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Students can Download Economics Chapter 8 Index Numbers Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 8 Index Numbers

1st PUC Economics Index Numbers TextBook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An index number which accounts for the relative importance of the items is known as:

1. Weighted index
2. Simple aggregative index
3. Simple average of relative.

Answer:
1. An Index Number which accounts for the relative importance of the items is known as weighted index.

Question 2.
In most of the weighted index numbers the weight pertains to :

1. base year
2. current year
3. both base and current year

Answer:
1. In most of the weighted index number, the weight pertains to the base year.

Question 3.
The impact of change in the price of a commodity’ with little weight in the index will be:
Answer:

1. small
2. large
3. uncertain

Question 4.
A consumer price index measures changes in:

1. retail prices
2. whole sale prices
3. Production prices

Answer:
1. A consumer price index measures changes in retail prices.

Question 5.
The item having the highest weight in consumer price index for industrial workers is :

1. food
2. housing
3. clothing

Answer:
The item having the highest weight in consumer price index for industrial workers is food.

Question 6.
In general, inflation is calculated by using:

1. Wholesale price index
2. consumer price index
3. producer’s price index.

Answer:
In general inflation is calculated by using the wholesale price index.

Question 7.
Why do we need an index number?
Answer:
We need index number for measuring changes in the magnitude of a group of related variables.

Question 8.
What are the desirable properties of the base year?
Answer:
Desirable properties of the base year:

1. As far as possible, the base year should be a normal year i.e. it should be the one without ups and downs.
2. Extreme values should not be selected as base period.
3. The period should also not belong to too far in the past.
4. The base period for any index number is updated.

Question 9.
Why is it essential to have different CPI’s for different categories of consumers?
Answer:
It is essential to name different CPI’s for different categories of consumers as the cost of living of different categories of consumers differ.

Question 10.
What does a consumer price index for industrial workers measure?
Answer:
A consumer price index for industrial workers measure general inflation.

Question 11.
What is the difference between a Price Index and a Quantity Index? (11)
Answer:
A Price index measure changes in prices between two Points of time whereas a quantity index measures changes in the volume of goods produce.

Question 12.
Is the change in any price reflected in Price index number? (12)
Answer:
The change in any price is not reflected in price index number. Price index only shows the changes in the price of goods which are included in the construction of a particular index.

Question 13.
Can the CPI for urban non – manual employees represent the changes in the cost of living of the president of India?
Answer:
Yes, the CPI number for urban non – manual employees represents the changes in the cost of living of the president of India, Because he is also non – manual employee.

Question 14.
Try to list the important items of consumption in your family? (16)
Answer:
Wheat, Rice, Toothpaste, pulses, clothing, petroleum, housing, means of entertainment such as T.V. transistor, Radio, telephone, mobile, vehicle, books, stationery.

Question 15.
Read the following table carefully and give your comments INDEX OF INDUSTRIAL PRODUCTION (BASE 1993-94)

Answer:

1. The table shows that the growth performance of the broad industrial categories differ. The general index represents the average performances of these categories.
2. There is about 45% rise in general index.
3. There has been a comparatively lower performance of mining and quarrying It is about 25%.
4. The comparatively low performance of mining and quarrying has not been able to push down the general index due to high increase in manufacturing index and due to maximum weight given to this sector.

Question 16.
Try to list the important items of consumption in your family.
Answer:
Wheat, rice, toothpaste, pulses, clothing, petroleum, housing, means of entertainment such as T.V., transistor, radio, telephone, mobile, vehicle, books, stationery.

Question 17.
If the salary of a person in the base year is Rs. 4000 per annum and the current year is Rs. 6000. By how much should his salary rise to maintain the same standard of living if the CPI is Rs. 4000.
Answer:
Price Index of the Base year = 100
Current year salary = Rs. 6,000
Consumer price index of the current year = 400
His salary should rise to Rs. 16000 to maintain the same standard of living.
\($\frac{\text { Current Year CPI }}{\text { Base Year CPI }}$\) × Base year Salary = \(\frac{400}{100}\) × 4000 = Rs. 16,000

Thus, there should be a rise of Rs. 10,000 ( 16000-6000) in the salary of that person to maintain the same standard of living.

Question 18.
The consumer price index for June 2005 was 125. The food index was 120 and that of other items 135. What is the percentage of the total weight given to food?
Answer:
Suppose the percentage of weight given to food = x
In this case percentage of weight given to other items would be = (100 – x) or
12500 = 120x + 13500 – 135x
15x = 13500 – 12500=1000
x = \(\frac{1000}{15}\)= 66.66%
Hence, percentage of the total weight given to food = 66.66.

Question 19.
An enquiry into the budgets of the middle class families in a certain city gave the following information.

Answer:
What is the cost of living index of 2004 as compared with 1995?
Answer:

Question 20.
Record the only expenditure, quantities bought and prices paid per unit of the daily purchases of your family for two weeks. How has the price change affected you family?
Answer:
The students are advised that they should enquire of their parents about the daily expenditure quantities bought and prices paid per unit of daily purchases of their family for two weeks. They will come to know that the rising prices of goods have effected that family very much;
For example:

Σ p₀₁ = \(\frac{\sum p_{1} q_{1}}{\sum p_{0} q_{1}}=\frac{550}{444}\) × 100 = 1.2387 × 100 = 123.87

Price index of the 22^nd week P₀₁ = 123.87, which means that price increased by 23.87% compared to 1^st week. Family has to increase its expenditure by 23.87% for maintaining the same level of living of the 1^st week.

1st PUC Economics Index Numbers Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Economics Index Numbers Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define index number?
Answer:
An index number is a statistical measure designed to show change in a variable or group of related variables with respect to time, geographic location or other characteristics.

Question 2.
What is the difference between simple index number and weighted index number?
Answer:
In the simple index number all items of the series are treated as of equal importance. In the weighted index, weights are accorded to different items-depending on their relative importance.

Question 3.
What should be the base year like?
Answer:
The base year should be the year of economics stability. It should not to be too distant from the current year.

Question 4.
Define prime index number?
Answer:
Price index number is that number which measures and permits comparison of the price of certain goods.

Question 5.
State two types of price index number
Answer:

1. Consumer price index or cost of living index number.
2. Wholesale price index number.

Question 6.
Name the consumer groups for which consumers price index number is computed in India?
Answer:

1. Industrial workers.
2. Urban – non manual employees.
3. Agricultural labourers.

Question 7.
What is the other name of the Consumer? Price Index?
Answer:
The other name of the consumer price index is price deflater of income.

Question 8.
What do ‘inflation’ and ‘deflation’ refer to?
Answer:
‘Inflation’ refers to increase in prices and ‘deflation’ refers to decrease in prices.

Question 9.
Write down any two characteristics of index numbers?
Answer:

1. Index numbers are expressed in percentage.
2. They are specialised type of average.

Question 10.
What does consumer price index measure?
Answer:
Consumer price index measures the average changes in retail prices at which the consumers buy goods and services in the market at a given price.

Question 11.
Which price index is an indicator of change in the ‘general price level’
Answer:
The wholesale price index is an indicator of change in general price level.

Question 12.
What is the base year of the new series of wholesale price index numbers published , by the govt, of india?
Answer:
1993 – 1994

Question 13.
Write down the formula for calculating the inflation rate.
Answer:
Inflation rate = \(\frac{x_{1}-x_{1}-1}{x_{1}-1}\) × 100

Question 14.
Which index number is used to calculate the purchasing power of money and real wages?
Answer:
Consumer price index (CPI)

Question 15.
Write down the formula for calculating purchasing power of money?
Answer:
Purchase Power of Money = \(\frac{1}{\cos t \text { of living index }}\)

Question 16.
Calculate the purchasing power of one rupee when the cost of living index is 526 (1932 =100)
Answer:
Purchasing power of one rupee = \(\frac{1}{\cos t \text { of living index }}\)

Question 17.
Write down the formula for calculating real wages.
Answer:
Real wages = \(\frac{\text { money wages }}{\text { cost of living index }}\)

Question 18.
What will be the real wage of the consumer if his money wage is Rs. 10,000 and the cost of living index in 526?
Answer:
Real wages = \(\frac{\text { money wages }}{\text { cost of living index }}\) × 100

Question 19.
If the salary of a person in the base year was Rs. 3000 per annum and his current year salary is 10,000 by how much should his salary rise to maintain the same standard of living if CPI is 526.
Answer:
To maintain the same strandard of living a man’s salary should be Rs. 1570
\(\left(\frac{3000}{100} \times 526\right)\)
so the salary should be raised to 15780, This salary should be added by Rs. 5,780

Question 20.
The CPI (1982 = 100) is Rs. 526 in Jan 2005. Calculate the equivalent of a rupee in Jan 2005
Answer:
Equivalent of a rupees. It means that the rupee in Jan 2005 was worth 19 paise in 1982. In other worths 19 paise in 1982 in worth Rs. 1 in 2005 That is 526 times.

Question 21.
Write down the widely used index numbers?
Answer:
Widely used index numbers are whole sales price index number, consumer price index, index for industrial production, agricultural production index and sensex.

Question 22.
What is the other name of Consumer Price Index (CPI)?
Answer:
The other name of the Consumer Price index is the cost of living index.

Question 23.
In how many group are the industries grouped for construction of index of industrial production in India Name them.
Answer:
Industries are grouped into three categories

1. Mining
2. Manufacturing and
3. Electricity for constructing index of Industrial production of India.

Question 24.
What are the various methods of construction index number?
Answer:

1. Simple aggregative method.
2. simple average of price relative method
3. Weighted Aggregative method and
4. Weighted average of Price relative method.

Question 25.
What does sensex stand for?
Answer:
Sensex stands for Bombay stock exchange sensitive Index with 1978 – 79 as base.

Question 26.
What is an independent variable?
Answer:
An independent variable is that variable which is not dependent on any other values. Its value is free.

Question 27.
What is dependent variable?
Answer:
A dependent variable is that variable whose value depends on the value of an independent values.

1st PUC Economics Index Numbers Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Price Index?
Answer:
Index number is a statistical measure showing percentage or relative changes in variables like prices, production, exports etc.
According to Spiegel:
An Index number is a statistical measure designed to show changes in a variable or group of related variables with respect to time, geographic location or other characteristics.

Question 2.
Give utility of index numbers?
Answer:
Utility of index numbers

1. Index numbers are helpful to policymakers.
2. Index numbers simplify the facts.
3. Comparative study become easy.
4. Index number help us to study the general trend.
5. They are helpful in determination of real change in income.

Question 3.
What are the limitations of index numbers?
Answer:
In the construction of index numbers, there are some practical difficulties and theoretical limitations.

1. Index numbers are not fully true. They simply indicate arithmetical tendency of the temporal change in the variable.
2. Index numbers do not help in international comparison.
3. Index numbers are prepared with certain specific objective.
4. It is difficult to collect retail prices so index numbers based on wholesale prices may be misleading.

Question 4.
What are the consideration underlying the choice of base period in construction of an index number?
Answer:
Basic consideration underlying the choice of base period.

1. The base period should be a normal period. Abnormal periods like period of war or floods etc. should not be selected as a base year.
2. The base period should be neither too short nor too long.
3. It should not be the period for which actual data are not available.
4. It should not be the too far back in the past.

Question 5.
Discuss the simple Aggregative Price Index. What are its limitations?
Answer:
Simple Aggregative Price Index: A Simple Aggregative Price Index is defined as.
P₀₁ = \(\frac{\sum P_{11}}{P_{10}}\) × 100
Which is the sum of prices of commodities in the current period ‘I’ expressed as the sum of prices in the base year ‘ o ’
Limitations:

1. It has limited applicability.
2. No weightage is given to the relative importance of items.
3. Index is influenced by the itmes with the large unit prices.

Question 6.
Write down the uses of the wholesale Price Indiex numbers?
Answer:
Uses of the Wholesale Price Index numbers:

1. The time series of wholesale Price index numbers can be used to forecast future prices.
2. With the help of wholesale price index number, we can estimate the future demand and supply situation.
3. It is used to measure the rate of inflation.
4. It can be used to eliminate the effect of change in price on aggregates such as national income, capital formation etc.

Question 7.
Discuss the “weighted” and “unweighted” Index of Prices?
Answer:
“Weighted ” Index of Prices: In order to allow a dequate importance to different commodities in a composite index, we assign suitable weights to them. The weighted index number is simply the weighted arithmetic mean of Price relatives defined as
P₀₁ = Σ W₁ \(\frac{P_{11}}{P_{10}}\)
Where the weights W₁ W₂….. W₁₁ are such the Σ W₁ = 1

Question 8.
The consumer Price index for june, 2005 was 125. The food index was 120 and that of other items 135. What is the Percentage of the total weight given to food?
Answer:
Suppose the Percentage of weight given to food = x
In this case Percentage of weight given to other items would be = (100 – x)
Hence,
125 = \(\frac{(\mathrm{X} \times 120)+(100-\mathrm{x}) \times 135}{100}\)
or 12,500 = 12x + 13,500 – 135x
or 15x = 13,500 – 12,500 = 1,000
X = \(\frac{1,000}{15}\) = 66.66%
Hence, Percentage of the total weight given to food = 66.66.

Question 9.
Many difficulties are faced to Prepare index number. Explain any two of them?
Answer:
Many Problems are faced while constructing an index number. Two of them are as follows:
1. Selection of base year:
The first problem which arises while preparing Index number is the section of base year. Which year should be selected as a base? While selecting a base year, we should remember that it should be a normal period. It should not be either too short or too long. It should be free from all sorts of abnormalities or irregular fluctuations.

2. Selection of items:
We should also be careful in selecting the items to be included in the index number. Items selected should be relevant to the purpose of the index. The items should be standardized which are easy to describe and understand. Moreover, the total number of commodities selected for the index should be neither too small nor too large.

Question 10.
Write down the usefulness of Consumer Price index or cost of living index?

1. It is helpful in wage negotiation.
2. It is helpful in the formation of income Policy, Price Policy taxation and general economic policy formulation.
3. It is used in calculating the purchasing power of money.
4. With the help of CPI, we can calculate the real wages.

Question 11.
Record the only expenditure, quantities bought and prices paid per unit of the daily purchases of your family for two weeks. How has the Price Change affected your family.
Answer:
The students are advised that they should enquire their parents about the daily expenditure. Quantities bought and Prices paid per unit of daily purchase of their family for two weeks, they will come to know that the rising prices of goods have effected that family very much.

Question 12.
Show the methods of constructing index numbers with the help of a diagram?
Answer:
i) Method of constructing simple index numbers:

• Simple aggregative method.
• Simple average of price relative method.

ii) Methods of constructing weighted index numbers.

• Weighted aggregative method.
• Weighted average of Price relative method.

1st PUC Economics Index Numbers Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write down the features of consumer Price index number.
Answer:
Features of CPI. Following are main features of CPI:
1. In India three CPI’s are Constructed.

• CPI for industrial workers.
• CPI for urban non-manual employees and
• CPI for agricultural labourers.

2. The base year for CPI for industrial workers, CPI for urban non – manual employees and CPI for agricultural labourers are 1982,1984-85 and 1986 respectively.

3. They are routinely calculated every month to analyse the impact of changes in the retail Price on the cost of living of these three broad categories of consumers.

4. The CPI for Industrial workers and agricultural labourers are published by Labout Bureau Shimla.

5. The Central Statistical Organisation publishes the CPI for urban non – manual employees.

6. The items shown in the table are taked on while calculating CPI for industrial workers form the table we come to know that food has the largest weight.

CPI for industrial workers.

Question 2.
Explain the importance of stock statistics in Economy.
Answer:
Importance of Index Numbers:
Index Numbers have a great importance in Statistics.
They are used in the various fields of economics. Such as production, consumption, Price etc

With the help of Statistics, economic conditions can be studied and forecast can be made. They are called the “Economic Barometer” Their importance can be judged with the following facts.

1. Calculation of Price levels:
Index Numbers help in calculating levels of various items.

2. Helpful in taking decisions:
Index numbers are very helpful of Government in taking important decisions, such as granting dearness allowances to the employees.

3. Helpful in comparative Study:
They also help us in making comparative study of the changes occurring in the economy.

4. Helpful do insurance companies and Banking Institution. Index numbers help the insurance companies and banking institutions in determining of Premium – rates and interests respectively.

5. Helpful in assesing the development of an economy with the help of statistics, the development of an economy can be assessed.

Question 3.
Calculate the unweighted index of prices for the data given below.

Answer:

Question 4.
Calculate weighted index of Price of the following data.

Answer:

= 30 × 1.5 + \(\frac{40 \times 1.67+5 \times 1.5}{10}\) + 20 × 1.25 × 1.50 = 1.51 × 100 = 15.1 %

Question 5.
Calculate index numbers for the period from 1995 to 2001, taking 1994 as base year:

Answer:

Question 6.
Calculate index numbers for the different years taking 1984 as the base year:

Answer:

Question 7.
Calculate the cost of living index from the following data:

Answer:


Cost of living Index number
= \(\frac{\sum P_{1} Q_{1}}{\sum P_{0} Q_{1}}\) × 100 = \(=\frac{2084.4}{824.4}\) × 100 = 252.2

Question 8.
Construct consumer Pice index number with the help of following date. The weight of these items are 35, 10, 20, 15, 20 respectively.

Answer:

Question 9.
The monthly per captia expenditure incurred by workers for an industrial centre during 1980 and 2005 on the following items are 75,10,6 and 4 respectively. Prepare a weighted index number for cost of living for 2005 with 1980 as the base.

Answer:

= \(\frac{18459.71}{1000}\) = 184.60

Question 10.
Calculate the Simple aggrevative price inde number with the help of following:

Answer:

P₀₁ \(\frac{\sum P_{1}}{\sum P_{0}}\) × 100 = \(\frac{18}{13}\) × 100 = 138.46

Question 11.
Calculate Weighted aggregative price index from the following table using

1. Laspeyre’s method &
2. Laspeyre’s Method.

Answer:

i) Laspeyre’s Method

Question 12.
Calculate Weight price relatives index from the following data:

Answer:

= \(\frac{15650}{100}\)

Students can Download Economics Chapter 7 Correlation Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 7 Correlation

1st PUC Economics Correlation TextBook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The unit of correlation coefficient between height in feet and weight in kgs is
Answer:

1. kg / feet
2. percentage
3. non – existent.

Question 2.
The range of simple correlation coefficient is :
Answer:

1. 0 to infinity
2. Minus one to plus one
3. Minus infinity to infinity

Question 3.
If r_xy is positive, the relation between X and Y is of the type.
Answer:

1. When Y increases, X increases
2. When Y deceases, X increase
3. When Y increases, X does not change.

Question 4.
If r =0, the variable X and Y are
Answer:

1. Linearly related
2. Not linearly related
3. Independent

Question 5.
Of the following three measures which can measure any type of relationship:
Answer:

1. Karl Pearsons’s coefficient of correlation
2. Spearman’s rank correlation
3. Scatter diagram

Question 6.
If precisely measured data are available, the simple correlation coefficient is:
Answer:

1. More-accurate than rank correlation coefficient.
2. Less accurate than rank correlation coefficient.
3. As accurate as the rank correlation coefficient.

Question 7.
Why is ‘r’ preferred to co-variance as a measure of association?
Answer:
‘r ’ is Perferred to co-variance as a measure of association because it studies and Measures the direction and intensity of relationship among variables.
It is due to the following reasons:

1. The correlation co – efficient (r) has no unit.
2. The correlation co – efficient is independent of origin as well as a scale

Question 8.
Can ‘r’ lie outside -1 and 1 range depending on the type of data?
Answer:
For any type of data, correlation (r) cannot lie outside the -1 and +1 range. The minimum limit of ‘r’ is -1 and +1 range. The minimum limit of ‘r’ is -1 and the maximum limit of r is +1. As a result, r can never lie outside these two limits. Symbolically.
-1 ≤ r ≥ 1
If in any exercise, ‘r’ is outside this range it indicates error in calculation.

Question 9.
Does correlation imply causation?
Answer:
No, zero correlation does not imply causation. It implies co-variation. It should never be interpreted as implying causes and effect relation. Correlation studies and measures the direction and intensity of relationship among variable.

Question 10.
When is rank correlation more precise than simple correlation coefficient?
Answer:
Rank correlation is more precise than simple correlation when the variables cannot be measured meaningfully as in the case of prices, income, weight etc. Ranking may be more meaningful when the measurement of the variables are suspect. Ranking may be a better alternative to quantification of qualities.

Question 11.
Does zero correlation does not mean independence?
Answer:
No, zero correlation does not mean independence. If there is zero correlation, it means the two variables are not correlated and there is no linear relation between them. However, other types of relation may be there and they may be not independent.

Question 12.
Can simple correlation co – efficient measure any type of relationship?
Answer:
Simple correlation co-efficient cannot measure any type of relationship. It measures any type of relationship only between two variables. If the variables are more than two or we want to measure the correlation between the productivity of wheat, temperature, and quantity of rain, then simple correlation cannot measure this type of relationship. This type of relationship can be measured with the help of partial or multiple correlation co – efficient.

Question 13.
Collect the prices of five vegetables from your local market everyday for a week. Calculate their correlation co – efficient. Interprt the result. Name of vegetables and their prices (in Rs.)
Answer:

r = 1 – \(\frac{6 \sum D^{2}}{N^{3}-N}\)

i. Correlation between potato and cabbage:
r = 1 – \(\frac{6 \times 51}{(343-7)}\) = 1 – \(\frac{306}{306}\) = 1 – 0.911 = 0.089

ii. Correlation between cabbage and tomato:
r = 1 – \(\frac{6 \times 36}{343-7}\) = 1 – \(\frac{216}{336}\) = 1 – 0.64 = 0.36

iii. Correlation between tomato and peas:
r = 1 – \(\frac{6 \times 37}{343-7}\) = 1 – \(\frac{222}{336}\) = 1 – 0.66 = 0.34

iv. Correlation between peas and carrot:
r = 1 – \(\frac{6 \times 29}{343-7}\) = 1 – \(\frac{174}{336}\) = 1 – 0.52 = 0.48

v. Correlation between peas and carrot:
r = 1 – \(\frac{6 \times 37}{343-7}\) = 1 – \(\frac{222}{336}\) = 1 – 0.66 = 0.34

vi. Correlation between carrot and potato:
r = 1 – \(\frac{6 \times 49}{343-7}\) = 1 – \(\frac{294}{336}\) = 1 – 0.875 = 0.13

Interpretation of Result:
It is clear from the above result that every vegetable is corre-lated. There is a positive correlation among these vegetables. Co-relation of peas and carrot is 0.48 which is highest and correlation of potato and cabbage is 0.089 which is lowest.

Question 14.
Measure the height of your classmates. Ask them the height of their benchmate. Calculate the correlation coefficient of these two variables. Interpret the result.

Answer:

r = 0.688 Ans
It is clear from the above analysis that there is a positive correlation between the asked height and measured height of the classmates.

Question 15.
Measure the hieght of your classmates. Ask them the height of their benchmate. Calculate the correlation coefficient of these two variables. Interpret the resuit.
Answer:
Impartiality, secularism, beauty, honesty, patriotism etc are some variables where accurate measurement is difficult.

Question 16.
Interpret the values of r as 1, -1, and 0.
Answer:

1. r as 1 means that there is perfect positive relationship between two variables.
2. r as -1 means that there is perfect negative relationship between two variables.
3. r as 0 means that there is lack of correlation between two variables.

Question 17.
Why does rank correlation co-efficient differ from Pearsonian correlation coefficient?
Answer:
Rank correlation co-efficient is more often used to measure the linear relationship between the qualitative variable whereas Karl Pearsn’s method of correlation co – efficient measures the linear relationship between the quantitative variables.

Question 18.
Calculate the correlation co – efficient between the heights of fathers in inches (X) and their sons (Y)

Answer:

Question 19.
Calculate the correlation co-efficient between X and Y and comment on their relationship.

Answer:


Hence, r 0
Two values X and Y are un – correlated.
There is no linear correlation between them.

Question 20.
Calculate the correlation co-efficient between X and Y and comment on their relationship.

Answer:

1st PUC Economics Correlation Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Economics Correlation Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Correlation?
Answer:
According to the Croxton and Cowden correlation is defined as “when the relationship is of a quantitative nature the appropriate statistical tool for discovering and measuring the relationship and expressing it in a brief formula is shown as correlation’’.

Question 2.
What are the principal methods of calculating coefficient of correlation?
Answer:
The principal methods are as under:

1. Scattered Diagram method
2. Carl Pearson’s coefficient or correlation
3. Spearman’s Rank correlation coefficient

Question 3.
What is the difference between positive and negative correlation?
Answer:
When two variables move in same direction such a relation is called positive correlation for example relationship between price and supply when two variable change in different direction it is called negative correlation for example relationship between price and demand.

Question 4.
State the kinds of correlation?
Answer:

1. Positive and negative correlation
2. Linear and non-linear correlation
3. Simple and multiple correlation.

Question 5.
Coefficient of correlation is between -1 and +1. How would you express it arithmetically?
Answer:
-1 < r < +1

Question 6.
What is the nature of correlation of variables when they move in the same direction?
Answer:
Positive correlation.

Question 7.
What is the principal shortcoming of scattered diagram as a method of estimates correlation.
Answer:
A Scattered diagram does not measure the precise extent of correlation it give only an approximate idea of the relationship, it is not a quantitative measure of the relationship.

Question 8.
When is rank correlation method used?
Answer:
Rank correlation method is used for the variable whose quantitative measurement is not possible such as beauty, bravery or wisdom.

Question 9.
What does correlation measure?
Answer:
Correlation measures the direction and intensity of relationship it measures covariation and not causation.

Question 10.
What does the presence of correlation between two variables X and Y simply mean?
Answer:
The presence of correlation between variables X and Y simply means that when value of one variables is found to change in one direction the value of other variables is  found to change either in the same direction or in the opposite direction but indefinite way.

Question 11.
Can ‘r’ lie outside -1 and +1 range depending on the type of data?
Answer:
No. ‘r ’ cannot lie outside -1 and +1 range depending on the types of data, it lies between minus one and plus one symbolically -1 if in any excercise ‘r ’ is outside this range it indicates error in calculation.

Question 12.
Does correlation imply causation?
Answer:
No correlation does not imply causation it implies covariation it should never be interpreted as implying causes and effect relation.

Question 13.
When is Rank Correlation more precise than simple correlation coefficient?
Answer:
Rank Correlation is more precise than simple correlation when the variable cannot be measured meaningfully as in the case of price income weight etc ranking may be move meaningful when the measurement of the variable are suspect ranking may be a better alternative to quantification qualities.

Question 14.
When is Rank correlation preffered to Person’s co-efficient?
Answer:
Rank correlation is preffered to Person’s coefficient when extreme values are present.

Question 15.
What is the relationship between r and in general?
Answer:
In general  \({ r }_{ \swarrow }\)≤ r

Question 16.
What is the limitation of spearman rank correlation?
Answer:
Spearman’s rank correlation is not as accurate as the ordinary method this is due to fact that all the information concerning the data is not utilised.

Question 17.
When do r and r_k give identical results?
Answer:
v and v_k give identical results when the first difference of the values of the items in the series of arranged in the order or magnitude are constant.

Question 18.
In which situation is the use of rank correlation method suitable?
Answer:
The use of rank correlation is suitable when data cannot be directly quantitatively measured.

Question 19.
Which type of correlation is indicated by the values of X and Y variables.

Answer:
Here r = + 1 as values of X and variables move in the same direction.

Question 20.
Under what situation is r = -1.
Answer:
r = -1 when the values of two variables X and Y move in the opposite directions.

Question 21.
When is the correlation called linear?
Answer:
When the change ratio in values of the two variables is constant.

Question 22.
If a change in a variable does not bring about change in the other variable in the same relation there will be what kind of correlation between them.
Answer:
Non-linear correlation.

Question 23.
Where does correlation between two variables concentrate?
Answer:
Correlation between two variables concentrate between + 1 and – 1.

Question 24.
What do you mean by absence of correlation?
Answer:
By absence of correlation we mean that there is no relationship between the values of series, in this case, r = 0.

Question 25.
Which type of correlation is indicated by the following scatter diagram?
Answer:
The scattered diagram given in the question indicate the positive relation.

Question 26.
Which type of correlation between two variables is indicated by a scatter line sloping downward to right?
Answer:
Negative relation between two variables.

Question 27.
Which type of correlation is indicated by the values of X and Y variables?

Answer:
Here r = – 1 because the value of x and y variables move in the opposite direction.

Question 28.
What does a high value of ‘r’ indicate?
Answer:
A high value of ‘r ’ indicates linear relationship. If value is said to be high when it is close to +1 or -1.

Question 29.
Give anyone property of correlation coefficient? (r)
Answer:
The value of ‘r’ is unaffected by the change of origin and change of scale.

Question 30.
What does a low value of ‘r’ indicate?
Answer:
A low value of ‘r ’ indicates a weak linear relation its value is said to be low when it is close to zero.

Question 31.
Give the formula of ranking coefficient of correlation of spearman.
Answer:
\(\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{k}}=1-\frac{6 \sum \mathrm{D}^{2}}{\mathrm{n}\left(\mathrm{n}^{2}-\mathrm{n}\right)}\)

Question 32.
If the points in a scatter diagram tend to cluster about a straight line which makes an angle of 30 with the X axis what would you say about the strength of association between X and Y?
Answer:
It shows less than proportionate change of there exists a low degree of association between X and Y.

Question 33.
Correlation remains always between -1 and +1 how is it expressed in mathematical language?
Answer:
-1 ≤ r ≤ + 1

Question 34.
Why is ‘r’ preferred to co-variance as a measure of association?
Answer:
‘r ’ is preffered to co-variance as a measure of association because it studies and mean some the direction and intensity of relationship among variables.

Question 35.
Does zero correlation mean independence?
Answer:
No, but there is possibility o independence.

Question 36.
Can simple correlation co-efficient measure any type of relationship?
Answer:
No.

Question 37.
Collect the price of five vegetable from your local market every day for a week. Calculate their correlation co – efficient interpret the result?
Answer:
Students are supposed of collect the price of any five vegetables from the market over a week. Then they should calculate their correlation of co – efficients.

Question 38.
List some Variables, Where accurate measure is difficult?
Answer:
Impartiality is secular is unbeauty, honesty, Patritism etc -are some variable where accurate measurement is difficult.

Question 39.
Interpret the values of V as 1,-1 and 0.
Answer:

1. r as 1 means that it is perfect positive relationship between two variables.
2. r as -1 means that there is perfect negative relationship between two variables.
3. r as O means that there is Lack of correlation between two variables.

Question 40.
Why does rank correlation co – efficient differ from Pearsonian correlation co-efficient.
Answer:
Because rank correlation co-efficient provider & measure of time association between ranks to these limits and not their values.

1st PUC Economics Correlation Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the definition of correlation give the meaning of following. r = 0, r = +1, r = -1.
Answer:
According to Croxton and Cowden, ‘when the relationship is of a quantitative nature the appropriate statistical tool for discovering and the measuring the relationship and expressing it in a brief formula is known as statistics.

1. When r = 0, It implies that there exists no relationship between two variables X and Y in other ways r = 0 shows the absence of relationship.
2. r = 1, Shows that there is perfect correlation between two variables X and Y.
3. r = -1, Shows that there is perfect negative relationship between two variables X and Y.

Question 2.
Give the value of correlation under following position.

1. Perfect correlation and negative
2. Perfect correlation and positive
3. No correlation.

Answer:

1. When correlation is perfect and negative than the value of r = -1.
2. When correlation is perfect and positive than the value of r = +1
3. When there is no correlation then the value of r = 0.

Question 3.
Define positive and negative correlation with examples?
Answer:
1. Positive correlation:
When two variables move in the same direction that is when one increases the other also increases and when one decreases the other also decreases, such a relationship is called positive correlation for example the relation between price and supply.
Increase in the value of both variables:

2. Negative correlation:
When two variables change in different direction, it is called negative correlation for example relationship between price and demand when prices rise other things remaining constant, demand falls and when price falls demand rises.

Question 4.
What is perfect correlation give two examples?
Answer:
Perfect correlation is that when changes in two related variables are exactly proportional It is of two types.

1. Positive perfect correlation and
2. Negative perfect correlation

There is perfect positive correlation between the two variables if equal proportional changes are the same direction. It is expressed as +1. If equal proportional changes are in the reverse direction then there is negative perfect correlation and it is described as -1.

a. Example of positive perfect correlation

b. Example of perfect negative correlation

Question 5.
Define simple and Partial correlation.
Answer:
1. Simple correlation:
When the relationship between two variables is studied and if these are is dependent then such correlation is called simple correlation. For example relationship between income and expenditure.

2. Partial correlation:
When more than two variables are involved and out of these the relationship between two variables is studied only treating other variables as constant, then such correlation is partial.

1st PUC Economics Correlation Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Calculate r with the help of following data.

Answer:
Calculation of r between schooling of farmers and annual yields.

Question 2.
What steps are involved in the procedure calculating Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation by the direct method?
Answer:
Steps involved in the procedure of calculation of Karl Pearson’s coefficient by direct method.

1. Calculate mean value X and Y
2. Calculate deviations of values of X series from mean value
3. Square the deviations.
4. Calculate deviation of values of Y series from mean value
5. Square the deviation
6. Multiply the square of deviation of X series with the square of deviations of Y series

Use the following formula for calculating correlation coefficient

\(\mathrm{r}=\frac{\sum \mathrm{XY}}{\sqrt{\mathrm{x}^{2}} \sqrt{\mathrm{y}^{2}}}\)
\(\mathrm{r}=\frac{\sum \mathrm{XY}}{\sigma \mathrm{x} \times \sigma \mathrm{y}}\)

σ x = S. D of X series
σ y = S. D of Y series

Question 3.
Calculate the height and weight of the student of a class.

Answer:

Question 4.
Calculate Karl Pearson’s co-efficient of correlation the help of following data?

Answer:
Calculation of Pearson’s co – efficient of correlation X Series \(\overline{\mathrm{x}}\) = 18, Y series
\(\bar{y}=\) = 19.

Question 5.
Calculation of Karl Peasson’s correlation co – efficient.

Answer:

= \(\frac{1720}{1790.81}\) = 0.96

Question 6.
Calculate Karl Peasson’s co-efficient from the following data

Answer:
Calculation of Karl Peasson’s correlation co – efficient.

Question 7.
Calculate correlation between the two variables.

Answer:

Question 8.
Calculate the co-efficient of raqnic correlation from the following data:

Answer:

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Karnataka 1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70

Instruction:

1. The questions paper has five parts A, B, C, D and E. All parts are compulsory.
2. Write balanced chemical equations and draw labeled diagram wherever allowed.
3. Use log tables and simple calculations f necessary (use of scientific calculations is not allowed).

Part – A

I. Answer ALL of the following (each question carries one mark): ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
Give an example for a homogeneous mixture.
Answer:
Air, Gasoline, Sea water, etc.

Question 2.
Write the ideal gas equation for ‘n’ moles of a gas.
Answer:

Question 3.
What is hydronium ion?
Answer:
H₃O⁺ is called hydronium ion

Question 4.
Write the IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 107.
Answer:
Ununnillium.

Question 5.
Identify the element in the compound K₂Cr₂O₇ showing negative oxidation number.
Answer:
Oxygen.

Question 6.
Name the gas liberated when a piece of sodium metal is added into the water.
Answer:
Hydrogen (H₂).

Question 7.
What is Zeolite?
Answer:
Zeolites are alumino silicates having a three-dimensional cage like structure with a general
formula Mⁿ⁺_x/n [(AlO₂)_x(SiO₂)_y]H₂O, where M is a cation ion like K⁺Na⁺,Ca²⁺.
These are obtained by replacing some of the silicon atoms by aluminium atoms. The aluminosilicate thus formed acquires negative charge and it is balanced by the cations like
Na⁺,K⁺ or Ca²⁺

Question 8.
Give the composition of water gas.
Answer:
Water gas [CO + H₂] is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen.

Question 9.
Write the bond line formula for 3-chloro octane.
Answer:

Question 10.
Alkanes are not soluble in water. Give reason.
Answer:
Non-polar and saturated.

Part – B

II. Answer any FIVE of the following questions carrying TWO marks: (5 x 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
Calculate the molarity of NaOH in the solution, prepared by dissolving lOg in enough water to form 500mL of the solution. Molar mass of NaOH is 40 g mol^-1
Answer:

Question 12.
Give any two differences between ideal and non-ideal (real) gas.
Answer:
Ideal Gas

1. Obeys ideal gas equation PV = nRT.
2. Ideal gas does not exist in nature.

Real Gas:

1. Does not obeys the ideal gas equation but obeys van der Waals equation.
2. All gases which exist in nature are real gases.

Question 13.
Mention any two conditions for the combination of atomic orbitals.
Answer:
The conditions for the combination of atomic orbitals are:
(a) The combining atomic orbitals should have comparable energy.
1s orbital can combine with another Is orbital but not with 2s orbital.

(b) The combining atomic orbitals should have the same symmetry about the molecular axis. For example: 2p orbital can combine with 2s orbital or another 2p_z orbital but not with 2p_x or 2p_y.
2s cannot combine with 2p_x or 2p_y .
(c) The combining atomic orbitals must overlap to the maximum extent.

Question 14.
Complete the following equations:
(i) 4Li + O₂ → _____
Answer:

(ii) 2Na + O₂ → _____
Answer:
2Na + O₂ → Na₂O₂ (Sodium peroxide)

Question 15.
(a) What is dry ice?
Answer:
Solid CO₂ is called dry ice. It is called dry ice because it directly changes into gaseous state without becoming liquid.

(b) Write the formula of basic structural unit of silicates.
Answer:
Silicates are the compounds in which the anions are present as either discrete SiO^- tetrahedral or a number of such units joined together through comers.

Silicates are basically made up SiO⁴_4- tetrahedra (as shown in the figure) in which silicon atom is bonded to four oxygen atoms in a tetrahedral manner. In the figure, big circles indicate oxygen atoms and small circle indicates silicon atoms.

Question 16.
Explain Wurtz reaction with a suitable example.
Answer:
When alkyl halides are heated with sodium metal in ether medium higher alkanes are formed. This reaction is known as Wurtz reaction and employed for the synthesis of higher alkanes containing even number of carbon atoms.

Question 17.
What are benzenoids? Give an example.
Answer:
Aromatic compounds with palanar structure and delocalized n e A above and below the plane of the ring, eg: Benzene, Toluene.

Question 18.
How ozone is formed in the atmosphere? Give equations.
Answer:
The UV radiations of very short wavelength (< 250 nm) have sufficient energy to cause photo – dissociation of oxygen molecules into oxygen atoms. Highly reactive oxygen atoms combine with oxygen molecules to form ozon

Part – C

III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions carrying THREE marks: (5 x 3 = 15 )

Question 19.
(a) Write the general electronic configuration of p-block elements.
Answer:
General electronic configuration of p-block elements is ns² np^1_6.
Both s and p block together is called representative or normal elements.

(b) How does ionisation enthalpy varies along a period and down the group?
Answer:
The amount of energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron from an isolated gaseous atom. Ionization energy increases along the period and decreases down the group.

Question 20.
Define the terms (a) Bond angle (b) Bond order (c) Co-valent radius.
Answer:
(a) Bond angle: It is defined as the “angle between the oribitals containing bonding electron pairs around the central atom in a molecule or in a complex ion”. It is expressed in degrees.
Example: In CO₂ the bond angle is 180°. So CO₂ has linear shape.
(b) Bond order: It is the number of covalent bonds holding the atoms in the molecule. Example: If the bond is formed by the sharing of two electron pairs, then the bond order is 2. O = O or C = C bond in alkenes.
(c) Co-valent radius: A chemical bond formed by the sharing up of one or more electrons between the atoms.

Question 21.
Give any three important postulates of VSEPR theory.
Answer:
Bonding : The bond formation takes place if there exists impaired electron in the valance shell.
Shape : The geometry or the shape of a molecule depends on the number of valence shell electrons surroundings the central atom.
Repulsion : Electron pair tend to repell one another because electron clouds have similar charge.
Stability : As a result of electron pair repulsion these electron pairs try to stay apart as possible in order to attain minimum energy and maximum stability.
Repulsive interaction : Lane pair with lane pair electrons are having maximum repulsive interaction, bond pair-bond pair electrons are having minimum repulsive interaction. When angle of repulsion decreases angle between the electron pair increases (109°. 28′ less repulsion, 104° more repulsion).

Question 22.
Explain bonding in H₂ molecule based on the basis of Molecular orbital theory.
Answer:
Atomic number of hydrogen is 1 = Is’

(a) Electronic configuration of hydrogen molecule is σ1s²σ*1s⁰
(b) Bond order – \(\frac{2-0}{2}\) = 1
(c) Magnet property = diamagnetic.

Question 23.
(a) What is the oxidation number of Cl in KClO,sub>3 ?
Answer:
+5

(b) Write the separate equations for the oxidation and reduction reactions occuring in the given redox reaction. 2Fe + HCI → FeCL₂ + H₂
Answer:

Question 24.
Explain the process of softening of temporary hardness by Clark’s method.
Answer:
Clark’s process: Temporary hardness can be removed by the addition of a calculated amount of lime, where magnesium carbonate or calcium carbonate is precipitated.
Ca(HCO₃)₂ + Ca(OH)₂ → 2CaCO₃ +2H₂O
Mg(HCO₃)₂ + Ca(OH)₂ → CaCO₃ + MgCO₃ + 2H₃O

Question 25.
(a) Give the composition of plaster of paris and mention one use of it.
Answer:
Plaster of Paris is CaSO₄ + \(\frac{1}{2}\)H₂O It is prepared by heating gypsum at 373 K.

Uses:
(i) It is used for manufacture of statues,
(ii) It is used for filling gaps before white washing.

(b) Write any one biological importance of Magnesium.
Answer:
Biological importance of Mg and Ca are:
(a) Mg ion is present in chlorophyll which is responsible for photosynthesis.
(b) Ca²⁺ ions are required for maintaining heart beat.
(c) Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions are required for clotting of blood.

Question 26.
(a) Boron shows anamolous behaviour with other elements of the same group. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Due to smaller size
2. High ionisation enthalpy
3. High electronegativity.

(b) Name the gas liberated when formic acid is heated with concentrated H₂SO₄.
Answer:
Pure carbon monoxide is formed by the dehydration of formic acid with cone. H₂SO₄.

Part – D

IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions carrying FIVE marks: ( 5 x 5 = 25 )

Question 27.
(a) The percentage composition of an organic compound found to contain 39.9% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and the rest is oxygen. If the molecular mass of the compound is 60 gmol^-1. Determine the molecular formula of the compound.
Answer:
Percentage of oxygen = 100 – (39.9 + 6.7) = 100 – 46.6 = 53.4

∴ Empirical formula = CH₂O
Molecular mass = Eq. mass x basicity = 60 x 1 = 60
Empirical formula weight = CH₂O = 12 + 2 + 16 = 30
Nows 30n = 60 => n = 2
∴ Molecular formula = (Empirical formula) x n = (CH₂O)₂ = C₂H₄O₂

(b) State Avagadro law.
Answer:
Avogadro’s law states that “Equal volumes of all gas under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of mole cols.”

Question 28.
(a) Give any three postulates of Bohr’s theory of atomic model.
Answer:
Bohr’s model of an atom, the postulates are:

1. Electrons revolve around the nucleus of an atom in a certain definite path called orbit or stationary state of shell.
2. The shells are having different energy levels denoted as K, L, M, N…
3. As long as the electron remains in an orbit, they neither absorb nor emit energy.
4. The electron can move only in that orbit in which angular momentum is quantized,
   i.e., the angular momentum of the electron is an integral multiple of \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{2 \pi}\)

(b) State Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity.
Answer:
Hund’s rule or maximum multiplicity: Electron pairing does not take place until orbitals of same energy are singly occupied.

Question 29.
(a) Name the four quantum numbers and mention what they indicate?
Answer:
In order to define state energy and location of electron a set of four numbers are used. These numbers are called quantum numbers, (i) Principal quantum number (n). (ii) Azimuthal quantum number (1). (iii) Magnetic quantum number (m). (iv) Spin quantum number (s).

(b) What is node?
Answer:
The region where probability of finding the electron is zero is called a node.

Question 30.
(a) Write the important postulates of Kinetic theory of gases.
Answer:

1. Gases are made up of large number of the minute particles.
2. Pressure is exerted by a gas.
3. There is no loss of kinetic theory.
4. Molecules of gas attract on one another.
5. Kinetic energy of the molecule is directly proportional to absolute temperature.
6. Actual volume of the gaseous molecule is very small.
7. Gaseous molecules are always in motion.
8. There is more influence of gravity in the movement of gaseous molecule.

(b) What is Boyle’s temperature?
Answer:
The temperature at which real gases obey ideal behaviour for appreciable range of pressure is called Boyle’s temperature (or) Boyle’s point.

(c) Falling liquid droplets are spherical. Give reason.
Answer:
Due to surface tension.

Question 31.
(a) Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of benzene from the following data.
Answer:
C₆H₆ + O₂ + \(\frac{15}{2}\)O₂  → 6CO₂ + 3H₂O_(l); ∆H= – 3264KJ
C_(s) + O_2(g)  → CO_2(g); ∆H = -393.5KJ
H₂ + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O₂ → H₂O_(l); ∆H = -285.9KJ

(b) What is entropy?
Answer:
Measure of disordemess of a system.

Question 32.
(a) Calculate the total work done when one mole of a gas expands isothermally and reversibly from an intial volume of 10dm³ to a final volume of 20dm³ at 298K.
Answer:
T = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300K , V₁ = 10 dm³ V₂ = 20 dm³ , R = 8.314 J/K/mol
w = -2.303 nRTlog \(\left(\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}\right)\)
w = -2.303 x 1 x 8.314 x 300 x log \(\left(\frac{20}{10}\right)\)= -2.303 x 8.314 x 300 x log2
= -2.303×8.314x300x0.3010 = -1729 joule = -1.723 kJ.

(b) What is an intensive property? Give an example.
Answer:
Intensive property of a system is that property of the system which does not depend on the quantity of the substance present in the system. E.g; Density, Viscosity.

Question 33.
(a) For the hydrolysis of sucrose the equilibrium constant K_c is x x 10^-3 at 300K calculate ∆G° at 300K?
Answer:
Given K_c = 2 x 10^-3
T = 300K; ∆G° = ?
We know that ∆G° = -2.303 RT log K_c = -2.303 x 8.314 x 300 x 2 x 10^-3
= -2.303 x 8.314 x 3 x 2 = -11.488 J/mol.

(b) Explain common ion effect with suitable example.
Answer:
Suppression in the degree of dissociation of a weak electrolyte by the addition of a common ion is called common ion effect.

Question 34.
(a) Calculate the pOH of a solution obtained when 0.05 mol NH₄Cl is added and dissolved , in 0.025M ammonia solution. (Given Kb for ammonia = 1.77 x 10^-5).
Answer:
pK_b = -logK_b = -logl.8 x 10^-5 = -(5.2553) = 4.7447
p^OH = pK_b + log \(\frac{[\text { salt }]}{[\text { base }]}\) = 4.7447 + log \(\frac{0.05}{0.12}\) = 4.74 – 0.38 = 4.36
∴ pH = 14 – p^OH= 14 – 4.36 = 9.64

(b) What is solubility product?
Answer:
It is the product of the molar concentration of ions of the saturated solution of a sparingly soluble solution of the salt and the coefficients are raised to their powers at constant temperature.

Part – E

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions carrying FIVE marks: ( 2 x 5 = 10 )

Question 35.
(a) Write the principles involved in the estimation of
(i) Halogens (ii) Sulphur present in an organic compound by Carius method.
Answer:
(i) Halogens: When an organic compound containing halogen (Cl, Br or 1) is heated in a sealed tube with fuming nitric acid and excess of silver chloride, silver halide is formed from the mass of silver halide obtained, the percentage of the halogen can be calculated.

Procedure: In a hard glass tube (Carius tube), 5 ml of fuming HNO₃ and 2 to 2.5 g AgNO₃ are taken. A small narrow weighing tube, containing a small amount (nearly 0.15 -0.2g) of accurately weighed organic compound, is introduced in the Carius tube in such a way that nitric acid does not enter the weighing tube. The Carius tube is now sealed and heated in a furnace at 300°C for about six hours.

The tube is then cooled and its narrow end is cut off and the contents are completely transferred to a beaker by washing with water. The precipitate of silver halide formed is filtered through a weighed sintered glass crucible. It is washed, dried and weighed.

Observation and calculation:
(i) Mass of organic compound taken = W₁g
(ii) Mass of silver halide obtained = w₂g
(a) For chlorine:

143.5g of AgCl contains 35.5 g of chlorine.
w₂g of AgCl will contain \(\frac{35 \cdot 5 \times w_{2}}{143 \cdot 5}\) of chlorine
∴ % Cl₂ = \(\frac{35 \cdot 5 \times w_{2}}{143 \cdot 5} \times \frac{100}{w_{1}}\)

(b) For bromine:

188 g of AgBr contains 80 g of bromine
w₂ of AgBr will contain \(\frac{980 \times w_{2}}{188}\) g of bromine

(ii) Sulphur Present in an organic compound by carius method:
Principle: An organic compound containing sulphur to heated in Carius tube with fuming nitric acid or sodium peroxide. Sulphur present is oxidised to sulphuric acid. It is then precipitated as burium sulphate by adding excess of barium chloride solution. The precipitate formed is filtred, washed, dried and weighed. The % of S is calculated from the mass of barium sulphate.

Calculations: Mass of organic substance = ‘m’
Mass of barium sulphate formed = ‘x’ g.
Molecular mass of barium sulphate = 233 g.

(b) Name the element estimated by Kjeldahl’s method.
Answer:
Nitrogen.

Question 36.
(a) Describe the estimation of Carbon and Hydrogen by Liebig’s method.
Answer:

Principle: A known mass of an organic compound is strongly heated with dry cupric oxide (CuO), when carbon and hydrogen are quantitatively oxidized to CO₂ and H₂O respectively. The masses of CO₂ and H₂O thus formed are determined. From this, the percentages of carbon and hydrogen can be calculated.
Procedure : Pure and dry oxygen is passed through the entire assembly of the apparatus (Figure) till the CO₂ and moisture is completely removed.

A boat containing weighed organic substances is introduced inside from one end of the combustion tube by opening it for a while. The tube is now strongly heated till the whole of the organic compound is burnt up. The flow of oxygen is continued to drive CO₂ and water vapours completely to the U-tubes. The apparatus is cooled and the U-tubes are weighed separately.

Observation and calculations:

1. Mass of organic compound taken = w.g.
2. Mass of water produced = x g (Increase in mass of CaCl₂ tube).
3. Mass of carbon dioxide produced = y g (Increase in mass of KOH tube).

To determine % of carbon:
Molar mass of CO₂ = 44g mol^-1
Now, 44g of CO₂ = contains 12 g of C
y g of CO₂ will contain of \(\frac{12 y}{44}\) f of C
This amount of carbon was present in w. g. of the substance
∴ % C = \(\frac{12 y}{44} \times \frac{100}{w}\)

To determine % of Hydrogen
Molar mass of water = 18 g mol^-1
Now, 18 g of H₂O contains 2 g of H₂O
∴ x g of H₂O will contain \(\frac{2 x}{18}\) g of H₂O
This amount of hydrogen was present in weight of substance.
∴ H₂ = \(\frac{2 x}{18} \times \frac{100}{w}\)

(b) What is Cracking?
Answer:
The decomposition of higher alkane into a mixture of lower alkanes alkenes, etc. by the application

Question 37.
(a) Explain the mechanism of chlorination of Methane.
Answer:
Mechanism of chlorination of methane involves three types:

Step 1: Initiation: Chlorine absorbs energy and undergoes homolysis to give chlorine free radicals.

Step 2: Propagation: Chlorine free radical reacts with methane to give methyl free radical.

The methyl free radical reacts with chlorine to form methyl chloride and chlorine free radical.

Step 3: Termination: Free radials combine to form stable products.

(b) Name the product formed when phenol vapours are passed over heated zinc dust. Write the chemical equation.
Answer:
Benzene

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Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 10 Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours

1st PUC Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours TextBook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why are regional and economic groupings formed?
Answer:
Regional economic grouping is one of the major instrument of promoting international trade activities among countries. It focusses on creation of larger economic unit Rom smaller national economies.

Regional and economic groupings such as the SAARC, European Union, ASEAN, G – 8, G – 20, BRIGS etc are formed to increase economic cooperation among nations in the neighbourhood or those sharing common economic Interests.

This is particularly considered essential by developing countries as they all facing competition not only from developed national but also amongst themselves in the relatively limited economic space enjoyed by the developing world.

Besides, cooperation with other economies in our neighbourhood is also required, as all major common economic activities in the region have an impact on overall human development in a shared environment.

Question 2.
What are the various means by which countries are trying to strengthen their own domestic economies?
Answer:
Following are the various means by which countries are trying to strengthen their own domestic economics.
1. They are forming regional and economic grouping.

2. There is an increasing awareness on the parts of various nations to join hands together and understand the developmental processes pursued by their neighbouring nations at it, allows them to bettler comprehed their own strengths and weaknesses vis – vis their neighbours.

3. By trying to understand the neighbouring economies, as all major common economic activities in the region, have an impact on overall human development in a shared, environment.

Question 3.
What similar developmental strategies have India and Pakistan followed for their respective developmental paths.
Answer:
Pakistan and India have followed, the mixed economy, model with co-existence of public and private sectors. The introduction of green revolution led to mechanisation and increase in public in infrastructure in select areas.

Which finally led to rise in the production of food grains and agriculture is the mainstay of both the countries. They have almost equal per capital income and both have succeeded in their per capita income.

Question 4.
Explain the Great Leap forward Campaign of China as initiated in 1958.
Answer:
The Great Leap Forward (GLF) Campaign initiated in 1958 aimed at industrialing the country on a massive scale. People were encouraged to set up industries, in their backyards. In rural areas commune system, people collectively cultivated lands. In 1958, there were 26,000 communes covering almost all the farm population.

Question 5.
China’s rapid industrial growth can be traced back to its reforms in 1978. Do you agree? Elucidate.
Answer:
Yes, China’s rapid industrial growth can be traced back to its reforms in agriculture and establishment of infrastructure in the areas of education and health, land reforms etc had been taking place with the introduction of “Great proletarian cultural Revolutionary” Mao during the year (1966 -67). China introduced reforms in phases after 1978.

In initial phase, reforms were initiated in agriculture, foreign trade and investment sectors, In later phase/reforms were initiated in the industrial sector. Private sector firms and township and village enterprises were allowed to produce goods. The reforms process also involve dual pricing.

Question 6.
Describe the path of developmental initiatives taken by Pakistan for its economic development
Answer:
The service sector is emerging as a major player of development in Pakistan. It contributes more to GDP and at the same time emerges as a prospective employer. Pakistan had been able to reduce the proportion of people below the poverty line and also its performance in education, sanitation and access to water, is better.

Pakistan has also provided improved water sources as compared to China. Pakistan has economy has been witnesssing GDP, growth at about 8% for three consecutive years. All the three sectors, agriculture, manufacturing and service has contributed this trend.

Question 7.
What is the important implication of the ‘One Child Norm’ in China?
Answer:
‘One child norm’ introduced in China the late 1970’s as the major reason for the population growth. This measure led to decline in the sex ratio, ie. the proporation of females, for 1000 males. For instance, after a few decades in China, there will be more elderly people in propotion to young people. This will force China to take steps to provide social security measure with fewer workers.

Question 8.
Mention the salient demographic indicators of China, Pakistan and India?
Answer:
The Salient Demographic indicators of China, Pakistan and India are

1. Estimated population
2. Annual growth of population
3. Density
4. Sex Ratio
5. Fertility rate
6. Urbanisation

Question 9.
Compare and contrast India and China’s sectoral contribution towards GDP in 2003. What does it indicate?
Answer:
China has the second-largest GDP of $7.2 trillion whereas India’s GDP$ 3.3 trillion.
In China, the manufacturing contributes the highest GDP at 53% whereas, in India, it is the service sector which contributes the highest ie it accounts for more than 50% of GDP.

Question 10.
Mention the various indicators of human development?
Answer:
Various indicators of human development are human development index, life expectancy at birth, Adult literacy rate, GDP percapita. People below poverty line. Infant Mortality Rate, maternal mortality rate etc.

Question 11.
Define the liberty indicator. Give some examples of liberty indicators.
Answer:
In dealing with or making judgements on questions with human development indicators. We need another indicator called liberty indicator. Some examples of liberty indicator are the extant of democratic participation in social and political decision making, the extent of constitutional protection of the independence of the judiariy and the rule of law etc.

Question 12.
Evaluate the various factors that led to the rapid growth in economic development in China.
Answer:
The various factors that led to the rapid growth in economic development in China are:

1. The establishment of infrastructure in the areas of education and health,
2. Land reforms
3. Long existence of small enterprises and.
4. Decentralised planning.

These had helped positively in improving the social and income indicators in the post reform period. In agriculture, by handling over plots of land, to individuals for cultivation, has brought property to a vast number of poor people. It created conditions for the subsequent phenomenal growth in rural industries and built up a strong base for more reforms.

Question 13.
Group the following features pertaining to the economies of India, China and Pakistan under three heads.

1. One Child norm
2. Low fertility rate
3. High degree of urbanisate
4. Mixed economy
5. Very high fertility rate
6. Large population
7. High density of population
8. Growth due to manufacturing sector
9. Growth due to service sector.

Answer:
1. Economies of India:
High density of population, Growth due to service sector.

2. Economies of China:
One child norm, low fertility rate, High degree of urbanisation, Large population growth due to manufacturing sector.

3. Economies of Pakistan:
Very high fertility rate, Mixed economy.

Question 14.
Give reasons for the slow growth and re-emergence of poverty in Pakistan.
Answer:
The reasons for the slow growth and re – emergence of poverty in Pakistan.
1. Agricultural growth and food supply situation were based not on institutionalised process of technical change but on good harvest. When there was a good harvest, the economy was in good condition. When it was not, the economic indicators showed stagnation negative trends.

2. In Pakistan most foreign exchange earnings come from, remittances from Pakistan workers working in the middle east and the exports of highly volatile agricultural produce there was also growing dependence on foreign loans on the one hand and increasing difficulties in paying back the loans on the other.

Question 15.
Compare and contrast the development of India, China and Pakistan with respect to some salient human development indicators.
Answer:

From the above table, we can see that China is moving ahead of India and Pakistan. This is true for many indicators, Income indicator such as GDP per capita, health indicator such as mortality rate, literacy, life expectancy in China for one lakh births, only 50 women die whereas in India and Pakistan more than 500 women die.

Question 16.
Comment on the growth rate trends witnessed in China and India in the last two decades. China has the second largest GDP (PPP) of $ 10.1 trillion whereas India’s GDP (PPP) is $ 4.2 trillion. When many developed countries were finding it difficult to maintain a growth rate of even 5%, China was able to maintain near double – digit growth for more than two decades as can be seen from table. Growth of Gross Domestic Products (%) 2000-2010.
Answer:

Source Key indicators for Asia and Pacific 2011, Asian Development Bank, Philippines in the 1980s, China was having double – digit growth and India was stuck at 5.7% decadal growth rate. In 2000-10, there was a marginal decline if lndia’s growth rate while China maintained its growth path. As far as sector wise contribution to growth is concerned, in 2008, contribution of agriculture to GDP in China was 10% while in India it was 19%.

On the other hand manufacturing contributes the highest to GDP in China at 47%, whereas in India service sector contributes the highest at around 55%. In the last two decades, the growth of agriculture sector has declined – in both the countries. In the industrial sector, China has maintained a double – digit growth rate, whereas for India industrial growth rate has declined.

In the case of service sector, China has been able to raise its rate of growth in 2008-10 while service sector growth in India has stagnated. China’s growth is mainly contributed by the manufacturing sector and India’s growth by service sector.

Question 17.
Fill in the blanks.

1. First Five Year Plan of Pakistan commenced in the year 1956. (Pakistan/China)
2. Maternal mortality rate is high in Pakistan. (India / Pakistan)
3. Proportion of people below poverty line is more in India. (India / Pakistan)
4. Reforms in China were introduced in 1978. (China / Pakistan)

1st PUC Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention some examples of regional and economic groupings?
Answer:
Some of the regional and economic grouping are SAARC, European Union, ASEAN, G – 8, G – 20 etc.

Question 2.
Comment on the role of “Green Revolution in Pakistan”?
Answer:
The introduction of “Green Revolution” to mechanisation and increase in public, investment in infrastructure in select areas, which finally led to a rise in the production of food grains. This changed the agrarian structure dramatically.

Question 3.
Explain the areas where Pakistan has surpased India.

OR

Name the two areas of development where Pakistan has trapped India.
Answer:
Pakistan has performed better than India in the field of economic growth, rate, per capita income, better living standards and consumption levels etc.

Question 4.
Explain the areas where India, has surpased Pakistan?

OR

Name the areas of development where India has trapped Pakistan?
Answer:
The areas where India has surpased Pakistan are scientific and technological development, exports of software, defence technology, space research, electronics, genetics, telecommunications, education and health etc.

Question 5.
What is the type of Indian economy?
Answer:
India seems like two separate countries.

• Milage India: Supported by Primitive agriculture.
• Urban India: Supported by Industrial areas.

Question 6.
Give the proporation of agriculture in the Indian Economy.
Answer:
Agriculture accounts for 25% of the gross domestic product and employes almost 70% of the Indian population.

Question 7.
Give the types of Indian Crops.
Answer:
Wheat, Sugarcane, rice, cotton, tobacco, oilseeds, jute, bajra, com tea etc are the crops of lndia.

Question 8.
Write down the full form of SEZ?
Answer:
Special Economic Zone.

Question 9.
Give the full form of SAARC?
Answer:
Full form of SAARC is South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.

Question 10.
What is urbanisation?
Answer:
Urbanisation is the expansion of a metropolitian area namely the proportion of total area.

Question 11.
What is worker-population ratio?
Answer:
Worker population ratio is total number of workers divided by the population it is expressed in percentage.

Question 12.
What is national product Income?
Answer:
National income is the total value of final goods and serivces produced in a country plus. income from abroad.

Question 13.
Give the policial power setup in India, Pakistan and China.
Answer:
There is democracy in India, authoritarian militarist political power structure in Pakistan and Command economy in China.

Question 14.
When did India start its first five-year plan?
Answer:
1951.

Question 15.
When did China announces its first five-year plan?
Answer:
China announced its first five-year plan in 1953.

Question 16.
What is one of the much-talked issues around the world about China?
Answer:
One of the much-talked issues around the world about China is its growth of gross domestic product.

Question 17.
What was India’s population in 2005?
Answer:
It was 108.7 crores in 2005.

Question 18.
What is the rank of India according to Human development Index 2005?
Answer:
It was 127.

Question 19.
What is the contribution of agriculture to the total GDP in India and Pakistan?
Answer:
The Contribution of agriculture to the total GDP in India and Pakistan is the same 23%.

Question 20.
How many people in India and Pakistan were dependent on agriculture in 2002.
Answer:
The people depended on agriculture were 60% in India and 49% in Pakistan.

Question 21.
What was the share at manufacturing activity in the GDP in China in 2003?
Answer:
The share of manufacturing activity in the GDP in China in 2003 was 53%.

Question 22.
Name the programme which was started with the aim of industralisation in China.
Answer:
The Great Leap Forward (GLF) Programme.

Question 23.
Write down anyone similiarity in the economic policies of India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Both countries have mixed economy.

Question 24.
Which of the following countries is moving ahead in the indicators of human development index

1. India
2. China
3. Pakistan.

Answer:
2. China.

Question 25.
Which country is the biggest in area out of the three countries India, China and Pakistan?
Answer:
China is the biggest country in area.

Question 26.
In which fields is Pakistan ahead in India?
Answer:
Pakistan is ahead of India in reducing proportion of people below the poverty line, its performance in education sanitation and access to water.

Question 27.
Write down the HDI ranks of India and Pakistan according to Human Development Index 2003.
Answer:
India ranked 127 and Pakistan ranked 135 according to HDI 2003.

Question 28.
Which of the following countries were forced to introduce structural reforms by international agencies?
Answer:
India and Pakistan.

Question 29.
In which country one child norm has been introduced?
Answer:
In China.

1st PUC Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Comment on Pakistan’s economy in brief.
Answer:
Agriculture is the main occupation in Pakistan employing almost 50% of the population. Wheat, rice, cotton, sugarcane and tobacco are the chief crops and cattle and sheeps are raised.

The country is self sufficient in food grains Pakistan’s industrial base is able to supply many of the country’s need in consumer goods, although production has slowed in recent years. Remittances from Pakistan is working abroad constitute the second largest, source of foreign exchange.

Question 2.
Compare the growth of Domestic product (%) of India, China and Pakistan during 1980 – 2003?
Answer:
Growth of Gross Domestic Product(%) of India and China and Pakistan during 1980 – 2003

Question 3
Answer:
Give the comparison of India, China and Pakistan in respect of Sex ratio and fertility rate.

Question 4.
Answer:
Show the contribution of agriculture to GDP in percentage (2003) of the following countries with the help of bar – diagram.

Question 5.
Show the percentage of people engaged in service sector in India, China and Pakistan with the help of bar diagram.
Answer:

1st PUC Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Comment on the growth rate trends witnessed in China and India in the last two decades.
Answer:

The growth of agriculture sectors, which employes largest proportion of workforce in two countries, has declined. In industrial sector China has maintained, double digit number rate whereas for India growth rate has declines. In the case of service sector. India has been able to raise its rate of growth in the 1990s while China reduced their service sector growth.

Question 2.
Give reasons for the slow growth and re-emergence of poverty in Pakistan?
Answer:
Reasons for the slow growth and re-emergence of poverty in Pakistan:
1. Political instability:
Scholars are of opinion that one of the reasons of slow growth and re-emergence of poverty in Pakistan is political instability, there is more expenditure in maintaining’law and order.

2. Dependence on foreign loan:
There is growing dependence or foreign loan. It faces much difficulty in the repayment of loan and interest thereon.

3. Fall in foreign exchange earnings:
In Pakistan, most foreign exchange earnings came from remittances from Pakistani workers in the middle East and the exports of highly volatile agricultural products. Now there was fall in foreign exchange remittances.

4. Agricultural growth based on good harvest:
In Pakistan agricultural growth and food – supply situation were based on good harvest. They were not based on an institutional process of technical change. So when there was a good harvest, the economy was in good condition, but when it was not in good condition, the economic indicators showed stagnation or negative trends.

5. Too many expenses on defence:
In order to alleviate poverty, more Public expenditure should be incurred for the development of a country. But Pakistan spends a huge amount on defence.

Question 2.
Explain the factors responsible for accelerated growth in China?
Answer:
Factors responsible for accelerated growth in China:
1. Government Control:
People’s Republic of China was established in 1949 under one-party rule. All the critical sectors of the economy, land and enterprises owned and operated by individuals were brought under government control. There was monopoly of government. The government of China undertook many measures to develop the country.

2. Great Leap Forward (GLF):
This campaign was initiated in 1959 to industrialise the country on a massive scale. People were encouraged to set up industries in their backyards.

Communes were started in rural areas. Under commune system land was collectively cultivated. In 1958, there were 26,000 communes covering almost all formers.

3. Great proletarian Cultural Revolution (1996 – 76):
In 1965, Mao introduced the Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution. Under this revolution, students and professionals were sent to work and learn from the country side.

4. Economic Reforms in 1978:
China introduced many economic reforms in 1978. These reforms resulted in fast economic growth. These reforms resulted in fast economic growth. These reforms were introduced in phases. In the initial phase, reforms were initiated in agriculture, foreign trade and investment.

Foreign agriculture, commune lands were divided into small plots which were allocated to individual households for use and not for ownership. They were allowed to keep all income from the land after paying stipulated taxes.
In the later phase, reforms were initiated in the industrial sector.

Private sector firms, in general and township and village enterprises ie those enterprises which were owned and operated by local authorities, in particular, were allowed to produce goods. At this stage, enterprises owned by the government were made to face competition. The reform process also involved dual pricing.

Question 3
Give some indicators showing that China is moving head of India and Pakistan. Indicators showing that China is moving head of India and Pakistan.
Answer:
1. Value of Human Development Index:
The value of human developement Index in China is 0.755, whereas in India it is 0.602 and in Pakistan it in 0.527. The rate of Human development shown that China occupies 81 ranks, whereas India and Pakistan rank 128 and 136 respectively as regards human development.

2. Life expectancy:
Life expectancy at birth is highest in China. It is 71.6 in China, whereas in India and Pakistan it is 64 years.

3. Growth of GDP (%):
China’s growth of GDP was 9.7% in 1990-2002 whereas it was 5.8 and 3.6 of India and Pakistan respectively during that period.

4. Infant and maternal mortality rate:
China has the least infant and maternal mortality rate at 30 and 50 respectively, whereas infant mortality rate in India and Pakistan is 63 and 81 per thousand.

5. GDP:
China has the second largest GDP (PPP) of $ 7.2 trillion whereas India’s GDP (PPP) is $ 3.3 trillion and Pakistan’s GDP is roughly about 10% of India’s GDP.

6. Undernourished population:
The undernourished population is the least in China at only 11 % of the total population, whereas India and Pakistan have almost the same ie 21 % and 20% respectively.

Students can Download Economics Chapter 7 Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 9 Environment Sustainable Development

1st PUC Economics Environment Sustainable Development TextBook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by Environment?

OR

Define Environment?
Answer:
Environment is defined as the total planetary inheritance and the totality of all resources.

Question 2.
What happens when the rate of resource extraction exceeds that of their regeneration?
Answer:
When the rate of resource extraction exceeds that of their regeneration, the function, i.e it fails to prefer an important junction ie it fails to sustain life by providing genetic and biodiversity, this results in an environmental crisis. Presently the entire world is facing this situation.

The rising population of the developing countries and affluent consumption and production standards of the developed world have placed a huge stress on the environment. Many resources have become extinct and the wastes generated are beyond the absorptive capacity of the environment.

Question 3.
Classify the following into renewable and non-renewable resources?

1. Trees
2. Fish
3. Petroleum
4. Coal
5. Iron-ore
6. Water

Answer:
1. Renewable resources: Trees, Fish, Water.
2. Non-renewable resources: Petroleum, Coal, Iron-ore

Question 4.
Two major environmental issues facing the world are and?
Answer:
Two major environmental issue facing the world today are global warming and ozone depletion.

Question 5.
How do the following factor contribute to the environment crisis in india? What problem do they pose for the government?

1. Rising population
2. Air pollution
3. Water pollution or contamination
4. Affluconsumption standards
5. Illiteracy
6. Industrialization
7. Urbanisation
8. Reduction of forest coverage
9. Poaching
10. Global warming.

OR

How are the following factors responsible to environment crisis in india.

1. Rising population
2. Air pollution. (Annual exam 2010)

Answer:
1. Rising Population:
India supports app 16% of the world’s human and 20% of livestock population on a mere 2.5% of the world’s geographical area. The high density of popu¬lation and livestock and the competing uses of land for forestry, agriculture, pastures, human settlement and industries exert an enormous pressure on the country’s finite land resource. Hence it becomes very difficult for the govt to provide all types of facilities to such a huge population.

All the measures adopted by the government cannot become fruitful unless we adopt a path of sustainable development. Development to enhance our current living styples. without concern for other factors will deplete resources and degrade environment at a speed that is bound to result in both environmental and economic crisis.

2. Air Pollution:
In india air pollution is widespread in urban aereas because of vehicles, factories and other reasons. Air pollution is a great concern because it has serious harmful effects on the general population, for example, the number of motor vehicles has increased from 3 lakhs in 1957 to 67 crores to 2003. In 2003, personal transport vehicles (two wheelers vehicles and car only) constituted vehicles this growth directly contributed to air pollution.

3. Water Contamination:
Life depends to a great extent on water however, Increase in population, waste disposal from factories etc. contaminate water the development process has also polluted water and it is responsible for the decreasing level of water that is harmful for animals living in the government has taken many steps to slow the problem of water contamination but it had failed to achieve desired success.

4. Affluent consumption standards:
The affluent consumption and production standards used by developed countries have placed a huge stress on the environment. In developed countries, the government exerts less strictness on society because they have small amount of population and abundant resources. Hence, they try to make affluent society.

But in this way sometimes the resources remain unutilised or sometimes they are overutilised. Hither the resources are underutilised or overutilised, they generally lead to wastage of resources.

5. Affluent consumption standards:
The affluent consumption and production standards used by developed countries have placed a huge stress on the environment exerts less strictness on society because they have small amount of population and abundant resources. Hence, they have try to make affluent society.

But in this way, sometimes the resources remain unutilised or sometimes they are overutilised. Either the resources are underutilised or over utilised, they generally lead to wastage of resources.

6. Uitracy:
Illitracy is a serious hurdle in the development process. The government has taken a number of measures to tackle the problem of illistracy, but it has failed to give desired results and has lead to deforestation, pollution, shortage of basic necessities like health sanitation, etc.

7. Industrialization:
The cost of industrialization is environment degradation The result of indus- trializationisthat the demand for resources for both production and consumption has gone beyond the rate of regeneration of the resources. Hence, problems have started taking place.

8. Urbanisation:
Urbanisation has resulted in environmental degradation. The result of industrialization is that the demand for resources for both production and consumption has .gone beyond the rate of regeneration of the resources. Hence, problems has started taking place.

9. Reduction of forest coverage:
Increasing population requires food, shelter clothing. To meet these necessities of society, the government itself or businessmen or builders clear the forests. Clearance of forests have serious repercussions on the ecological balance and lead to ozone depletion.

10. Poaching:
Destroying wildlife is termed as poaching or entering into others field forcefully is known as poaching. Preservation of wild life is essential to maintain ecological balance. The government Is very much worried about the killing of animals at massive scale and it has taken stem measures against the criminals.

11. Global warming:
It is gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s lower atmosphere as a result of the increase in greenhouse gases since the industrial revolution much of the recent observed and projected global warming is human induced. It is caused by man made increases in carbon dioxide and other green house gases through the burning of fossil fuel and deforestation.

A U N. conference on climate change, held in Kyoto, Japan in 1997, resulted in an international agreement to fight warming which called for reduction in emissions of greenhouse gases by industrialised nations.

Question 6.
What are the functions of environment ?

OR

State the functions of environment ?
Answer:
There are four important function of environment:

1. It supplies resources (both renewable and nonrenewable)
2. It assimilates waste
3. It sustain life by providing genetic and bio-diversity
4. It provides aesthetic services like scenery.

Question 7.
Identify six factors contributing to land degradation in India.
Answer:
Land degradation means toss of fertility of land, six of the factors responsible for land degradation are:

1. Loss of vegetation occuring due to deforestation.
2. Unsustainable fuelwood and fodder extinction.
3. Extraction of groundwater in excess of the recharge capacity.
4. Non-adoption of adequate soil conservation measures.
5. Improper crop rotation.
6. Indiscriminate use of agrochemicals such as fertilizers and pesticides.

Question 8.
Explain how the opportunity costs of negative environmental impact are high.
Answer:
To solve the problem of environmental degradation global warming and one depletion etc. The government has to make extra efforts and expenditure. These expenditures are known as opportunity cost of those useful projects which had to be left because of finite resources and diversion of these resources towards resolving the above mentioned problem.

This opportunity cost is very high because the development process has ignored the environment and ecological balance. The rectify this more efforts are needed involving heavy expenditures.

Question 9.
Outline the steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India.
Answer:
Steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India are outlined below:
1. Population Control:
Limiting the human population to a level within the carrying capacity of the environment is the first step to be followed for attaining sustainable development as population is exerting tremendous pressure in terms of demand for resources which is more than the absorptive capacity of the environment leading to environmental crisis.

2. Efficient Utilization of Resources:
Technological progress and industrialization should be input efficient and wastage of resources should be minimised by proper utilization. This will help to produce more with lesser amount ofresources and thus depletion of resources will be slower.

3. Control of Over Extraction:
Rate of extraction of renewable resources should not exceed the rate of regeneration so that they are extracted on a sustainable basis.

4. Control of Depletion:
Rate of depletion of non – renewable resources should not exceed the rate of creation of renewable substitutes so that environmental risis does not emerg and resources are availabe for future generations.

5. Pollution Control:
Pollution in all forms has negative environmental impact which has high opportunity cost. Hence, control of pollution is a must to maintaintain the quality of natural resources such as air and water for sustainable development.

6. Use of Non – Conventional Energy:
India is hugely dependent on thermal and hydropower plants to meet its power needs which have adverse environment impacts. Wind power and solar rays are cleaner and greener energy sources which shold be explored on a large scale by developing technological devices along with non – conventional sources like nuclear energy.

Question 10.
India has abundant natural resources substantiate the statement.
Answer:
India has abundant natural resources in terms of rich quality of soil, hundred of rivers and tributaries, lost green forests, plenty of mineral deposits beneath the land surface, vast stretch of the indian ocean, ranges of mountains, etc.

The black soil of the Deccan plateau is particularly suitable for cultivation of cotton, leading to concentration of textile industries in this region. The Indo-Gangetic plains-spread from the Arabian sea to the Bay of Bengal are one of the most fertile intensively cultivated and densly populated regions in the world. India’s forest, through unevenly distributed provide green cover for its wildlife large deposit of iron-ore coal and natural gas are found in the country.

India alone accounts for nearly 20% of the world’s total iron- ore reserve, bauxite, copper, chromite, diamonds, gold, lead, lignite, manganese, zinc, uranium, etc. are also available in different parts of the country. However, the developmental activities in india have resulted in pressure on its finite natural resources besides creating impacts on human health and well being.

Question 11.
Is environmental crisis a recent phenomenon? If so, why? Yes, environmental crisis is a recent phenomenon.
Answer:
The Environment has been able to perfom its functions without any interrruption till the resource extraction was not above the rate of regeneration of the resource and the wastes generated were within the assimilating capacity of the environment. But today, environment fails to perform its third and vital function of life sustenance resulting in an environmental crisis.

The rising population of the developing countries and the affluent consumption and production standards of the developed world have placed a huge stress on the environment in terms of its first two functions. Many resources have become extinct and the wastes generated are beyond the absorptive capacity of the environment. As a result we are today at the threshold of environmental crisis.

Question 12.
Give two instances of

1. Overuse of environmental resources,
2. Misuse of environmental resources.

Answer:
1. Overuse of environmental resources:

• Soil degradation due to improper crop rotation and crop shifting. .
• Drying up of rivers due to overuse of water from them though dams and reservoirs.

2. Misuse of environemtal resources.

• Excess use of electricity leads to depletion of resources like coal and water from which electricity is generated.
• Excess use of petrol and diesel in vehicles.

Question 13.
State any four pressing environmental concerns of India, correction for environmental damages involves opportunity costs. Explain.
Answer:
Four pressing environment concerns of India are

1. Land degradation.
2. Biodiversity loss
3. Air population with special reference to vehicular pollution in urban cities.
4. Management of fresh water and solid waste management.

Correction for environmental damages involves opportunity costs as explained below.
a. The industrial development in past has polluted and dried up rivers and other aquifers making water an economic good, cleaning up of polluted rivers and replenishing water resources require huge investments.

b. The intensive and extensive extraction of both renewable and non – renewable resources has exhausted some of these vital resources and huge amount of funds need to be spent of technology and reserach to explore new resources.

c. The health costs of degraded environmental quality are also present as decline in air and water quality have resulted in increased incidence of respiratory and water – borne diseases.

d. Global environmental issues such as global warming and ozone depletion also contribute to increased financial commitments for the government.

Question 14.
Explain the supply demand reversal of environmental resources.
Answer:
In earlier days when civilization just began or before the increase in population and or before countries took to industrialization, the demand for environment resources was much less than their supply.

But with population explosion and with the advent of industrial revolution, the demand for resources both production and consumption became more than the supply. It is known as supply demand reversal of environment. This is one if the reasons of the degradation of the environment.

Question 15.
Account for the current environmental crisis.
Answer:
Environment performs four-function namely supplies resources, assimilates wastes, sustains life by providing genetic and biodiversity and provides aesthetic services. But the rising populations of the developing countries, the affluent consumption and production standards of the developed countries and industrial revolution have brought the situation of environmental crisis, i.e. at all had put great pressure on the first two functions of the environment.

Many resources have become extinct and the waste generated are beyond the absorptive capacity of the environment.The environmental crisis has worsened by the drying up of rivers and other aquifers making water an economic good besides.

The intensive and extensive extraction of both renewable and non-renewable resources has exhausted some of these vital resources and thus, we are compelled to spend huge resources on technology and research to explore new resources.

Along with this one more important cost of the degraded environmental quality decline in the air and water quality. Hence the expenditure on health is rising the situation become more worsen with the current isues of global warming and ozone depletion. They also put great strain on government’s finite financial resources.

Question 16.
Highlight any two serious adverse environmental consequences of development in india.
India’s environmental problems pose a dichotomy-they are poverty induced and at the same time due to affluence in living standards – is this true?

OR

Explain how india’s environmental problems are both poverty indirect as well as consequence of affluence?
Answer:
Two serious problem caused by environmental degradation in india are:

1. Water contamination
2. Poverty

1. Water contamination:
Development in India has taken a heavy price from the Indian society. In a hurry to develop the industrial sector, the businessmen and the govt has forgotten to take the preventive measures for the waste disposal.

The government has made rules and regulations but in the absence of their stricter implementation, our country has to face many environmental problems, water contamination has not only given birth to many water born diseases but also has affected actual animals adversly.

2. Poverty:
The industrial revolution has made the rich more richer and poor poorer. The reason behind this situation is poverty, unemployment and illiteracy, we are one of the ten most industrilised nations of the world but this situation has brought with it unplanned, urbanisation, pollution, poverty, increasing level of under unemployment and disguised unemployment.

Yes, this statement rightly shows the picture of Indian economy and the problems faced by it. The government has taken various measure to safeguard the environment but it has become necessary to adopt the path of sustainable development.

Question 17.
What is sustainable development ?
OR
Explain the concept of sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is development that meets the need of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs. Non-renewable resources: Petroleum, Coal, Iron-ore

Question 18.
Keeping in view your locality describe any four strategies of sustainable development.
Answer:
Four strategies required for sustainable development are:

• Promotion of natural resources like planting of trees etc.
• Preserving regenerative capacity of ecological system
• Conservation of natural resources.
• Try to maintain the environment pollution free and free from other diseases so that safe environment can be handed over to the future generation.

Question 19.
Explain the relevance of inter-generational equity in the context of sustainable development.

OR

Explain the concept of intergenerational equity in the context of sustainable development.
Answer:
Development that ignores its repercussions on the environment will has to face the bumps of nature and other factors like global warming, ozone depletion, pollution, water contamination, poverty, etc.

Hence the development process should take care of its adversities i. e it must of emphasise on sustainable development, development that allows not only the development of present generation in a safe and comfortable manner but also the growth of future generation in the best way.

Thus, sustainable development emphasises intergenerational equity that shows the develoment of present generations without compromising the ability of the future gneration to meet their requirements sustainable dvelopment aims at redistributing resourcesuch a manner that the benefits of growth can reach to the poor at the grassroot level and also these can be carried forward to next generation safely.

Sustainable development aims at decreasing the absolute poverty of the poor by providing lasting and secure livelihoods that minimise resource depletion, environmental, degradation, cultural disruption and social instability. It enable the poor to get equal chances of meeting the basic needs like employment, food, energy, water, housing, etc.

1st PUC Economics Environment Sustainable Development Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Economics Environment Sustainable Development Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the two instances of:

1. overuse of environmental resources
2. misuse of environmental resources

Answer:
1. Overuse of environmental resources:

• Land,
• Forest

2. Misuse of environmental resources:

• Electricity,
• Water

Question 2.
How development can be termed as leading to unsustainable development?
Answer:
Fuller or excessive utilisation of the resources may lead to their depletion so fast that it will reduce the production capacity of the future generation as it reduces production capacity for them.

Question 3.
Explain in brief supply demand relationship between development and environment?
Answer:
When the population increases and the industrialization takes places the demand for re¬sources increases but the environment with its finite resources fails to supply these resources.

Question 4.
Explain CHIPKO Movement?
Answer:
This movement aims at protecting forests in the Himalayas.

Question 5.
What is Appiko movement ?
Answer:
Started on the pattern of Chipko movement. This movement was started in Karnataka to save trees ‘Appiko’ means to hug. On 8 September, 1983, 160 men. Women and children hugged the trees in Salkani forest in sirsi and forced the woodcutters to leave.

Question 6.
The “ carrying capacity ” of the environment is like a “ plimsll line “ of the ship Explain.
Answer:
The carrying capacity of the environment is like a “ plimsoll line” of the ship which is its load limit mark. In the absence of the Plimsol line for the economy, human scale grows beyond the carrying capacity of the earth and deviates from sustainable development.

Question 7.
Make a list of items that can be recycled.
Answer:
Following are the things that can be recycled.

1. Plastic
2. Papers
3. Polythene
4. Certain categories of waste of industries
5. Glass.

Question 8.
Define “ Dual Pricing”.
Answer:
Dual Pricing:
It means charging the prices in two ways. Farmers and industrial units were required to buy and sell fixed quantities of input and output on the basis of prices fixed by the government and the rest were purchased and sold at market price.

Question 9.
What are renewable resources ?
Answer:
Renewable resources are those resources which can be used without the possibility of the resources becoming depleted or exhausted. Trees in the forests and the fishes in the ocean are renewable sources.

Question 10.
What are non-renewable resources?
Answer:
Non-renewable resources are tho se resources which get exhausted with extraction and use.

Question 11.
Which factors have placed a huge stress on the environment interms of its first in function?
Answer:
The rising population of the developing countries and the affluent consumption and production standards of the developed world have placed a huge stress on the environment in terms of its first two functions.

Question 12.
Which type of soil is particulars suitable for the cultivation of cotton?
Answer:
The black soil of the Deccan plateau in particularly suitable for the cultivation of cotton.

Question 13.
Name the plains in india which are one of the most fertile intensively cultivated and densely populated regions in the world.
Answer:
The indo-Gangetic Plains.

Question 14.
Name the minerals available in the different parts of india?
Answer:
Bauxite, copper, chromite, diamonds, gold, lead, lignite, manganese, zinc, uranium are main minerals available in the different parts of india.

Question 15.
What is the per capita forest land in india?
Answer:
The per capita forest land in india is 0.08 hectare.

Question 16.
What does sustainable development aim at?
Answer:
Sustainable development aims at decreasing the absolute poverty of the poor by providing lasting and secure livelihood that minimizes resource depletion, environment degradation, cultural disruption and social instability.

Question 17.
Give two examples of biotic components of environment?
Answer:

1. Birds
2. Animals.

Question 18.
Give two examples of abiotic components of environment?
Answer:

1. Air
2. Water.

Question 19.
Define economic growth?
Answer:
Economic growth may be defined as a long-term increase in real per capita income leading to rise in the standard of living of people.

Question 20.
Define Economic Development?
Answer:
Economic Development may be defined as a long-term increase in real per capital income and economic welfare.

Question 21.
Give two examples of misuse of resources and the over-use of resources.
Answer:
1. Two examples of misuse of resources:

1. Use of wood as a household fuel.
2. Use of rivers to absord industrial effluents.

2. Two examples of overuse of resources:

1. Excessive exploitation of fossil fuel
2. Excessive tree felling.

Question 22.
When and why was the central pollution control board set up?
Answer:
Central pollution control board was set up in 1974 to address to major environment pollution problem in India viz water and air pollution.

Question 23.
What does ozone depletion refer to?
Answer:
Ozone depletion refers to the phenomenon of reduction in the amount of ozone in the stratosphere.

Question 24.
How is the problem of ozone depletion caused?
Answer:
The problem of ozone depletion is caused by high levels of chlorine and bromine compounds in the stratosphere.

Question 25.
What adverse effects of green revolution were noticed?
Answer:
Soil, water bodies, and even groundwater was polluted with pesticides milk and fishes were also found to be contaminated.

Question 26.
What causes air pollution? Write down diseases that are caused due to air pollution?
Answer:
Causes of air pollution:

1. Emission of poisonous gases by the industries.
2. Vehicular emissions.
3. Thermal power plants.

Diseases:
Air pollution cause following diseases:

1. Diarrhea
2. Hepatitis
3. Cancer
4. Emphysema
5. Asthma

Question 27.
What is bio composting?
Answer:
It is the compost made from cattle dung human waste and plant residue. It is used as fertilizers.

1st PUC Economics Environment Sustainable Development Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is environmental crisis a recent phenomenon? If so, why?
Answer:
Yes, environmental crisis is a recent phenomenon. In early days, when civilisation just began, before the phenomenal increase in population and growth of industrialisation, the demand for environmental resources was within the carrying capacity of the environment and so the pollution was also within the absorptive capacity of the environment.

Therefore environmental problems did not arise. But with the advent of the industrialisation and out break of the population, environmental problems arisen and the resources for both production and consumption proved to be beyond the rate of regeneration of the resources and the absorptive capacity of the environment.

Question 2.
Identify six factors contributing to land degradation in india?
Answer:
Following are the factors responsible for land degradation are:

1. Loss of vegetation occurring due to deforestation
2. Unsustainable fuelwood and fodder extraction
3. Shifting cultivation
4. Encroachment into forest lands
5. Forest fires and overgrazing.
6. non-adoption of adequate soil conservation measure.

Question 3.
Outline the steps involved in attaining sustain development in india?
Answer:
Steps involved in attaining sustainable development in india are:

1. Decreasing the absolute poverty of the poor by providing employment opportunities.
2. Provoding livelihood in such a manner that can minimize resource deletion, environmental degradation, cultural disruption, cultural disruption and social instability.

Question 4.
What should be done to acheive sustainable development according herman Daly leading environmental economists.
Answer:
According to Herman Daly – a leading environmental economist the following needs should be done to achieve sustainable development.

1. Limiting the human population to a level within the carrying capacity of the environment.
2. Technological progress should be input efficient and not input consuming.
3. Renewable resources should be extracted on a sustainable basis.
4. for non-renewable resources, rate of depletion should not exceed the rate of creation of
   renewable substitution. .
5. Inefficiencies arising from pollution should be corrected.

Question 5.
In order to avoid deforestation, reduction in green cover, wastage of dung and air pollution, what are being provided by the govt?
Answer:
In order to avoid the deforestation reducton in green cover etc. LPG and globar gas plants are being provided by the governments.
1. LPG:
It is a clean fuel. It reduces household pollution to a large extent. Also, energy wastage is minimised.

2. Provision of gobar gas plant:
The government in providing gobar gas plants through easy loan and subsidy for gobar gas plant to function, cattle dung is fed to the plant and gas is produced which is used as fuel while the slurry which is leftover a Very good organic fertilizer and soil conditioner.

Question 6.
Write a short note on wind power?
Answer:
Wind power is generated by windmills. In those areas where speed of wind is usually high. Genertions of electricity by windmills does not have adverse impact on the environment wind turbines move with the wind and electricity is generated. The initial cost is high, but the benefits are such that the high cost gets easily absorbed.

Question 7.
Write a short note on mini-hydel plant?
Answer:
Mini-hydel plant:
Mini-hydel plants generate electricity with the help of water of stream following in the mountainous region. Large percentage of stream following in the mountainous regions are perennial. So the energy of such streams can be used for the whole year to move or less environment-friendly. They do not change the land use pattern in areas where they are located they generate enough power to meet local demands.

Question 8.
What steps have been taken to bring in better method of pest control?
Answer:
Better method of pest control: many steps have been taken to bring in better method of pest control.

1. Pesticides based on plant products are being used neem trees are proving to be quite useful several types of pest control chemicals have been isolated from neem and these are being used.
2. Mixed cropping has been adopted.
3. Different crops are being grown in consecutive years.
4. Awareness 15 being awakened about various animals and birds which help controlling pets.

Question 9.
Why have farmers in large numbers all over the country again started using compost made of organic waste of different types?
Answer:
Due to neglecting the use of compost and completely switching over to chemical fertilizers, large tracts of productive land have been adversly affected, water bodies including groundwater system have suffered due to chemical contamination and the demand for irrigation has been growing up.

forever earthworms can convert organic matter to compost faster than the normal process. So the farmers in large number all over the country have been again started using compost made from organic wastes of different types.

Question 10.
What causes water pollution? Write down the diseases caused by water pollution?
Answer:
Following are the causes of water pollution.

• Domestic sewarge which flows into Dallas.
• Dangerous chemicals emitted by industries that fall into rivers.
• Ash of thermal power plants.

Diseases caused by water pollution are :

• Hepatitis
• Dengue
• Cholera
• Diphtheria etc.

Question 11.
Fill the following table with some common types of diseases and illnesses that are caused due to air, water and noise pollution.
Answer:
Air pollution water pollution Noise pollution Asthma, Typhoid fever, Cholera Cancer, High blood pressure(hypertension), e-coli infection, PSA infection Emphysema respiratory diseases coronary artery diseases(heart diseases) Diphtheria, enteric fever, dengue

Question 12.
What are the effects of ozone depletion?
Answer:
Effects of ozone depletion:

1. It causes skin cancer in human beings.
2. It lowers the growth of terrestrial plants
3. It lowers the production of phytoplankton and other aquantic organisms.

Question 13.
In which terms has india abundant natural resources?
Answer:
India has abundant resources in terms of:

• Rich quality of soil
• Hundreds of rivers and tributaries
• Plenty of mineral deposits beneath the landsurface
• Lush green forest
• Vast stretch of the Indian ocean
• Ranges of mountain
• The black soil of the Deccan plateau etc.

1st PUC Economics Environment Sustainable Development Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
State any four pressing environmental concern of india. Correction for environmental damage involves opportunity costs explain.
Answer:
Four pressing environmental concerns of india is:
1. Land degradation :
Land in India suffers from varying degrees and types of degradation stemming. Mainly from unsuitable use and inapproprite management practices.

2. Bio-iversity loss:
In India, the per capita forest land is only 0.08 hectare against the requirement of 0.47 hectare to meet basic needs resulting in an excess feeling of about 15 million cubic meters forests over the permissible limits similarly with soil, soil is being eroded at a rate of 5.3 billion tonnes a year for the entire country as a result of which the country losses 0.8 million tonnes of nitrogen 1.8 millions tonnes of potassium every year.

3. Management of fresh water:
In our country management of freshwater is altogether faulty. Unplanned urbanization, loss of rainwater cast seeps into the earth faulty system of waste disposal are responsible for polluted water.

4. Air pollution:
Air pollution is very dangerous for plant, animals and human beings. It is a serious concern mainly in urban areas. Where the dust and smoke emitted by factories, vehicles, etc. Pollute the environment very badly.

Question 2.
Explain the features of sustainable development.
Answer:
Main features of sustainable development are as under:
1. Sustained rise in real per capita income and economic welfare :
There should be a sustained rise in real per capita income and economic welfare over time.

2. Rational use of the natural resources:
Sustainable development does not mean that natural resources should not be used at all. It simply means that natural resources be rationally used in a manner such that they are not excessively exploited.

3. No reduction in the ability of future generation to meet their own needs:
Sustainable development aims at making of natural resource and environments for asking or raising the existing standard of living in such a way as not to reduce ability of the future generations to meet their own needs.

4. No increase in pollution :
Sustainable development discards those activities which in order to maintain existing high standard of living, prove determental to nature resources and environment. According to the concept, one should dirist from undertaking such activities as may increase pollution and decrease quality of life of future generations.

Question 3.
How measurement of sustainable development is done through green net na tional income and genuine saving?
Answer:
1. Green net national income:
Green net national income is the difference between Net national income and Depreciation of natural capital. It involves the knowledge of following concepts.

a. Net national income:
It is the market value of the final goods and services pro¬duced by the residents of the counting duming of period of the year.

b. Depreciation of natural capital:
Depreciation refers to loss of value of the capital because of its continuous use. Natural resources including environment. Accordingly, Depredation of natural capital refers to the loss of value of natural resources of a country because of their continous use, as well as environmental degradation.
Green national Income = Net national income – Depletion of natural resources – environmental degradation.

2. Genuine Savings :
Another measure of sustainable development is genuine sav¬ings the genuine saving is the rate of saving adjusted not only for depreciation of man made capital but also for loss of value of the natural capital.
Genuine savings = Rate of savings – Depreciation of man made capital – Depreciation natural capital.

Question 4.
Distinguised b/w economic growth, economic development, and sustainable development.
Answer:
Economic Growth:

• It refers to long term increase in real per capita income
• This concept is generally used with reference to developed economics.
• It ignores protection of income.
• It ignores protection of environment.
• It does not account for the exploitation of natural capital.

Economic Development:

• It refers to long term increase in real per capita income and economic welfare.
• It is generally used in the context of under developed economics.
• It does not ignore distribution of income.
• It lays no special emphasis on environmental protection.
• It does not account for the exploitation of natural capital.

Sustainable Development:

• It refers to increase in real per capita income, and economic welfare of both the present and future generations. It is used for both developed and underdeveloped economies.
• It does not ignore distribution of income.
• It lays special emphasis on environmental protection.
• lt emphasises rational utilisation of natural capital to safeguard the interest of future generations.

Question 5.
How economic development causes environmental degradation ? Explain.
Answer:
1. Air Pollution :
It occurs when greater reliance is placed on mechanisation and automation greater use of energy like coal, keroscene oil and diesel causes greater emission of smoke in the air. It causes a serious damages to public health expenditure on public health owing to environmental pollution is becoming an alarming component of social cost of development.

2. Water pollution:
Process of development has shown a phenomenal rise in industrial production. In the context of environment pollution, growth of textile industry merits a special mention the process of bleaching and dying in the textile industry is passed on intensive use of chemicals.

Industrial waters are often channelised into rivers and canals of the adjoining areas. It causes water pollution. The consequences is obvious spread of water-borne diseases implying damage to human life as well as animal life, particularly the sign, the services largerly on water.

3. Noise pollution :
The process of mechanisation and automation (which is the hub of production activity these days) is well known for noise pollution. Machines must produce noise and greater the horsepower greater the noise factor. Unwanted noise is a greater noise factor. In the unorganised sector of iron and steel production, one often encounters deafening sounds which indeed are injurious to public death.

Question 6.
Explain the strategies for sustainable development.

OR

Explain any four strategies for sustainable development. (Annual exam 2010)
Answer:
1. Use of nonconventional sources of energy:
India is hugely dependent on thermal and hydro power plants to meet its power needs both of these have adverse environmental impacts, thermal powerplants emit large quantities of carbon dioxide which is a green house gas. Hydroelectric project inundate forests and interfere with the natural flow of water in catchment areas and the river basins.

2. LPG, Gobar gas in rural areas:
Households in rural areas generally use wood, dung cake or other biomass as fuel. This practice has several adverse implication like deforestation reduction in green cover, wastage cattle dung and air pollution. To rectify the situation subsidised LPG is provided and gobargas plants are provided. LPG is a cleanfiiel it reduces household pollution to a largeextent. Also, energy wastage is minimised.

3. CNG in urban areas:
In Delhi, the use of compressed natural gas (CNG) as fuel in public transport system has significally lowered airport and the air has become cleaner in the last year.

4. Wind power:
In areas where speed of wind is usually high. Windmills can provide electricity without any adverse impact on the environment. Wind turbines move with the wind and electricity is generated. No doubt, the initial cost is high. But the benefits are such that the high costs get easily absorbed.

5. Solar power through photovoice cells:
India is naturally endowed with a large quantity of solar energy in the form of solar energy in the form of sunlight. We use it in different way. eg. we use sunlight. We use sunlight to get the clothes grains dried to keep our body warm in winter with the help of photovaUic cells. Solar energy can be converted into electricity.

These cells use special kind of materials to capture solar energy and then convert the energy into electricity. This energy is extremely useful for remote area and for place where supply of power through grid or power lines is either not possible or powers very costly.

6. Mini – hydel plants:
Mountainous regions, stream can be found almost everywhere. A large percentage of such streams are perennial. Mini hydel plants use to energy of such streams to move smaU turbines the turbines generate electricity which can be used locally, such power plants are more or less environment-friendly as they do not use pattern in areas where they are located, they generate enough power to meet local demands.

This shows that they can reduce the requirement of large scale transmission tower and cables and avoid transmission loss.

7. Traditional knowledge and practices :
TraditionaUy, Indian people have been close to their environment. They have been move a component of environment and not its controUer. With the sudden onslaught of the western system of treatment.

We were ignoring our traditional system such as Ayurveda, Unani, Tibetan and folk systems. Nowadays every cosmetic produce, hair oU, toothpaste, body lotion, face cream and what not is herbal in composition, not only are these products environment-friendly, they are relatively free from side effects and do not large scale industrial and chemical processing.

8. Biocomposting:
In our quest to increase agricultural production during the last five decades or so, we almost totally neglected the use of compost and competely switched our to chemical fertilisers. The result is that large tracts of productive land have been adversly affected.

Water bodies including groundwater system have suffered due to chemical contamination and demand for irrigation has been going up year after year. In certain parts of the country, cattle are maintained only because they produce dung which is an important fertilizer and soil conditioner earthworms can convert organic matter into compost faster than the normal composting process. This process is now being willdely used.

9. Bio pest control:
With the advent of green revolution, the entire country entered into a frenzy to use more and more chemical pesticides for higher yield. soon, the adverse impacts began to show food products were contaminated, soil, water bodies and even groundwater.

Water was polluted with pesticides, even milk, meat and fishes were found to be contaminated. To meet his challenge efforts are on to bring better method of post control with use of pesticides like neem are proving to be quite useful. Mixed cropping and growing different crops in consecutive years on the same land have also helped farmers.

Students can Download Economics Chapter 8 Infrastructure Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 8 Infrastructure

1st PUC Economics Infrastructure TextBook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the term ‘infrastructure’’?
Answer:
The infrastructure consists of services like transport, communication, banking, irrigation, power, etc. which are essential for production of goods.

Question 2.
Explain the two categories into which infrastructure is divided. How are both interdependent?
Answer:
The infrastructure can be divided into two categories:
1. Economic infrastructure:
Economic infrastructure includes energy, transportation, communication, etc.

2. Social infrastructure:
Social infrastructure includes education, health, and housing.

Question 3.
How do infrastructure facilities boost production?
Answer:
Infrastructure facilities boost production in the following manner:
1. Infrastructure provides supporting services in the main areas of industrial and agricul¬tural production, domestic and foreign trade and commerce.

2. Infrastructure facilities include roads, railways, ports, airports, dams, power stations, oil and gas pipelines, telecommunication facilities, educational system, health system, monetary system, etc. It is the support system.on which depends the efficient working of a modem industrial economy.

3. Modem agricultural largerly depends on infrastructure for speedy and large scale transport of seeds, pesticides, fertilisers, and the produce by making use of modem roadways, railways, and shipping facilities.

4. Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country both by increasing the productivity of the factors ofproduction and improving the quality of life of its people.

Question 4.
Infrastructure contributrs to the economic development of a country. Do you agree? Explain.
Answer:
Infrastructure development is essential for the development of a country. As a support system, it directly influences all economic activities by increasing the productivity of the factors of production and improving the quality of life. India has mad considerable progress in building infrastructure, through, it distribution in uneven.

Development of infrastructure and economic development go hand in hand. Agriculture depends to a great extent on the adequate expansion r and development of irrigation facilities. Industrial progress depends on the development of power and electricity.

Question 5.
What is the state of rural infrastructure in india?
Answer:
Majority of our people live in rural areas. Despite so much technological progress in the country rural women are still using bio-fuels such as crop residues, dung and fuel-wood to meet their energy requirement. The census 2001 shows that in rural india only 56% households have an electricity connection and 43% still use kerosene.

About 90% of the rural households use biofuels for cooking. Tap water availability is limited to only 24% rural households. About 76% f of the population drink water from open sources such as wells, tanks, ponds, lakes, rivers, canals, etc. As per study conducted by the national sample surve organisation by 1996, access to’ improved sanitation in rural areas was only 6%.

Question 6.
What is the significance of energy? Differentiate between commercial and noncommercial sources of energy.
Answer:
Energy is a critical aspect of the development process of a nation. It is essential for industries as it is used on a large scale in agriculture and related areas like production and transportation of fertilisers, pescides and farm equipments.

It is required in houses for cooking, household lighting and heating transport and communications. If proper attention is not paid to the development of infrastructure, it is likely to act a severe constraint on economic development.

Question 7.
What are the three basic sources of generating power?
Answer:
There are three main sources of power generation in our country.
1. Thermal power:
It is generated in india at various power stations with the help of coal and oil. It has been our major source of electric power. Its share in the total power generation was 51 percent in 1950-51 which has increased to 81 percent in 2001. Bulk of the thermal ‘ power is derived from coal and only a small fraction comes from oil.

2. Hydroelectric power:
Hydroelectric powers plays a major role in the field of power generation in the country. It is produced on a large scale through multipurpose river valley projects by constructing big dams. In India, the contribution of hydro-electric power is 20 percent of the total electricity generation.

3. Nuclear power:
India has set up nuclear power projects at Tarapur(Maharashtra), Kota(Rajasthan), Kalpakamftamilnadu), Narora(U.P). India is in favour of using nuclear power for peaceful purposes.

Question 8.
What do you mean by the transmission and distribution losses? How can they be reduced?
Answer:
The electricity generated by the various power station is not consumed entirely by ultimate consumers. Apart of it is consumed by power stations and auxiliaries. While transmitting power, a portion is lost in transmission.It is a great loss to the nation. Efforts should be made to recover losses by using new technology.

Question 9.
What are the various non-commercial sources of energy?
Answer:
The solar energy, wind energy, and tidal energy are the non-conventional energies. India being a tropical country, has almost unlimited potential for producing all three types of energy using cost effective technology, cheaper electricity can be produced by solar, wind, tidal, firewood and cow dung.

Question 10.
Justify that energy crisis can be overcome with use of renewable sources of energy?
Answer:
There are two sources of energy commercial and non-commercial. Non-commercial sources of energy are fire-wood, agricultural waste, and dried dung. These are non-commercial as they are found in nature. Non-commercial sources of energy like grass, hay, twings and small branches of tree, sun-dried cowdung cakes are generally renewable.

More than 60 percent of Indian households depend on these traditional sources of energy for meeting regular cooking and heating needs. The energy crisis can be overcome with the use of renewable sources of energy.

Question 11.
How has the consumption pattern of energy changed over the years?

OR

Discuss the same pattern of energy consumption in India.
Answer:
At present commercial energy consumption makes up about 65 percent of the total energy cosumed in india. This includes coal, with the largest share of 55 percent followed by 31 percent by oil, 11 percent by natural gas and 3 percent by hydro-energy.

Non-commercial energy sources consisting of firewood, cow dung, and agricultural wastes account for 30 percent of the total energy consumption. The transport sector was the largest consumer of commercial energy consumption in 1953-54. The share of industrial sector is falling. The share of oil and gas is highest among all commercial energy consumption.

Trends in sectoral share of commercial energy consumption

Question 12.
How are the rates of consumption of energy and economic growth connected?
Answer:
Electricity is one of the most critical infrastructure that determines economic development of a country. The growth rate of demand for power is generally higher than GDP growth rate. In order to have 8 percent GDP growth rate per annum, the power supply needs to grow around 12 percent annually. This show that the rates of consumption of energy and economic growth are connected.

Question 13.
What problems are being faced by the power sector in india?

OR

How does power sector in India continue to be an infrastructure challenge?
Answer:
Some of the challenges india’s power sector feces today are:
1. India’s installed capacity to generate electricity is not sufficient to feed an annual economic growth by 7% in order to meet growing demand for electricity between 2000 and 2012, India needs 10,000 MW of new capacity. At present india is able to add only 20,000 MW, a year. Even the installed capacity is under-utilized because the plants are not running properly.

2. State electricity boards which distribute electricity incur losses which exceed Rs. 500 billion. It is due to transmission and distribution losses, wrong pricing of electricity and other inefficiencies. Free distribution of electricity to the farmers is the main reason for the losses. Electricity is also stolen in different areas.

3. Private sector power generators are yet to play their role,

4. There is general public unrest due to power tariffs and power cuts in different parts of the country Thermal power plants which are the mainstay of indian power sector are facing shortage of raw material and coal supplies.

Question 14.
Discuss the reforms which have been initiated recentlyto meet the energy risis in India?
Answer:
Economic development and population growth are driving the demand for energy faster than what India is producing currently. More investment, better research and development efforts, expansion technical innovations use of renevable energy sources can ensure the additional supply of electricity, private sector has made some progress.

It is also necessary to tap this sector to come forward to produce power on a large scale, for example, india is already the world’s fifth largest producer of wind energy with more than 95% investment coming the private sector.

Question 15.
What are the main characteristics of health of the people of our country?
Answer:
Following are the characteristics of health of the people of the country:

1. India has about 17% of the world’s population but it bears a frightening 20% of the global burden of diseases. Gldbal burden of diseases (GBD) is an indicator to guage the number of people dying prematurely due to particular diseases.

2. Every year about five lakh children die of water-borne diseases in our country. The changer of AIOS is increasing very fast.

3. At present less than 20 percent of the population utilizes public health facilities.

4. Only 38 percent of primary health centers have doctors and medicines. These centers do not have even x-ray or blood testing facilities.

5. Villagers have no access to any specialised medical care like pediatrics, gynecology, anesthesia and obsterics.

6. It is estimated that there are more than 120 lakh blind persons in india. The total 80 mpercent are blind due to contract.

7. Tuberculosis (TB) is a widespread disease in india. It is estimated that 14 million people are suffering from tuberculosis in India.

8. It is estimated that nearly 20 percent of the country’s population lives in endemic diseases area.

Question 16.
What is a global burden of disease?
Answer:
India has 17% of the global burden of diseases. It is an indicator used by experts to guage the number of people dying prematurely due to particular diseases as well as the number of years spent by them in a state of disability owing to the diseases.

In India, half of the global burden of diseases is accounted for by communicable diseases such as diarrohea, malaria and tuberculosis. Every year around five lakh children die of water-borne diseases in our country. The danger of AIOS is increasing. Malnutrition and inadequate supply of vaccines lead to death.

Question 17.
Discuss the main drawbacks of our health care system,

OR

Health care in india suffers from urban rural and poor- rich divides

OR

Bring out the principal drawbacks of health infrastructure in india

OR

Health care in india is an emerging challenge of social infrastructure.
Answer:
1 Health care as an emerging challenge:
Following observations highlight the drawbacks or defciency (or emerging challenge) of our social infrastructure in term of health facilities:
1. While 70 percent of the country’s population lives in rural areas, 80% of the hospitals are located in urban areas i.e only one fifth (20%) of the total hospitals are located inrural 1 areas.

2. The PHCs (Primary Health Centers) in rural areas do not offer even x-ray or blood testing facilities.

3. Out of 7 lakh beds, roughly 11 % are available in rural areas.

4. There are only 0.36% hospitals for every one lakh people in rural areas while urban areas have 3.6 hospitals for the same number of people.

5. Villagers have no access to any specialised medical care like pediatrics, gynaecology, anaesthesia and obsletrics.

6. There are shortage of doctors in rural areas poor-rich divide: There is also poor rich divide in health care infrastructure. It is clear from the following facts:

• The poorest – 20 percent in Indians living in both urban and rural areas spend 12% of their income on health care while the rich spend only 2%.
• Many poor people have to sell their land or even pledge their children to afford medical treatment.

2. Gender bias (poor health of women):
Women constitute about half of the total population. They suffer from a serious neglect in the areas of health care. More than 50% of women in India in the age group of 15-49 suffer from nutritional deficiency. Female foeticide is a common practice causing a decline in sex ratio.

3. High GBD :
Global burden of diseases is an indicator used by experts to gauge the numbers of people dying prematurely due to a particular disease and the number of years spent by them in a state of disabihty owing to disease. As far india is concerned, it bears 20% of the global burden of disease. In India, more than half of GBD is accounted for communicable diseases such as diarrhoea, malaria, and T.B.

4. Poor sanitation level:
Sanitation level is extremely poor both in the rural and urban areas in india. It is found that nearly 30 percent of the houses have no toilet facilities in the urban areas. In the urban slums, sanitation is absolutely poor and the slum-dwellers are living in a hell-like polluted atmosphere Rural sanitation is still worse.

5. Other problems related to health facilities :
Communicable diseases is rising their ugly heads and posing a serious threat to society. The government is gradually moving towards privatisation of health care is becoming increasingly expensive. Moreover, health personnel are grossly inadequate, particularly in rural areas.

Question 18.
How has women’s health become a matter of great concern?
Answer:
Women constitute about half of the total population in india. They suffer many disadvantages ascompared to men in the areas of education, participation in economic activities and health care. There is a deterioration of the child sex ratio in the country from 1945 in 1991 to 927 according to the census 2001.

It points out the growing incidence of female foeticide in the country. More than 50% of married women, between the age group of 15 & 49 have anemia & nutritional anaemia caused by iron deficiency. Which contributes to 19% of maternal death.

Question 19.
Describe the meaning of public health. Discuss the major public health measures undertaken by the state in recent years to control diseases.
Answer:
Health is a holistic process related to the overall growth and development of the nation. Health is not only the absence of disease but also the ability to realize one’s potential. It is a yardstick of one’s wellbeing. Development of health infrastructure ensures a country healthy manpower for the production of goods and services.

In recent times, the government is making efforts to provide basic health care facilities. Health infrastructure includes hospitals, doctors, nurses, beds, and equipment required hospitals.

The government has the constitutional obligation to guide, regulate all health-related issues such as medical education, adulteration of food, drugs, and poisons. Central council of health and family welfare collects information and renders financial and technical assistance to state governments.

India has a large number of hospitals run by voluntary agencies and private sectors. The government has provided primary health care facilities in rural areas.

Primary health and community health centers have been established. The big hospitals have better facilties such as surgery x-ray, electrocordiogram, etc. These hospitals have advanced level equipments and medicine and undertake all the complicated health problems.

These are some premier institutions like All India Medical institute, new Delhi, Jawaharlal Nehru Institute of medical research, Pondicherry etc. With the help of the following table, we can study the health care facilities in india.

Question 20.
List out the six systems of indian medicine.
Answer:
Six system of Indian medicine are:

1. Ayurveda
2. Yoga
3. Unani
4. Siddha
5. Naturopathy and
6. Homeopathy.

1. Ayurveda:
Ayurveda is one of the traditional sytems. It is presumed that the fundamental and applied priciples of Ayurveda got organised and enunciated around 1500 BC. Atharvaveda, the last of the four great bodies of knowledge, known as Vedas, contains 114 hymns related to formulations for the treatment of different diseases.

Two major schools and eight specialisations got evolved from this body of knowledge. Those schools had their respective compilations, Charaka Samhita for the school of medicine and Sushruta Samhita for the school of surgery. The Ayurvedic practitioners recommend diet and lifestyle changes along with drug therapy.

The methods of ayurveda such as applying herbs and massage can simultaneously be applied along with other systems. Ayurveda stresses a balance of three elemental energies : (air and space “wind”, (fire and water – “bile” and (water and Earth – “phlegm”. According to ayurvedic medical theory, when these three substances exist in equal quantities, the body will be healthy. Ayurveda also focuses on exercise, yoga and meditation.

2. Yoga:
Yoga has been practised in India since thousands of years. It has references in Upanishads and Puranas composed by Aryans in the Vedic period. The main credit for systematising yoga goes to Patanjali who wrote ‘Yoga Sutra’ which is the most important and basic text on Yoga. Yoga is defined as an art of righteous living or an integrated system for the benefit of the body, mind and inner spirit.

3. Unani:
Unani medicine also means “Greek Medicine”, and is a form of traditional medicine widely practiced in South Asia. It refers to a tradition of Graeco – arabic medicine which is based on the teachings of Greek physician Hippocrates, and Roman physician Galen, and developed into an elaborate medical system by Arab and Persian physicians.

Unani medicine is based on the concept of the four senses of humor Phlegm, Blood, Yellow bile and Black bile. Unani medicine first arrived in India with establishment of Delhi Sultanate (120C – 1527 CE) and Muslim rule over North India and subsequently flourished under Mughal Empire.

4. Siddha:
‘Siddha’ comes from the word ‘Siddhi’ which means an object to attain perfection or heaven. Preference of people for natural health remedies is increasing and hence, Siddha has emerged as an important and unique system of Indian medicine. Siddhi is attained through meditation which cures mental illness and promotes mental, emotional and physical wellbeing.

5. Naturopathy:
Naturopathy heals with the power of nature as it assumes that all healing powers are within our body. It uses the inbuilt immune system of the human body for curing. Naturopathy regards that we fall ill only when we go against nature. An ailing body can purify and recover itself with thorough rest and fasting or having natural diet which helps in healing.

6. Homeopathy:
Homeopathy consists of two words – ‘Homeo’ meaning ‘similar’ and ‘Pathos’ meaning ‘suffering or treatment’. In this system, a drug and a disease that produce similar symptoms are believed to be having a nutralising effect on each other.

Thus, the homeopathic treatment is based on the symptoms, the body is showing and medication is given accordingly. It is popular among the people due to its remarkable healing capacity. Also, its remedies are free from side effects.

Question 21.
How can we increase the effectiveness of health care programmes?
Answer:
Health is the holistic process related to overall growth and development of nation. Development of health infrastructure ensures a country of healthy manpower for production of goods and services. The government has the constitutional obligation to guide and regulate all health related issues such as medical education, adulteration of food, drugs, and poisons, etc.

The union government has developed broad policies and plans through the central council of health and family welfare. Through following programmes we can increase the effectiveness of health care programmes:

1. Public health facilities should be decentralised
2. People should be educated about the nature, causes, and remedies of general diseases.
3. People should be made aware about sanitation facilities, cleanliness, immunisation, etc.
4. Efforts should be taken to develop health infrastructure
5. Through telecom and I.T. sector, messages can be spread regarding small family, vaccination better quality of life, etc especially in rural areas.
6. Primary health care facilities should be strengthened.
7. Private public partnership indeveloping primary, secondary and tertiary health care system can be taken.

Question 22.
How much has India global burden of diseases? India has about 20 percent global burden of diseases. Define Infrastructure?
Answer:
Infrastructure may be defined as those elements of economic and social changes which serve as a support system to all production activities in the economy.

1st PUC Economics Infrastructure Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Economics Infrastructure Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Infrastructure?
Answer:
Infrastructure may be defined as those elements of economic and social changes which serve as a support system to all production activities in the economy.

Question 2.
Why do cities like Bengaluru in Karnataka attract many companies?
Answer:
Because they provide world class facilities.

Question 3.
In how many catagories are infrastructure divided? Name them.
Answer:
Infrastructure are divided into two categories:

1. Economic
2. Social

Question 4.
Define Social Infrastructure?
Answer:
Social infrastructure may be defined as those elements of social change (like schools, colleges, hospitals, etc) which serve as a support system for the process of social development of a country.

Question 5.
What is Medical Tourism?
Answer:
Medical tourism means flocking of foreigners to india for surgeries liver, transplants, dental and even cosmetic care.

Question 6.
Which are primary health care centers in India?
Answer:
Primary health care centers are hospitals set up in villages and small towns. They are generally managed by a single doctor. They have limited quantity of medicines.

Question 7.
What are secondary health care centers in India?
Answer:
Secondary health care centers are hospitals which are mostly located in district headquarters and in big cities. They function as primary health care provider and also provide better health care facilities.

Question 8.
What are the types of economic infrastructure?
Answer:
Energy, transport, and communication are the types of economic infrastructure.

Question 9.
What are the sources of energy?
Answer:
Coal, Petroleum, natural gas, electricity, bio-energy, solar energy, wind energy, development of atomic energy, utilization of urban waste, improved chulhas are the sources of energy.

Question 10.
What is the relationship between infrastructure and production?
Answer:
Good infrastructure raises productivity and lowers production cost. There is a direct and proportional relationship between infrastructure and production.

Question 11.
What are the sources of production of electricity?
Answer:
Electricity can be produced from these sources:

1. Hydro-electricity
2. Thermal electricity
3. Nuclear electricity.

Question 12.
What is LPG?
Answer:
It is a cooking gas used as field. Its supply fells short of the demand, so we have to import it.

Question 13.
What is bio-energy?
Answer:
Energy generated by dung, agricultural wastes, and other biological materials is known as bio-energy.

Question 14.
What is biogas?
Answer:
Biogas plants are fed dung and generate gas for cooking, lighting, and heating.

Question 15.
What is solar energy?
Answer:
Energy generated by captivating solar power is called solar energy.

Question 16.
What is biomass?
Answer:
It is the production of solid fuel by conversion of agricultural waste in pellets and briquettes. It is also concerned with production of fuelwood and gasifier engines for lifting water for irrigation and drinking purpose.

Question 17.
Write the names of four atomic energy plants in India?
Answer:

1. Atomic energy power plant at Tarapur
2. Atomic energy power plant at Rana Pratap Sagar dam near Kota
3. Atomic energy power plant in Kalapakkam near Chennai
4. Atomic energy power plant at Narora.

Question 18.
What is Health?
Answer:
Health means a state of complete physical, mental and social soundness. It helps indirectly and economic development by supplying active, energetic and healthy working force, which activities the entire production process.

Question 19.
What are the communicable diseases?
Answer:
The communicable diseases are smallpox, malaria, filaria, tuberculosis, AlbS etc.

Question 20.
What are included in health infrastructure?
Answer:
Health infrastructure includes hospitals, doctors, nurses, para-medical professionals, beds, equipment required in hospitals and pharmaceutical industry here presence of health infrastructure is not sufficient to have healthy people.lt should be accessible to all the people.

Question 21.
Name any four states which are relatively lagging in health care facilities.
Answer:
Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh are relatively lagging behind in health care facilities.

Question 22.
What is Morbidity?
Answer:
Morbidity in the propensity to fall ill. It is caused by acute respiratory and diarrhea in India.

Question 23.
Write the indicators of health and health infrastructure?
Answer:
Infant mortality rate, maternal mortality rate, life expectancy, nutrition level, incidence of communicable diseases are the indicators of health and health infrastructure.

Question 24.
What is global burden of diseases?
Answer:
Global burden of disease is an indicator used by experts to gauge

Question 25.
Write down the non-conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
Solar energy, wind energy, biomass energy, and bio-gas energy are the non-conventional sources of energy.

Question 26.
Which is the largest source of energy generation in India?
Answer:
Coal is the largest source of energy generation in India.

Question 27.
What does medical tourism mean?
Answer:
Medical tourism means flocking of foreigners to a particular country for surgeries, liver transplants, dental and even cosmetic care.

1st PUC Economics Infrastructure Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are Punjab and Haryana more advanced in agricultural activities?
Answer:
Agriculture depends on the adequate expansion and development of irrigation facilities and its industrial progress depends on the development of power and electricity generation. These facilities are more in Punjab and Haryana, so these states are more advanced in agriculture.

Question 2.
How is Bangalore different from other cities?
Answer:
Bangalore is different from other cities because this city has better infrastructure than other cities. It has better transportation facilities, raw material, technical know-how. The city provides world class communication facilities that is why many multinational companies are attracted towards this city.

Question 3.
Name commercial, non-commercial and non-conventional sources of energy?
Answer:

1. commercial sources of energy: coal, ignite and petroleum.
2. non-commercial sources of energy: Animal wastes, wood and agricultural residue.
3. nonconventional resources of energy: Wind energy, tidal energy, energy from biomass and solar energy.

Question 4.
What is the role of government in health infrastructure?
Answer:
People are entitled health care facilities. It is the responsibility of the government to ensure the right to healthy living. Health infrastructure includes hospitals, doctors, nursesand other paramedical professionals, beds, equipment, etc. These should be provided by the government. No individual should fail to secure medical care, curative and preventive because of the inability to pay for it.

1st PUC Economics Infrastructure Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the renewable sources of energy?
Answer:
There are some renewable sources of energy. A brief a/c of these sources are given below:
1. Bio-energy:
It is obtained from an organism or organic matter.
It is of two types:

• Bio-gas.
• Bio-mass.

2. Bio-gas:
It is that type of energy which is obtained from gobar gas plants.

3. Bio-mass:
It is a source of energy through plants and trees the purpose of bio-mass program is to encourage afforestation for energy so that fuel for the generation of energy based on gas technique and fodder for the cattle could be obtained.

4. Solar energy:
It is produced through the light of the sun. There are two methods to obtain such energy.

• Solar thermal
• Solar Photovoltaic method