 40.
Write a note on any one Indiain political leader.
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar :
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is acknowledged as the leader of the untouchables and underprivileged in the Indian social strata. For his work in piloting the constitution of Independent India he is also hailed as the modem ‘Manu” Qr. Ambedkar was the 14^th child of Ramojisakpal and Bhima bai of the Mahoba community in Maharastra. He was bom on 14^th April 1891.

He had his school education in Satara. He completed his graduation in Bombay with the support of Maharaja of Baroda. He did his MA and Ph.D degree from the Columbia University in 1951 and 1961 respectively. Later he got his law and D.Sc degrees also In 1924 he started an association for the welfare of the depressed classes. He started the News paper called “Mooka Nayaka” to motivate the people to fight for independence and also for the reform of depressed classes.

He was the chairman of Drafting Committee for framing an constitution In the interim government he was the law minister in Nehru cabinet. He dedicated his whole life for the welfare of downtrodden people. He passed away on 16^th December 1956.

OR

Explain the standing committees and financial sources of Mahanagar Palika.
Answer:
Corporations are constituted as per Karnataka Muncipal Corporation Act-1976. Wards are created on the basis of city population. A population exceeds more than 3 Laks can be called as Corporation. The members are called as corporators and elected by the city residents for a period of 5 years. Some seats are reserved for SC/ST, OBC, and Women. State government nominates 5 members to the corporation from different field.

The MP’s and MLA’s in that jurisdiction are also the members of corporation and can attend the meetings with voting right. The Mayor elected by the Corporators presides over the meetings. The state government appoints administrative head as a commissioner from the IAS cadre. The meetings are held once in two months.

The Standing committees of Pura Sabha are:

• Taxation, Finance and Appeal committee.
• Basic health, Education and Social justice committee.
• Tour planning and Improvement committee.
• Accounts and Audit committee.

Financial Sources:

• Taxes on assets, water, professions, and advertisements.
• Rents from markets, complexes, and other properties.
• Grants and contributions from the State government.
• Income collected for providing drainage and sanitary facilities.
• Loans raised from the public with government approval.

Students can Download 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 3 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Papers with Answers help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

I. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 1.
श्रीकंठ सिंह का किसके साथ ब्याह हो गया?

प्रश्न 2.
सबसे पहले हमारे तरुणों को क्या बनना चाहिए?

प्रश्न 3.
किसने बिन्दा के पैरों पर तिल का तेल लगाया?

प्रश्न 4.
डॉ. भीमराव अंबेडकर के पिता का नाम क्या था?

प्रश्न 5.
हृदय रोगियों के लिए किस तरह का भोजन अच्छा नहीं है?

प्रश्न 6.
बेहोशी का अभिनय करनेवाले लड़के का नाम लिखिए।

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिएः (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 7.
भूपसिंह का परिचय दीजिए।

प्रश्न 8.
भारत का पुनरुत्थान कैसे होगा?

प्रश्न 9.
पत्नी की मृत्यु का डॉ. अंबेडकर पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ा?

प्रश्न 10.
दिल का दौरा और एनजाईना किन कारणों से होता है?

प्रश्न 11.
धरती ‘वसुन्धरा’ क्यों कहलाती है?

II. अ) निम्नलिखित वाक्य किसने किससे कहे? (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 12.
लाल बिहारी को मैं अब अपना भाई नहीं समझता।

प्रश्न 13.
आपने आयु ठीक नहीं भरी है।

प्रश्न 14.
थर्ड डिवीजनर के लिए दुनिया में कोई जगह नहीं है?

प्रश्न 15.
नहीं, कई बेटे अपने बाप से भी बड़े हो जाते हैं।

आ) निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं दो का ससंदर्भ स्पष्टीकरण कीजिए: (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 16.
‘इस प्रकार का निंदक बड़ा दुःखी होता है।’

प्रश्न 17.
‘अभागी मरती भी नहीं।

प्रश्न 18.
‘इसी कारण नारायण यहाँ बदरीनाथ के नाम से प्रसिद्ध है।’

प्रश्न 19.
‘अच्छा उसे उसी का दूध निकालकर पिलाओ।’

III. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 20.
मीराबाई ने प्रेम मग्न होकर क्या पी लिया?

प्रश्न 21.
गोपी सिर पर क्या धारण करना चाहती है?

प्रश्न 22.
कवयित्री का जीवन क्या लुटा रहा है?

प्रश्न 23.
कविं बच्चन का जीवन कैसे बीता?

प्रश्न 24.
‘तुम आओ मन के मुग्ध मीत’ कविता के कवि कौन है?

प्रश्न 25.
नारी अबला नहीं बल्कि क्या है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 26.
कबीर ने राम स्मरण का कौन सा सही मार्ग समझाया है?

प्रश्न 27.
सीताजी कुटिया में कैसे सुखी है?

प्रश्न 28.
‘उल्लास’ कविता का आशय संक्षेप में लिखिए।

प्रश्न 29.
कवि प्रतिभा पाने के लिए पाठकों को कौन-सा संदेश देते हैं?

इ) ससंदर्भ भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए: (4 × 2 = 8)

प्रश्न 30.
तुलसी संत सुअंब तरु, फूलि फलहिं पर-हेत।
इतते ये पाहन हनत, उतते वे फल देत॥
अथवा
कहते हैं कनक माया है, कनक माया नहीं
कहते हैं कामिनी माया है, कामिनी माया नहीं
कहते हैं माटी माया है, माटी माया नहीं
मन के आगे जो चाह है, वही माया है, गुहेश्वर।

प्रश्न 31.
चढ़ रही थी धूप
गर्मियों के दिन
दिवा का तमतमाता रूप।
उठी झुलसाती हुई लू॥
अथवा
कोई साथ न रहने पर भी
चन्दा-तारे साथ रहेंगे।
दर्द तुम्हारा बाँटेंगे वे,
तुमसे अपनी बात कहेंगे।

IV. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 32.
ठाकुर सरदार सिंह को कौन कहानियाँ सुनाता था?

प्रश्न 33.
मनुष्य सबसे अधिक प्रेम किससे करता है?

प्रश्न 34.
किसका लिहाज करना चाहिए?

प्रश्न 35.
भीख माँगना किसी भी व्यक्ति के लिए क्या है?

प्रश्न 36.
शैलजा किसके लिए सिल्लोरानी थी?

प्रश्न 37.
‘दोपहर का भोजन’ कहानी के कहानीकार कौन है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिएः (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 38.
मधुआ का चरित्र चित्रण कीजिए।

प्रश्न 39.
नवयुवक के बारे में श्मशान का अंतःकरण क्या कह रहा था?

प्रश्न 40.
चम्मच खो जाने पर वीरजी की क्या प्रतिक्रिया हुई?

प्रश्न 41.
चंद्रप्रकाश अपने फ्लैट में बेघर लोगों को क्यों नहीं रख पाया?

प्रश्न 42.
सिलिया की शादी के बारे में उसकी माँ को लोगों ने क्या सलाह दी?

प्रश्न 43.
सिद्धेश्वरी के परिवार का संक्षिप्त परिचय दीजिए।

V. अ) वाक्य शुद्ध कीजिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 44.
क) मेरे को उसने बुलाया है।
उत्तरः
मुझे उसने बुलाया है।

ख) तुम्हें ऐसी बातें नहीं करनी चाहिए।
उत्तरः
तुम्हें ऐसी बात नहीं करनी चाहिए।

ग) हमारे माता जी मेले में गए हैं।
उत्तरः
हमारी माताजी मेले में गई हैं।

घ) आप इधर बैठो।
उत्तरः आप इधर बैठिए।

ङ) राम, लक्ष्मण और सीता वन को गई।
उत्तरः
राम, लक्ष्मण और सीता वन को गए।

आ) कोष्टक में दिये गये उचित कारक चिन्हों से रिक्त स्थान भरिएः (1 × 5 = 5)

(बलिष्ठ, गुणवती, भेदनाशक, गुनगुने, ऐसी)

प्रश्न 45.
क) ……… स्त्री की पूजा सर्वत्र होती है।
ख) निन्दा का ऐसा ही …… अँधेरा होता है।
ग) बड़े घर की बेटियाँ ……. ही होती है।
घ) अनुपम एक ………. लड़का है।
ङ) वे ……… पानी से स्नान करते हैं।
उत्तरः
क – गुणवती; ख – भेदनाशक; ग – ऐसी; घ – बलिष्ठ; ङ – गुनगुने।

इ) निम्नलिखित मुहावरों को अर्थ के साथ जोड़कर लिखिए: (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 46.
1) कान काटना – क) ध्यान देना।
2) कान देना – ख) मात करना (outwit)
3) कान खड़े होना – ग) सुधरने की प्रतिज्ञा करना।
4) कान ऐंठना – घ) सावधान होना।
उत्तरः
1 – ख; 2 – क; 3 – घ; 4 – ग।

ई) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को सूचनानुसार बदलिए: (1 × 3 = 3)

प्रश्न 47.
क) तीन सौ उम्मीदवार चुने जाएंगे। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
तीन सौ अध्यापक चुने जाते हैं।

ख) मुसाफिर हाथ हटा लेता है। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
मुसाफिर ने हाथ हटा लिया था।

ग) फिर भी मैं तुम्हें बुजदिल ही कहता हूँ। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
फिर भी मैं तुम्हें बुजदिल ही कहूँगा।

उ) अन्य लिंग रूप लिखिएः (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 48.
मुर्गा, भिखारी।
उत्तरः
मुर्गी, भिखारिन।

ऊ) अन्य वचन रूप लिखिए: (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 49.
शाला, दीवार।
उत्तरः
शालाएँ, दीवारें।

ए) समानार्थक शब्द लिखिए : (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 50.
गणेश, मीन।
उत्तरः
गजानन, मछली।

ऐ) विलोम शब्द लिखिए : (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 51.
सरल, बलवान।
उत्तरः
कठिन, बलहीन।

VI. अ) निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद पढ़कर उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 52.
संसार में तीन बातें बड़ी महत्वपूर्ण होती है। इनको प्राप्त करके तुम संसार के किसी भी कोने में जाओगे, तो अपना निर्वाह कर सकोगे। ये तीन बातें हैं – अपनी आत्मा का, अपने आप का और ईश्वर का सच्चा ज्ञान प्राप्त करना। इनका मतलब यह नहीं कि तुम्हें अक्षर ज्ञान नहीं मिलेगा। वह तो मिलेगा ही। लेकिन तुम उसकी चिंता करो, यह मैं नहीं कहता। इसके लिए तुम्हारे पास अभी बहुत समय है। अक्षर-ज्ञान तो इसलिए होता है कि जो कुछ तुम्हें मिला है, उसे तुम दूसरों को दे सको। इतना और याद रखना कि अब से हमें गरीबी में रहना है। जितना अधिक मैं विचार करता हूँ, उतना ही अधिक मुझे लगता है कि गरीबी में ही सुख है। इसलिए मेरी इच्छा है कि अपने परिवार में तुम एक योग्य किसान बनो। अक्षर-ज्ञान में गणित और संस्कृत पर पूरा ध्यान रखना। भविष्य में संस्कृत तुम्हारे लिए बहुत उपयोगी सिद्ध होगी। ये दोनों विषय बड़ी उम्र में सीखना कठिन है।
प्रश्नः

1. उपर्युक्त गद्यांश में किन तीन महत्वपूर्ण बातों की चर्चा की गई है?
2. लेखक के अनुसार ‘अक्षर-ज्ञान’ का क्या उद्देश्य है?
3. लेखक अपने पुत्र को योग्य किसान बनने की सलाह क्यों दे रहा है?
4. अक्षर-ज्ञान में कौन सी दो विषयों का ध्यान रखना है?
5. इस गद्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक दीजिए।

उत्तरः

1. अपनी आत्मा का, अपने आप का और ईश्वर का सच्चा ज्ञान प्राप्त करना – इन तीन महत्वपूर्ण बातों की चर्चा की गई है।
2. ‘अक्षर-ज्ञान’ इसलिए होता है कि हम उसे दूसरों को भी दे सकें।
3. गरीबी में ही सुख है। इसलिए लेखक अपने पुत्र को किसान बनने की सलाह दे रहा है।
4. अक्षर-ज्ञान में संस्कृत और गणित का पूरा ध्यान रखना है।
5. ‘अक्षर-ज्ञान’।

आ) पत्र लिखिएः (5 × 1 = 5)

प्रश्न 53.
स्वास्थ्य में अपेक्षित सुधार लाने के लिए नित्य व्यायाम करने की प्रेरणा देते हुए अपने छोटे भाई को पत्र लिखिए।
अथवा
अपने गली-मोहल्ले की समुचित सफाई के लिए नगर पालिका के अध्यक्ष को पत्र लिखिए।

इ) हिन्दी में अनुवाद कीजिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 54.

No person can be happy without friends.
उत्तरः
बिना मित्रों के कोई सुखी नहीं रह सकता।

Fresh air is very essential for good health.
उत्तरः
शुद्ध हवा अच्छे स्वास्थ्य के लिए जरूरी है।

Before a film is produced the script is written.
उत्तरः
फिल्म का निर्माण करने से पहले पटकथा लिखी जाती है।

Time lost cannot be regained.
उत्तरः
बीता हुआ समय कभी लौटकर नहीं आता।

Friends are our real well-wishers.
उत्तरः
मित्र हमारे सच्चे (असली) शुभ-चिन्तक हैं।

Students can Download 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 2 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Papers with Answers help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

समय : ३ घंटे १५ मिनट]
कुल अंक : १००

सूचना :

• सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर हिन्दी भाषा तथा देवनागरी लिपि में लिखना आवश्यक है।
• प्रश्नों की क्रमसंख्या लिखना अनिवार्य है।

I. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 1.
मुगदर की जोड़ी किसने बनवा दी थी?

प्रश्न 2.
‘मूकनायक’ पत्रिका के संपादक कौन थे?

प्रश्न 3.
ई.सी.जी. के बाद क्या करवाने के लिए सलाह देते हैं?

प्रश्न 4.
तुंगनाथ शिखर कितने फुट उँचा है?

प्रश्न 5.
लेखक के पास पहुंचे हुए उम्मीदवार किस डिवीजन में पास है?

प्रश्न 6.
संस्कृति का अमिट भंडार किसमें भरा हुआ है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 7.
भारत का पुनरुत्थान कैसे होगा?

प्रश्न 8.
निंदा की प्रवृत्ति कैसे बढ़ती जाती है?

प्रश्न 9.
अंबेडकर जी के बाल्य जीवन का परिचय दीजिए।

प्रश्न 10.
दिल का दौरा पड़ने पर प्राथमिक उपचार के लिए क्या कदम उठाने चाहिए?

प्रश्न 11.
पूर्वजों के बारे में हमें कैसी भावना रखनी चाहिए?

II. अ) निम्नलिखित वाक्य किसने किससे कहे? (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 12.
तुम तो ईश्वर के संतान हो, अमर आनंद के भागी हो, पवित्र और पूर्ण आत्मा हो।

प्रश्न 13.
अभागी मरती भी नहीं।

प्रश्न 14.
हमारे लिए हर दरवाजा बंद है।

प्रश्न 15.
इसका चेहरा कह रहा है कि यह होश में है।

आ) निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं दो का ससंदर्भ स्पष्टीकरण कीजिए: (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 16.
‘मैंके के सामने हम लोगों को कुछ समझती ही नहीं।’

प्रश्न 17.
‘तुम नयी अम्मा को पुरानी अम्मा क्यों नहीं कहती, फिर वे न नयी रहेंगी और न डाँटेगी।’

प्रश्न 18.
‘हम हरगिज नहीं मानते कि कागज की तीन लकीरों के कारण हम लोग नालायक हैं।’

प्रश्न 19.
‘सन्निपात है वैद्य परमानन्द को और स्नायुरोग है प्रोफेसर पांडुरंग को।’

III. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 20.
कबीर के दोनों ओर कौन खड़े हैं?

प्रश्न 21.
कूडलसंगम देवा के शरणों के अनुभाव से क्या छूट गया?

प्रश्न 22.
कवयित्री ने शैशव प्रभात में क्या देखा?

प्रश्न 23.
दुनिया कैसी है?

प्रश्न 24.
कवि मित्र को देवलोक का कौन सा गीत मानते हैं?

प्रश्न 25.
स्वार्थी संसार क्या याद नहीं रखता है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 26.
रसखान ब्रज में किन रूपों में जन्म लेने की इच्छा प्रकट करते हैं?

प्रश्न 27.
‘कुटिया में राजभवन’ कविता का आशय संक्षेप में लिखिए।

प्रश्न 28.
कवि मानव ने नवयुवकों को किन बातों से न घबराने की सलाह दी है?

प्रश्न 29.
नारी के शक्ति रूपों का वर्णन कीजिए।

इ) ससंदर्भ भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए: (4 × 2 = 8)

प्रश्न 30.
तुलसी एहि संसार में, भाँति भाँति के लोग।
सब सो हिल मिल बोलिए, नदी नाव संयोग ॥
अथवा
या देही रो गरब ना करना माटी मा मिल जासी।
यो संसार चहर री बाजी साँझ पड्या उठ जासी ॥

प्रश्न 31.
गुरु हथौड़ा हाथ,
करती बार-बार प्रहार –
सामने तरु-मालिका अट्टालिका, प्राकार।
अथवा
प्रतिभा बोली – “यातना, निरन्तर कष्ट-सहन की ताकत में
मैं बसती हूँ संघर्ष-निरत साधक में, असिधारा-व्रत में।”

IV. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 32.
लल्लू कौन था?

प्रश्न 33.
युवक की अग्रगामिनी कौन थी?

प्रश्न 34.
सन्तु की पीठ पर क्या पड़ी?

प्रश्न 35.
लक्ष्मीबाई नगर से द्वारका तक के रास्ते में लेखक किन्हें देखते हैं?

प्रश्न 36.
जहाँ चाह होती है, वहाँ क्या बनने लगती हैं?

प्रश्न 37.
मुंशीजी की तबीयत किससे ऊब गई थी?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिएः (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 38.
शराबी ठाकुर सरदारसिंह को कौन-कौन-सी कहानियाँ सुनाता था?

प्रश्न 39.
अंततः पहाड़ी ने तरस खाकर श्मशान से क्या कहा?

प्रश्न 40.
वीरजी की सगाई में जाने की बात सुनकर मंगलसेन की प्रतिक्रिया कैसी थी?

प्रश्न 41.
दिल्ली में शीत लहर के प्रकोप का वर्णन कीजिए।

प्रश्न 42.
हेमलता की मौसी ने सिलिया के साथ कैसा बर्ताव किया?

प्रश्न 43.
रामचंद्र का परिचय दीजिए।

V. अ) वाक्य शुद्ध कीजिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 44.
क) मजदूरों की सभा हो रहा है।
उत्तरः
मजदूरों की सभा हो रही है।

ख) हमने इसको विचार किया है।
उत्तरः
हमने इसका विचार किया है।

ग) मैंने खाना खाना याद था।
उत्तरः
मुझे खाना खाना याद था।

घ) मेरा भाई विद्यालय में प्रवेश हो गया।
उत्तरः
मेरे भाई को विद्यालय में प्रवेश मिल गया।

ङ) गत रविवार वह मुंबई जाएगा।
उत्तरः
गत रविवार वह मुंबई गया था।

आ) कोष्टक में दिये गये उचित कारक चिन्हों से रिक्त स्थान भरिएः (के, से, का, में, गया) (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 45.
क) जागना सारी चिंता ………. मूल बन गया।
ख) वह तेजी ……. महानाश की ओर दौड़ पड़ा है।
ग) मेरे बचपन …….. साथी रमेश डॉक्टर है।
घ) चोर मौका पाते ही भाग ………।
ङ) पृथ्वी के गर्भ ……… अमूल्य निधियाँ है।
उत्तरः
क – का; ख – से; ग – के; घ – गया; ङ – में।

इ) निम्नलिखित मुहावरों को अर्थ के साथ जोड़कर लिखिए: (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 46.
1) अंक भरना – क) क्रोध करना।
2) आँख दिखाना – ख) थकान की पीड़ा होना।
3) अंग टूटना – ग) प्रसन्नता से रोम रोम खिलना।
4) अंग-अंग मुसकाना – घ) गोद मे भर लेना।
उत्तरः
1 – घ; 2 – क; 3 – ख; 4 – ग।

ई) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को सूचनानुसार बदलिए: (1 × 3 = 3)

प्रश्न 47.
क) माता अपने सब पुत्रों को समान भाव से चाहती थी। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
माता अपने सब पुत्रों को समान भाव से चाहती है।

ख) मनुष्य सभ्यता का निर्माण करेगा। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
मनुष्य ने सभ्यता का निर्माण किया था।

ग) अब उसका ब्याह करना पड़ता है। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
अब उसका ब्याह करना पड़ेगा।

उ) अन्य लिंग रूप लिखिए: (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 48.
अध्यापक, कवि।
उत्तरः
अध्यापिका, कवयित्री।

ऊ) अन्य वचन रूप लिखिए: (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 49.
मुद्रा, सखी।
उत्तरः
मुद्राएँ, सखियाँ।

ए) समानार्थक शब्द लिखिए : (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 50.
बिजली, अमृत।
उत्तरः
विद्युत, सुधा।

ऐ) विलोम शब्द लिखिए : (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 51.
सगुण, पावन।
उत्तरः
निर्गुण, अपावन/अपवित्र।

VI. अ) निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद पढ़कर उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 52.
ईश्वर ने संसार के सारे रहस्य प्रकृति में छिपा कर रख दिये थे। मनुष्य ने अपने परिश्रम और प्रयत्न से उन रहस्यों पर से पर्दा उठा दिया। यह कहना गलत है कि मनुष्य संसार में आते समय अपना भाग्य लेकर आता है; वास्तव में वह अपने भाग्य का स्वयं निर्माता है जो वह अपनी मेहनत से बनाता है। प्रकृति मनुष्य के भाग्य से डर कर नहीं बल्कि उसके परिश्रम से हार मानती है। जो लोग भाग्य पर विश्वास करते हैं, वे आलसी हैं। वास्तव में ”वीर और परिश्रमी व्यक्ति अपना भाग्य स्वयं बनाता है।

प्रश्नः

1. ईश्वर ने संसार के सारे रहस्य किसमें छिपाकर रख दिये थे?
2. किसने अपने परिश्रम और प्रयत्न से रहस्यों पर से पर्दा उठा दिया?
3. प्रकृति किससे हार मानती है?
4. भाग्य पर विश्वास करनेवाले लोग कैसे होते हैं?
5. अपने भाग्य का निर्माता कौन है?

उत्तरः

1. ईश्वर ने संसार के सारे रहस्य प्रकृति में छिपाकर रख दिये थे।
2. मनुष्य ने अपने परिश्रम और प्रयत्न से रहस्यों से पर्दा उठा दिया।
3. प्रकृति मनुष्य के परिश्रम से हार मानती है।
4. भाग्य पर विश्वास करनेवाले लोग आलसी हैं।
5. परिश्रमी व्यक्ति अपने भाग्य का निर्माता स्वयं है।

आ) पत्र लिखिएः (5 × 1 = 5)

प्रश्न 53.
अपने पिताजी को पत्र लिखकर उन्हें विद्यालय के वार्षिक उत्सव पर आमंत्रित कीजिए।
अथवा
अपने बैंक प्रबंधक को एक पत्र लिखकर बैंक की कार्य व्यवस्था के बारे में कुछ सुझाव दीजिए।

इ) हिन्दी में अनुवाद कीजिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 54.
क)
Scorpions are common in the Sahara desert.
उत्तरः
सहारा के रेगिस्तान में बिच्छुओं का होना आम है।

ख)
They like cool places.
उत्तरः
वे शीतल जगह पसंद करते हैं।

ग)
They are active at night.
उत्तरः
वे रात में सक्रिय होते हैं।

घ)
Their sting is poisonous.
उत्तरः
उनका डंक जहरीला है।

ङ)
Birds have two feathers.
उत्तरः
पक्षियों के दो पंख होते हैं।

Students can Download 1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 3 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Time: 3.15 minutes
Max. Marks: 100

SECTION – A

I. Answer any 8 questions each carry 1 mark. (1 × 8 = 08)

Question 1.
What is accounting concepts?
Answer:
Accounting concepts means assumptions upon which accounting is based and recorded.

Question 2.
Shares is the example for……..
Answer:
Revenue or income.

Question 3.
Write the meaning of representative person.
Answer:
The person who represents the artificial person called representative person. Example: Debtors account, creditors account, capital account.

Question 4.
What is trade discount?
Answer:
Trade discount is a reduction in the catalogue price or invoice price of the goods sold.

Question 5.
Write the principles of preparation of trial balance.
Answer:
The principle of preparation of trial balance is debit entry have automatic credit on some other account.

Question 6.
Mention the different types of acceptance.
Answer:

1. General acceptance: If the drawee of the bills accepts the bill without any condition then it is called general acceptance.

2. Qualified acceptance: If the drawee of the bill accepts the bill by adding some conditions called qualified acceptance of bills.

Question 7.
What is profit and loss appropriation a/c?
Answer:
The financial statement prepared at the period and to show how the profit of a company appropriate or the internal profit of the company allocation called ‘profit and loss appropriation’ account.

Question 8.
If opening capital is ‘60,000, drawings ‘5,000, additional capital ‘10,000, closing capital ‘90,000, what will be the profit earned?
Answer:
Profit = Closing capital + Drawings – (Additional capital + Opening capital)
Profit = 90,000 + 5,000 – (10,000 + 60,000) Profit = 25,000.

Question 9.
State any two units of CPU.
Answer:
Two unite of CPU are:

1. Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
2. Memory unit
3. Control unit

Question 10.
Mention the different types of software.
Answer:
The different types of software are:

1. Operating system
2. Utility program
3. Application software
4. Language processors
5. System software
6. Connectivity software.

SECTION – B

II. Answer any 5 questions each carries 2 marks. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 11.
Who are External users of accounting information?
Answer:
External users of accounting informations are

• Investors.
• Suppliers & creditors
• Customers
• Government
• Common man or society

Question 12.
Write any four concepts of accounting.
Answer:

1. Money measurement concepts
2. Dual concepts
3. Business entity concept
4. Continuity concept.

Question 13.
Write the rule of Nominal a/c.
Answer:
The nominal a/c rule is – “DEBIT ALL EXPENSES AND LOSSES CREDIT ALL INCOMES AND GAINS”

Question 14.
What is bank overdraft?
Answer:
It is a current a/c. Where bank provide opportunity to withdraw more than deposit called (B.O.D.) Bank Over Draft.

Question 15.
Write the meaning of one side error. Give example.
Answer:
Any errors affects only one side, either debit or credit aspects of transaction it is called one side error.
Example: Pasting Rs. 500 as Rs. 50.

Question 16.
Mention the statements prepared under final accounts.
Answer:
The Financial statements prepared under final accounts are:

1. Trading account
2. Profit and Loss a/c
3. Profit and loss appropriation a/c
4. Balance sheet

Question 17.
What is meant by Accounting Package?
Answer:
Accounting Package means a collection of programs which process accounting information or data to provide required results in the form of financial statements to users.

Question 18.
What is Reserve?
Answer:
Reserve is an appropriation of profit retained to meet unknown liabilities or contingencies.

SECTION – C

III. Answer any 4 questions each carries 6 marks. (6 × 4 = 24)

Question 19.
How is a computer needful?
Answer:
The following facts makes computer needful:

1. Performs complex and repetitive calculations.
2. Computer works with greater speed and accuracy.
3. Capacity to store large volumes of data.
4. Stored information can be retrained immediately.
5. It does not get tired or bored.

Question 20.
What is petty cash book? Write the advantages of petty cash book?
Answer:
Petty cash book is used for recording payments of small expenses, which are of smaller denominations such as postage, stationery, conveyance, refreshment, etc. person who maintains petty cash book is known as petty cashier and these small expenses are termed as petty expenses.

It is prepared by the below given two methods:
1. Ordinary system:
Under this system, a certain sum of money is given to the petty cashier for the payment of petty expenses. After spending the whole amount, the accounts are submitted by the petty cashier to the main cashier.

2. Imprest system:
Under this system, a fixed sum of money is given to the petty cashier in the beginning of a period to meet the petty expenses to be incurred in that period. At the end of the period, the amount spent by petty cashier is reimbursed. So, the petty cashier has the same fixed amount of money in the beginning of the next period.

Advantages of petty cash book
1. Simple method:
Recording of transactions in a petty cash book is easy. In an analytical petty cash book, there exists separate heads for different petty expenses, which makes recording much easier. Recording in a petty cash book does not require formal knowledge of accounting principles and techniques.

2. Time saving:
Recording in petty cash book saves time and efforts of the chief cashier.

3. Efficient control:
At the end of a period, petty cash book is audited by the main cashier, so frauds and errors are less probable.

4. Convenient handling:
Recording in petty cash book is convenient, as entries are to be recorded under separate heads, which makes posting easier and quicker.

Question 21.
Give any five advantages of a Journal.
Answer:
Advantages of a Journal are :

1. It provides date wise record of ail the transaction. This facilitates quick and easy reference of any transaction.
2. It provides complete record of all the transactions at one place.
3. By providing narration to each entry , journal helps to understand the purpose and nature of the entry.
4. Maintenance of journal, besides ledger helps to avoid mistakes or errors in the books of accounts.
5. It is useful in rectification of errors.

Question 22.
Pass Journal Entries for rectifying the following errors (without opening suspense A/c)

1. ₹ 2,000 received from a tenant has been credited to tenant’s account.
2. ₹ 800 tuition fees of ward paid by the proprietor has been recorded as office expenses.
3. ₹ 500 spent on the repairs of furniture has been debited to furniture account,
4. Credit purchases from Ramesh ₹ 1,000 has been recorded in sales book.
5. ₹ 5,000 paid to an employee as salary debited to his personal account.

Answer:

Question 23.
Given below are some transactions of Shri Das. Use Accounting equations to show their effect on his assets, liabilities, and Capital:

1. Started business with cash ₹ 60,000
2. Purchased furniture for each ₹ 3,000
3. Purchased goods on credit from Ramesh ₹ 6,000
4. Withdrew for personal use ₹ 1,000
5. Sold goods costing ₹ 3,000 for ₹ 4,000

Answer:

Question 24.
Explain the special features of accounts from incomplete records.
Answer:
Special features of accounts from incomplete records are:

1. Both the aspect of each and every transactions are not recorded.
2. Under this system all kinds of accounts are maintained.
3. It is simple and easy method of book keeping.
4. It is less costly.
5. It is not very supportive to find out exact profit of the business concern.
6. Not possible to find out correct profit or loss of a concern.

Question 25.
Enter the following transaction in Sales Return Book :
2104
July 5. Returned goods by Indian Glass-ware Company
200 Glass cups at ₹ 10 per up
100 Juice cups at ₹ 20 per cup
Less Trade discount at 10%

20. Returned by Hindustan Deptt. Stores
150 Coffee cups at ₹ 10 per cup
25 plates at ₹ 20 per plate
Less trade discount at 10%
Answer:

SECTION – D

IV. Answer any 4 questions each carries 12 mark. (12 × 4 = 48)

Question 26.
On 1^st January, 2014, X sold goods worth ₹ 5,000 to Y and drew a bill on Y at three months for the amount. Y accepted the bill and returned it to Z who endorsed the bill one month after the acceptance in favour of Z in settlement of his debt for ₹ 5,100. The bill is honoured on maturity. Pass the necessary journal entries in the books of X, Y, and Z.
Answer:

Question 27.
On 31^st December, 2013, the following Trial Balance was extracted from the books of a merchant.

Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31^st December, 2013 and Balance Sheet as on the date after making adjustments of the following:

1. Depreciate Land and Buildings at 2 \(1 / 2\)% and Motor Vehicles at 20%
2. Salaries outstanding ₹ 700.
3. Prepaid Insurance ₹ 200.
4. Provision for Bad Debts is to be maintained at 5% on Sundry Debtors.
5. Stock in hand on 31^st December, 2013 was valued at ₹ 7,000.

Answer:

Question 28.
Jayalakshmi has not kept her books under Double-entry System and asks you to prepare a statement showing her profits for the year ended 31^st December, 2013 and a Revised Statement of Affairs as on that date. Her financial position was as follows:

During the year, Jayalakshmi’s drawings amounted to ₹ 8,000 and she has invested ₹ 5,000 at par on 1-7-2013 in 12% Debenture, which is to be now treated as a business asset. The interest on the same is still due. Depreciate furniture by ₹ 500.
Answer:

Question 29.
Journalize the following transactions and post them to various ledger accounts:

Answer:

Question 30.
Prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement from the following Particulars.

Answer:

Question 31.
Enter the following transactions in the subsidiary books of Soundarya Saree Shop.
2001
Aug. 1. Purchased from Pathi Silk Kendra
100 Printed Sarees at ₹ 250 each

5. Purchased from NSR & Company
200 Kanchi Sarees at ₹ 1,000 each

7. Sold to Kumar on account
50 Printed Sarees at ₹ 300 each
100 Kanchi Sarees at 1,250 each

8. Claimed for damages from Pathi Silk Kendra ₹ 500

9. Returned damaged goods to NSR & Company
5 Kanchi Sarees

12. Purchased from Sudarshan Silks
150 Mysore Silk at ₹ 250 each
100 Handloom Sarees at ₹ 750 each
Less trade discount at 10%

15. Sold to Kala on account
20 Printed Sarees at ₹ 300 each
25 Kanchi Sarees at ₹ 1,300 each
20 Mysore Silk Saree at ₹ 300 each
Less trade discount at 5%

20. Sold to Kusum Sarees
40 Handloom Sarees at ₹ 1,000 each

21. Kumar returned
10 Printed Sarees
20 Kanchi Sarees

25. Returned to Sudarshan’s Silk
25 Mysore Silk

27. Returned from Kusum Sarees
10 Handloom Sarees

30. Purchased from Nandi Silk
400 Nandhi brand Sarees at ₹ 500 each
Answer:

Purchase Returns Book

Question 32.
X Ltd. acquired a lease for 5 years on 1^st April, 2008 at a cost of ₹ 30,000. It was decided to depreciate it under the annuity method at 5% interest. Annuity table shows that at 5%, Re. 1 over 5 years is equivalent to Re. 0.230975.
Write up the Lease A/c and Depreciation A/c for 5 years ending 31.03.2013.
Answer:
Calculation of Depreciation = 30,000 × 0.230975
= 6929.25

SECTION – E

V. Answer any 2 questions each carry 5 mark. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 33.
Prepare a Statement of Affairs using imaginary figures.
Answer:
Statement of Affairs

Question 34.
Write the Accounting Equation and find out the missing figures:

Answer:
1. Assets = Capital + Liabilities
₹ 3,40,000 = ₹ 3,20,000 + ₹ 20,000

2. Liabilities = Assets – Capital
₹ 2,00,000 = ₹ 3,50,000 – ₹ 1,50,000

3. Capital = Asset – Liabilities
₹ 1,75,000 – ₹ 2,00,000 – ₹ 25,000

Question 35.
Draft a specimen of the Balance sheet with imaginary figures.
Answer:

Students can Download 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 1 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Papers with Answers help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

समय : ३ घंटे १५ मिनट]
कुल अंक : १००

सूचना :

• सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर हिन्दी भाषा तथा देवनागरी लिपि में लिखना आवश्यक है।
• प्रश्नों की क्रमसंख्या लिखना अनिवार्य है।

I. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 1.
बेनीमाधव सिंह किस गाँव के जमींदार थे?

प्रश्न 2.
लेखक के मन में किसके प्रति मैल नहीं रहा?

प्रश्न 3.
‘बिन्दा’ रेखाचित्र की लेखिका कौन है?

प्रश्न 4.
दिल के दौरा का प्रमुख लक्षण क्या है?

प्रश्न 5.
उम्मीदवारों में कौन अधिक संख्या में थे?

प्रश्न 6.
राष्ट्र का तीसरा अंग कौनसा है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 7.
स्वदेश भक्ति के बारे में स्वामी विवेकानंद जी का आदर्श क्या है?

प्रश्न 8.
अंबेडकर ने पीड़ित समाज के उद्धार के लिए क्या-क्या किया?

प्रश्न 9.
निन्दकों के संघ के बारे में लिखिए।

प्रश्न 10.
चैयरमन साहब के बँगले पर का दृश्य प्रस्तुत कीजिए।

प्रश्न 11.
वैद्य परमानन्द गाय की बीमारी दूर करने का क्या उपाय बताते हैं?

II. अ) निम्नलिखित वाक्य किसने किससे कहे? (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 12.
बहू-बेटियों का यह स्वभाव अच्छा नहीं कि मर्दो के मुँह लगे।

प्रश्न 13.
अभागी मरती भी नहीं।

प्रश्न 14.
‘अरे बिच्छू-बिच्छू।

प्रश्न 15.
घबराइए मत। आँखें मत खोलिए, आप शेर से लड़िए।

आ) निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं दो का ससंदर्भ स्पष्टीकरण कीजिए: (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 16.
‘पर तुमने आजकल घर में क्या उपद्रव मचा रखा है?’

प्रश्न 17.
‘तब क्या उस घर में विवाह हो रहा है, और हो रहा है तो किसका?’

प्रश्न 18.
‘यह मार्ग अपेक्षाकृत भयानक है, इसलिए इसका सौंदर्य भी अभी अछूता है।’

प्रश्न 19.
‘भूमि माता है, मैं उसका पुत्र हूँ।’

III. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 20.
तुलसीदास के अनुसार कौन से दो बीज हैं?

प्रश्न 21.
अल्लमप्रभु देव के आराध्य कौन थे?

प्रश्न 22.
तट पर आकर कौन पानी पीते हैं?

प्रश्न 23.
कवि बच्चन जी किसके कंठों से दर्द की आवाज सुनते हैं?

प्रश्न 24.
चित्रकार ने किसको समेट लिया है?

प्रश्न 25.
वीर काँटों को क्या समझता है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 26.
मीराबाई ने उनके ऊपर हुए अनाचारों का वर्णन कैसे किया है?

प्रश्न 27.
‘तोड़ती पत्थर’ कविता का सारांश अपने शब्दों में लिखिए?

प्रश्न 28.
बच्चन जी पाठकों को क्या-क्या भेंट देते हैं?

प्रश्न 29.
नारी के विभिन्न गुणों का परिचय दीजिए।

इ) ससंदर्भ भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए: (4 × 2 = 8)

प्रश्न 30.
निंदक नियरे राखिये, आँगन कुटी छबाय।
बिन पानी, साबुन बिना निर्मल करै सुभाय ॥
अथवा
मोर-पखा सिर ऊपर राखिहौं, गुंज की माला गरें पहिरौंगी।
ओढ़ि पितम्बर लै लंकुटी बन, गोधन ग्वारनि संग फिरौंगी॥
भावतो वोहि मेरो ‘रसखानि’, सो तेरे कहें सब स्वांग करौंगी।
या मुरली मुरलीधर की, अधरान-धरी अधरा न धरौंगी॥

प्रश्न 31.
मैं हूँ प्रेममयी, जग दिखता
मुझे प्रेम का पारावार।
भरा प्रेम से मेरा जीवन,
लुट रहा है निर्मल प्यार ॥
अथवा
तुम देवलोक आनंद गीत-आशा अखण्ड शोभा परीत
मैं स्नेह विकल झंकृत प्रगीत-तुम आओ मन के मुग्ध मीत ॥

IV. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 32.
कहानी सुनने का शौक किसको था?

प्रश्न 33.
‘श्मशान’ कहानी की लेखिका कौन है?

प्रश्न 34.
थाली में चाँदी के कितने चम्मच रखे हुए थे?

प्रश्न 35.
भीख माँगना किसी भी व्यक्ति के लिए क्या है?

प्रश्न 36.
सिलिया की सहेली का नाम लिखिए।

प्रश्न 37.
रामचंद्र की पढ़ाई कहाँ तक हुई थी?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिएः (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 38.
शराबी पात्र का चरित्र-चित्रण कीजिए।

प्रश्न 39.
श्मशान ने आह भरकर पहाडी से क्या कहा?

प्रश्न 40.
‘खून का रिश्ता’ कहानी के उद्देश्य पर प्रकाश डालिए।

प्रश्न 41.
चन्द्रप्रकाश का चरित्र-चित्रण कीजिए।

प्रश्न 42.
सिलिया ने अपने संकल्प को किस प्रकार साकार किया?

प्रश्न 43.
बीमार प्रमोद की हालत कैसी थी?

V. अ) वाक्य शुद्ध कीजिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 44.
क) सभी उसको तारीफ करते हैं।
उत्तरः
सभी उसकी तारीफ करते हैं।

ख) मोहन की पिताजी अस्वस्थ्य हैं।
उत्तरः
मोहन के पिताजी अस्वस्थ हैं।

ग) सुभाषचंद्र बोस महान नेता था।
उत्तरः
सुभाषचंद्र बोस महान नेता थे।

घ) बकरी ने बाघिन को देखी।
उत्तरः
बकरी ने बाघिन को देखा।

ङ) मैं किताब पढ़कर के ही उढूँगा।
उत्तरः
मैं किताब पढ़कर ही उदूंगा।

आ) कोष्टक में दिये गये उचित कारक चिन्हों से रिक्त स्थान भरिएः (पर, में, के, का, से) (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 45.
क) देवदारू ……… पेड़ भी इधर बहुत है।
ख) उसे पद ……. हटा दिया गया।
ग) चुल्हें ……… चढ़ाया दूध उफना जा रहा था।
घ) वह घर ……….. नहीं है।
ङ) उसकी बहन ……… नाम मालती है।
उत्तरः
क – के; ख – से; ग – पर; घ – में; ङ – का।

इ) निम्नलिखित मुहावरों को अर्थ के साथ जोड़कर लिखिएः (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 46
1) आँख से ओझल होना – क) कृपादृष्टि न रखना।
2) आँखों में रात काटना – ख) नेत्र ज्योती समाप्त होना।
3) आँख बदल जाना – ग) नजर से दूर होना।
4) आँखें बैठना – घ) चिन्ता या व्यग्रता में रात बिताना।
उत्तरः
1 – ग; 2 – घ; 3 – क; 4 – ख।

ई) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को सूचनानुसार बदलिए: (1 × 3 = 3)

प्रश्न 47.
क) वह एक छाता खरीद लेगा। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
वह एक छाता खरीद रहा है।

ख) गर्मियों में बाहर गली में सोना पड़ेगा। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
गर्मियों में बाहर गली में सोना पड़ा।

ग) तरकारी भी लौकी की ही बन गई। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
तरकारी भी लौकी की ही बनने वाली हैं।

उ) अन्य लिंग रूप लिखिए: (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 48
ग्वाला, बुद्धिमती।
उत्तरः
ग्वालिन, बुद्धिमान।

ऊ) अन्य वचन रूप लिखिए: (1 × 2 = 2

प्रश्न 49.
मछली, केला।
उत्तरः
मछलियाँ, केले।

ए) समानार्थक शब्द लिखिए : (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 50.
आभूषण, शरीर।
उत्तरः
गहना, देह।

ऐ) विलोम शब्द लिखिए : (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 51.
समर्थ, आधार।
उत्तरः
असमर्थ, निराधार।

VI. अ) निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद पढ़कर उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिएः (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 52.
विनय का अभाव एक प्रकार का खोखलापन प्रकट करता है। जिन लोगों में कोई श्लाघनीय गुण नहीं होता, वे अपनी ऐंठ और डाँट-फटकार से लोगों पर प्रभाव जमाते हैं, किंतु गुणवानों को इनकी आवश्यकता नहीं। उनका प्रभाव तो स्वतः सिद्ध है। यदि विनयशील मनुष्य का समाज में प्रभाव थोड़ा हो, तो विनयशील मनुष्य का दोष नहीं; यह समाज का दोष है। इसके अतिरिक्त प्रेम का प्रभाव चाहे थोड़ा हो, पर दबाव के प्रभाव की अपेक्षा, वह चिरस्थायी होता है। यदि थोड़ी देर के लिए मान भी लिया जाए कि विनय सब स्थानों में काम नहीं देती – जैसे शत्रु के सम्मुख, तथापि हमें वह कहना पड़ेगा कि विनयशील पुरुष को ऐसे अवसर कम आएँगे कि जब अपनी विनय के कारण दुखद अनुभव करना पडे। विनय के साथ निरभिमानता, मानव जाति का आदर, सहनशीलता, धैर्य आदि अनेक सद्गुण लगे हुए हैं।

प्रश्नः

1. विनय का अभाव एक प्रकार से क्या प्रकट करता हैं?
2. श्लाघनीय गुण न होने से लोग क्या करते है?
3. विनय किस स्थान पर काम नहीं देता?
4. उपर्युक्त गद्यांश को उचित शीर्षक दीजिए।
5. विनय के साथ जुड़े अन्य सद्गुण कौन-से हैं?

उत्तरः

1. विनय का अभाव एक प्रकार का खोखलापन प्रकट करता हैं।
2. वे अपनी ऐंठ और डाँट-फटकार से लोगों पर प्रभाव जमाते हैं।
3. विनय शत्रु के सम्मुख काम नहीं देता।
4. विनय का जीवन में महत्व’ / ‘विनयशीलता’।
5. विनय के साथ निराभिमानता, मानव जाति का आदर, सहनशीलता, धैर्य आदि अनेक सद्गुण है।

आ) पत्र लिखिएः (5 × 1 = 5)

प्रश्न 53.
बड़ी बहन के नाते अपने भाई को रक्षाबंधन के अवसर पर राखी भेजते हुए एक पत्र लिखिए।
अथवा
आर्थिक सहायता माँगते हुए अपने प्रधानाचार्य को आवेदन पत्र लिखिए।

इ) हिन्दी में अनुवाद कीजिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 54.

We are living in an age of science.
उत्तरः
हम विज्ञान के युग में रह रहे हैं।

Never carry petrol in plastic cans.
उत्तरः
कभी भी प्लास्टिक के डिब्बे में पेट्रोल नहीं ले जाना चाहिए।

The Nile is the longest river in the world with a length of more than 6,400 km.
उत्तरः
नैल नदी, जिसकी लंबाई 6400 कि मी है, दुनिया की सबसे लंबी नदी है।

Owls eat small mammals and insects.
उत्तरः
उल्लू छोटे स्तनधारी जीवों एवं कीड़ों को खाते हैं।

The battle of Talikota took place on January 23, 1565.
उत्तरः
तालिकोट की लड़ाई 23 जनवरी, 1565 को हुई थी।

Students can Download 1st PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper 2018 (North), Karnataka 1st PUC Political Science Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka1st PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 (North)

Time: 3:15 Hours
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in ONE sentence each: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Name the work of Aristotle.
Answer:
Aristotle wrote the book “The Politics”.

Question 2.
According to plato what should be the population of state?
Answer:
According to Plato, the population of the state is 5040.

Question 3.
Which is the root word of liberty?
Answer:
The root word of liberty is the Latin word; Liber which means free.

Question 4.
Give the best example for rigid constitution.
Answer:
America is having rigid constitution.

Question 5.
Which is the lengthiest constitution in the world?
Answer:
The Constitution of India is the lengthiest constitution in the world.

Question 6.
When the term of the Lok Sabha can be extended?
Answer:
During the National emergency, the term of the Lok Sabha can be extended.

Question 7.
What is executive?
Answer:
The executive is the second important branch of the government. It enforces the laws enacted by the legislature.

Question 8.
Who appoints the chiefs of Defence forces in india?
Answer:
President appoints the Chiefs of defence forces in India.

Question 9.
PIL-Expand.
Answer:
Public Interest Litigation.

Question 10.
Who is the guardian of the constitution?
Answer:
Judiciary.

II. Answer any Ten of the following questions in 2-3 sentences each. (10 ×2 = 20)

Question 11.
When and where was the international political science conference held?
Answer:
The International Political Science Conference was held in Paris in 1948 under the UNESCO conference.

Question 12.
Write about Greek city-states.
Answer:
In the ancient days, the Greeks lived in city-states. In those days, city-states were very small. People were living in small city-states and direct democracy was existing in those city-states.

Question 13.
Name the aspects of sovereignty.
Answer:

1. Internal sovereignty.
2. External sovereignty.

Question 14.
Mention any two kinds of law.
Answer:
There are different kinds of law the important among them are: National law, International law, constitutional law, common law, ordinary law, and administrative law, etc.,

Question 15.
What is equality?
Answer:
Facilities are provided to all the persons without any discrimination is called equality.

Question 16.
Write the meaning of federal government.
Answer:
It is the government which the powers of the state are divided and distributed between central and state government. It is, also known as dual polity. The federal government discharges its power and authority in accordance with constitution. Eg: U.S.A

Question 17.
Write any two features of parliamentary Government.
Answer:

• It ensures harmony between legislative and executive branches.
• There is no division of responsibility.
• Opposition keeps government on right path.
• There will be peaceful change of government.
• It ensures flexibility and elasticity.

Question 18.
What is Secular State?
Answer:
The government cannot extend special favour to any particular religion and treats equal is called secular state.

Question 19.
Mention any two qualifications for members of Rajyasabha.
Answer:

• Must be a citizen of India.
• “Should have attained the age of 30 years.
• Owe allegiance to the constitution.
• Must not hold any office of profit under the Government – National, Regional or local.
• Should not be insolvent or man of unsound mind.
• Must not have acquired the citizenship of a foreign state.

Question 20.
Who elects the Vice-president of India?
Answer:
The Vice-President of the Indian Union is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of members of both the Houses of Parliament.

Question 21.
What is Revenue court?
Answer:
The courts which deals with the cases relating to the maintenance of land records its assessment and collection of land revenue are called revenue courts. The revenue courts are organized as below.

• The boards of revenue
• The commissioner’s court
• The collectors court
• Tahsildar’s court

Question 22.
Name any two standing committees of Zilla panchayath.
Answer:

• General committee.
• The fiance, Auditing and planning committee.
• Social justice committee.
• Education and health committee.
• Agricultural and Industry committee.

III. Answer any Eight of the following in 15 to 20 sentences each : (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 23.
Explain the relevance of the study of Political science in the contemporary world.
Answer:
Aristotle says that man by nature is a social animal. He born in society, live in society and die in society only. To fulfill his needs, he created society. In society only he can enjoy all the facility’s love and affection. Away from society he maybe God or ghost. Man is a social being at the same time he is a political being also.

He is a selfish, egoist and quarrelsome by nature. The attitudes of selfish, egoist and jealousy of a man lead to anarchy in the society while leading the life. So the order of the society may be disrupted and man cannot lead his life happily and peacefully.

In order to control the bad behavior of such people and establish a peaceful society, there should be rules and regulations. The state has emerged to frame and implement these rules through its agency “The Government”. So the state controls the political activities of the human being and restore peace in the society. The subject which studies about the state, government, the political activities of a human being is regarded as political science.

Question 24.
Distinguish between state and Association.
Answer:

State	Voluntary Association
1. Definite territory is essential element of state	1. Associations have no definite territory.
2. Membership is compulsory man cannot Give up the membership.	2. Membership is temporary; man can give up the membership.
3. Individual can get the membership of only a state.	3. Individuals can get the membership of various associations as he pleases.
4. State is permanent and continuous.	4. Associations are temporary. State can control and abolish them at any time.
5. State has sovereignty.	5. Associations have no sovereignty.
6. State’s functions are wider.	6. Functions of associations are narrower.

Question 25.
Describe political Rights.
Answer:
a. Right to Vote:
All the citizens who have attained the age of 18 are eligible to vote through adult franchise without any discrimination.

b. Right to contest election:
All the citizens of a country who have attained a particular age are given the chance to contest elections and thus respect the aims and aspirations of various sections of society in government.

c. Right to Enter Government Service:
In a democracy, all the citizens are equally entitled to get government jobs on the basis of their qualifications.

d. Right to petition:
It gives an opportunity to all people to bring their problems to the notice of the government and seek remedies.

e. Right to Criticism:
It is one of the biggest boon of democracy. All citizens have the right to criticise the policies of the government.

Question 26.
Explain the features of Unitary Government.
Answer:
Features of Unitary Government:
1. Concentration of Power:
A Unitary government is characterized by the presence of a single centre, which is omnipotent and omnipresent all over the territory. All decisions of the state flow from one single centre.

2. No Provincial Autonomy:
The provinces or local units in a unitary system are created by the centre for the sake of administrative convenience. It carries out the orders of the centre without having any powers to make decisions. Thus, the local units only act as subordinate agents of the centre without any authority or autonomy.

3. Single legislature:
In a Unitary system of government there will be only one single supreme legislative assembly which makes laws for the whole country and are faithfully implemented by the local units.

4. Constitution may be written or unwritten:
The constitution, in a unitary government, may be written or unwritten as there is one single central authority wielding power all over the state without any other centres of power.

Question 27.
Discuss the essential elements of an ideal constitution.
Answer:
The essentials of an ideal constitution are explained as below
1. It should be definite :
An ideal constitution should not be vague but clearly narrate the provisions which relates to the organization of the government. The principles should be precise and clarity.

2. It should be comprehensive:
An ideal constitution must be comprehensive enough to mention the functions of the government and rights, duties of the citizens. The constitution should not be too big but include all the information on the government.

3. Method of amendment:
An ideal constitution should possess the method of amendment. As the social condition of the people is going on change, the constitution must also undergoes change. It should represent the future needs of the future generation.

4. It should correspond to reality :
An ideal constitution should correspond to the real, conditions obtained within the state, otherwise, it cannot work properly.

Question 28.
List out the fundamental duties of Indian citizens.
Answer:
The 42^nd amendment has incorporated a number of fundamental duties.

• Abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the national flag and, national anthem.
• Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
• Defend the country and render national service.
• Promote common brotherhood and harmony.
• Value and preserve our composite culture.
• Protect the natural environment.
• Develop the scientific temper.
• Strive towards excellence in all sphere.

Question 29.
Explain the different kinds of writs.
Answer:
1. Habeas corpus: It is an order issued by the court to produce the person who has wrongly detained within 24 hours.

2. Mandamus: It is a command issued by the court to ask the government official for performing his duties.

3. Prohibition: It is issued by a higher court to lower court to prevent their exceeding jurisdiction.

4. Certiorari: It is issued by a higher court to lower court to transfer a case pending with the later in a case.

5. Quo – warranto: It is issued by a court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to public office.

Question 30.
What are the powers and functions of the speaker of Loksabha?
Answer:
The presiding officer of Loksabha is the Speaker who is elected from among the members along with the Deputy Speaker and stays in office till the life of the House i.e., 5 years. His primary task is to protect the dignity and decorum of the House and to see that the proceedings of the House are conducted in an orderly and a focused manner. He is the principal spokesperson of the House and must be impartial and even-handed in dealing as the custodian of the House.

In order to ensure impartiality, the speaker resigns his party membership in the election. The Deputy speaker discharges the duty even the office of the speaker falls vacant due to resignation, death or removal by a 2/3 majority of the total membership of the House or in the absence of the speaker. The salary of the speaker is determined by the parliament from time to time. The Speaker’s position in the House is one of dignity and authority.

• All orders of the house are executed through the Speaker
• Communication from the President is made known through the Speaker.
• It is the power of the speaker to declare whether a bill is a money bill or not.
• He enjoys the authority of interpreting the Rules of procedure and has the power to vote except in case of a tie.
• No member can speak in the House without the permission of the speaker and it is the speaker who fixes the time limit for speech.
• He presides over the Joint sittings of the parliament.
• During discussions, the members must address the Chair.
• In case of a tie, the speaker has the right to cast a vote.
• Speaker’s decisions cannot be questioned in a court of law.

Question 31.
Explain the powers and functions of chief Minister.
Answer:
The functions of the Chief Minister is so powerful that he is referred to as “the first among equals” (Primus intersperes). Article 164 of the constitution states that “there shall be a Council of ministers headed by the Chief Minister for the state”. The Chief Minister is elected from among the members of the majority party in Vidhana Sabha.

In case no party enjoys majority it is left to the discretion of the Governor to pick the Chief Minister, who in his opinion will prove majority in a stipulated time. Traditionally, the Chief Minister should be from the Vidhana Sabha.

1. Formation of Ministry:
The primary task of the Chief Minister on assuming office is the formation of the Council of ministers. Normally ministers are picked from the same political formation to ensure uniformity and continuity of policy. However, nothing prevents the Chief Minister from picking anyone as minister from any party. The Chief Minister enjoys the authority to pick and choose his ministry because he is responsible for the efficiency and performance of the government.

2. Allocation of Portfolios:
After forming the ministry the next important task is the allocation of responsibilities to ministers. Certain key or heavyweight portfolios such as Home, Revenue, Finance, Industry, Public works are to be given to key and heavyweights who enjoy clout and following among party worker. Also to ensure efficiency and stability of the government. The Chief Minister enjoys the power of expanding and reforming the ministry.

3. Chairman of the Cabinet:
The cabinet meetings are held under the chairmanship of the Chief Minister. The cabinet is a deliberating forum and differences may come up. It is the responsibility of the Chief Minister to mediate and soften things and arrive at decisions.

The Chief Minister has the authority to decide the matters to be taken up by the cabinet and may accept or reject proposals. Normally the proposals brought by ministers for discussion are not rejected. In the era of coalition politics, it is a challenge for the Chief Minister to hold the flock together. It is very difficult to chair a cabinet meeting full of divergent views, ideologies, and principles.

4. Leader of Vidhana Sabha:
Chief Minister is the leader of Vidhana Sabha. All major decisions and announcements of the state government are made by the Chief Minister. It is the responsibility of the Chief Minister to ensure that all bills brought before Vidhana Sabha for approval are passed.

And he has to defend the government on the floor of the house. Though ministers are individually responsible to their ministries, it is the Chief Minister who provides general leadership and direction. If any minister makes a mistake, the Chief Minister has the power to guide and correct him.

5. Leader of the Government:
The decisions of the government however good, are subjected to scrutiny and criticism. The opposition parties lose their identity if they do not criticize the government. So to guard against it, the Chief Minister, as leader of the government has to defend policies and programmes of the government both in and out of legislature.

6. Coordination and Supervision:
In running the administrative machinery Chief Minister will have to encounter numerous problems ranging from routine to serious. Under the circumstances it is essential to integrate different departments and see that they work smoothly and the ability of the Chief Minister is tested on this count.

A Chief Minister should not only pick a team but also retain it as a team till the end of the term. Whenever problems arise between departments, he has to mediate and sort it out amicably through dialogue and goodwill.The Chief Minister is the general head of the government. Hence he has the responsibility of supervising the administration.

Though each minister is in charge of a ministry, lack of general supervision results in poor administrative quality. To maintain quality in administration, the Chief Minister will have to supervise it, not only gives him a general feel of the administration but also makes the ministers more responsible. The Chief Minister may correct the working of a particular ministry and offer suggestions.

7. Bridge between the Governor and the State Legislature:
The Chief Minister acts as a link between the Governor and state legislature in a parliamentary government. As all executive powers are vested in the hands of the Governor, the Chief Minister is duty-bound to keep the Governor informed about the decisions taken by the government.

Also, the Governor himself can call for any information from the government. The Chief Minister not only acts as a bridge but also as the advisor to the President. Whenever necessary the President will look forward for advice. For example, the Governor seeks the advice of the Chief Minister before dissolving Vidhana sabha.

8. Power of Dissolution:
The Vidhana sabha exists as long as the Chief Minister wishes because even before the expiry of 5 years term, Chief Minister may seek the dissolution of Vidhana sabha. The Vidhana sabha may be dissolved if deep differences surface within the government or within the ruling party or the government loses a motion of no confidence.

9. Power of Appointment:
Though civil appointments are made by the Governor, it is based on the recommendation of the Chief Minister.

Question 32.
Write about the significance of Judiciary.
Answer:
It is the third branch of government, which settles disputes. It is there for administration of justice.

1. Regulation of Civic Behavior:
It is the responsibility of the judiciary that if anyone, however big and mighty, does not follow the rules and regulations prescribed by the constitution, he is liable for punishment depending upon the magnitude of crime.

2. Protection of rights and liberties:
The Judicial system is not meant to punish only the individuals and groups but also the government. If the government violates the rights of the people, people can go to a court of law and seek suitable relief. This upholds the principle that all are equal in the eye of law and all are treated alike.

3. Instill confidence of the people:
The people look up to the judiciary as a ‘neutral umpire’ deciding a case purely on merit but not on any other consideration. A common man looks up to judiciary as the ultimate lamp of justice. If the judiciary fails to stand up to the expectations of the people by being partisan to any influence or power, people stop believing not only the judiciary but also in the constitution – the fundamental law of the land. So, it is the responsibility of judiciary to make people trust the judiciary and importantly respect the constitution.

Question 33.
Write about the 74^th constitutional amendment act.
Answer:
The 74^th constitutional amendment act which came into effect in 1993 can be explained as its provisions as below.

The state government can conduct the elections.
It ensures a firm relation between state government and urban local bodies with regards to taxation powers and revenue sharing.

• It provides adequate reservation facilities to SG, ST, Backward class and women.
• The state government has power to legislate about reservation in urban local bodies.
• The members should elect directly by the residents who are living in urban area.
• The tenure of the urban local bodies in 5 years.
• Elections shall be held within 6 months from the date of dissolution.
• Members of parliament and assembly are the ex-officio members of urban local bodies.
• The state government can nominate 5 members to the urban local bodies.
• The state government has power to prepare plan for economic and social development.
• State finance commission has been established to review the finances of urban local bodies.

Question 34.
Explain the functions of Taluk panchayath.
Answer:
The powers and functions of Taluk Panchayats are as below:

• Preparation of annual plans and submit to Z.P.
• Preparation of annual budget and report to Z.P.
• Providing basic felicities to victims of natural calamities.
• Promotion of agriculture and horticulture.
• Ensuring overall development of the Taluk.
• Constrictions and maintenances of roads, bridges, and buildings
• Promotes poverty alienation programmes, literacy programmes.
• Development of primary and secondary education.
• Promoting the welfare of women children and physically handicapped.
• Providing electric and water felicities.
• Promoting animal husbandry, poultry and fisheries.
• Promoting the welfare of SC, ST and backward class.
• Regulating the markets in rural areas.
• Conducting health and family welfare programmes.
• Encouraging small irrigation programmes.

IV. Answer any Two of the following in 30 to 40 sentences each: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 35.
What is Dictatorial Government? Explain its features.
Answer:
1. Absolute power:
Dictatorship is characterized by absolute power where the dictator controls the constitution. He can make and unmake laws. All the laws must originate from him and there is neither a limit on his tenure nor is he subjected to any other authority.

2. Based on Force:
Dictatorship stands on the twin pillars of force and coercion. The word of the dictator should be honored in letter and spirit. Any violation of the order may result in severe punishment or even death.

3. Totalitarian state:
Dictatorial regimes regulate and control all aspects of human existence. It provides security, basic necessities such as food, shelter and clothing, education and order in society. In totalitarian state’s individual personality is suppressed and all aspects of an individual are regimented and brought under the control of the state. The totalitarian approach is well summarized by Mussolini when he says: “Everything within the state, nothing above the state, nothing outside the State’’. Thus, the State is the central point around which all human activities must revolve.

4. One Nation one party:
In a dictatorship, for the whole state, there is only one constitution and the administration is managed by one single party and that is responsible for the whole state. Any kind of criticism of the party or the leadership is not tolerated. The distinct feature of dictatorship is its intolerance to criticism and new ideas.

5. No individual liberty:
In a dictatorship, individual freedom and liberty do not find place. Freedom of thought and expression is restricted.

Question 36.
Describe the powers and functions of the Vidhana sabha.
Answer:
There is a legislative assembly for every state. The number of members depends upon the population of the state. But it can not have less than 60 and more than 500 members. The members are chosen by direct election by people of the state. The governor has been given the power to nominate one or two members of the Anglo Indian community legislative assembly is five years.The powers and functions of Vidhanasabha are as follows:

1. Legislative Functions:
The Legislative Assembly is entitled to pass laws on all subjects that fall under the state list such as police, public health, education, local-self governments, etc. Without the consent of the Vidhanasabha, no bill can become a law.

Though the Vidhanasabha is competent enough to make laws on subjects listed in the concurrent list along with the central legislature, if parliament passes a law contained in the concurrent list, the legislative assembly is not competent to pass a law on the same subject.However, some bills require the previous permission of the President before they are introduced in the state legislature.

In case of breakdown of constitutional machinery’ in a state or when the proclamation of emergency is in operation, parliament has the power of making laws on matters falling under the state list. In case of a conflict between state law and the law of the parliament, the law of the parliament shall supreme.

2. Financial Functions:
The Vidhanasabha enjoys total control over the finance of the state. No new tax can be levied or collected without the consent of the Vidhanasabha. The authority of the Vidhanasabha over Vidhanaparishad is strengthened by the fact that a Money bill or Financial bill can only originate in the Vidhanasabha and the Vidhanaparishad can at the most delay it by 14 days but cannot reject or amend the Bill.

The annual income-expenditure statement of the year the Budget must get the approval of the Vidhanasabha. Even year during March-April, the beginning of the financial year, it is the responsibility of the government to place the budget before the house and seek its approval.

3. Control over the Executive (Administration):
The Vidhanasabha enjoys direct control over the administration, as the executive is directly, collectively, responsible to the Vidhanasabha and remains in office as long as they enjoy the confidence of the house. The members of the house can seek information from the government through questions and supplementary questions.

It is the responsibility of the ministers to clarify points raised by members and give a satisfactory explanation.Any attempt to lie or mislead the house is considered an offence against the house punishable under Contempt of the House.

The debating occasions such as the Question Hour, Adjournment motion, the Emergency Adjournment motion, the Zero Hour, the Cut motion, the Call-attention motion keeps the executive under constant check and the executive must be alert and ready with answers. However, ministers can ask for time to answer questions. The most effective weapon in the hands of the Vidhanasabha is the No-confidence motion, which can bring down a government.

4. Electoral Functions:
The members of the Vidhanasabha along with the members of the parliament constitute an electoral college to elect the President of India. They also take part in electing the members of Rajyasabha and also of the members of Legislative council.

5. Constituent Functions:
The state legislative assembly takes part in amending a few constitutional provisions. The Assembly does not initiate any amendment to constitution neither does it has such powers. But ratification of at least not less than half of the State legislative assemblies is necessary for amending certain provisions of the constitution. For instance, if there has to be an amendment made to electoral procedure of electing president of India then it has to be ratified by 1/2 of the states, which in turn is done by state legislative assemblies.

Question 37.
Explain the powers and functions of the president of India.
Answer:
In the Parliamentary government, the position of the President is that of a respectful figure-head, representing the honor and dignity of the people of India. It has become a fashion to label the President as ‘a rubber stamp’, the impression is that he does nothing but signing bills brought before him. But there are occasions that offer scope for independent decisions. When no party enjoys a majority, the power to appoint Prime minister rests with the President (Article 75).

In case of sudden demise of Prime minister, if the party fails to elect its leader, at the earliest, President may appoint a person of his choice as the Prime minister. Importantly, if a government loses majority and recommends for the dissolution of the house (Lok sabha), it is purely power of the President to dissolve the parliament or not (Article 85).The powers and functions of the President are as follows:

1. Legislative Functions:
The legislative functions are detailed below:

a. To summon, prorogue and dissolve the Parliament.

b. The President enjoys the power to address the Parliament. It is normally done after general elections or the first session of the year. It is generally called Presidential speech. This inaugural speech outlines the objectives and priorities of the government.

c. In passing the bills, if a dead lock arises due to non-agreement between two houses . of the parliament, the President may call for joint session of both the houses.

d. The President may address Lok sabha or Rajya sabha or both any time and also may send a message to both the houses of parliament to look into a bill.

e. In the considered view of the President, if he is satisfied that the Anglo-Indian community is not adequately represented, he may nominate 12 members to Rajva Sabha and 2 members to Lok sabha.

f. Prior permission of the President is essential while dealing with bills relating to formation of new states, alteration of boundaries and some special bills like the finance bills.

g. No bill can become a law without the assent of the President. He enjoys the power to withhold a bill. This power is called ‘Veto power”. However he cannot refuse his assent for finance bills. But he can withhold assent for a nonmoney bill. But if the same is resubmitted for signature even without changes, he cannot refuse to sign it.

h. The President enjoys the power of issuing Ordinance when the parliament is not in session. It will have the same power and effect similar to that of a law made by the Parliament provided the same is ratified by the Parliament within 6 weeks of its passage. Otherwise it ceases to be a law and is considered null and void or zero.

2. Executive Functions:
The President is the administrative Head of the State and orders are executed in his name. Article 53 clearly states that the executive powers of the State must be vested in ‘the hands of the President’.

• All accords and agreements carried out on behalf of the Government of India is done in the name of the President.
• The President has the power to call for any information from the government.
• The President appoints the Prime minister and the Council of minister on recommendation of the Prime minister.
• The highest constitutional functionaries such as Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), ChiefVigilance Commissioner (CVC) are appointed by the President.
• The member of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), National Human Right Commission (NHRC), Backward Class Commission (BCC) and National Commission for Women (NCW) are appointed by the President.
• The President enjoys the power of removing highest constitutional functionaries.The President can call for reports from Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Commission, Linguistic Minorities Commission (LMC), Backward Class Commission (BCC) and other commissions.

3. Financial powers:

• It is the constitutional obligation of the President to see that the annual income expenditure statement. The budget is placed before the Parliament for approval.
• Financial bills cannot be presented in the Parliament without the consent of the President.
• The recommendation of the Finance Commissions and the Planning Commission are placed before the Parliament on orders of the President.
• The members of the Finance Commission and Planning Commission are appointed by the President.

4. Judicial Powers:
a. The President enjoys the power of pardoning the sentence of a person declared an offender by the Supreme Court. He is so powerful that he can reduce change or altogether cancel the punishment. This power is called Presidential Pardon. This is provided to ensure any miscarriage of justice (Article 72).

b. The Judges of the Supreme Court and High court are appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

c. The President is entitled to legal advice on matters relating to the constitutional clarity of bills. However, it is not binding on the President to accept it.

5.Military Powers:
President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces. President has the power to declare war or peace, but parliamentary approval is essential for such a decision. The President can raise funds for training and preservation of armed forces with prior approval of the Parliament. The Chiefs of Army, Navy, and Air force are appointed by the President.

6. Diplomatic Powers:
a. The diplomatic powers of the President are purely symbolic in nature. The President represents the country in international affairs. His visits are of courtesy nature aimed at strengthening bilateral relations; he does not sign any treaties or agreements.

b. The ambassadors representing the country abroad are appointed by the President.

c. The foreign ambassadors are received by the President. No person can be considered an ambassador unless he is given the ‘Letter of Accreditation’ by the president.

7. Emergency Powers:
The emergency powers of the President are enumerated in the constitution from Article 352 to Article 360. The President may declare emergency under three circumstances:

a. The President may declare internal emergency under Article 352, if, in his opinion, there is a threat to India’s security due to war or external aggression.

b. The President may impose ‘President’s Rule’ under Article 356 if he is convinced that in that particular state the law and order has completely deteriorated and it cannot be governed as per the constitution. Though the President’s rule is imposed on the recommendation of the governor of the concerned state, it is not compulsory.

c. If the President is convinced that the financial stability and prestige of the nation is at risk, he may impose financial emergency under Article 360.

However, the imposition of internal and financial emergency should be placed before Parliament and its consent taken within 2 months of the declaration of emergency, otherwise, it is considered invalid.

Question 38.
How is independence of the judiciary ensured? Explain the measures.
Answer:
In order to ensure independence of judicial system in India, the following steps have been taken so that the judicial officers are not under pressure in discharging their duties.

a. The Constitution has made it obligatory on the part of the President to consult the Chief Justice of India in appointing a judge of Supreme Court. This not only makes the appointment non-political but also saves judiciary from the influence of the executive (the council of ministers).

b. A judge of the Supreme Court cannot be removed from office by the President at his will, but on a motion passed by a two-third majority of the total membership of either house addressed to him. Thus, the legislative control over the executive ensures judicial independence.

c. A judge of the Supreme Court, though appointed by the President on the advice of the council of ministers, does not hold office during the pleasure of the President, but based on good behavior. He can be removed only on charges of proven misbehavior or incapacity by a motion addressed to the President by the Parliament.

d. The salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court are determined by a law of parliament and is not subject to discussion. The salary and allowances of the judges cannot be reduced or varied to his disadvantage during his term of office. This means that he will not be in any way affected by any law made by the parliament since the day of his appointment.

e. The administrative expenses of the Supreme court, the salaries, and allowances of the judges and staff are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI), a corpus fund of Rs. 50 crore which may be enhanced from time to time, and it can not be voted in parliament. Discussion of the conduct of the judges of the Supreme Court is not allowed in parliament except during removal of a judge This gives immunity from criticism.

f. A judge of the Supreme Court is not permitted to practice in any court in India after retirement. This prevents him from falling prey to temptations. To boost accountability in the judicial system, the Central Information Commission (CIC) has brought the office of the Chief Justice under the purview of the Right to Information Act (RTI).

IV. Answer any Two of the following in 15-20 sentences each: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39
Explain the standing committees of purasabha.
Answer:
The Standing committees of Pura Sabha are

• Taxation, Finance and Appeal committee.
• Basic health, Education and Social justice committee.
• Tour planning and Improvement committee.
• Accounts and Audit committee.

Financial Sources

• Taxes on assets, water, professions, and advertisements.
• Rents from markets, complexes, and other properties.
• Grants and contributions from the State government.
• Income collected for providing drainage and sanitary facilities.
• Loans raised from the public with government approval.

OR

Write about the life and achievements of a local politician.
Answer:
One of the most popular and familiar leader of a state which is also called as local politician is siddaramaiah. He is a leader of Backward class and Ahinda organisation. Mr. Siddaramaiah after assuming the power as chief Minister of Karnataka implemented so many plans and programmes for the welfare of depressed class and backward class. His main programmes are Anna Bhagya.

Ksheera Bhagya, Shaadi Bhagya, Arogya Bhagya, Anila Bhagya, Maatru Pooma Scheme, manaswini scheme, mythri scheme, All these schemes are relatede to below poverty line, farmers, minorities, farmers and sexual minorities. Siddaramaiah has taken drastic decision to uplift the Ahinda community expecially minorities in the society. He waived the crops loans of farmers recently.

Question 40.
Write a note on Economic liberty.
Answer:
Economic liberty means security and the Opportunity to find the earning of one’s daily bread. Individual should be free from constant fear of unemployment, underemployment, and starvation.

State has to provide all its citizens adequate means of livelihood. It implies democracy in industry that is in the absence of this liberty worker has to work at the behest of others. This is secured through economic liberty.

OR

Write about the independence Day celebration in your college.
Answer:
Write about the independence day celebration in your college. Independence day is an important national festival in all over India. Previous day all the students cleaned and decorated the college campus by the guidance of lecturers. They tied buntings and colour papers with colourful rangoli. On the independence day, guests are invited by the students with flowers. Our college principal presided over the function.

Firstly national flag was hoisted by the chief guest with national anthem. One of the lecturers proposes welcome speech. Guests highlighted the values of the great ideal of our freedom fighters, cultural programmes attracted the students. Our principal delivers presidential address. One of the leaders of student proposes vote of thanks. Finally. sweets are distributed.