2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sampada Chapter 16 Kannadavannu Kattuva Kelasa

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Karnataka 2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sampada Chapter 16 Kannadavannu Kattuva Kelasa

Kannadavannu Kattuva Kelasa Questions and Answers, Notes, Summary

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1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

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Karnataka 1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

1st PUC Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define atomic radius.
Answer:
Atomic radius is the distance from the center of the nucleus to the point where the electron density is effectively zero.

Question 2.
Define Vander Waal’s radius.
Answer:
Vander Waal’s radius is one half of the distance between the nuclei of two non bonded adjacent atoms belonging to two neighboring molecules of an elements in the solid state.

Question 3.
Define ionic radius.
Answer:
Ionic radius is the distance from the nucleus of an ion to the point up to which the nucleus has influence on its electron cloud.
OR
Ionic radius is the distance from the nucleus of an ion to the outer most orbital containing electrons.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
What is ionization energy?
Answer:
Ionisation energy is the amount of energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron from an isolated neutral gaseous atom.

Question 5.
Why ionisation potential of inert gases are comparatively higher?
Answer:
Inert gases have completely filled stable electronic configuration. A lot of energy is required to disturb that stable electronic configuration and remove an electron. Hence inert gases have a high ionsation potential.

Question 6.
Among Na+, Ca+2, Al+3 which is having smallest size?
Answer:
Al+3.

Question 7.
Which has got the smallest size among Fe, Fe+2 & Fe3+?
Answer:
Fe2+ is smallest. ,

Question 8.
The electron affinity of Nitrogen is more than that of oxygen, why?
Answer:
Because Nitrogen contains halfly filled two orbitals, which is an extra stable state.

Question 9.
Alkali metals have low ionization energy why?
Answer:
Alkali metals are present in the periodic table after inert gases. By loosing one electron they gets electronic configuration of inert gas.

Question 10.
What are iso electronic ions?
Answer:
Ions having same number of electrons but differ in the atomic number.

Question 11.
How does ionization energy varies along a period and down the group?
Answer:
Ionisation energy increases along the period and decreases down the group.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 12.
Define covalent radius.
Answer:
Covalent radius is one half of the distance between nuclei of two covalently bound atoms of the same element in a molecule.

Question 13.
Name the element having highest electron affinity.
Answer:
Chlorine.

Question 14.
Arrange F, Cl, Br and I in the order of increasing electron affinity.
Answer:
I, Br, F, Cl.

Question 15.
What is meant by electro negativity of an atom?
Answer:
It is tendency of an atom in a molecule to attract the shared pair of electron to itself.

Question 16.
Group the following species that are isoelectronic.
Be2+, F, Fe2+, N3-, He, S2- , CO3+, Ar
Answer:
(Be2+,He); (F,N3-); (Fe3+,CO3+); (S2-,Ar)

Question 17.
Which one has the larger size : Fe2+ or Fe3+ ?
Answer:
Fe2+

Question 18.
State the modern periodic law.
Answer:
Properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 19.
Name the element which is most electronegative and the element which is least electronegative in the periodic chart.
Answer:
Fluorine is the most electronegative (EN – 4.0) element
Ceasium is the least electronegative (EN = 0.7) element

Question 20.
Write the general outer electronic configurations of the following elements,
a) alkali metals
b) alkaline earth metals
c) halogens
d) nobel gases
Answer:
(a) alkali metals – ns-1
(b) alkaline earth metals – ns2
(c) halogens – ns2np5
(d) nobel gases – ns2np6

Question 21.
What is the decreasing order of shielding effect of orbitals s, p, d and f.
Answer:
Decreasing order : s > p > d > f.

Question 22.
Why do alkali metals have lowest ionization energy?
Answer:
They have largest atomic size, therefore, there is less force of attraction between valence electrons, and nucleus.

Question 23.
Which is smallest among Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, and why?
Answer:
Al3+ is smallest because it has highest number of protons (13) among Na+, Mg2+, and Al3+ ions, due to which effective nuclear charge is maximum.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 24.
Which has largest ionic radius among Ca2+, Mg2+, Ba2+?
Answer:
Ba2+.

Question 25.
Define (i) metallic radius, (ii) van der Waal’s radius.
Answer:
(i) Metallic radius is half the distance between centres of nuclei of two atoms of metal held together by metallic bond.
(ii) Van der Waals’ radius is half of the distance between centres of nuclei of two atoms held by weak van der Waal’s forces of attraction.

Question 26.
How does electronegativity vary (i) down the group, (ii) across the period from left to right?
Answer:
(i) Electronegativity goes on decreasing down the group.
(ii) It goes on increasing along the period from left to right.

Question 27.
What is the nature of oxides formed by most of p-block elements?
Answer:
They form mostly acidic oxides. Some of them form amphoteric and neutral oxides also.

Question 28.
Which of the following pairs of elements would you expect to have lower first ionization energy? (i) Cl or F, (ii) Cl or S, (iii) K or Ar, (iv) Kr or Xe.
Answer:
(i) Cl, (ii) S, (iii) K, (iv) Xe.

KSEEB Solutions

1st PUC Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Among C, N, B and O which element has the highest ionization potential and which element has the lowest ionization potential. Give reason.
Answer:
Element having highest ionization potential is N. Due to extra stability of half filled 2p orbital. Element having lowest ionization potential is B. Due to shielding effect of completely filled 2s orbital.

Question 2.
Which is the most electronegative element and the most electropositive element in the modern periodic table?
Answer:
Most electronegative element is fluorine. Most electropositive element is Cesium

Question 3.
Which of the following two elements belong to i) the same group ii) same period in the periodic table 4Be ; 3Li; 12Ms, 35Br
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties - 1
Principal quantum number of outermost electron in Be and Li is 2. Hence both Be and Li belong to the same period i.e., 2nd period. Be and Mg have the same number of outermost electrons, i.e., 2. Hence both Be and Mg belong to the same group in the periodic table.

Question 4.
What is ionization energy? How does it change in a period as well as in a group?
Answer:
The amount of energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron from an isolated gaseous atom. Ionization energy increases along the period and decreases down the group.

Question 5.
What is electro negativity? How does it change in a period as well as in a group?
Answer:
The ability of an atom to attract the shared electron pair (of a covalent bond) in a molecule towards itself is called electro negativity. In a period from left to right the electronegativity increases. Down a group electronegativity value decreases.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
What is electron affinity? How does it vary along the period and group?
Answer:
The energy released when an electron is added to the outer most orbit of an isolated
neutral gaseous atom. It increases along the period and decreases down the group.

Question 7.
To which blocks do the elements with following atomic number belong ? 7, 13, 25, 42
Answer:
At No. Electronic configuration Block of the element
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties - 2

Question 8.
How does covalent radii vary in a period as well as in a group in the periodic table? What is the reason?
Answer:
In a period as we move from left to right covalent radius decreases in a period. As we move’ from left to right atomic number or nuclear charge increases. The pull of the electron cloud by the nucleus increases, the electron cloud shrinks and as a result the covalent radius decreases.

In a group, covalent radius increases from top to bottom. In a group as we move from top to bottom one by one new orbitals are added up thereby the size of the atom goes on increasing. The atomic radius also goes on increasing.

Question 9.
What are s, p, d and f block elements?
Answer:
The elements for which the last electron has entered in s- orbital are called s- block elements, p-block elements are those for which the last electron has entered in the p – orbital, d-block elements are those in which the last electron has entered the d- orbital. The elements in which the last electron entered into the f – orbital of their atoms are called f – block elements.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
Give four characteristics of s-block elements.
Answer:

  1. They are soft metals
  2. They are highly electropositive
  3. They are good . reducing agents
  4. They have low melting and boiling points
  5. They impart specific colour to the flame.

Question 11.
Give four defects of Mendeleev’s periodic table.
Answer:

  1. Isotopes should be given separate place because they have different atomic mass and character
  2. The increasing order of atomic weight is not maintained
  3. Some elements in the same group differ in their properties
  4. The position of hydrogen is not justified.

Question 12.
Give two reasons, why the number of elements in first period is only 2?
Answer:
It is because 1st energy level can have only Is orbital which can have two electrons. When n = 1, then 1 = 0.

Question 13.
On the basis of their electronic configurations, explain why alkali metals are highly reactive.
Answer:
Alkali metals have general electronic configuration ns1. They can lose 1 electron to acquire stable electronic configuration. They have large atomic size, therefore, they can lose electron easily and they are most reactive.

Question 14.
Give the order in which the melting points of halides of sodium decrease and why?
Answer:
NaF > NaCl > NaBr > Nal. Greater the difference in electronegativity more will be ionic character, higher will be melting point due to high lattice energy.

Question 15.
Why are group I elements called alkali metals and group 17 are called halogens?
Answer:
Group I elements are called alkali metals because their hydroxides form soluble bases called alkalies and their ashes are alkaline in nature. Group 17 are called halogens because they are salt-producer.

Question 16.
Give four characteristics of d-block elements.
Answer:

  1. They show variable oxidation state
  2. They form coloured ions
  3. They are used as catalyst
  4. They form alloys.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 17.
Give any two features of Mendeleev’s periodic table.
Answer:

  1. It was based on atomic mass
  2. It has places for undiscovered elements.

Question 18.
How do the solubilities of alkaline earth metal sulphate and carbonates vary down the group and why?
Answer:
Solubilities of alkali earth metal sulphates and carbonate decrease down the group because lattice energy dominates over hydration energy.

Question 19.
Why is melting point of LiCl lower than NaCl?
Answer:
LiCl has lower melting point than NaCl because it is covalent whereas NaCl is ionic.

Question 20.
Arrange the following in increasing order: (i) BeCO3, BaCO3, CaCO3, MgCO3 of Thermal stability; (ii) BeCl2, BaCl2, SrCl2, CaCl2 Ionic character.
Answer:
(i) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BaCO3. (ii) BeCl2 < CaCl2 < SrCl2 < BaCl2.

Question 21.
Which alkali metal carbonate is thermally unstable and why?
Answer:
Li<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> is thermally unstable because it is covalent.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 22.
Out of O and S which has higher negative electron gain enthalpy and why?
Answer:
S has high electron gain enthalpy because in oxygen there is more inter-electronic
repulsion than sulphur, therefore, more energy is released in case of sulphur on gaining electrons.

Question 23.
Predict which atom in each of the following pairs has the highest first ionization energy, (a) B and C, (b) N and O, (c) F and Ne.
Answer:
(a) C, (b) N, (c) Ne.

Question 24.
Among the elements Li, K, Ca, S and Kr, which one is expected to have the lowest first ionization enthalpy and which one has the highest first ionization enthalpy? ,
Answer:
K has lowest first ionization enthalpy whereas Kr has highest first ionization enthalpy.

Question 25.
Among thp elements of the third period Na to Ar pick out the element:
(i) with highest first ionization enthalpy, (ii) with largest atomic radius,
(iii) that is most reactive non-metal, (iv) that is most reactive metal.
Answer:
(i) Ar, (ii) Na, (iii) Cl, (iv) Na.

Question 26.
Name a species that will be isoelectronic with each of the following atoms or ions: (i) Ne, (ii) Cl (iii) Ca2+, (iv) Rb.
Answer:
(i) Na+, (ii) Ar, (iii) S2+, (iv) Y2+.

Question 27.
Arrange the following ions in the order of increasing size: Be3+, Cl, S2-, Na+, Mg+, Br.
Answer:
Be2+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < Cl< S2 < Br.

Question 28.
Write the characteristics of p-block elements.
Answer:
(i) p-block elements consists of metals, non-metals and metalloids, (ii) p-block consists of solids, liquids and gases.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 29.
Describe the characteristic properties of d and f-block elements.
Answer:
(i) All of them are metals, (ii) All of them are solids except Hg. (iii) They show variable oxidation state (valency), (iv) They are good conductor of heat and electricity, (v) Most of them are meltable and ductile, (vi) They form alloys, (vii) They form coloured ions.

Question 30.
Arrange the following elements in increasing order of metallic character: B, Al, Mg. K.
Answer:
B, Al, Mg, K is increasing order of metallic character. .

Question 31.
Arrange the following elements in increasing order of non-metallic character: B, C, Si, N, F.
Answer:
Si, B, C, N, F is increasing order of non-metallic character.

Question 32.
A, B, C, D and E have the following electronic configuration:
A  = 1s2 2s2 2p1; B = 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s2 3P1; C = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3P3; D = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3P5; E = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3P64s2 Which among these belong to the same group in the periodic table?
Answer:
A and B belong to same group of periodic table because they have same number of valence electrons.

Question 33.
Predict the formulae of the stable binary compounds that would be formed by the following pairs of elements: (a) Silicon and oxygen, (b) Aluminium and bromine, (c)-Calcium and iodine, (d) element with atomic number 114 and fluorine, (e) element with atomic number 120 and oxygen.
Answer:
(a) SiO2 (b) AlBr3, (c) CaI2, (d) UnqF4, .(e) XO where X is element with atomic number 120.

Question 34.
Amongst the elements B, Al, C and Si: (a) Which has the highest first ionization enthalpy? (b) Which has most negative electron gain enthalpy? (c) Which has the largest atomic radius? (d) Which has the most metallic character?
Answer:
(a) Carbon, (b) Carbon, (c) Al. (d) Al.

Question 35.
Which of the elements Na, Mg, Si and P would have greatest difference between first and second ionization enthalpies?
Answer:
Na has greatest difference between first and second ionization enthalpies because Na+ has stable electronic configuration, i.e., 1s2 2s2 2p6, therefore, it has very high second ionization energy.

Question 36.
Discuss significance of atomic number as the basis of classification of elements over mass number.
Answer:
Properties of elements depend upon number of valence electrons which depend upon electronic configuration. Atomic number is needed to write electronic configuration of an element. It shows that atomic number is more important to determine chemical properties of elements than atomic mass.

Question 37.
(a) Why do group I metals have lower ionization enthalpy than corresponding group II metals? (b) Why is an anion larger in size than its neutral atoms?
Answer:
(a) Group I elements are larger in size than alkli earth metals (Group II elements), therefore, there is less force of attraction between nucleus and valence electron, that is why their ionization energy is lower, (b) Anions are larger than neutral atom because electrons are more than protons, therefore, effective nuclear charge is less, therefore, distance between centre of nucleus and valence electrons is more.

Question 38.
Define electro negativity. How does it differ from electron affinity?
Answer:
Electronegativity is defined as measure of tendency to attract shared pair of electrons towards itself in a covalently bound molecule. It has arbitrary value whereas electron affinity has absolute value. Electro negativity is property of covalently bound atom whereas electron affinity is property of isolated atom.

KSEEB Solutions

1st PUC Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the features that influence/affect the ionization energy.
Answer:

  • Effective Nuclear charge:- If effective nuclear charge increases Ionization energy decreases.
  • Atomic Size:- If atomic size increases Ionization energy increases.
  • Half or completely filled orbitais:- From Half or completely filled orbitais, starting high lE. . . .
  • Orbital of same energy: If orbitais having the same principle quantum number n, .
  • Shielding (Screening) Effect:- Inner electrons repel the outer valence electrons. They reduce the nuclear force.

Question 2.
Explain classification of elements into different blocks in the periodic table.
Answer:
(a) s-block elements:- An element in which the outermost (differentiating) electron of its atom belongs to s-orbital of valence shell is called s-block elements. Kept in left hand side of the periodic table, group I & II (or IA & lIA).

(b) p-block elements:- An element in which the outermost (differentiating) electron of its atom belongs to p-orbital of valence shell is called p-block elements. Kept in right hand side of the periodic table, group 13 to 18.
Elements in group 18 are called Aerogens or Noble gases.
General electronic configuration of p-block elements is ns2 np1-6.
Both s and p block together is called representative or normal elements.

(c) d .block elements:- The atom of an element in which outermost (differentiating)
electron enters to d- sub shell of pen ultimate (n-1) shell is called d-block elements.
Kept at middle (between s and p block elements) portion of the periodic table, group 3 to 12.
d) f-block elements: An element in which outermost (differentiating) electron of its atom enters to f-sub shell of anti-penultimate (n-2) shell is called f -block elements. Placed separately at the bottom portion of the periodic table.
General electronic configuration of f-block elements is (n – 2) f1-14 (n-l)d1ns2.

Question 3.
Arrange the following ions in the order of increasing size? Be2+, Cl, S2-, Na+, Mg2+, Br.
Answer:
Arranging the given ions into different groups and periods in order of increasing atomic numbers of their respective elements, we have,
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties - 3

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
Consider the elements N, P, O, S and arrange them in order of (a) increasing first ionization enthalpy, (b) increasing negative electron gain enthalpy, (c) increasing non-metallic character.
Answer:
Arranging all the given elements into different groups and periods in order of their increasing atomic numbers, we have,
(a) Since ΔiH1 decreases down a group, therefore, ΔiH1 of N and O are higher than those of P and S. Further since N has more stable exactly half-filled electronic configuration in the 2p-subshell, therefore, it is more difficult to remove out an electron from N than from O even though O has higher nuclear charge. Similarly, P has exactly half-filled electronic configuration in the 3p-subshell. Therefore, ΔiH1 of P is higher than that of S. Thus, the overall increasing order of first ionization enthalpy of these elements follows the order: S < P < O < N.

(b) Since adding an electron to smaller size 2p-orbital causes greater repulsion than adding an electron to larger 3p-orbital, therefore, electron gain enthalpies of P and S are more negative than those of N and O respectively. Further since S has higher nuclear charge but P has more stable exactly half-filled electronic configuration in the 3p-subshell, therefore, it is easier to add an electron to S than to P. In other words, electron gain enthalpy of S is more negative than that of P. Similarly, N has exactly half-filled electronic configuration in the 2p-subshell but O has higher nuclear charge.

But the addition of an electron to N causes repulsions to such an extent that electron gain enthalpy of N is actually positive while that of O as expected in negative. Combining all the above results, the increasing order of negative electron gain enthalpy of these elements follows the order: N < P < O < S.

(c) Since non-metallic character decreases down a group but increases along a period, therefore, O is the most non-metallic element while P is the least non-metallic element. The actual order of increasing non-metallic character is : P < S < N < O.

Question 5.
The first ionization energy of carbon atom is greater than that of boron whereas the reverse is true for the second ionization energy. Explain.
Answer:
E.C. of C-atom is 1s2 2s2 2p2 and E.C. of B-atom is 1s2 2s2 2p1. The first electron to be removed in both cases is from a 2p-orbital but nuclear charge of C is more than that of – B. Therefore, the ΔiH1 of C is greater than that of B. After the removal of first electron, the second electron to be removed from C-atom is from a 2p-orbital whereas that from B-atom is from a 2s orbital. Since a s-orbital is more penetrating and hence is more strongly attracted by the nucleus then a p-orbital, therefore, ΔiH2 of B is higher than that of C.

Question 6.
Arrange the following ions in order of their increasing ionic radii: Li+, Mg2+, K+, Al3+.
Answer:
(i) The ionic radius of any cation increases as the number of energy shells increases and decreases as the magnitude of the positive charge increases.

(ii) Mg2+ (1s2 2s2 sp6) and Al3+ (1s2 2s2 2p6) are isoelectronic ions and each one of these has two energy shells. Since the positive charge on Al3+ is higher than that on Mg2+, therefore ionic radius of Al3+is lower than that of Mg2+.

(iii) Since, K+ (1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6) has three shells and Mg2+ and Al3+ have two shells each, therefore, ionic radius of K+ is the largest followed by Mg2+ and then Al3+.

(iv) Now Li+ (1s2) has one shell and +1 charge but Al3+ (Is2 2s2 2p6) has two shells and +3 charge. Since the increase in the ionic radius of Al3+ due to the presence of two shells is more than counter balanced by the decrease in its size due to an increase in charge from +1 in Li+ to +3 in Al3+, therefore, the ionic radius of Al3+ is lower than that of Li+.
Thus, the ionic radii of these four ions increase in the order : Al3+ < Li+ < Mg2+ < K+.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
Arrange the elements of second period in order of increasing second ionization enthalpies.
Answer:
The electronic configuration of the ions obtained after removal of first electron from the elements of 2nd period from left to right are: Li+ (1s2), Be+ (Is2 2s1), B+ (1s2 2s2), O (1s2 2s2 2p1), N+ (1s2 2s2 2p2), O (1s2 2s2 2p3), F (1s2 2s2 2p4), Ne+ (1s2 2s2 2p3).
The following conclusions can be drawn from the above configurations:

(i) Li+ has noble gas, i.e., He gas configuration, therefore, AJH2 of Li is the highest in the second period.

(ii) Since in B+, the electron has to be removed from a more stable fully filled 28- orbital while in Be+, it has to be lost from the less stable half-filled 2s-orbital and furthermore, the loss of an electron from Be+ gives more stable Be2+ ion with noble gas configuration, therefore, AjH2 of Be is lower than that of B.

(iii) Since more energy is required to remove an s-electron than a p-electron of the same energy level, therefore, more energy is required to remove a 2s-electron from B+ (1s2 2s2) than a 2p-electron from C+ (Is2 2s2 2P1). In other words, ΔiH2 of C is lower than that of B.

(iv) As we move from C to N to O, the nuclear charge increases by one unit at a time, therefore, their ΔiH2 also increase accordingly. In other words, ΔiH2 of O is higher than that of N which, in turn, is higher than that of C.

(v) In case of O+ (1s2 2s2 2p3) an electron is to be lost from an exactly half-filled 2p-orbital but in case of F+( 1s2 2s2 2p4 ) this is not so. However, loss of an electron from F+ gives an exactly half-filled 2p-orbital (i.e., F2+ ( 1s2 2s2 2p3), therefore, ΔiH2 of F should be lower than that of O.

(vi) Like O+ (1s2 2s2 2p3) and F+ ( 1s2 2s2 2p4), in case of Ne+ (1s2 2s2 2p5) also an electron is to be removed from a 2p-orbital. Since Ne has the highest nuclear charge in 2nd period, ΔiH2 of Ne is expected to be much higher than that of O or F.
From the above discussion, it follows that ΔiH2 of the elements of 2nd period increase in the order: Be < C < B < N < F < O < Ne < Li.

Question 8.
Classify the elements having atomic numbers as given below into three separate pairs on the basis of similar chemical properties. Give brief electronic explanation: 9, 12, 16, 34, 53, 56.
Answer:
The second period ends at atomic number 10 while the third period ends at atomic number 18. Therefore, 9, 12 and 16 are the first elements in their respective groups. The atomic numbers of the other elements of the same group can be deduced by adding magic numbers of 8, 18, 18 and 32 to elements of 2nd period and by adding magic numbers of 18,18 and 32 to the elements of 3rd period. Thus,
9 + 8 + 18 + 18 = 53
12 + 8 + 18 + 18 = 56
16 + 18 = 34
elements with atomic numbers 9 (F) and 53 (I) belong to halogen family (group 17); elements with atomic numbers 12 (Mg) and 56 (Ba) belong to alkaline earth metals (Group 2) while elements with atomic numbers 16 (S) and 34 (Se) belong to oxygen family (Group 16).

Question 9.
Give the name and atomic number of the inert gas atom in which the total number of d-electrons is equal to the difference in numbers of total p and s-electrons.
Answer:
The first inert gas which contains d-electrons is krypton. Its atomic number is 36 and its electronic configuration is: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6.
Total number of d-electrons = 10
Total number of p-electrons = 6 + 6 + 6 = 18.
Total number of s-electrons = 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 8.
∴Difference in total number of p- and s-electrons = 18 – 8 = 10.
Thus, the inert gas is krypton.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
Give four characteristics of f-block elements. Why are they called inner transition metals?
Answer:
(a) They form coloured ions, (b) They are paramagnetic in nature, (iii) They form basic , oxides and hydroxides, (iv) They get transmitted in air. They are called inner transition metals because inner 4f-orbital is progressively filled.

Question 11.
Arrange the species in each group in order of increasing ionization energy and give reason: (a) K+, Cl, Ar, (b) Na, Mg, Al, (c) C, N,).
Answer:
(a) Cl< Ar < < K+ became nuclear change goes on increasing, (b) Na < Al < Mg because Mg has stable electronic configuration and Na has large atomic size due to which it has lowest ionization energy, (c) C < O < N because N has half filled p-orbital which is more stable whereas carbon is larger in size.

Question 12.
What are the factors that affect electron affinity?
Answer:
(i) Atomic size
(ii) Stability of electronic configuration
(iii) Inter-electronic repulsion
(iv) Screening effect.

Question 13.
Explain the terms (i) screening effect, (ii) penetration effect, (iii) metallic character.
Answer:
(i) Screening effect: The inner electrons between valence electron and nucleus shield’s the valence electron from nucleus; it is called shielding effect.
(ii) Penetration effect: Due to shape of the orbital, s-electron penetrates nearer to the nucleus than p, d or ^electrons and more tightly held.
(iii) Metallic character: Lower the ionization energy, more will be tendency to lose electron, higher will be metallic character.

Question 14.
(a) Explain why the second ionization energy of B is significantly higher
than the second ionization energy of C, even though the first ionization energy of B is less than C. ‘
(b) Which has higher 1st ionization energy B or Be and why?
Answer:
(a) B(5) 1s2 2s2 2p1 C(6) 1s2 2s2 2p2; B after losing one electron, has completely filled s-orbital from which removal of second electron is more difficult than carbon.
(b) Be has higher first ionization energy due to completely filled valence s-orbital.

Question 15.
Give the reasons of the following: (a) Fluorine has less negative electron gain enthalpy than chlorine
(b) Noble gases tend to be less reactive
(c) First ionization enthalpy of Mg is more than that of Na but second ionizationb enthalpy of Mg is less than that of Na.
Answer:
(a) It is due to more inter electronic repulsion in fluorine atom due to smaller atomic size than chlorine.
(b) It is because they have stable electronic configuration, i.e., their octet is complete except He.
(c) First ionization energy of Mg is more than that of Na because it has smaller atomic size but 2nd ionization of Mg is less because after losing one electron sodium acquires nearest noble gas configuration.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 16.
(a) Arrange F, Cl, Br and I in increasing order of electron affinity.
(b) Predict the position of the element with atomic number 26 in the periodic table.
(c) Why I.E. of oxygen is less than that of nitrogen?
Answer:
(a) I < Br < F < Cl is increasing order of electron affinity.
(b) It belongs to group 8 of periodic table because its electronic configuration is [Ar] . 4s2 3d6.
(c) It is because nitrogen has stable electronic configuration, i.e., half filled p-orbitals. Therefore, its I.E. is more than that of oxygen.

Question 17.
(a) Account for the following: (i) Mg+2 ion is smaller than O-2 ion although both have same electronic structure, (ii) Ionisation enthalpy of nitrogen is more than that of oxygen, (b) Write the IUPAC name and the symbol for the element with at. no. 118.
Answer:
(a) (i) It is due to greater nuclear charge and greater effective nuclear charge in Mg2+ and O2-.
(ii) It is due to stability of electronic configuration of nitrogen. .
(b) Uuo (Ununoctium).

Question 18.
(a) Write the general electronic configuration for f-block elements
(b) Which of the following atoms and ions will have the largest and smallest size? Al, Mg, Al+3, Mg+2.
Answer:
(a) (n-2)f1-14(n-l)d0-1ns2.
(b) Mg will be largest and Al3+ will be smallest.
(c) III set because non-metal cannot lose electrons easily therefore, it will have high first and second ionization energies.

Question 19.
(a) Predict the position of the element in periodic table having valency shell electronic configuration of (n-l)d1ns2; n = 4. (b) Why noble gases have bigger atomic size than halogens? Why electron gains enthalpy of noble gases are positive?
Answer:
(a) (n -l)d1ns2, with n = 4, 3d14s2 is Scandium belongs to 4th period and group 3.
(b) It is because we can measure van der Waal’s radii in noble gases which are bigger than covalent radii. It is because electron has to enter the next higher energy level leading to very unstable electronic configuration.

Question 20.
(a) Predict the position of the element in the periodic table satisfying the electronic configuration (n-l)d1ns2 when n = 4. (b) Name the species which is isoelectronic with Cl, (c) Why are f-block elements are placed in a separate row at the bottom of periodic table.
Answer:
(a) It belongs to group 3 and fourth period.
(b) Ar is isoelectronic with Cl+.
(c) It is because they resemble each other but do not resemble any other group elements.

Question 21.
Some elements are wrongly placed in the decreasing order of the property mentioned. Rectifying the fault, place them in correct order of the property. Also, furnish reason for the correction done
(a) F > O > N > C (second ionization potential
(b) N > Si > C > P (electronegativity of the elements)
(c) Na > Mg > A1 > Si (First ionization potential).
Answer:
(a) O > F > N > C, second ionization potential of oxygen is highest since electron is to be removed from half filled configuration for rest follow the order of size.

KSEEB Solutions

(b) N > C > P > Si, nitrogen has smallest size and so has higher tendency to attract shared pair of electrons.

(c) Si > Al > Mg > Na, silicon has highest first ionization potential due to smallest size, Mg is exception i.e., has higher ionization potential than aluminium because of ns2 configuration which is stable.

Question 22.
Which of the second, third or fourth ionization energy values for calcium shows a sudden increase? Why?
Answer:
3rd ionization energy shows a sudden increase because electron is pulled from 3p orbital which is completely filled orbital instead of 4s.

Question 23.
Identify the element out of the choices for which hints are given:
(a) Hint (This metal is extracted from sea water), choices (Mg, Be, Ca, Sr)
(b) Hint (Material used in solar cells contain the metal); choices (Cs, Si, K, Rb).
(c) Hint (most electropositive element amongst alkaline earth metals); choices (Be, Ba, Ca, Mg).
Answer:
(a) Mg because Mg and …. a are present in large amount in sea water.
(b) Si is used in solar cells.
(c) Ba is most electropositive because electrospositive character increases down the group.

Question 24.
Variation of first ionization enthalpies with Z = 1 to 60.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties - 4
Study the figure given above and answer the following:
(a) Compounds of Xe are known but other noble gases do not form compounds
(b) Giving reason arrange alkali metals in increasing order of first ionization enthalpies
(c) Estimate the first ionization enthalpy values of Mg and Al.
Answer:
(a) Ionisation energy of Xe is minimum, hence electron can be taken out from it stable noble gas configuration allowing it to make some compounds,
(b) Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs. Ionisation energy decreases as size increases. As size increases, outermost elements are away from nuclear pull, so electron can be easily removed.
(c) Mg = 700 kJ/mol. Al = 600 kJ/mol.

Question 25.
Values of two types of radius of sodium are 186 and 102 pm. Which value indicates metallic and which indicates ionic radius of sodium?
Answer:
186 pm represents metallic radius, 102 pm represents ionic radius. Reason: Ionic radius is smaller due to removal of an electron, cation is formed which has smaller radius than its parent atom.

Question 26.
Fill the arrows (I), (II) and (III) in the following diagram choosing appropriately from the options as electronegativity, atomic radius and non metallic character.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties - 5
Answer:
I. Electronegativity, II. Non-metallic character, III. Atomic radius.

KSEEB Solutions

1st PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

You can Download Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Questions and Answers, 1st PUC Biology Question Bank with Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

1st PUC Biology Breathing and Exchange of Gases NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define vital capacity. What is its significance?
Answer:
The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after forced expiration. This includes ERV, TV, and IRV or the maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration.

It represents the maximum amount of air one can renew in the respiratory system in single respiration. Thus, greater the vital capacity more is the energy available to the body for doing strenuous work. Vital capacity is higher in athletes and mountain dwellers. Young persons would possess more vital capacity as compared to children or older persons.

Question 2.
State the volume of air remaining in the lungs after normal breathing.
Answer:
Functional Residual capacity.

Question 3.
Diffusion of gases occurs in the alveolar region only and not in the other parts of the respiratory system. Why?
Answer:
Only alveolar region is made up of squamous epithelium which is favorable for the diffusion of gases.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
What are the major transport mechanisms for CO2? Explain.
Answer:
CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin. This binding is related to the partial pressure of CO2. When PO2 is low as in the tissues and PCO2 is high, more carbon dioxide binding occurs whereas when PCO2 is low and PO2 is high as in the alveoli, dissociation of CO2from carbamino haemoglobin takes place. RBC contains a high concentration of enzyme carbonic anhydrase that converts carbon dioxide to bicarbonates and vice versa.
1st PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 1

CO2 diffuses the blood and forms bicarbonate ions. Thus CO2 is trapped as bicarbonate at the tissue level and transported to the alveoli and released out as CO2. A small amount of CO2 dissolves in the plasma water and forms acid. On reaching the lungs carbonic acid dissociates and releases carbon dioxide. So carbon dioxide is transported as carbamino-hemoglobin, bicarbonates and carbonic acid.

Question 5.
What will be the PO2 and PCO2 In the atmospheric air compared to those in the alveolar air?
1. PO2 lesser, PCO2 higher
2. PO2 higher, PCO2 lesser
3. PO2 higher, PCO2 higher
4. PO2 lesser, PCO2 lesser
Answer:
(1) Where there is low pO2 high pCO2, high H+ concentration and higher temperature exist, the conditions are favorable for dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhemoglobin.

(2) Where there is high pO2, low pCO2, lesser H+ concentration, and lesser temperature, the factors are all favorable for the formation of oxyhemoglobin whereas in the tissues.

(3) When pCO2, is high and pO2. is low as in the tissues, more binding of carbon dioxide occurs whereas.

(4) When the pCO2, is low and pO2, is high as in the alveoli, dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-hemoglobin takes place, i.e., CO2, which is bound to hemoglobin from the tissues is delivered at the alveoli.

Question 6.
Explain the process of inspiration under normal conditions.
Answer:

  1. Inspiration occurs when the pressure within the lungs is less than the atmospheric pressure, i.e., there is a negative pressure in the lungs with respect to atmospheric pressure.
  2. Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of diaphragm which increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the anteroposterior axis.
  3. The contraction of external intercostal muscles lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of a thoracic chamber in the dorsoventral axis.
  4. The overall increase in thoracic volume causes a similar increase in pulmonary volume.
  5. An increase in pulmonary volume decreases the intrapulmonary pressure, to less than atmospheric pressure which forces the air from outside to move into the lungs i.e., inspiration.

Question 7.
How is respiration regulated?
Answer:
A specialised centre present in the medulla region of the brain called respiratory rhythm centre is primarily responsible for the regulation of respiration. Another centre present in the pons region of the brain called the pneumatic centre can reduce the duration of inspiration and thereby alter the respiratory rate.

1st PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 2
A chemosensitive area situated adjacent to the rhythm centre is highly sensitive to CO2 and hydrogen ions. Increase in these substances can activate this centre, which in turn can signal the rhythm centre to make necessary adjustments in the respiratory process. Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery also can recognise changes in CO2 and H+ concentration and send necessary signals to the rhythm centre for remedial actions.

Question 8.
What is the effect of PCO2 on oxygen transport?
Answer:
In the alveoli, where there is high PO2 low pCO2 lesser FT concentration, and lesser temperature, the factors are all favorable for the formation of oxyhemoglobin whereas, in the tissues, where low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration, and higher temperature exist, the conditions are favorable for dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhemoglobin. This clearly indicates that O2 gets bound to hemoglobin in the lung surface and gets dissociated from the tissues. Every 100ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2, to the tissues under normal physiological conditions.

Question 9.
What happens to the respiratory process in a man going up a hill?
Answer:
When a man is going uphill or doing some strenuous exercise then there is more consumption of oxygen. This decreases the partial pressure of oxygen in haemoglobin resulting in more demand for haemoglobin. As a result, there is an increased breathing rate to fill the gap.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
What is the site of gaseous exchange in an insect?
Answer:
Insects have a network of tubes (tracheal tubes) to transport atmospheric air within the body so that the cells can directly exchange the gases.

Question 11.
Define oxygen dissociation curve. Can you suggest any reason for its sigmoidal pattern?
Answer:

  1. Oxygen dissociation curve: It is a graphic representation of the relationship between partial pressure of oxygen or pO2 and percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen.
  2. The graph is sigmoid as at low p02, there is reduced synthesis of oxyhemoglobin. The percentage of oxyhemoglobin rises with higher pO2 till at about p02 is 100mm Hg, the haemoglobin becomes fully saturated with O2.
  3. A further rise in pO2 cannot increase the value of oxyhemoglobin as the blood is already saturated with it.

1st PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 3

Question 12.
Have you heard about hypoxia? Try to gather information about it, and discuss it with your friends.
Answer:
Hypoxia refers to the shortage of oxygen supply to the body. It is of different types:

  1. Anemic hypoxia (deficiency of hemoglobin),
  2. Cytotoxic hypoxia (impaired utilization as in cyanide poisoning)
  3. Stagnant hypoxia. Due to heart failure or reduced pumping activity of the heart.
  4. Hypoxic hypoxia. Insufficient oxygen in the air as at high altitude.
  5. CO Poisoning. Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin irreversibly. Oxygen transport is correspondingly reduced.

Question 13.
Distinguish between
(a) IRV and ERV
(b) Inspiratory capacity and Expiratory capacity.
(c) Vital capacity and Total lung capacity.
Answer:
(a) Inspiratory Reserve volume (IRV) is an additional volume of air a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration. It averages 2500 ml to 3000 ml. Expiratory Reserve volume (ERV) is an additional volume of air that a person can expire by a forcible expiration. This averages 1000 ml to 1100 ml.

(b) Inspiratory capacity (IC) is the total volume of air a person can inspire after a normal expiration. It is the sum of tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume.
Expiratory capacity (EC) is the total volume of air a person can expire after a normal inspiration. It is the sum of tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume.

(c) Vital capacity is the maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after forced expiration. It is the sum of Tidal volume, expiratory reserve volume and inspiratory reserve volume. It is also the maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration.

KSEEB Solutions

Total lung capacity is the total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of forced inspiration. It is the sum of Residual volume, expiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and inspiratory reserve volume.

Question 14.
What Is Tidal volume? Find out the Tidal volume (approximate value) for a healthy human in an hour.
Answer:
The volume of air inspired/breath during normal respiration. It is approximately 500mL.
The number of breaths per minute 12 to 16.
Tidal volume per minute = 500 x 12 to 16 = 6000 – 8000 mL or 6 -8 litres
Tidal volume per hour = 6 to 8 x 60 = 360 – 480 litres.

1st PUC Biology Breathing and Exchange of Gases Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Biology Breathing and Exchange of Gases One Mark Questions

Question 1.
What is an expiration?
Answer:
The movement or exit of air from the alveoli of the lungs to the outer atmosphere is called expiration or exhalation.

Question 2.
What is Ventilation? OR What Is breathing?
Answer:
It is a process by which air is exchanged between the atmosphere and the alveoli of lungs or Entry of atmospheric air into the alveoli of lungs and exit of air from the alveoli into the atmosphere is called pulmonary ventilation or breathing.

Question 3.
What is inhalation or inspiration?
Answer:
Entry of air into alveoli of the lungs is called inspiration or inhalation.

Question 4.
Which muscles do you find In diaphragm?
Answer:
Skeletal muscles.

Question 5.
Which process helps in increasing the size of the thorax during respiration? (Oct. 1990, April 1995)
Answer:
The contraction of the external inter-costal muscles of the ribs and the muscles of the diaphragm.

Question 6.
Name the membrane (covering) of the lungs. (April 91, 93, 94)
Answer:
Pleural membrane (Pleuron). [The plural membrane (outer Fibrous & inner serous)]

Question 7.
What art; the functional units of lungs called? (Oct. 92, 99, July 2010)
Answer:
The Alveoli.

Question 8.
Mention the respiratory pigment.
Answer:
Haemoglobin. (April 98)

Question 9.
What is Spirometer? (April 2002)
Answer:
The apparatus used in measuring the amount of air exchanged during breathing & the rate of ventilation is the Spirometer.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
Name the last part of the bronchiole tree.
Answer:
Alveoli. (April 2003)

Question 11.
Which is a common passage for both air and food in man ? (July 2006)
Answer:
Trachea

Question 12.
Name the enzyme that acts on carbonic acid in living cells. (Delhi 2006)
Answer:
Carbonic Anhydrase.

Question 13.
Where is carbonic anhydrase found in human body? Give its function.
Answer:
Carbonic anhydrase is found in RBC. It catalyses the formation of carbonic acid from carbon dioxide and water.

Question 14.
What are the two factors that contribute to the dissociation of oxyhemoglobin in the arterial blood to release molecular oxygen in an active tissue? (Delhi 2000)
Answer:
Low PO2, high PCO2, high H+ concentration and high temperature.

Question 15.
Name the respiratory organs of
(1) butterfly and
(2) frog larva. (All India 1996)
Answer:

  1. Trachea
  2. Gills.

Question 16.
What is a soundbox?
Answer:
Larynx is a cartilaginous box which helps in sound production and hence called the sound box.

Question 17.
What are alveoli?
Answer:
Alveoli are number of very thin, irregular walled and vascularised bag like structures into which terminal bronchioles end.

Question 18.
How does diaphragm help in inspiration? (All India 998 C)
Answer:
When the diaphragm muscles contract, it moves down towards abdomen, increasing the volume of thoracic cavity, but decrease in air pressure. So air is drawn into the lungs.

Question 19.
What is the maximum number of molecules of oxygen which one molecule of haemoglobin can carry? (All India 1998 C)
Answer:
Four.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 20.
What is formed when CO2 combines with globin part of reduced haemoglobin? Where does it occur? (All India 1998 C)
Answer:
Carbamino haemoglobin.
Its formation occurs in metabolicaily active tissues.

Question 21.
Which part (s) of the brain control (breathing movements? (Foreign 1997)
Answer:
Medulla and pons.

Question 22.
Name two animals where exchange of gases occurs by diffusion across their entire body surface.
Answer:
Hydra, Sponges, flatworms etc.,

Question 23.
What is the function of pleural fluid?
Answer:
Pleural fluid reduces the friction on the lung surface.

Question 24.
State the function of exchange part.
Answer:
Exchange part is the actual site of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide between blood and atmosphere.

Question 25.
What causes the movement of air in and out of lungs?
Answer:
Pressure gradient between the lungs and the atmosphere.

Question 26.
Name the structures that bring about a pressure gradient between lungs and the atmosphere.
Answer:
Diaphragm and intercostal muscles.

Question 27.
Why does exchange of respiratory gases continue to occur in the lungs even after a maximum expiration?
Answer:
Some amount of air, called residual vol-ume, remains in the lungs even after forceful expiration.

Question 28.
Name the primary site of respiratory gas exchange.
Answer:
Alveoli.

Question 29.
Define partial pressure of a gas?
Answer:
The pressure exerted by an individual gas in a mixture of gases is called partial pressure.

Question 30.
Why can more CO2 diffuse across the respiratory membrane per unit difference in the pressure as compared to oxygen?
Answer:
Tne solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times higher than that of O2. So more CO2 diffuses across the respiratory membrane.

Question 31.
What is oxyhaemoglobln?
Answer:
Oxyhaemoglobin is a complex formed when oxygen combines with the Fe2+ part of haemoglobin.

Question 32.
How much of CO2 is transported by 100 ml of blood
Answer:
About 4 ml.

Question 33.
What is carbamino haemoglobin?
Answer:
Carbamino haemoglobin is the complex formed when carbon dioxide combines with the amine radical of the globin of haemoglobin.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 34.
Where is the respiratory rhythm centre located?
Answer:
Medulla.

Question 35.
How does pneumotaxic centre alter the respiratory rate.
Answer:
Pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration of inspiration and alter the respiratory rate.

Question 36.
Where are the receptors that can sense the changes in CO2 and H+ concentration located?
Answer:
Receptors are located in the aortic arch and carotid artery.

1st PUC Biology Breathing and Exchange of Gases Two Marks Questions

Question 1.
What is inspiration and expiration.
Answer:

  • Inspiration: Entry of air into alveoli of the lungs is called inspiration or inhalation.
  • Expiration: Movement or exit of air from the alveoli of the lungs to outer atmosphere is called expiration or exhalation.

Question 2.
Mention the functions of trachea.
Answer:

  • It is called wind pipe helps for passage of air.
  • Cilia move upwards towards the larynx, and this movement keeps out inhaled particles of dust, pollen etc.
  • The cartilages which serve to keep the trachea open makes easy passage of air.

Question 3.
Write any two functions of larynx.
Answer:

  • Larynx is called voice box. The vibration of vocal cords produce sound.
  • It helps in speech.
  • It prevents the entry of food into the lungs.
    The epiglottis present in larynx helps to close off the larynx during swallowing.

Question 4.
Mention any four conducting parts of the human respiratory system. (April 83, 92, 99)
Answer:

  • Nasal cavities
  • Nasopharynx
  • Trachea
  • Bronchial tree.

Question 5.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of alveolus.
Answer:
1st PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 4

Question 6.
Write a note on pleura.
Answer:
The two lungs are covered by a double layered membrane called pleura, with pleural fluid between them. The fluid reduces the friction on the lung surface. The outer pleural membrane is in close contact with the thoracic lining whereas the inner pleural membrane is in contact with the lung surface.

Question 7.
Mention four functions of the conducting part of the human respiratory system.
Answer:

  • It transports the air into alveoli
  • It clears the air from foreign particles.
  • It moistens and humidifies the air.
  • It brings the air to body temperature.

Question 8.
Mention the boundaries of the thoracic cavity. What is the use of them?
Answer:
The thoracic cavity is formed dorsally by the vertebral column, ventrally by the sternum, laterally by the ribs and on the lower side by the dome:shaped diaphragm. The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of the thoracic cavity will be reflected in the lung (pulmonary) cavity, which is essential for breathing as we cannot directly alter the pulmonary volume.

Question 9.
How do partial pressures of respiratory gases determine the diffusion of oxygen from the blood capillaries into the tissues?
Answer:
In the tissues, PCO2 is high, PO2 is low and there is high concentration of H+ ions and high temperature. Since the PO2 is lower than that of the blood, oxyhaemoglobin dissociates and releases the oxygen into the tissues.

Question 10.
How are gases transported in human body?
Answer:
Blood is the medium of transport for O2 and CO2. About 97% of O2 is transported by RBCs in the blood. The remaining 3% of O2 is carried in a dissolved state through the plasma. Nearly 20-25 percent of CO2 is transported by RBCs whereas 70% of it is carried as bicarbonate. About 7% is carried in a dissolved state through plasma.

Question 11.
Name the factors that affect the binding of oxygen to haemoglobin.
Answer:
The factors are:-

  • Partial pressure of oxygen
  • Partial pressure of carbon dioxide
  • Hydrogen ion (H+ ) concentration
  • Temperature.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 12.
What is carbonic anhydrase? List the three major forms In which the carbon dioxide is transported in the blood?
Answer:
Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that is present in RBC which catalyses the formation of carbonic acid from carbon dioxide and water. CO2 is transported

  • In the dissolved form in the plasma
  • As bicarbonates in the plasma and RBC
  • As carbamino haemoglobin.

Question 13.
Give the values PO2 and PCO2 respectively of each of the following
(1) Atmospheric air
(2) Tissues of the body
Answer:

  1. Atmospheric air PO2= 159 mm Hg; PCO2 = 0.3 mm Hg;
  2. Tissues of the body PO2= 40 mm Hg; PCO2 = 40 mm Hg;

Question 14.
What is emphysema? What is its major cause?
Answer:
Emphysema is a chromic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is decreased. One of the major causes of this is cigarette smoking.

Question 15.
Where is pneumotaxic centre located in humans? What is its significance inbreathing?
Answer:
Pneumotaxic centre is located in the pons region of the brain.
Neural signal from this centre can reduce the duration of inspiration and thereby alter the respiratory rate.

Question 16.
Name the three layers of diffusion membrane.
Answer:

  • Squamous epithelium of alveoli
  • Endothelium of alveolar capillaries
  • Basement substance.

1st PUC Biology Breathing and Exchange of Gases Three Marks Questions

Question 1.
Explain the transport mechanism of oxygen.
Answer:
Oxygen binds with haemoglobin in reversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin. About 97% of O2 is transported as oxyhaemoglobin. Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a maximum of four molecules of O2. Binding of O2 with haemoglobin depends on partial pressure of oxygen primarily and also on partial pressure of carbon dioxide, hydrogen ion concentration and temperature.

In the alveoli, where there is high pO2, low pCO2, lesser H+ concentration and lower temperature, the factors are all favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin, whereas in the tissues, where low PO2, high PCO2, high H+ concentration and higher temperature exist the conditions are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhemoglobin. This indicates that O2 gets bound to haemoglobin in the lung surface and gets dissociated at the tissues.

Question 2.
Describe the role of haemoglobin in the transport of respiratory gases. (Foreign 2001)
Answer:

  • Oxygen binds to the Fe2+ part of haemoglobin and is transported as oxyhaemoglobin through the RBCs of the blood.
  • Each molecule of haemoglobin can transport a maximum of four oxygen molecules.
  • CO2 combines with the amine radial of haemoglobin to form carbamino haemoglobin and about 20 – 25% of CO2 is transported in this form.

Question 3.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of human respiratory system showing the mechanism of
(a) inspiration
(b) expiration.
Answer:
1st PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 5

Question 4.
Explain the process of expiration under normal conditions.
Answer:
Expiration takes place when the intra-pulmonary pressure is higher than the atmospheric pressure. The diaphragm and a specialised set of muscles-external and internal intercostals between the ribs, help in generation of such gradients.

Relaxation of the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles returns the diaphragm and sternum to their normal positions after inspiration which reduces the thoracic volume and thereby the pulmonary volume. This leads to an increase in intra-pulmonary pressure to slightly above the atmospheric pressure causing the expulsion of air from the lungs, i.e. expiration.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Give a diagrammatic representation of exchange of gases at the alveolus and the body tissues with blood and transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Answer:
1st PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 6

Question 6.
Draw a labelled diagram of a section of an alveolus with pulmonary capillary.
Answer:
1st PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 7

Question 7.
Name and explain few disorders of respiratory system.
Answer:

  • Asthma: It is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
  • Emphysema: It is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is decreased. This is mainly caused by cigarette smoking.
  • Occupational Respiratory disorders: In certain industries, involving grinding and stone breaking the dust produced results in inflammation leading to fibrosis and this causing serious lung damage.

1st PUC Biology Breathing and Exchange of Gases Five Marks Questions

Question 1.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of human respiratory system.
Answer:
1st PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 8

Question 2.
Give the five steps that is involved in respiration.
Answer:
Respiration involves the following steps:

  1. Breathing or pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released out.
  2. Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2 ) across alveolar membrane.
  3. Transport of gases by the blood.
  4. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.
  5. Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Define the following:
(a) Inspiratory Reserve volume
(b) Expiratory Reserve volume
(c) Total lung capacity
(d) Residual volume
(e) Functional residual capacity
Answer:
(a) Inspiratory Reserve volume (IRV): Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration.

(b) Expiratory Reserve volume (ERV): Additional volume of air, a person can expire by a forcible expiration.

(c) Total lung capacity: Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced inspiration. This includes RV, ERV, TV and IRV.

(d) Residual Volume (RV): Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration.

(e) Functional residual capacity (FRC): Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration.
This includes ERV + RV.

2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sampada Chapter 15 Ayke Ide Namma Kaiyalli

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Karnataka 2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sampada Chapter 15 Ayke Ide Namma Kaiyalli

Ayke Ide Namma Kaiyalli Questions and Answers, Notes, Summary

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1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography

Karnataka 1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography

You can Download Chapter 12 Cartography Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Geography Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

1st PUC Geography Cartography One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define the term Cartography.
Answer:
The science and art of making maps, charts, globes and rile models is known as Cartography.

Question 2.
What is a Map?
Answer:
A map is defined as a symbolical and conventional representation of the earth or a portion f it drawn to scale on a flat surface and bounded by the geographical coordinates as viewed from above.

Question 3.
Name any two essential features of a Map?
Answer:
Title, Scale, Direction are essential features of a Map.

Question 4.
What is Scale?
Answer:
A scale is the ratio of the distance between two points on the map and their corresponding distance on the ground.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Mention any two uses of Maps.
Answer:
Maps are essential to a geographer, to present spatial information systematically. They are useful to locate lakes, rivers, vegetation, coastal features and also to understand the distribution of soils, minerals, crops, population, tourist places.

Question 6.
What is map index?
Answer:
The features show on a map is indicated by a guide called map index.

Question 7.
What is Physical Map?
Answer:
These maps show the natural phenomena such as relief, climate, vegetation; soils etc. are known as physical maps.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 8.
What is a Cultural map?
Answer:
The maps which are prepared to show the various cultural patterns designed over the earth’s surface are called cultural maps.

Question 9.
What is Astronomical map?
Answer:
These maps show the heavenly bodies such as stars, planets, satellites, nebulae etc.

Question 10.
What is Relief Map?
Answer:
They are also known as orographic maps they show the surface features of a given region.
For example: Mountain, plains, plateaus, valleys, hills etc.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
What is soil map?
Answer:
The map which show the distribution of various types of soils in a particular region and help in agricultural planning.

Question 12.
What is Population Map?
Answer:
These maps denote the distribution of human beings over an area, the density, sex ratio, literacy etc of a country.

Question 13.
Identify the latitudes and longitudes for the given places.
Answer:
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography 1

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
What is map reading?
Answer:
Map reading means getting the correct visual image of the features shown on a map.

Question 15.
What is Contour?
Answer:
They are the imaginary lines joining all the places which are of the same height above the sea level.

Question 16.
What is Uniform slope?
Answer:
There is no change in the degree of slope such slopes may be steep or gentle are known as uniform slopes.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 17.
What is undulating slopes?
Answer:
Such slopes are alternately marked by outward bulges and inward bends. Hence contours are spaced irregularly.

Question 18.
What is location?
Answer:
Maps represent the earth or a part of it. So its is essential to know the location of a place on the globe. The latitudes and longitudes are highly useful in under standing the location.

Question 19.
What are cordial Points?
Answer:
These are point’s represents different directions on north south and east.

KSEEB Solutions

1st PUC Geography Cartography Two Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1.
What is Political Map?
Answer:
These are the maps which are prepared to show the political boundaries between different countries or states or between different political units of a country. Capital cities and other important towns, railways and highways are also shown on these maps.

Question 2.
Define the term photogrammetry?
Answer:
The out science and technology of taking reliable measurements on photographs about physical objects and the environment is known as photogrammetry. These measurements are obtained by interpreting photographic images.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
What is Weather map?
Answer:
They show the weather conditions at fixed time. Average atmospheric pressure, wind velocity and direction, cloudiness, rainfall, drizzle; know fall, sea conditions and other weather phenomena are shown on these maps. These maps are published daily by the meteorological department.
i.e. Indian Daily Weather Report.

Question 4.
What is an international Map Projection?
Answer:
This is a modified polyconic projection. Following the decision of International Map Committee held in 1909, the projection was introduced for the topographical maps of the whole world on a scale of 1,000,000 in preference to polyconic projections.

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Question 5.
What are dot maps?
Answer:
The distribution maps, where the dot method is applied to show the distribution of economic phenomena e.g. population, agricultural crops, industries etc. Dots of uniform size are used where each dot represents a certain number or quantity.

Question 6.
What are cartograms?
Answer:
The diagrammatic representation of a statistical map where purposeful distortion is sought to high! lit the distribution pattern of a particular spatial element. It may be termed as a cartographic cartoon.

KSEEB Solutions

1st PUC Geography Cartography Five Mark Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Explain the types of Maps:
Answer:
Maps may be broadly divided into two types.
A. On the basis of Scale Maps are classified into three types.

(a) Large Scale Maps: The Maps drawn on the scale of 1 cm= 1 km or 1:1, 00,000 and 1 inch=1 mile or 1:63,360 eg. Cadastral maps (Village, Town and City maps).

(b) Medium Scale Maps: the Maps drawn on the scale of 1 cnm=1 Km to 1 cm=10 km or 1:1,00,000 and 1:10,00,000 eg. Topographical Maps (Mountains, Plateaus, plains).

(c) Small Scale maps: The Maps drawn on the scale below 1 cm: 15Km or 1:15,00,000 eg. Atlas and Wall Maps. These maps show broad physical and cultural features.

B. On the basis of purpose various types of Maps are prepared.

(i) Topographical maps: To show relief features, forests, land use, river system, roads, railways, pipelines, distribution of rural and urban settlements etc.

(ii) Cadastral maps: The Cadastral maps are drawn to register the ownership of field, farm, building, firm etc.

(iii) Economic Maps: These maps provide information about human economic activities eg. Agriculture, mining, industry, marketing, trade etc.

(iv) Population Maps: These maps show the information about distribution, growth, density, migration, age and sex composition of population. These maps are also drawn to show the distribution of occupational structure, language, social groups of people etc.

(v) Weather Maps: These are useful to analyzed weather condition and distribution of temperature, pressure, humidity, winds, rainfall etc.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Explain the uses of Maps.
Answer:

  • Maps are very useful to the government for planning and administrative purposes.
  • Maps are essential to a geographer, to present spatial information systematically.
  • They are useful to locate lakes, rivers, vegetation, coastal features and also to understand the distribution of soils, minerals, crops, population, tourist places.
  • They are very much helpful at the time of war and defence.
  • Maps are very important for the army. Military maps are very useful for the overall planning of the strategy of war and for coordinating military action during war.
  • Maps are very useful tools for a geographer. Geography cannot be understood and made interesting without maps.
  • Maps are also immensely useful to other sciences, like physical and social sciences. For example Geology, climatology, Meteorology etc.
  • Maps serve as a permanent record to locate features like rivers, lakes vegetation etc.
  • Maps enable us to know details of the landforms and other ground features. Mountains, plateaus, plains, coastal plains etc.
  • Maps serve as a permanent record to locate features like rivers, lakes, vegetations etc.
  • Maps showing the distribution of objects become very useful to understand the location and distribution of different objects such as minerals, soils, vegetation, agricultural crops, industries, population, etc.
  • Maps help to mark political boundary, administrative areas to formulate legislation and legal jurisdiction.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Explain the techniques of measurement of Distance on map?
Answer:
Maps represent the earth’s surface based on a particular ratio called the scale. So the distance between any two points on the globe can be easily any two points on the globe can be easily calculated.

There are several simple methods for distance calculations on the maps.

a. By a strip of paper: With the help of a strip of paper we can take the distance of two point on the map and put it on the scale. With this method one can understand the actual distance between the points.

b. By Thread: When the distance between the two places is Jig-jag a thread can be used effectively for the measurement of distance. After taking the distance with the

c. By divider: Even a divider can be used for the measurement of distance on the map. The distance between any two points on the map may be taken with-the divider and then put it on the sale. So the actual distance can be understood and it is converted to the scale of other map.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
Explain the map reading and state its advantages:
Answer:
Map reading refers to getting the correct visual image of the features shown on a map. It plays an important role in the study of maps. The objective of map reading is to provide a clear and an accurate visualization of the features on the ground.
Skills required to an efficient map reader:

1. Map legends: Map reader should have the skill to read the map legend, i.e. the explanations of the symbols and colours on a map, to find out exactly what the symbols represent.
For example: triangular shaped symbols may stand for a forest or an orchard, many symbols may stand for a forest or an orchard. Many symbols have no resemblance to what they represent. Example: triangular sign stands for well. The some symbol may be used to show different features in different maps.

2. Map scale: Map scale is an important element or aspect of a map. So, the map reader should make use of the scale intelligently to find out the extent of an area, the distance between various points etc. Many maps show scale by marking distances on a graphical scale. Each marking represents a certain number of kins or miles. Scale may be expressed by representative fraction (RF) scales are usually found at the bottom of the map.

3. Map index: The features shown on a map are indicated by a guide called map index. It helps to locate places on a map. So, the map reader should use the map index to locate the places. Usually in Atlases, index is given at the end of the Atlas. Each entry in the index is listed with its longitude and latitude.

4. Geographical grids: The network of lines crossing each other at right angles is known as Geographical grid or references. These help map reader to find the location, distance and direction of places. The latitudes and longitudes torrid system is commonly used for the above mentioned purpose. The network of these imaginary lines is known as Gratitude.

KSEEB Solutions

1. Draw the diagram to the following:

1. Cycle of Seasons
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography 2

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2. Layers of the Earth’s interior
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography 3

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3. Pressure belts of the globe
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography 4

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4. Orographic rainfall
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography 5

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5. Structure of Atmosphere
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography 6
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography 7

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1. Draw the outline map of India, mark and name the following.

1. Physical divisions of India
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography 8

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2. Forests of India
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography 9

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3. National park and Wild life in India
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography 10

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4. Rivers and Lakes
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography 11

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7. Biosphere Reserves
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography 12

  1. Nanda Devi Saikhawa
  2. Nokrek
  3. Manas
  4. Dibru
  5. Dehang Debang
  6. Sunderbans
  7. Gulf of Mannar
  8. Nilgiri
  9. Great Nicobar
  10. Similipal
  11. Khanghendzonga
  12. Panchamarhi
  13. Agasthymalai
  14. Achanakmari – Amar Kantak

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8. Soils of India
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Cartography 13

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2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sampada Chapter 13 Muttisikondavanu

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Karnataka 2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sampada Chapter 13 Muttisikondavanu

Muttisikondavanu Questions and Answers, Notes, Summary

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1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 11 Natural hazards and disasters

Karnataka 1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 11 Natural hazards and disasters

You can Download Chapter 11 Natural hazards and disasters Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Geography Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

1st PUC Geography Natural hazards and disasters One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Natural Hazard? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
It is a threat of naturally occurring event that will have a negative effect on people or the environment.
Ex: Earthquake, Landslide, Volcanic eruption.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Natural Disaster? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
A natural disaster is a major adverse event resulting from natural processes of the Earth e.g. Earthquakes, floods, drought and famine, cyclones, landslides, coastal erosion.

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Question 3.
Mention any two types of disasters. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Major types of Disaster are Tectonic, Meteorological, and Topographical disasters.

Question 4.
What are floods? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Floods are temporary inundation of large regions as a result of heavy rainfall, prolonged rain cyclones, storm surge along coast.

Question 5.
Name the most important flood prone area of India. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The Ganga basin is the most important flood prone area of India.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Why are cyclones are caused in the Bay of Bengal? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The Bay of Bengal is subject to intense heating, giving rise to humid and unstable air masses that produce cyclones.

Question 7.
What is drought? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The term drought is applied to an extended period when there is a shortage of water availability due to inadequate precipitation, excessive rate of evaporation and over utilization of water from the reservoirs other storages, including the groundwater.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 8.
Which region of India is in the extreme drought prone area? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The regions are western parts of Rajasthan, Kutch regions of Gujarat and semi-arid and arid regions of Western and North western parts of India.

Question 9.
Why does landslide occur? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Landslides are occur by severe marine erosion of sea coast, Seismic activity, Heavy rainfall, construction of roads, railway lines, canal construction, mining and quarrying, over grazing deforestation.

Question 10.
Mention the most important avalanche prone area of India. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The most important avalanche prone area of India are mainly Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal radish, uttarkhand, Sikkim, parts of Arunchal Pradesh etc.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
What is an Earthquake?
Answer:
An earthquake is a sudden movement, trembling of the earth’s crust.

Question 12.
Which is the highest earthquake intensity region of India?
Answer:
Himalayan region.

Question 13.
Which is the only one active volcano in India?
Answer:
Barren Volcanic Island in the Andaman Island

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
When national flood control programme was launched?
Answer:
In 1954.

Question 15.
What is coastal erosion?
Answer:
Coastal erosion means eroding down the coastline by sea waves.

Question 16.
What is mean by avalanche?
Answer:
Avalanches are a hurtling mass of snow, ice and rock debris descending a mountain side.

KSEEB Solutions

1st PUC Geography Natural hazards and disasters Two Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Name the two most important seismic zones of India. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Zone V: This is the most severe seismic zone and is referred as very high damage Risk zone. The areas are Northeastern states, parts of Jammu Kashmir, Uttarkhand, and Bihar and Kutch region.

Zone IV: This zone is second in severity zone. Northern regions of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, parts of Bihar, UP, Gujarat, West Bengal.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Mention any four factors that cause floods. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Floods are caused by both natural and man-made factors. They are:
(a) Natural factors

  • Continuous rainfall for a long period
  • Cyclones
  • Obstruction on flow of river water.

(b) Man made factors:

  • Deforestation
  • Unscientific Agricultural practice
  • Urbanization

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
State two important flood prone areas of the country. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The Ganga Basin: The badly affected states of the Ganga basin area Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal.
The Brahmaputra basin: the Brahmaputra along with its tributaries floods the areas of Assam and North West Bengal regions.

Question 4.
Name any four factors that cause drought and famine. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The main causes for the occurrence of drought and famine are reduction in annual rainfall, long period scarcity of surface and underground water, scarcity of stored water, excess utilization of freshwater. Overgrazing, deforestation. Improper agricultural practice, mining.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Mention any four consequences of natural hazard and disasters. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The most important consequences of natural disasters are los of human life and property, animal wealth, destruction of vegetation etc. Natural disasters create fear, anguish and trauma in the human beings leading to various physical, biological and psychological changes. Natural disasters affect population, its distribution and density. It affects on agriculture, cropping pattern, industries, transport and communication, public health, water supply.

Question 6.
What is an earthquake? What are the main causes of an earthquake?
Answer:
An earthquake is a sudden release of energy accumulated in rocks causing the ground to . tremble or shake.
The main causes of earthquake are natural and man – made factors.

  1. Tectonic forces
  2. Volcanic activity
  3. Landslides and Landslips
  4. Collapse of underground cave roofs

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
How can drought prevented in India?
Answer:
We can reduce the intensity and impact of drought through individual and collective actions:

  • Community based rainwater harvesting structures should b constructed.
  • Watershed programmes should be increased
  • Through plantation programmes, forest cover should be increased.
  • Encouraging farmers to grow drought-resistant crops.

Question 8.
Mention the important regions of land slides in India.
Answer:
There are three important region.

  1. Himalayan zone
  2. Western Ghats
  3. Southern Plateau.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Mention the different types of drought in India.
Answer:
Drought is a weather hazard, uncertainty of monsoon rainfall, deficient rainfall. So India is more frequently affected by droughts.

India droughts are classified into four types:

  1. Meteorological Drought
  2. Hydrological Drought
  3. Agricultural Drought
  4. Ecological Drought

KSEEB Solutions

1st PUC Geography Natural hazards and disasters Five Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Explain the major seismic zones of India. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Zone V: This is the most severe seismic (intensity above 7 in Richter scale) seismic zone and is referred as Very High Damage risk zone. The areas are. Northeastern states, parts of Jammu Kashmir, Uttarkhand, and Bihar and Kutch region.

Zone IV: This zone is second in severity (intensity between 5 and 7 in R.S) to zone VG. This is referred to as High Damage Risk zone. Northern regions of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Parts of Bihar, UP, Gujarat, West Bengal lie in this region zone. Northern regions of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, parts of Bihar, UP, Gujarat, West Bengal.

Zone III: This is termed as Moderate Damage (very strong) Risk zone (intensity between 3 and 5 in R.S). The areas are Gujarat, Madya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Maharashtra, Northern Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, West coastal region etc.

Zone II: This zone is referred to as low Damage (strong) Risk Zone (intensity 2 to 3 R.S). The areas are Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha etc.

Zone I: This zone is termed as Very Low Damage (Slight-tremor) Risk Zone. The left out parts of India and Deccan Plateau region.

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Question 2.
Briefly explain the distribution of flood prone areas of India. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
a. The Ganga basin: The badly affected states of the Ganga basin are U.P, Bihar and West Bengal. Besides the Ganga River, Sarada, Gandak and Ghagra cause flood in Eastern part of U.P. The Yamuna is famous for flooding Haryana, U.P and Delhi. Bihar experiences massive and dangerous flood every year by the Kosi. Rivers like the Mahanadi, Bhagirathi and Damodar also cause floods.

b. The Brahmaputra basin: The Brahmaputra along with its tributaries floods the areas of Assam and North West Bengal regions.

c. The Central India and Peninsular river basin: In odisha spilling over of river banks by the Mahanadi, Baitarnika and Brahmani causes havoc. Southern and central India experiences floods caused by the Narmada, Godavari, Tapti and Krishna during heavy rainfall. Cyclonic storms in the deltaic regions of the Godavari, Mahanadi and the Krishna flood the coastal regions of Andhra Pradesh.

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Question 3.
Explain the major drought prone areas of India. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
On the basis of severity of droughts, India can be divided into three drought prone areas.

a. The Extreme drought prone areas: This is the most important drought prone areas of the country which has been recording continuous drought for many years. The regions are western parts of Rajasthan, Kutch regions of Gujarat and semi-arid regions of Western and North western parts of India.

b. The Severe drought prone areas: This is the second important drought prone areas of the county. The eastern parts of Rajasthan, western parts of Madhya Pradesh, Parts of Maharashtra, interior parts of Andhra Pradesh. North and northeastern parts of Karnataka and Tamil nadu.

c. The Moderate drought prone areas: This region is mainly found in regions of U.P, parts of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Jharkhand, Tamil Nadu and interior parts of Karnataka.

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1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 10 Climate, Soil and Forest

Karnataka 1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 10 Climate, Soil and Forest

You can Download Chapter 10 Climate, Soil and Forest Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Geography Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

1st PUC Geography Climate, Soil and Forest One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What type of climate is found in India? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
India has “Tropical Monsoon” type of climate.

Question 2.
Define Monsoon. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The word ‘Monsoon’ is derived from Arabic word ‘Mousim’ meaning season.

Question 3.
Mention the place which records high range of Temperature. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
In summer the western Rajasthan records more’than 55°C of temperature.

Question 4.
Which is the driest season in India? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The summer or hot weather Season from March to End of May.

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Question 5.
Name the region which receives ‘Monsoon outburst’. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The.Malabar Coast of Kerala receives ‘Monsoon outburst’.

Question 6.
Which is called ‘Mawsynram of South India’? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Agumbe of Karnataka is called ‘Mawsynram of South India.’

Question 7.
Why are cyclones formed during North East Monsoon season? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
In this season due to pressure variation between the Bay of Bengal and main land of India variable winds-cyclones and anti -cyclones originate in the Bay of Bengal.

Question 8.
What is mean by ‘Burst of Monsoon’?
Answer:
The sudden violent onset of rainfall during the period of ‘Monsoon’ is called the ‘Burst of Monsoon’.

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Question 9.
Name any two local winds which blow in India in the summer season.
Answer:
‘Loo and Kalabaisakhi are the two local winds which blow in India in the summer season.

Question 10.
Which wind is responsible for the rainfall experienced over the greater part of India?
Answer:
A South-west monsoon winds is responsible for the rainfall experienced over the greater part of India.

Question 11.
What is the average annual rainfall of India?
Answer:
The average annual rainfall is 118 cm.

Question 12.
Name the place in Southern India which receives highest rainfall from the summer monsoon.
Answer:
Mahabaleswar receives the highest rainfall in South India from the summer monsoon.

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Question 13.
What is Kalabaisaki?
Answer:
The local rainfall of summer season in West-Bengal is called ‘Kalabaisaki’.

Question 14.
In which state the South-west monsoon wind enters first.
Answer:
The south west monsoon enters first to the Malabar Coast of Kerala.

Question 15.
Define Pedology. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The scientific study of soil is known as ‘pedology’.

Question 16.
Name the soil which covers vast area of the country. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Alluvial soil

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Question 17.
Why Black soil is called Regur soil? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
This soil derived from the weathered basalt rock. This soil holds water form long period and become hard whenever it is dry.

Question 18.
Where do we see Laterite soil? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Laterite soil found in Western Ghats, parts of Eastern Ghats and North eastern hills of India.

Question 19.
What is Humus?
Answer:
Decomposed organic material found in the soil is called Humus.

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Question 20.
State the type of soil that is found in the heavy rainfall regions?
Answer:
The laterite soils re found in the heavy rainfall regions.

Question 21.
Which soil is suitable for cotton cultivation?
Answer:
The black soil is suitable for cotton crop.

Question 22.
Which is highest fertile soil?
Answer:
The mountain soil (Forest soil) is fertile soil

Question 23.
Where is Green Gold? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The forest and their resources are useful to man in various forms. Therefore, they are called ‘Green Gold’.

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Question 24.
Mention the average forest cover of the country. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The average forest cover of the country is 22.50%.

Question 25.
Which forest has high economic value trees? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Monsoon forest has high economic value trees.

Question 26.
Where do we find Dehang Debaqg Biosphere reserve? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh.

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1st PUC Geography Climate, Soil and Forest Two Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Why India is called ‘Meteorological Unit’? (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Monsoons are the periodic winds in which there is reversal of wind direction periodically. On account of the variability in climatic conditions, seasonally and regionally, India is called ‘Meteorological Unit’.

Question 2.
Mention any two convectional rainfall of India. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
They are “Mango Showers” in Kerala, “cherry Blossoms” in Karnataka and “Kalabiashaki” in West Bengal and Assam.

Question 3.
Write the significance of Monsoon. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The climatic conditions of the country are greatly influenced by monsoon winds. The winds blow in a particular direction west monsoon winds blow from south west to north east, while north east, while north east monsoon winds blow from northeast to south west.

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Question 4.
Mention the annual average rainfall of different seasons in India.
Answer:
The season-wise distribution of rain fall is

  • The south-west monsoon seasons – 75%
  • The summer season – 10%
  • The winter season – 2%
  • The retreating monsoon seasons – 13%

Question 5.
Write a short note on Retreating Monsoon?
Answer:
The season of Retreating Monsoon is the period of Transition. During the period of transition low pressure of the north-west shifts to the Bay of Bengal. It results in the formation of cyclones over the Bay. These cyclones cause havoc on the coasts of Orissa and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 6.
Why does India have a monsoon type of climate?
Answer:
India has monsoon climate because there is a seasonal reversal in the wind system in India. During summer winds blow from sea to land and During winter winds blow from land to sea.

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Question 7.
What is meant by the word ‘Monsoon’?
Answer:
The word ‘Monsoon’ is derived form the Arabic word ‘Mausam’ which means season. Hence, the word ‘Monsoon’ implies the seasonal reversal in the wind pattern over the year. It reveals the rhythm of season and changes in direction of winds. There is also ca change in the distribution pattern of rainfall and temperature with the change of seasons. The monsoon winds move six months from sea to land and another six months from land to sea,

Question 8.
Mention major factors affecting the climate of our country.
Answer:

  • Location and Relief.
  • Latitude
  • Altitude
  • Pressure and winds.

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Question 9.
What are the branches of south-west monsoon winds?
Answer:
The south-west monsoons are divided into two branches. They are:

  1. The Arabian Sea branch and
  2. Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 10.
What is annual range of temperature? Explain it by giving one example.
Answer:
The difference between the maximum average temperature and minimum average temperature of a place over twelve months is known as annual range of temperature.

Ex: The max. average temperature at Jodhpur is 33.9°C and min. Average temperature is 14.9°C. Hence the annual range of temperature at Jodhpur is 19°C.

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Question 11.
Mention the importance of Red soil. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
This soil is formed by the weathered granite rocks. It is red in colour and rich in ferrous content. Red soil covers the second largest area in the country. Largest part of peninsular region is covered with red soil. Tamil Nadu has the largest distribution of this soil in the country. Rice, Ragi, Jowar, Groundnut oil seeds are the main crops cultivated in this soil.

Question 12.
Name any four factors that affect soil erosion. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
High Temperature, Rainfall wind and waves are the natural agents. Deforestation, over grazing, shifting cultivation, unscientific methods of agriculture cause soil erosion.

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Question 13.
State four best measures in the conservation of soil. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Afforestation, control of over grazing, contours ploughing. Terrace farming, Erection of bunds, construction of check dams, crop rotation, and control of shifting Cultivation are the best measures in the soil conservation.

Question 14.
State the characteristics of Laterite soils.
Answer:
The important characteristics of Laterite soils are: Laterite soils are red in colour. They are rich in Iron and Aluminum, but poor in potash, Lime, Nitrogen and Phosphoric Acid. They are less retentive of moisture. They are poor in fertility. But they respond very well to manuring. So, with the help of manuring they can be used for the cultivation of plantation crops, such as Tea, Coffee, Spices, Rubber, etc.

Question 15.
Name the states which have the highest and the lowest forest areas in the country. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh (44.8%) is the highest and Haryana state 2.6% is the lowest forest areas in the country.

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Question 16.
Write the salient features of Evergreen forest. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
These forests are found in the regions of heavy rainfall (above 250 cm) and high temperature (above 27° C) Tall umbrella shaped trees with dense assemblage is a prominent feature of this forest. The evergreen forests always look green because, various species of trees are found here and they shed leaves in different seasons.

Question 17.
What is Mangrove forest? Why has it become important in the recent years?
(T.B Qn)
Answer:
Mangroves are trees and shrubs that grow in saline coastal habitats in the tropics and subtropics in India. The trees in these forests are hard, durable and are used in boat making and as fuel, in the recent years mangrove vegetation is being grown in the coastal areas to control effects of tidal waves and coastal erosion.

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Question 18.
Mention any four measures of conservation of forest. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Protection and preservation of forest is known as conservation. The important measures of conservation of forest are:

  • Forest fires, pests and diseases should be controlled through the scientific methods.
  • Encroachers of forest area should be severely punished.
  • Forest education, research and training should be expanded through programmes like vanamahotsava, social forestry, and reforestation.

Industrial and mining activities in the forest regions should be compensated by reforestation.

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1st PUC Geography Climate, Soil and Forest Five Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1.
What is Climate? Explain the factors that determine the climate of India. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The average weather condition of place for a long period like 30-33 years in known in known as climate. India’s climate is said to be “Tropical Monson”.

The main factors are monsoon winds.

(i) Location: The northern part of India lies in sub-tropical and temperate zone and the part lying to the south of the tropic of cancer come under tropical zone. The tropical zone being nearer to the Equator, experiences high temperature throughout the year, with small daily and annual range. Tropic of Caner 23 1/2° N latitude passes through the centre of the country. So India is situated both in the tropical and temperate region.

(ii) Mountain Ranges: The lofty Himalayan Mountains have prevented the cold winds of central Asia, and keep India warm. They are also greatly responsible for the monsoon rains in the country.

(iii) Distribution of Land and Water: India is bounded by the Arabian Sea in the west and Bay of Bengal in the east, Indian Ocean in the south. These adjoining seas have influenced the climate of the country considerably. They influence the rainfall of the coastal region. Even the cyclones which originate from these seas regularly affect the weather condition.

(iv) The relief features of India also affect the temperature, air pressure, direction and speed of wind, the amount and distribution of rainfall. The windward side of Western Ghats and north east received high rainfall from June to September.

(v) Monsoon winds: The climatic conditions of other country are greatly influenced by monsoon winds. The winds blow in a particular direction during one season, but get reversed during the other season.

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Question 2.
Explain the South West Monsoon season with the help of map. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The south-west monsoon winds as starts in June and ends in mid-September. It is also known as advancing monsoon season or rainy season. During this season, India gets more than 75% of its annual rainfall and more than 90% of the country’s area receives downpour. It is the prime season for Kharif crops.

In the middle of June the direct rays of the Sun fall on tropic of caner due to shift in the position of the Sun from Equator towards northern hemisphere. Therefore, there is an increase in temperature from south to north. The temperature in the main land of India and nearby land masses is high compared to water bodies of the Indian Ocean.

a. The Arabian Sea branch: The Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon strikes the western coast of India in Kerala on the 1st June. Arabian sea winds by carrying more moisture blow along the western coast of India and cause heavy rainfall in the western part of Western Ghats due to obstruction. These winds behave like sea breeze and cause continuous rainfall I the wind ward side of the Western Ghats tHl they lose their moisture.

Agumbe of Karnataka receives the highest rainfall during this season. This regions coming under southeast monsoon winds receive good rainfall wherever they get obstruction by hills and plateaus.

b. The Bay of Bengal branch blow from water bodies towards the Indian mainland due to variation in pressure. These winds carry moisture form the Bay of Bengl and blow along eastern coast and finally reach north eastern hills. In its path, whenever this wind receives obstruction, they cause good rainfall. The eastern part of Eastern Ghats and north astern hills receive heavy rainfall. These winds after crossing eastern coast merge the Arabian sea winds.

The Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal winds, after merging, blow towards north eastern regions of India. The shape of the Himalayan Mountains and northeastern hills greatly obstruct these winds. Therefore the Meghalaya plateau region, particularly Nokrek areas of Mawsynram and cheerapunji, receive very high rainfall. This place is popularly called Rainiest or wettest place on the Earth.

The southwest monsoon after crossing northeastern region blow towards east. Since the Himalayas obstruct these winds they have to take westerly direction and blow along the foothills of Himalayas. The shift in the direct6 sun rays from Tropic of Cancer towards Equator results in the gradual disappearance of southwest monsoons. Indian economy depends on the Monsoons to a large extent.

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Question 3.
Briefly explain the characteristics features of winter and summer. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The winter season (December to February): It is also called cold weather season. In this season direct rays of the Sun fall on Tropic of Capricorn. The temperature in the country is not uniform from north to south. Regions lying to the north of tropic of cancer record low temperature compared to regions in the south. There is a general decrease in temperature from south to north.

December is the beginning of cold weather season and it extends up to February. The annual average temperature is around 18° C. In the northern parts of the plains temperature falls below 5°C. January is the coldest month in the year. Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana, UP and parts of Bihar record very low temperature with snow storms. Though the rainfall is small, in some parts on North India it is beneficial for Rabi crops. Annual rainfall in this season is around 2%.

The Summer Season (March to May): The summer season is also known as hot weather season. It begins in March and continues up to May. During this season there is gradual increase n temperature from south north due to shifting of Sun rays from Tropic of Capricorn towards the Equator. In this period south Indian states- Tamilnadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Kerala record high temperature.

Some part of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka record more than 40° C of temperature. Sri Ganganagar of Rajasthan has recorded the highest temperature of above 52° C. The average temperature of the country will be around 24° C. In this season some parts of India receive convectional rainfall. During this season the country receives 10% of the annual rainfall.

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Question 4.
Give details of North East Monsoon season. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
This season is also called North East Monsoon Season. It starts in the middle of September and extends up to middle of December. On September 23rd the direct rays of the sun falls on Equator. Therefore, there is a change in temperature and pressure in the land and water bodies. In this period the Indian sub-continent. The high pressure formed in the northern part of Bay of Bengal results in movement of wind from northeastern part of India towards southwestern region.

These winds blow along the eastern coast of India and Bay of Bengal. In this season due to pressure variation between the Bay of Bengal and main land of India variable winds cyclones take birth in this season and cause great damage in the eastern coast of India. The coastal areas of Tamilnadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and West Bengal come under the frequent effect of cyclones. Some cyclones recorded in the last few years are Bola, Nargis, Nisha, Laila, jal, Neelam etc.

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Question 5.
What is Soil? Explain the major types of soils. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Soil is the minute or finer rock particles found on the surface of the Earth. It is formed naturally, due to the weathering of rocks, under the influence of climate.

The main types of soil in India are:

1. Alluvial soil: This soil is formed by depositional work of rivers and they are mainly found in the flood plains and deltas. Alluvial soil covers largest geographical are in the country. They are mainly distributed in the river plains of the Ganga, Brahmaputra and the Indus. Uttar Pradesh has the largest area under alluvial soil. It is also found in the deltas of east flowing rivers. Alluvial soils are classified into two types.

  • Bhangar: Older alluvium, coarse and pebble like in nature, found at the lower depths of the plain.
  • Khadar: New alluvium, finer in nature, found in the low lying flood plains and rich in fertility

2. Black soil: The black soils covered more area in peninsular plateau. This soil is also called ‘Cotton soil’ or “Regur soil”. It is derived from the weathered basalt rocks. This soil holds water from long period and become hard whenever it is dry. It is light-black to dark-black in colour. Maharashtra and Gujarat Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamilnadu. Black soils are good for Cotton, Sugarcane, Tobacco, Pulses, Millets, Citrus fruits, etc.

3. Red soil: This soil is formed by the weathered granite rocks. It is red in colour and rich in ferrous content. Red soil covers the second largest area in the country. Largest parts of peninsular region are covered with red soil. TamilNadu has the largest distribution of this soil in the country. Rice, Ragi, Jowar, Groundnut, Tobacco, Millets are the major crops cultivated in this soil.

4. Laterite soil: The hot and humid tropical regions of India are rich in laterite soil. This soil is derived from the fragmentation and disintegration of rocks in the mountain ranges. It is mainly found in the Western Ghats, parts of Eastern Ghats and Northeastern hills of India. Plantation crops like Tea, coffee, Rubber, Cashew nut are cultivated in this soil.

5. Desert soil: This soil is also called arid soil. They are mainly found in the desert and semi-desert regions of Western and North western parts of India. This soil has the least water holding capacity and humus content. Generally it is not suitable for cultivation of crops. This soil is mainly found in Rajasthan, parts of Gujarat and Haryana. With water facility crops like Bajra, Pulses and Guar ar cultivated in this soil.

6. Mountain Soil: The Himalayan mountain valleys and hill slopes are covered with Mountain or Forest soil. It is found in the mountain slopes of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Utarkhand regions, Crops like Tea, Almond, saffron are cultivated in this soil.

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Question 6.
Explain soil erosion and conservation of soil. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The removal or wearing away of the top soil by various natural agents and man-made factors is called ‘Soil Erosion’. High temperature, Rainfall wind and waves are the natural agents and deforestation, over grazing, shifting cultivation, improper and unscientific methods of agriculture are human activities cause soil erosion. In the hilly regions rainfall and temperature cause more soil erosion. In coastal area sea waves and in desert winds is the dominant factor s in the soil erosion process.

The prevention of soil erosion as well as the protection and maintenance of the Fertility of the soil. The important measures followed in the Conservation of soil are:

  • Afforestation
  • Control of overgrazing
  • Contour ploughing
  • Terrace Farming
  • Erection of bunds
  • Construction of check dams
  • Crop rotation
  • Strip Farming
  • Mulching
  • Literacy and education programmes on soil conservation.

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Question 7.
Describe the major types of forest in India.(T.B Qn)
Answer:
The peninsular region of India has the largest forest cover with around 57% of the total forest area.

According to geo-climatic conditions, forests are classified into:

a. Evergreen Forests: These forests are found in the regions of heavy rainfall and high temperature. Tall umbrella shaped trees with dense assemblage is a prominent feature of this forest. The eve4rgree forest always looks green because various species of trees are found here and they shed leaves in different seasons.

The hardwood trees, rose wood, white cedar, toon, gurjan, chaplash, ebony, Mahogany, canes, bamboo, shisham etc. These are found in North-east India, Western Ghats, Andaman and Nicobar islands, parts of Assam and some areas of Himalayan foot hills.

b. The Deciduous forests: The deciduous forest covers a wide range of rainfall regimes. The trees of these forests seasonally shed their leaves. The Indian deciduous forest is found in a range of landscapes from the plains to the hills. These forests provide shelter to most endangered wild life in the country, such as the Tiger, Asian Elephant, Bison, Gaur etc. The deciduous forest are two types

(i) Moist Deciduous forests: The moist deciduous forests are found in wet regions, receiving annual rainfall between 100cm to 200cam and temperature of 25° C to 30° C. The trees of these forests shed their leaves during spring and early summer. They are found on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, Chota Nagpur Plateau, the siwaliksetc.

(ii) The Dry Deciduous Forests: The dry deciduous forest are found I the areas where annual rainfall is between 50cm to 150 cm and temperature of 25° C to 30° C. Sal is the most significant tree found in this forest. Varieties of acacia and bamboo are also fund here. These forests are found in areas of central Deccan plateau, South-east of Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana and parts of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

(iii) The mountain forests: As the name indicates these forests are confined to the Himalayan region, where the temperature is less compared to other parts of the country. The trees in this forest are cone shape with needle like leaves. The important trees are oak, fir, pin e spruce, silver fir, deodhar, devdar, juniper, picea chestnut etc. They provide softwood for making country boats, packing materials and sport articles.

c. The Desert forests: These forests are found in the areas of very low rainfall. Thorny bushes, shrubs, dry grass, acacia, cacti and babul are the important vegetation found in these forests. The Indian wild date known as ‘Khejurs”, is common in the deserts. They have spine leaves, long roots and thick fleshy stems in which they store water to survive during the long drought. These vegetations are found in Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana.

d. The Mangrove Forests: These forests occur along the river deltas (Ganga, Mahanadi. Godavari and Krishna) of eastern coast and also concentrated in the coastal areas of Katchch, Kathiawar, and Gulf of Khambar. The mangrove forests in the Ganga delta are called Sunder bans because, they have extensive growth of Sundari trees. The trees in these forests are hard, durable and are used in boat making and as fuel. In the recent years mangrove vegetation is being grown I the coastal areas to control effects of tidal waves and coastal erosion.

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Question 8.
Briefly explain the importance of forests. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
Forests are the one of the important natural resources. They provide various benefits to mankind and environment.

The important benefits are:

  1. Forests supply fresh air, food and fodder.
  2. Forests are the rain bearers, help in causing good rainfall.
  3. They control soil erosion and desertification.
  4. Forest provides various products like bamboo, timber, resin, lac, gum cane, fuel, wood etc.
  5. They provide medicinal trees and plants used in ayurvedic medicines Eg.Neem tree. Basil, Brahmi etc.
  6. They provide shelter to various birds and animals.
  7. They absorb much of the rainwater and control floods and safeguards against drought.
  8. They act as wind breakers and protect the agricultural crops.
  9. The forest soils are rich in humus and thereby maintain the fertility of the soil.
  10. They provide raw materials to paper, match box, plywood and sports articles industries and they provide pastures for grazing animals.

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Question 9.
Explain the important measures of conservation of forest. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
The conservation of forest is concerned with proper utilization of forest, protection from destructive influences, misuses of forests etc.

The important measures of conservation of forest are:

  1. Careless felling of tree, over-grazing and shifting cultivation should be avoided. Afforestation should be practiced.
  2. Forest fires, pests and diseases should be controlled through the scientific methods.
  3. Encroachers of forest area should be severely punished.
  4. Forest education, research and training should be expanded through programmes like vanamahotsava, social forestry, and reforestation.
  5. Industrial and mining activities in the forest regions should be compensated by reforestation.
  6. Development of Green belts in the urban areas.
  7. Plantation of trees along the roads, railway lines, river, canal banks, tanks and ponds.
  8. Use of fuel wood, wood-charcoal by the tribal people must be prohibited.
  9. Government should promote intensive tree planting programmes in urban centers.
  10. Massive awareness about the aesthetic of forests should be created through mass media, workshops, live programmes etc.

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Question 10.
What are Biosphere reserves? Mention the important biosphere reserves of India. (T.B Qn)
Answer:
A biosphere Reserve is a unique and representative ecosystem of terrestrial and coastal areas .The regions surrounding the biosphere reserves would be utilized for the research and experimentation in developing forest and other products.

The Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB) of UNESCO was established in 1971 to promote interdisciplinary approaches to management, research and education in ecosystem conservation and sustainable use of natural resources. Eight of the eighteen biosphere reserves are a part of the world network of Biosphere reserves, based on the UNESCO man and the Biosphere Programme list.

The objectives of Biosphere reserves:

  • Conservation of biodiversity and ecosystem.
  • Association of environment with development.
  • International network for research and monitoring.
Sl.No Name of the Biosphere reserve State Estd.Year
1. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve Tamilnadu, Kerala, Karnataka 2000
2. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve Tamil Nadu 2001
3. Sunder bans Biosphere Reserve West Bengal 2001
4. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve Uttarkhand 2004
5. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve Meghalaya 2009
6. Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve Madhya Pradesh 2009
7. Simlipal Biosphere reserve Odisha 2008
8. Achanakmar-Amarkantak Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand 2012

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2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sampada Chapter 12 Omme Nagutteve

You can Download Chapter 12 Omme Nagutteve Questions and Answers Pdf, Notes, Summary, 2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sampada Chapter 12 Omme Nagutteve

Omme Nagutteve Questions and Answers, Notes, Summary

2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sampada Chapter 12 Omme Nagutteve 1

2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sampada Chapter 12 Omme Nagutteve 2

2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sampada Chapter 12 Omme Nagutteve 3

2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sampada Chapter 12 Omme Nagutteve 4

2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sampada Chapter 12 Omme Nagutteve 5

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1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 9 Physiography

Karnataka 1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 9 Physiography

You can Download Chapter 9 Physiography Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Geography Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

1st PUC Geography Physiography One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the other name to the Himalayas?
Answer:
The Himalayas means‘abode of snow’. Or Young fold mountains’.

Question 2.
Which mountain range is called ‘backbone of Asia’?
Answer:
Karakorum range is called backbone of Asia.

Question 3.
Name the longest and the largest glacier of India.
Answer:
Siachen (70Km) is the longest and largest glacier of India.

Question 4.
What is the other name to Outer Himalayas?
Answer:
Siwahk are called as outer Himalayas.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Name the largest Doon of India.
Answer:
Dehradun is largest Dun of India.

Question 6.
In which regional Himalayas Jclep la pass is found?
Answer:
The Central or Sikkim Himalayas.

Question 7.
What is Terai plain?
Answer:
It is a marshy land wide spread in the regions of excess dampness, thick forests, rich wild life etc. It is found to the south of Bhabar with wide marshy tract, where streams reappear to the surface.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 8.
Mention the highest peak of Peninsular plateau.
Answer:
The highest peak of Peninsular plateau is Anaimudi (2695m) situated in Annamalai hills of Kerala.

Question 9.
Which region of India is called ‘Ruhr of India’?
Answer:
The Chotanagpur plateau is called‘Ruhr of India’.

Question 10.
Where do Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats meet?
Answer:
The Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats meet in Nilgiri Hills

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
Name the longest coastal plains of India.
Answer:
The longest coastal plains of India from Gujarath (Rann of Kutch) in the west to West Bengal In the east, (61 OOKm)

Question 12.
State the location of the Great Indian Desert.
Answer:
The Great Indian Desert is located at the Western part of the Aravali Range.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 13.
Name one important river of the Great Indian Desert.
Answer:
The Luni is the important river among of the Great Indian Desert.

Question 14.
Name the Salt water lake in the Thar Desert.
Answer:
Sambhar Lake is the salt water lake in the Thar Desert.

Question 15.
Name the plateau which lies between the Western and Eastern Ghats of South India.
Answer:
The Deccan plateau lies between the Western and Eastern Ghats of South India.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 16.
Which is the highest peak of India?
Answer:
K2 or Mount Godwin (8611m) is the highest peak of India or Second highest peak of the world.

Question 17.
Which is the highest mountain peak in South India?
Answer:
Anai Mudi (2,695m) in Annamalai hills of Kerala is the highest peak in south India.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 18.
Which is the oldest and largest physiographical division of India?
Answer:
The peninsular plateau (16 lakh sq.km) is the oldest and largest physical division of India.

Question 19.
Which is the highest peak of Eastern Ghats?
Answer:
Mahendragiri in Orissa (1501m.) is the highest peak of Eastern Ghats.

Question 20.
Which island of India is formed with the volcanic activities?
Answer:
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are formed with volcanic activities.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 21.
Which island of India is formed by Corals?
Answer:
The Lakshadweep islands are formed by corals.

Question 22.
Why are the Himalayan Rivers perennial?
Answer:
Most of the Himalayan Rivers originate from the glaciers and they get water from the rainfall as well as from the glaciers.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 23.
From which mountain pass does the river Sutlej enter India?
Answer:
Shipki-la-pass the river Sutlej enters to India.

Question 24.
Which is the longest and the largest tributary of Ganga?
Answer:
The Yamuna is the longest (1380) and largest tributary of the Ganga.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 25.
Which is the largest and longest river of South India?
Answer:
Godavari is the longest (1465km) and largest river of South India

Question 26.
What is Do-ab-region?
Answer:
The region or plain lying between two rivers. Ex: Ganga and Yamuna river is called as Do-ab region.

Question 27.
Which river makes Kapiladhara water fall?
Answer:
Narmada river.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 28.
Which river is called Dakishina Ganga?
Answer:
Kaveri (Cauvery-805 Km)

Question 29.
Which is the Asia’s First hydroelectricity generated station?
Answer:
The first hydro electric project of Asia was started on the river Kaveri in 1902atShivanasamudra (Shimsa).

KSEEB Solutions

Question 30.
Where do river Tungabhadra and Krishna meet?
Answer:
The Tufigabhadra and Krishna meets at Alampur near Kurnool in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 31.
Mention the major stream of river Ganga.
Answer:
The two major streams are Alakananda and Bhagirathi.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 32.
What is Hydel Power?
Answer:
The power generated from water is called the hydel power.

Question 33.
Which rives of India flow in rift valleys?
Answer:
Narmada and Tapi.

Question 34.
Which river is called ‘Sorrow river of Orissa’?
Answer:
Mahanadi river is called‘sarrow river of Orissa’.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 35.
What is a Lake?
Answer:
A water body, completely surrounded by land is known as a lake.

Question 36.
Name some important fresh water lakes of India.
Answer:
Dal Lake, Bhimtal, Nainiral, Loktak and barapani.

Question 37.
Why do many peninsular rivers have straight and linear courses?
Answer:
Because of hard rock bed and lack of silt and sand in their courses. They do not form meanders.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 38.
Which city is located on the water divide between the Indus and Ganga river systems?
Answer:
Amritsar located on the water divide between the Indus and Ganga river systems.

Question 39.
Which place is the confluence of rivers Alkananda and Bhagirathi?
Answer:
Devaprayag.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 40.
Which is the largest freshwater lake in India?
Answer:
Wulur lake is the largest freshwater lake in India.

Question 41.
Which river is called ‘sorrow river of West Bengal’?
Answer:
Damodar River is called Sorrow of West Bengal.

Question 42.
Which river is called ‘National River’?
Answer:
Ganga River is called National River.

KSEEB Solutions

1st PUC Geography Physiography Two Mark Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Name any four tributaries of river Indus.
Answer:
The Sutlej, Ravi, Jhelum, Chenab and the Beas are the major tributaries of Indus river.

Question 2.
Mention any four west flowing rivers of Peninsular India.
Answer:
The Luni, Sabarmati, Tapi, Kali, Sharavathi, Netravati, Peryiar are the major west flowing rivers.

Question 3.
What are the salient features of River regime?
Answer:
The pattern of the seasonal flow of water in a river is called its regime. It is the variability in its discharge throughout the course of a year in response to precipitation, temperature and drainage basin characteristics. The pattern of flow of water in the Himalayan river is different fro the peninsular river due to difference in climate. The Himalayan Rivers are perennial and the regime of the peninsular rivers is seasonal as they are dependent on monsoon rains.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
What is the necessity of Inter-linking of Rivers?
Answer:
The distribution of rainfall in India is highly uneven and seasonal. The Himalayan rivers are perennial while the peninsular rivers are seasonal. During rainy season, much of the water is lost in floods and wasteful flow into the sea. But in other seasons there is scarcity of water. Even in India some parts gets more rainfall and some other parts get very low rainfall. The problems of floods and drought can be minimized through the inter-river linkages or through national water grid, under which water from one river basin can be transferred to another river basin for optimum utilization. ’

Question 5.
Mention the back water lakes of East Coast of India.
Answer:
Pulicat Lake (TN), Kolleru (AP) Chilka (Orissa) are the important back water lakes of India.

Question 6.
What are riverine islands?
Answer:
In the lower course of the river, due to gentle slope, the velocity of the river decreases and it involves into depositional work leading to the formation of rivierine islands. For example, Majuli in the Brahmaputra.

Question 7.
Mention any two ranges of Trans Himalayas.
Answer:
Karakoram range, Ladakh range and Zaskar range.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 8.
Mention any two hill stations of the Himalaya
Answer:
The important hills stations are Shimla, Mussorie, Raniket, Nainital, Almora, Chakrata, Darjeling etc.

Question 9.
Distinguish between Bhangar and Khadar plains.
Answer:
Bhangar Plains: It is an Old Alluvium. It contains the Kankar nodules with calcium carbonates and it is less fertile.
Khadar Plains: It is a new alluvium. It does not contain the kankar nodules and it is very fertile.

Question 10.
Name any two Ghats of the Western Ghats.
Answer:
Thalghat, Bhjorghat, Palghat, Agumbe ghat, Shiradighat, Charmadighat are the major Ghats of the Western Ghats.

Question 11.
Which coastal plains are found in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The Malabar Coast extends from Mangalore to Kanyakumari, Sand dunes, lagoons and backwaters are the important features of this coast.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 12.
State the difference between Lakshadweep and Andaman and Nicobar islands.
Answer:
Lakshadweep Islands: These islands are located to close to the Malabar Coast of Kerala. These are composed of small coral islands. They are small in size as compared to the Andaman and Nicobar islands.

Andaman and Nicobar islands: These are located in the Bay of Bengal. These are bigger in size and are more numerous and scattered. These are islands are an elevated portion of the submarine mountains.

Question 13.
What is ‘Duns’? Mention with examples.
Answer:
In the Siwaliks many flat bottomed valleys are there, they are known as duns. The important duns are Dehradun, Kotadun, and Patili, Chaukambadun in Uttaranchal and Udampur and Kotli in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 14.
Mention the regional divisions of Himalayas
Answer:
The major regional divisions of Himalayas are:

  1. Punjab Himalayas (Sindhu-Sutlej)
  2. Kumaon Himalayas (Sutlej-Kali)
  3. Nepal Himalayas (Kali-Tista)
  4. Assam Himalayas (Tista-Brahmaputra)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
Mention the Central Plateaus of India?
Answer:
The central plateaus are Malwa plateau, Bundhel Khand plateau, Bhagelkhand, ChotaNagpur and Ranchi plateau.

Question 16.
Which are the important valleys passes in Himalayas?
Answer:
Zojila and Burzil in Kashmir, Shipkila and Bralapcha la in Himachal Pradesh. Thang la, niti and lipu lekh in uttarPradesh,jelep laandNiithu lain Sikkim.

Question 17.
Write any four characteristics of the Indian desert.
Answer:

  • It lies towards the western margins of the Aravalli hills.
  • It is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes.
  • This region receives very low rainfall below 150mm per year.
  • It has arid climate with a low vegetation cover.
  • Streams appear during the rainy season.
  • Luni is the only river in this region
  • The Barchans cover larger areas but longitudinal dunes become more prominent near the Indo-Pakistan border.

KSEEB Solutions

1st PUC Geography Physiography Five Mark Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Name the important physical divisions of India. Explain the Himalayas.
Answer:
India is characterized by great diversity in its physical features. On the basis of physiography, the country is divided in to four major physical divisions. They are:

  1. The Northern Mountains
  2. The Northern Plains
  3. The Peninsular Plateau
  4. The Coastal Plains and Islands

The Himalayas: This is loftiest and snow covered mountains in the world. The area occupied by the Himalayas was earlier a part of ‘Tethys Sea’. The formation of this mountain is by tectonic forces of Gondawana land Angara land masses. It is situated to the north of the Indus and Ganga and the Brahmaputra plains.. The slopes of the Himalayas are gentle towards the north and steep towards south.

The Himalayas have distinct characteristics of high relief, snow covered peaks, complex geographical structures, parallel separated by deep valleys and rich temperate vegetation.The Himalayas are classified into three parallel ranges based on altitude and latitude.

The Great Himalayas or Himadri The lesser Himalayas or Himachal The Outer Himalayas or Siwaliks.

a. The Great Himalayas or Himadri: These are the inner most loftiest and continuous ranges of mountains. The average height of the Great Himalayas is 6200 m and the width varies between 120 and 190 km. The important peaks of great Himalayas in India are, Kanchenjunga-8598m in Sikkim, Nanga Prabat-8126m, Nandadevi, Badrinath, Karmet, Trishuletc.

b. The lesser Himalayas or Himachal: These ranges are also known as Inner Himalayas or Himachal ranges. It is situated between great Himalayas inn the north and Outer Himalayas or Siwaliks in the south. Its average height is around 1500-4500m and the width is about 60 to 80 km. These are very rugged and complex ranges due to erosion by rivers. The important ranges in Lesser Himalayas are Pirpanjal, Dhaul Dhar and nag- tiba etc. The important Hill stations are Shimla, Musooire, Ranikeht, Nainital, Almora, Chakrata, Darjeeling etc. Kulu valley, Kangra valley, Spiti valley are the famous valleys of Himachal.

c. The Outer Himalayas or Siwaliks: These are the outer most ranges situated to the south of Lesser Himalayas, known as Siwaliks. The Siwaliks extend from Jammu & Kashmir in the North West to Arunachal Pradesh in east. The average height of this range is around 600-1500m and its width varies between 15-5Qklm. The siwaliks are formed from the sediments brought down by the rivers of lesser, and Greater Himalayas.

There are flat floored structure valleys between Siwaliks and Lesser Himalayas, Known as Siwaliks. The Siwaliks extend from Jammu&Kashmir in the North West to Arunchal Pradesh in east.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Briefly explain the Regional Himalayas.
Answer:
The Himalayas are also classified into Regional and Longitudinal divisions. They are:
The Kashmir Himalayas The Himachal Himalayas The Kumaun Himalayas The Central or Sikkim Himalayas The Eastern Himalayas.

a. The Kashmir Himalayas: They are spread over in Jammu and Kashmir for about 700sqkm. The important parallel ranges in the Kashmir Himalaya are Karakoram, Ladak, Zaskar and Pirpanjal. They are characterized by high snow covered peaks, largest number of glaciers, deep valleys and High Mountain passes. The north-eastern part of the Kashmir Himalayas is a cold region and it lies between the Grater Himalayas and the Karakorum ranges. A special feature of the Kashmir valley is the Karewas. The important mountain passes are Banihal, zoji-la, Chang-la, Khardung-la etc.

b. The Himachal Himalayas: It is found in Himachal Pradesh and parts of Punjab, comprising of all the three ranges. The beautiful valleys of Kullu, Kangra, Lahul and Spiti known for orchards and scenic beauty are found here. Shipkila, Rohtang, bara- lacha la are the famous mountain passes and Kullu manali, shimla, Dalhousie, Chama etc.

c. The Kumaun Himalayas: This section extends from Sutlej to kali river valleys and has distance of320kms. The pilgrimage centers like Badrinath and Gangothri are located in this section of Himalayas.

d. The Central or Sikkim Himalayas: This section extends from kali to Tista and has a distance of about 800kms. It is also called as Nepal Himalaya. Mount Everest is located in this 3sectino of Himalaya. This section is further divided for the study into Sikkim, Darjeeling and Bhutan Himalayas.

e. The Eastern Himalayas: This range extends from Tista to Brahmaputra valley covering the states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. The width is about 730 kms Naga and Patkaibhum hills are located in this section. This region is very important for tea cultivation.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Describe the significance of Northern Plains.
Answer:

  • The Northern Plain plays a very significant role in the life of the people and economy of the country.
  • The Northern plains have high concentration of population 45% of India’s population.
  • They are helpful for agro-based industries and urbanization.
  • The northern plains have fertile soil, uniform surface and perennial rivers-suitable for agriculture.
  • The plains have encouraged the development of transport and communication.
  • The rivers in the plain help in the development of inland water transportation.
  • It has rich underground water, useful for irrigation and other activities.
  • It has cultural and traditional importance.
  • They have great social, religious and political significance.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
Peninsular Plateau is the largest physical divisions of India. Explain its features.
Answer:
The Peninsular Plateau is the largest and oldest physiographic division of India. It lies to the south of the Northern Great Plains and covers and area of about 161akh sq km. The elevation of this upland varies from 600 to 90m. This is in inverted triangle shape, with wide base lying in the north and the apex formed in the south, with tilt towards south eat.

It is bounded by the Aravallis in the North West, Bundelkhand plateau in the north, Rajmahal hills in the north east, the Western Ghats in the west and the Eastern Ghats in the east. The highest peak of Peninsular plateau is Anaimudi (2695 m) situated in Annamali hills of Kerala.

On the basis of relief features the peninsular plateau is divided into two main divisions. They are, The Central high lands: This is a smaller region of peninsular plateau situated to the north of the Narmada river. It is slightly tilted towards north. It include the Aravallies, the Malwa plateau, the Vindhya range, the Bundelkhand, the Baghelkhand and Chotanagpur plateau and Rajmahal hills.

The Aravallies runs from north east to south west for about 8900 km between Delhi to Gujarat. It is one of the oldest folded mountains of the world. Its highest peak is Guru Shikar (1722m). It separates Rajasthan- upland and agricultural region. The Aravallis are composed of quatizetes, gneisses and schists.

Rivers like the Luni, Sabarmati and the mahi flow from Aravalli ranges. The Malwa plateau is bordered by the Aravallis in the north and the vindyan range in the south. This plateau has to drainage systems i) Narmada and Mahi towards the Arabian Sea ii) Chambal, Sind, Betwa and Ken towards the Bay of Bengal. ’

The vindyan range extends in ease west direction for about 1050km. The kaimur hills lies in the east of Vindhya range and the Maikala range forms a link between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges.

The Deccan Plateau: this is a triangular plateau situated to the south of the river Tapi or Tapti. The Deccan trap is the crystalline core of the lava effusions forming this plateau are believed to have occurred through a fissure volcano and this region is considered a lava shield. It occupies the areas of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and parts of Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Tamil Nadu.

Eastern Ghats: They form eastern boundary of the Deccan Plateau. They are “separated by the river valleys. The Eastern Ghats stretch to 800 km from Mahanadi valley in the north to Nilgiri hills in the south. Its average height is around 600m.Nallamalla, Kallamalai, B.R.Hills and M.M.Hilis are the important hills of Eastern Ghats.

The important peaks are Aramakonda, Singaraju, Nimalgiri, Mahendra giri etc. Aramakonda is considered as the highest peak of the Eastern Ghats. These zones are rich in Iron ore, Manganese ore, Limestone, Coal, Mica etc.

Western Ghats: It is also known as Sahyadris. They are almost continuous mountain system running parallel to west coast for about 1600km., from north-west to south direction. The Western Ghats meet the Eastern Ghats in Nilgiri hills.

The Western Ghats form a watershed of the peninsular rivers. Important rivers like the Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri, Sharavati, Periyar etc, rise in this zone. They are sources of hydro¬electricity. They are covered with dense evergreen and monsoon forest and rich bio-diversity zones.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Briefly explain the Coastal plains of India.
Answer:
This is the region all along the Indian coastline, lying between the coast and the mountain ranges of the peninsular plateau. India has 6100 km from Gujarat in the west to West Bengal in the east. The average width is 10-25 kms. The coastal plain of India is divided into two parts.

The West Coastal plains: It is extends between the Arabian Sea and the Western Ghats. It is narrower than the east coastal plains, stretching to a length of about 1400km and width of 10 to 80km from the Rann of katchchh to Kanyakumari. The west coastal plains have Gujarat, Konkan, Karnataka and Malabar Coasts.

The Gujarat Coast comprises of Rann of Kachchh and Cambay coasts. It is formed by the alluvial deposits of Sabarmati, Mahi, Luni and other small streams. Gujarat has the longest coastline in India Kandla and okha are famous sea ports and along is the biggest ship breaking center. It produces highest salt in the country.

Konkan Coast lies to the south of Gujarat coast and extends line which provides suitable site for natural seaports. Eg: Mumbai, Navasheva, Marmagoa, Karwar, New Mangalore etc., this coast records highest coastal erosion. It is very rich in Petroleum and natural gas. Karnataka coast: it is a part of Konkan coast.

It extends from karwar in the north to Mangalore in the south. It is the narrowest part of west coastal plains. Karwar and New Mangalore are important ports in this belt. Sea Bird, the naval base near Karwar is the largest naval base in India.

The Malabar Coast extends from Mangalore to Kanyakumari, Sand dunes, lagoons and backwaters are the important features of this coast. Cochin or Kochi is the biggest seaport in this coast. Backwaters of Kerala facilitate navigation and tourists enjoy traveling though small country boats. The first south west monsoon rainfall is received in this coast.

East coastal Plains: It lies between the Ea’stern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal stretching from the delta of Hooghly in the North to Kanyakumari in the south. Compared to the west coastal plains the east coastal plains are broader.

The Tatkal Coast: It is the coastal plain of Orissa state. It extend for about 400kmms, north from Subarnarekha river to south of the Rushikulya river. It has a chilka lake, which is the largest salt water lake in India, Para deep is the important horbour located here.

Coromandel Coast: The southern part of east coast is known as the Coromandel Coast. It gets more rainfall from the north east monsoons and it is highly affected by cyclones. The oldest harbor Chennai located here.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Describe the important features of Islands and Indian desert.
Answer:
India has a total of 247 islands. Ofthese204 are in the Bay of Bengal and the remaining 43are in the Arabian Sea. The islands of the Bay of Bengal are called Andaman and Nicobar islands, which are largely tectonic and volcanic in origin. In Andaman there are four groups of islands – North Andaman, Middle Andaman, South Andaman and Little Andaman, Port Blair the capital of Andaman and Nicobar Group Island is situated in South Andaman islands. Barren and Narcondam are famous volcanic islands in this group.

Nicobar are three groups of islands – Car Nicobar, Little Nicobar and Great Nicobar. The Andaman and Nicobar islands have warm tropical climate and receive heavy rainfall during monsoon seasons and they have thick forest and rich wildlife.

The islands of the Arabian Sea are called Lakshadweep Islands. These islands are very close top Kerala. These are coral in origin and are surrounded by fringing reefs. Kavarati is the capital of Lakshadweep islands. Minicoy and Amnidivi are the important groups in Lakshadweep.

Indian Desert: It lies to the west of the Aravallis. This desert is formed by the work of wind and climatic extremities. The total area of the desert is around 1, 75,000 sq.km. Rajasthan, parts of Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana come under Thar Desert.

The desert proper or central region of the desert is called ‘Marustali’. The atmospheric condition I the desert is extreme. During summer temperature exceeds 50° C and in winter it comes down to 10° C and below. Ganganagar of Rajasthan has recorded more than 54° C of temperature. The rainfall in the desert is very low. Roylee, a place in North Rajasthan, recorded the lowest rainfall in the country (8cm per year). Indian desert comprises mainly of sand dunes. There are a few salt lakes in the desert like Sambhar, Tal, Katu and it has thin vegetation.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
Compare the North Indian rivers with South Indian Rivers.
Answer:
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 9 Physiography 1

Question 8.
Why does River water dispute arise? Mention the important disputes and proposed measures.
Answer:
Water dispute means any dispute or difference between two or more state governments with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter State River or river valley. Water, being the most precious resource is required for domestic, irrigation and industrial purposes. Most of the Indian rivers flow across more than one state. Each of the state of the river tries to obtain the maximum quantity of water. This has resulted in many water disputes in the country.

Some of the important inter state water disputes water disputes in India are:

1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 9 Physiography 2
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 9 Physiography 3

International water disputes:

1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 9 Physiography 4

In the recent years the rivers flowing across more than two countries are also creating trouble between the neighbouring countries. At present river water dispute has become a global phenomenon. In the developing countries like India the inter-state dispute must be resolved quickly so that water resources could be utilized and harnesses properly for basic need and economic development. One of the measures could be to declare all the major rivers as national property and national schemes under Central assistance should be launched for the development of total command area of the concerned states.

Interlinking of Rivers are played a significant role to solve the water dispute. The distribution of rainfall in India is highly uneven and seasonal. The problems of floods and drought can be minimized through the inter-river linkages or through national water grid, under which water from one river basin can be transferred to another river basin for optimum utilization.

The important inter-linking projects proposed are:

  1. The Ganga-Kaveri link canal connecting the basins of the son, Narmada, Tapti, Godavari, Krishna and Pennar.
  2. The Brahmaputra- Ganga link canal passing through Bangladesh.
  3. The Narmada canal passing through Gujarat and Rajasthan.
  4. The link canals between the rivers of the Western Ghats towards the east.
  5. The canal from the Chambal to central Rajasthan.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Briefly explain the importance of Inter-linking of Rivers in India.
Answer:
The distribution of rainfall in India is highly uneven and seasonal. The Himalayan rivers are perennial while the peninsular rivers are seasonal. During rainy season, much of the water is lost in floods and wasteful flow into the sea. But in other seasons there is scarcity of water.

Even in India some parts get more rainfall and some other parts get very low rainfall. Consequently there are floods in one region and drought and famine in other regions in the country. The problems of floods and drought can be minimized through the inter-river linkages or through national water grid, under which water from one river basin can be transferred to another river basin for optimum utilization.

The inter-link would consist of two parts, a northern Himalayan River Development component and a southern peninsular river development component. The northern component would consist of series of dams built along the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers in India, for the purposes of storage, canals would be built to transfer surplus water from the astern tributaries of the Ganga to the west. The Brahmaputra and its tributaries would be linked with the Ganga and the Ganga with the Mahanadi river. This part of the project would provide additional irrigation and generate electricity.

Question 10.
Differentiate between East flowing rivers and West flowing rivers.
Answer:
1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 9 Physiography 5

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1st PUC Geography Physiography Ten Mark Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Explain the river system of India with suitable maps. (T.B.Qn)
Answer:
On the basis of origin and flow the river system of India can be broadly divided into two groups. They are.

  1. The Himalayan Rivers or North Indian Rivers
  2. The Peninsular Rivers or South Indian rivers.

A. The Himalayan Rivers: These rivers take birth in Himalayan Mountains by glaciers and flows throughout the year (perennial). There are three main river systems in the Himalayan rivers. They are the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.

1. The Indus river system: The Indus is one of the most important river systems of India. It rises near Mt. Kailash (6714m), has a length of 2880km, of which 709 km lies in India. It flows through narrow gorges between Ladakh and Zaskar ranges in the North West direction in Jammu & Kashmir. It is one of the oldest river systems of the world. Major part of its course and catchment area are in Pakistan. The main tributaries are Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutluj.

2. The Ganga: The Ganga is the longest (2500Km) and the largest river system of the country. It is generally called, the ‘National river’ of India. The Ganga has two head streams-the Bhagirathi and the Alakananda. The Bhagirathi takes it is birth in Gangothri and Alakananda rises near Badrinath in Garhwal Himalayas. These two meet at Devaprayag, and continue to flow as the Ganga, after flowing across the Himalayas; the Ganga enters the Great Plains at haridwar. From Haridwar it flows towards south an south east up to Mirzapur.

It continues to flow eastwards in the Gangetic plains of Bihar and West Bengal and enters Bangladesh, where it joins the Brahmaputra and become padma, and finally flows into Bay of Bengal. The important tributaries of Ganga are Ramganga, Ghagra, Gandak, Gomati, Bagmati, Kosi, Yamuna, Chambal, Betwa, sone, ken, damodar etc.

3. The Brahmaputra river system: It rises at Manasarovar lake (chanmyandung). In Tibet it is known as Tsangpo. It enters Aruncal Pradesh and is known as Brahmaputra. It joins Ganga at Golunde (Bangladesh). The total length it flows is 2900km. and only 885km. in India. In Bangladesh it is called Meghana.

B. Peninsular Rivers: The peninsular plateau of India has the largest network of river systems in the country. Most of the south Indian rivers rise in the Western Ghats and central highland regions. On the basis of the direction of flow the rivers are grouped into two types.

  1. The East flowing rivers.
  2. The west flowing rivers.

B. 1 The East flowing rivers: These rivers rise in Peninsular region, flow in eastern direction and Finally join the Bay of Bengal. The important east flowing rivers are:

The Mahanadi: It rises in sihawa or simhava region of Chattisharh and is the most important river of Odisha and Chattishgarh. The river flows to a length of 885 km and joins the Bay of Bengal ear Cuttack. The main tributaries of Mahanadi are Seonath, hasdeo, Mand and Jonk. The Hirakud, Naraj, Tikarapara dams are built across this river.

The Godavari: it is the longest and largest river of Peninsular India. It rises at Triambakeshwar in Nasik district of Maharashtra. It flows though Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh to length of 1465km and joins the Bay of Bengal near Kakinada. The main tributaries of Godavari are the Puma, Penganga, Pranhita, Sabri, Indravathi and Manjra.

1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 9 Physiography 6

The Krishna: The Krishna is the second longest and largest east flowing river of peninsular India. It rises near Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra, flows to a length of 140-0 km before joining the Bay of Bengal near Divi point. The koyna, Yerla, Panchaganga, Dudhganga, Bhima, Ghataprabha, malaprabha, Tungabhadra and the Musi are the main tributaries.

The Kaveri: The kaveri is a sacred river like the Ganga. It rises Talcauvery region in the Brahmagiri range of Coorg district in Karnataka state. If flows for a length of 805 kms before falling into the Bay of Bengal near Kaveripattinam. It drains an area of 87,900 sq.kms. Its main tributaries are Arkavathi, Hemavathi, Harangi, Lokapvani, Shimsa, Lakshmanathirtha, Kabini, Suvarnavathi, Bhavani, and Amaravathi.

B.2 West flowing rivers: These rivers rise in the peninsular region, flow in western direction and join the Arabian Sea. These are short and swift rivers are the luni, sabrmati, mahi, Narmada, Tapi, Mandovi, Zuari, kali, sharavvathi, Gangavati, Bedthi, Netravathi, and Periyar etc.

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