Class 8

Students can Download English Lesson 4 Anandi Gopal Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 English Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Board Class 8 English Prose Chapter 4 Anandi Gopal

Anandi Gopalh Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Pre – Reading Task:

Given below are the names of some of the Indian women who are considered great because of their service to India. Identify them and match them their description.

1. The fierce patriot who first unfurled India’s flag at an international assembly. – Madam Cama

2. Young Margaret Noble came under the spell of Swami Vivekananda. She came from distant Ireland to India to serve the people of this land. – Aruna Asaf Ali

3. Jawaharlal Nehru’s sister entered the non-co-operation movement. She was the first woman in India to hold a ministerial rank. – Indira Gandhi

4. Born in a Bengali family, graduated and worked as a teacher. She was an active member of the Congress party. – Sister Nivedita

5. She was undoubtedly one of the greatest political leaders of India. She was the first and the only woman to be elected as the Prime Minister. – Vijayalakshmi Pandit
Answer:

1. Madam Cama
2. Sister Nivedita
3. Vijayalakshmi Pandit
4. Aruna Asaf Ali
5. Indira Gandhi.

I. Comprehension:

A. Answer the following in two or three sentences each:

Question 1.
Who was Gopal Rao? How can you say that he was a progressive thinker?
Answer:
Gopal Rao was Anandibai’s husband. He was an ardent supporter of widow remarriage and women’s education.

Question 2.
“I decided that I would like to be a doctor”. What made Anandibai decide this?
Answer:
In those days there were no female doctors in our country. Moreover, Anandibai had lost her infant son when she was fourteen years old. So, she decided to become a doctor.

Question 3.
How did Mrs. Carpenter help Anandibai pursue her studies in medicine?
Answer:
Mrs. Carpenter of Roselle, was moved byAnandibai’s story. She offered to host her in the U.S.A.

Question 4.
How did the Superintendent and the Secretary of the college help Anandibai?
Answer:
The Superintendent and the Secretary were very kind to Anandibai. They offered her a scholarship of $600 for the three years.

Question 5.
Describe the college room provided to Anandibai.
Answer:
The room provided to Anandibai at the college did not have a proper fireplace. It gave out a lot of smoke when lit.

Question 6.
Why did Anandibai stay in Pune?
Answer:
Anandibai was suffering from tuberculosis. She stayed at her cousin’s place in Pune to receive treatment from a famous Ayurvedic specialist.

B. Answer the following in about six sentences each:

Question 1.
Explain how Gopal Rao encouraged Anandibai to become a doctor.
Answer:
Gopal Rao taught his wife at the beginning. He found she was making rapid progress. He encouraged her to go for higher studies. Anandibai decided to become a doctor, because, she had lost her son and there were no women doctors in those days.Gopal Rao tried very hard and got her admitted to a University in America. He helped her to complete her medical degree.

Question 2.
What were the things which Anandibai found strange in America?
Answer:
Anandibai went to America in June 1883 and stayed in the house of the Carpenters. The Carpenters found it odd that Anandibai did not sit down on a chair when Mr. Carpenter was in the room. Her dressing style, vegetarian diet also surprised them. Anandibai was astonished that the people there did not bathe every day.

Question 3.
How did Anandibai face the alien culture and cold winter?
Answer:
Anandibai found it difficult to adapt herself to the conditions in America. Her room did not have a good fireplace, it discharged a lot of smoke when lit. She had to make a choice between smoke and cold. She tried to go to another place, but no one was ready to rent a place to a brown Hindu girl. She found it difficult to adjust to the changing weather. She began to have cough and high fever frequently. But, her perseverance made her face the cold winter and complete her medical course successfully.

Question 4.
Describe Anandi’s journey back to India.
Answer:
The weather in the U.S.A. took its toll on Anandibai.* She developed tuberculosis. She always suffered from high fever and cough. Her husband admitted her to the Women’s Hospital in Philadelphia. The doctors advised her to go back to India. During the voyage the ship’s doctors refused to treat a brown woman. This further deteriorated her health. On reaching India, she stayed at Pune to receive treatment from a famous Ayurvedic specialist. But he refused saying, she had crossed the boundaries of society. On February 26, 1887, Anandibai succumbed to her disease.

Question 5.
Describe the great qualities of Anandibai that you like the most.
Answer:
Anandibai was married when she was only nine years old. Her husband Gopal Rao was an ardent supporter of women’s education. He taught her at the beginning. She was intelligent and made rapid progress. She lost her son to a disease when she was fourteen and decided to become a doctor.

She and her husband had to take a lot of opposition and criticism but, she had the courage to go to the U.S.A. and pursue her studies. The weather was not conducive to her. Still, she determined to face it and complete her studies. Her grit, her courage and her perseverance are the qualities that every one of us should develop.

C. Answer the following in about ten sentences each:

Question 1.
How did Anandibai become a doctor in spite of the obstacles she faced?
Answer:
In those days there were no women doctors in our country. Anandibai’s son died of some disease. She decided to become a doctor. She succeeded in getting a seat in a university in the U.S.A. She went alone and stayed with the Carpenters. She tried to adapt herself to the new conditions. But, she could not tolerate the cold winter. Her room did not have a good fireplace, it discharged smoke when lit. She had to live in the same room for two years because, no one was ready to rent a room to a brown Hindu girl. The cold and smoke affected her health. Her health gradually worsened. She managed to complete her medical course successfully in spite of all these obstacles.

Question 2.
Anandibai is an inspiration to Indian girls to this day. Discuss.
Answer:
Anandibai was a Brahmin girl. She was the first Indian v/woman to receive education abroad and to obtain a medical degree. She faced a number of obstacles, but she was able to withstand all the opposition and criticism to achieve her goal. She is an inspiration to Indian girls from all walks of life. Her hard work, determination and perseverance make us believe that in spite of hardships our dreams are achievable. Each of us has the potential to achieve whatever we wish to. Anandibai’s great qualities are worth emulating.

II. A. Say whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the false statements.

1. Gopal Rao opposed widow remarriage and women’s education.
Answer:
False.
Gopal Rao staunchly supported widow remarriage and women’s education.

2. In those days husbands taught their wives.
Answer:
False.
After marriage Gopal Rao taught his wife.

3. The childhood name of Anandi was Yamunabai.
Answer:
False.
The childhood name of Anandi was Yamuna Joshi.

4. Anandibai decided to become a doctor because there were no female doctors at that time.
Answer:
True.

5. Anandibai was one of the few female doctors of that day.
Answer:
False.
Anandibai was the only female doctor at that time.

6. Anandibai stayed in Pune to receive honours from the people.
Answer:
False.
Anandibai stayed in Pune to receive treatment from an Ayurvedic specialist.

B. Arrange the above corrected sentences according to their sequence in the lesson.
Answer:

1. The childhood name of Anandi was Yamuna Joshi.
2. Gopal Rao staunchly supported widow remarriage and women’s education.
3. After marriage Gopal Rao taught his wife.
4. Anandibai decided to become a doctor because there were no female doctors at that time.
5. Anandibai was the only female doctor at that time.
6. Anandibai stayed in Pune to receive treatment from an Ayurvedic specialist.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions/ incomplete statements. Choose the most appropriate alternative.

Question 1.
‘Anandi Gopal’ is a/an
A) biography
B) autobiography
C) play
D) novel
Answer:
B) autobiography

Question 2.
Anandi Joshi was
A) the first Indian woman to receive education
B) the first married Indian woman to go abroad
C) the first woman doctor to receive treatment from an ayurvedic specialist
D) the first Indian woman to obtain a medical degree
Answer:
D) the first Indian woman to obtain a medical degree

Question 3.
Anandi Gopal was born in
A) Kalyan
B) Kolhapur
C) Poona
D) Mumbai
Answer:
A) Kalyan

Question 4.
Yamuna Joshi’s name was changed to Anandi because
A) she became a doctor
B) she went abroad for higher studies
C) she got married
D) she would otherwise not be admitted to any university in America.
Answer:
C) she got married

Question 5.
Anandi decided to become a doctor because
A) in those days there were no female doctors in our country
B) she wanted to go to America
C) her husband forced her to become a doctor
D) her husband was a supporter of women’s education
Answer:
A) in those days there were no female doctors in our country

Question 6.
Anandi had to leave for America alone
A) as they had no money to support both herself and her husband
B) as her husband did not want to cross the boundaries of society
C) as her husband was unable to get a job there
D) as her husband had to face a lot of opposition and criticism.
Answer:
C) as her husband was unable to get a job there

Question 7.
Which of the following about Anandi was not strange to the Carpenters?
A) She wouldn’t sit on a chair when Mr. Carpenter was in the room.
B) She wore clothes different from theirs.
C) She did not eat non-vegetarian food.
D) None of these.
Answer:
D) None of these.

Question 8.
Anandi wanted to change her room at the college because
A) the room did not have a proper fireplace
B) she had to choose between smoke and fire
C) she was a brown, Hindu girl
D) she had constant temperature and cough
Answer:
A) the room did not have a proper fireplace

Question 9.
Anandi got a standing ovation at the convocation because
A) she had somehow scraped through the final exams
B) she had come to study braving poverty and opposition
C) she had become a doctor despite her poor health
D) she was the first woman doctor of India
Answer:
D) she was the first woman doctor of India

Question 10.
Anandi was diagnosed with
A) temperature
B) cold and cough
C) tuberculosis
D) cancer
Answer:
C) tuberculosis

Question 11.
Anandi stayed at her cousin’s place in Pune
A) because she did not want to go home
B) to receive treatment from a renowned ayurvedic specialist
C) as she had to go back to America immediately
D) because she wanted to set up practice in Pune
Answer:
B) to receive treatment from a renowned ayurvedic specialist

Question 12.
The Maharashtra government has recognized the achievements of Anandi by
A) providing scholarships for girls going abroad for higher studies
B) honoring her husband
C) providing free education to girls
D) instituting a Fellowship in her name
Answer:
D) instituting a Fellowship in her name

Question 13.
We can say that Gopal Rao was a progressive thinker because
A) he sent his wife abroad for higher studies
B) he was a supporter of widow remarriage and women’s education
C) he stayed back in India to fight for women’s education
D) he tried to enroll his wife in the missionary schools
Answer:
B) he was a supporter of widow remarriage and women’s education

Question 14.
Mrs. Carpenter helped Anandi pursue her studies by
A) hosting her in the U.S.A.
B) providing her a room to stay in
C) offering her a scholarship
D) taking care of her as if she were her own daughter
Answer:
A) hosting her in the U.S.A.

Question 15.
The college room provided toAnandi
A) had no door or windows
B) did not have a fireplace
C) did not have a proper fireplace
D) was always full of smoke
Answer:
C) did not have a proper fireplace

III. Vocabulary:

A. Match the words with their meanings:

A	B
1. alien	a. clothes
2. attire	b. surprise
3. cemetery	c. a large formal assembly of great people
4. convocation	d. attraction
5. missionary	e. a financial aid given to support a student’s education
6. astonish	f. a large burial ground
7. scholarship	g. unfamiliar
	h. a person sent on a religious mission

Answer:
1 – g, 2 – a, 3 – f, 4 – c, 5 – h, 6 – b, 7 – e.

B. Fill in the blanks choosing the correct phrases given in brackets:

(in front of, a lot of, used to, moved by, to take care of)

1. Women in olden days did not sit ……………… their husbands.
2. Mrs. Carpenter was ………….. the correspondence and wrote me a letter.
3. The fireplace emitted ……………… smoke.
4. Anandi got ………… hard work.
5. Mavashi ……….. me like her own daughter.
6. Anandi faced ………… opposition and criticism.

Answer:

1. in front of
2. moved by
3. a lot of
4. used to
5. took care of
6. a lot of.

C. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verbs given in brackets:

My husband…….. a ………. (try) very hard to get me admitted to some university in America. Mrs. Carpenter ………. b …….(come) to know my story and ………. c ………. (write) me a letter. She ………….. d ………. (offer) to host me in the USA. Since Gopal Rao ………. e ……… (be) not able to get a job there, we ……….. f ……….. (decide) that I should leave for America alone. I ………… g …………. (reach) America in June 1883. In America there …………. h ……… (be) many things that I ………… i …………. (think) ………. j ………… (be) strange.
Answer:
a – tried
b – came
c – wrote
d – offered
e – was
f – decided
g – reached
h – were
i – thought
j – were.

IV. Grammar:

A. Fill in the blanks with ‘a’, ‘an’, ‘the’:

a. I love ………… flowers in your garden.
b. I always listen to ……….. radio in the morning.
c. Let’s sing ………. song.
d. Pawan has ……… old bike.
e. Look! There is ……………. bird flying.
f. Loch Ness is ……….. most famous lake in Scotland.
g. …………. summer of 1996 was hot and dry.
h. I need …………… blue pen.
i. Leipzig has …………… airport.
j. My father is ……………. honest person.
Answer:
a – the, b – the, c – a, d – an, e – a, f – the, g – The, h – a, i – an, j – an.

V. Pronouns:

A. Fill in the blanks with suitable personal pronouns.

1. Where do ………. come from?
2. These cars are ……….. .
3. She and ………. sister have decided to become teachers.
4. The horse fell down and broke ………. leg.
5. If I had seen ………. I wouldn’t do it.
6. Shankar is honest and sincere. Everyone likes ………. .
7. ………… wants to go to his village.
8. In the beginning …………….. husband tried to enroll ………… in the missionary school.
9. This is …………. book.
10. I met a boy. ………. was very kind.

Answer:

1. you
2. mine
3. her
4. its
5. it/him/her/you/ them
6. him
7. He
8. her, her
9. his
10. He.

VI. Appreciation:

A. Write a letter to your friend describing the qualities you liked most in Anandi Gopal.

1727, Durga Road
Akshay Nagar
Mysore
July 10, 2017

Dear Smita,
It has been a long time since I wrote to you. How are you? I am keeping good health. The reason for writing this letter is to tell you about Dr. Anandi Gopal, a great lady whose life has left a great impression on me. In my English textbook, there is a lesson about her.

Do you know she was the first woman from India to get a medical degree from a university in America? She was born in a poor family. She did not have proper early education. She got married at the age of nine. But, with the help of her husband she studied well and decided to become a doctor. She wanted to help women, because there were no female doctors in India at that time. She went to America, faced many difficulties. But, her determination helped her through. She became the first woman doctor of India. The cold weather and smoke affected her health. She contracted tuberculosis. She returned home and succumbed to her disease at the age of twenty-two.

Her desire to help women, her grit and determination to face problems in an alien country are really great. She has shown us how we can achieve our goals if we believe in our abilities. Hence, I was greatly impressed by her. She was a great personality, wasn’t she? What do you think of her?
With all the good wishes,

Your’s affectionately
Sumana

Anandi Gopal Summary in English

Anandibai was born on March 31, 1865 in Kalyan, Mumbai. Her childhood name was Yamuna Joshi. When she was nine years old, she was married and her name was changed to Anandi. Her husband, Gopal Rao, was a broadminded man. He staunchly supported widow re-marriage and women’s education. Since Anandi was not properly educated, he started teaching her. At first he tried to enroll her in the missionary schools, but that did not work out.

When Anandi made rapid progress, Gopal Rao persuaded her to study further. There were no female doctors in India then. Moreover, Anandibai had lost her young son when she was fourteen. So, she decided to become a doctor. Gopal Rao tried hard to get her a seat in an American University.

Mrs. Carpenter of Roselle, New Jersey, came to know of Anandibai’s story by chance. She offered to host her in the U.S.A. Since Gopal Rao could not find a job in America, Anandi left for America alone, despite opposition and criticism. She reached America in June 1883 and stayed in the house of the Carpenters.

Anandibai found many things strange in America. Their dress, their lifestyle, food habits were quite different. She was surprised when she found that they did not take bath every day. In the same way, the Carpenters found Anandibai’s dress, her vegetarian diet, her customs very strange.

In spite of the differences Mrs. Carpenter took care of Anandibai like her own daughter. Anandibai joined the Women’s College in Philadelphia. The Superintendent and the Secretary were very kind to her, when they came to know that she had come from India to study braving poverty and opposition from her people. They offered her a scholarship of six hundred dollars for three years.

The college room in which she stayed was not good. It did not have a proper fireplace and ventilation. The fireplace discharged a lot of smoke when lit. Anandibai tried to shift to a different place, but, people refused to rent a room to a brown Hindu girl. Hence, she was forced to stay in the same room. Cold and smoke affected her health very badly. She suffered from high temperature and chronic cough. Somehow she managed to complete her education and received the medical degree. She was hailed as the first woman doctor of India.

It was one of the most rewarding moments of her life. As the days progressed, her health deteriorated. Gopal Rao admitted her to the Women’s Hospital in Philadelphia. There they diagnosed that she had tuberculosis. The doctors advised her to return to India. Her voyage back home further damaged her health. The doctors on the ship refused to treat a brown woman.

After reaching India, she stayed with her cousin in Pune to receive treatment from an Ayurvedic specialist. But, he also refused to treat her for she had gone against the customs and traditions of Indian society. Anandibai was frustrated because all her achievements had become useless. She breathed her last on February 26, 1887.

People mourned her death throughout India. Her ashes were sent to Mrs. Carpenter, who kept them in her family cemetery. Anandibai’s life and achievements have inspired many young women. She has made us believe in our potentialities, and that we can achieve our goals despite adverse situations and circumstances. The Government of Maharashtra has founded a Fellowship in her honour for young women working on women’s health.

Glossary:

rapid – happening at a great speed
acquire – come to have
trial – something that tests a person’s endurance or patience
tribulation – trouble, suffering
astonish – surprise very greatLy
impress – cause or feel admiration
poverty – a state of being poor
wonder – a feeling of surprise
emit – give out, discharge
in vain – without success
toll – damage resulting from something
renowned – the state of being famous
frustrate – prevent from succeeding
cemetery – a Large burial ground

Students can Download English Lesson 6 The Model Millionaire Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 English Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Board Class 8 English Prose Chapter 6 The Model Millionaire

The Model Millionaire Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Pre-Reading Task:

Question 1.
What makes a person rich and successful? Is it luck or hard work?
Answer:
A person becomes rich and successful by hard work. We can say that 99% hard work and 1% luck makes a person reach great heights.

Question 2.
“One can afford to be generous only if one is rich”. Do you agree/disagree with this statement? Give reasons.
Answer:
I do not agree with the statement “One can afford to be generous only if one is rich”. It is not money which makes people benevolent and charitable. It is the way in which they look at life. Many rich people do not have the heart to help the poor and the needy. On the other hand, there are people who are kind and compassionate even though they do not have money. Their heart goes out to people who are in difficulties. They help them with whatever they can.

Question 3.
Do you know what irony is?
Answer:
Irony is a figure of speech. It is a statement in which the meaning that a speaker implies differs sharply from the meaning that is apparently expressed.

Comprehension:

I. Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each:

Question 1.
What sort of man was Hughie Erskine?
Answer:
Hughie Erskine was a good looking young man. He was liked and admired by men and women alike. He was not very clever, and never had any money.

Question 2.
What were the various jobs he took up? Why?
Answer:
Hughie was always changing his job, because he was not
successful in any of them. He worked on the Stock Exchange for six months. He started selling tea and then sherry. He failed in all his efforts.

Question 3.
What was the condition laid down for Hughie to marry Laura?
Answer:
Laura’s father, a retired Colonel, put a condition for the marriage of Hughie and Laura. He asked Hughie to earn ten thousand pounds of his own and then come to him with the proposal of marriage.

Question 4.
Who was Alan Trevor? What was Alan Trevor doing when Hughie called on him?
Answer:
Alan Trevor was a painter. He was giving final touches to the lifesize painting of a beggar when Hughie called on him.

Question 5.
How was the model beggar dressed?
Answer:
The beggar was dressed in torn, dirty clothes. He had a ragged brown coat over his shoulder. His boots were patched and well worn.

Question 6.
What did Hughie feel the model should get? Why? Hughie felt that the beggar model should get a part of what
Answer:
Alan earned after selling his picture. In his opinion, the beggar had also been working as hard as Alan.

Question 7.
Why did Hughie feel sorry for the beggar-man?
Answer:
The beggar was an old man, bent and wrinkled, with a piteous look on his face. He looked sad and lonely.

Question 8.
What did Hughie give the old beggar-man?
Answer:
Hughie gave the beggar-man a sovereign.

Question 9.
What did Alan Trevor tell Hughie when he met him at the Palette club?
Answer:
Alan told Hughie that the beggar model was Baron Hausberg, one of the richest men in Europe. The Baron had a house in every capital city and ate food in gold plates. He had so much money that he could buy all of London.

Question 10.
Alan says, “He’ll invest your sovereign for you Hughie”. How do you think the Baron could have invested the sovereign for Hughie?
Answer:
The Baron might have a number of business firms of his own. He could invest Hughie’s money in one of his companies and earn profits.

Additional Questions:

Question 11.
What was the beggar’s true identity? Why did Hughie mistake him for a beggar?
Answer:
The beggar model was Baron Hausberg. He was one of the richest men in Europe. The beggar model had a wizened face. He looked very miserable. His tattered cloak and patched boots made him a typical beggar. So, Hughie mistook him for a real beggar.

Question 12.
Why is the model’s face, his fortune?
Answer:
The beggar model had a wizened face. He looked very miserable. His face brings money for both him and the painter. So, his face in his fortune.

II. Answer the following questions in five or six sentences each:

Question 1.
‘That old beggar, as you call him, is one of the richest men in Europe’. Name the richest man referred to. How is he described to Hughie?
Answer:
The richest man’s name was Baron Hausberg. He had a house in every capital city. He ate his food in gold plates. He could buy all of London the next day, and prevent Russia from going to war. He was very influential and powerful. He had a desire to get his picture painted as a beggar. He had asked Alan to paint his portrait and offered to pose as the beggar model himself.

Question 2.
Describe how Hughie was able to marry Laura Merton.
Answer:
Hughie was a handsome young man. He was not intelligent and did not have any money. He tried to make money by doing different jobs, but failed in his attempts. He was deeply in love with Laura. Laura’s father told him that he would consider giving his daughter in marriage if he earned ten thousand pounds of his own. One day, Hughie saw a beggar model in Alan Trevor’s studio. He mistook him for a real beggar and gave him a sovereign. The beggar model was in reality a rich man by name Baron Hausberg. He was impressed by Hughie’s generosity. He found out everything about Hughie from Alan Trevor. He sent Hughie a cheque for ten thousand pounds as a wedding present. Thus, Hughie was able to marry Laura.

Question 3.
Bring out the subtle humour in the story “The Model Millionaire”.
Answer:
The whole story has an undercurrent of subtle humour. Hughie attempts to work and earn money. When he fails at everything, he gives up his efforts. He decides to live on a meagre allowance given to him by an old aunt. These things evoke humorous reaction in the readers. Hughie’s conversation with Alan Trevor is also humorous. Without knowing the real identity of the beggar model, Hughie gives him the only sovereign he had.

When he comes to know that the beggar is Baron Hausberg, he thinks he has made a fool of himself. Alan’s jokes about Hughie’s generosity are hilarious. Baron Hausberg’s reaction when Hughie gives him the sovereign, his benevolent nature and the way in which he sends the wedding present, are all examples of subtle humour in the story.

Question 4.
‘I have got heaps of old clothes at home. Do you think he would like any of them? Why, his rags were falling to bits’, said Hughie. ‘But, he looks so wonderful in them’, said Trevor. ‘I wouldn’t paint him in a good suit for anything. However, I’ll tell him of your offer’.
The above instance is an example of subtle humour. Pick out other incidents of humour from the story.
Answer:

1. ‘He had been a tea merchant, but soon got tired of selling tea’.
2. ‘Laura loved him very much, and together they made a handsome couple. Of course, neither of them had any money’.
3. ‘The old man jumped, and a faint smile crossed his lips’.
4. ‘Good Heavens! I gave him a Sovereign’.
5. ‘He will invest your sovereign for you and pay you interest’.

Additional Questions:

Question 5.
How does Baron Hausberg prove to be a ‘model millionaire’?
Answer:
Hughie was a handsome young man. He had no job. So, his financial condition was very poor. He wanted to marry Laura Merton. Her Colonel-father asked Hughie to earn ten thousand pounds of his own to marry Laura. Hughie was unable to fulfil the condition of the Colonel. So, he was upset.

Once, Hughie visited his friend Trevor’s studio. He saw a beggar-model there. The old man had a wizened face. He looked very miserable. His tattered cloak, patched and cobbled boots made him a typical beggar. Hughie took pity on him and gave him a sovereign.

Actually, the beggar model was Baron Hausberg, one of the richest men in Europe. After knowing the truth, Hughie felt very sorry for his act. But, the Baron, having learnt everything about Hughie, sent a cheque for ten thousand pounds as a reward. Thus, the charitable act of Hughie was rewarded. Really the millionaire model was a model millionaire.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions/ incomplete statements. Choose the most appropriate alternative.

Question 1.
Hughie Erskine lived on two hundred pounds a year given by an old aunt because
A) he was not clever
B) he was always changing his job
C) he had tried everything and failed
D) he gave up trying to work
Answer:
D) he gave up trying to work

Question 2.
Hughie Erskine’s work on the stock exchange lasted
A) six months
B) three months
C) nine months
D) one year
Answer:
A) six months

Question 3.
Laura Merton was the daughter of
A) Alan Trevor
B) Baron Hausberg
C) Colonel Merton
D) Gustave Naudin
Answer:
C) Colonel Merton

Question 4.
The colonel would not allow Hughie to marry his daughter because
A) he was not clever
B) he was a failure in life
C) he had no money with him
D) he lived on his aunt’s money
Answer:
C) he had no money with him

Question 5.
Hughie was miserable because
A) he had no job
B) he was always changing his job but had failed
C) the Colonel did not allow him to marry his daughter
D) the Colonel asked him to think of marriage when he had ten thousand pounds of his own
Answer:
D) the Colonel asked him to think of marriage when he had ten thousand pounds of his own

Question 6.
Alan Trevor was a
A) painter
B) beggar
C) tea merchant
D) stock broker
Answer:
A) painter

Question 7.
‘What a wonderful model!’ whispered Hughie. The model referred to here is
A) a beggar
B) Baron Hausberg
C) Hughie
D) Alan Trevor
Answer:
B) Baron Hausberg

Question 8.
After sometime, Trevor went out of the studio because
A) a servant called him
B) the beggar was tired standing up all day
C) the frame-maker wanted to speak to him
D) he wanted to smoke a cigarette
Answer:
C) the frame-maker wanted to speak to him

Question 9.
Hughie felt sorry for the beggar-man because
A) he was an old man, bent and wrinkled
B) he had a ragged brown coat, all torn and dirty, over his shoulders
C) his thick boots were patched
D) he looked lonely and sad
Answer:
D) he looked lonely and sad

Question 10.
How much money did Hughie give the beggar-man?
A) one sovereign
B) one pence
C) two thousand pounds
D) ten thousand pounds
Answer:
A) one sovereign

Question 11.
Baron Hausberg sent a messenger to Hughie to
A) seek an apology
B) offer his apologies
C) handover a cheque for ten thousand pounds as a wedding present
D) offer him a job
Answer:
C) handover a cheque for ten thousand pounds as a wedding present

Question 12.
The best man at Hughie’s wedding was
A) Alan Trevor
B) Baron Hausberg
C) Gustave Naudin
D) Colonel Martin
Answer:
A) Alan Trevor

Question 13.
The old man jumped, and a faint smile crossed his lips. Here, the word ‘faint’ means
A) weak
B) lose consciousness
C) slight
D) dim
Answer:
C) slight

Question 14.
One of the jobs that Hughie did not take up was
A) stockbroking
B) painting
C) selling tea
D) selling sherry
Answer:
B) painting

Question 15.
The condition laid down for Hughie to marry Laura was he should
A) have a house of his own
B) have a job
C) learn painting
D) have ten thousand pounds of his own
Answer:
D) have ten thousand pounds of his own

Question 16.
The remark “Millionaire models are rare enough, but model millionaires are rarer still” was made by
A) Oscar Wilde
B) Hughie
C) Alan Trevor
D) Laura Merton
Answer:
C) Alan Trevor

III. Vocabulary:

A. Compound Words – When two different words are put together to form a new word, the word is called a compound word.
Eg: beggar-man

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks given below with the help of the compound words.

1. …………….. picture (full-size)
2. ……………… young man (good-looking)
3. The old ……………….. (beggar-man)
4. The ………………. wanted to speak to Trevor, (frame-maker)

Answer:

1. Full-size picture.
2. Good-looking young man.
3. The old beggar-man.
4. The frame-maker wanted to speak to Trevor.

Question 2.
Match the words in column A with the words in column B to make more compound words:

A	B
1. grand	breaker
2. news	mark
3. mile	mother
4. book	path
5. tie	paper
6. foot	stone

Answer:

1. grandmother
2. newspaper
3. milestone
4. bookmark
5. tiebreaker
6. footpath.

B. Affix = Prefix + Suffix

Prefix: A word which does not have a meaning by itself, but when added to the beginning of a word, forms a new word. The new word is very often the opposite of the root word.
Eg: un – He never said an unkind word to anyone.

Question 1.
Use appropriate prefixes to the words given below to form words opposite in meaning (dis, mis, un) do, honour, broken, comfort, clean, honest, respect, obey, regard, appear, like, agree, wanted, content
Answer:
do – undo
broken – unbroken
clean – uncLean
respect – disrespect
regard – disregard
Like – disLike
wanted – unwanted
honour – dishonour
comfort – discomfort
honest – dishonest
obey – disobey
appear – disappear
agree – disagree
content – discontent

Suffix – a word which does not have a meaning by itself, but when added to the end of a word, forms a new word.
Eg: ful – i. What a wonderful model! ii. I think its dreadful.

Question 2.
Use appropriate suffixes to the words given below to form new words: (ly, ness, ish, ful, less) easy, child, hope, use, fool, beauty, brown, doubt, calm, slow, help, cheer, pain, colour.
Answer:
easy – easiLy
hope – hopeful
fool – foolish
brown – brownish
calm – calmly
help – helpful, helpless
pain – painful, painless
child – childish
use – useful
beauty – beautiful
doubt – doubtful
slow – slowly, slowness
cheer – cheerful, cheerless
colour – colourful, colourless.

Homonyms – a word which has the same sound, same spelling, but two different meanings.
Eg: Model – a person or thing that is an excellent example of a quality.
Gandhiji is the model of sacrifice.
Model – a copy of something
There is a model of the Taj Mahal made of marble.

Question 3.
Construct sentences with the following homonyms to bring out two different meanings of each word:
trip, stamp, plant, right
Answer:
trip:
a) He tripped and fell down.
b) They went on a trip to Belur.

stamp:
a) He pasted a stamp on the envelope
b) Sam stamped his foot in anger.

plant:
a) We must plant trees to save our environment
b) There are a number of medicinal plants in this garden.

right:
a) This is not the right way to do things
b) Take a right turn at the intersection.

Write any four homonyms which have different meanings, with the help of a dictionary.
a) advance
b) bank
c) bow
d) object
e) play
f) bear
g) lie
h) fly
i) ring
j) lift
k) type
l) fine.
Pun – A pun is a type of wordplay. In a pun, a homonym is used in the same sentence to mean two different things.

Question 4.
Look at the last line of the lesson. Explain the pun.
The last sentence of the lesson ‘Millionaire Models’, remarked Alan, “are rare enough, but model millionaires are rarer still”.
Answer:
The word ‘model’ is used to mean two different things. Despite being a millionaire Baron Hausberg wished to be portrayed as a beggar and offered to be the model himself. Later, he proves himself a model millionaire (an ideal for other millionaires) by helping Hughie.

Dictionary Work:

IV. Make five pairs of pun words with the help of the dictionary:

a) After taking a shot with his bow, the archer took a bow.
b) No one could believe how much produce our garden could produce.
c) There’s simply no use for something you can’t use.
d) The rebel seized the opportunity to rebel.
e) The incense incensed the customers.

V. Colour In Language:

Study this sentence:

‘You told that old beggar all my private affairs?’ cried Hughie, looking very red and angry.
The word ‘red’ is used to describe a feeling of anger. Colours are often associated with various types of emotions.

1) Select a colour from the box to des ribe the feelings associated with them and then fill in the blanks: [green, red, blue, black, grey, white, pink]

1. The old lady seemed to be in the ………. of health.
2. John was ………. with envy when he heard that his friend would be meeting the Prime Minister in person.
3. Shalini became ………….. with anger when Anjali shared her secret with other girls.
4. We must cheer him up. He was feeling …………. all day.
5. The cop beat him up ………… and ………….. .
6. The stallion (breed) was as pure as ………… in colour.

Answer:

1. pink
2. green
3. red
4. grey
5. black, blue
6. white.

VI. Learn To Speak And Listen:

Identify the following characters from the lesson:

1. I am a very good looking young man, liked and admired by both men and women.
2. I am a girl, daughter of a retired Colonel.
3. I am a strange man, with a red beard, a very clever artist.
4. I am an old man, bent and wrinkled, with a piteous look on my face.
5. I am the richest man in Europe, who could buy all London.
   I have a house in every capital city.

Answer:

1. Hughie Erskine
2. Laura Merton
3. Alan Trevor
4. The beggar model
5. Baron Hausberg.

The Model Millionaire Summary in English

The Lover
Hughie Erskine was a handsome young man. He was liked and admired by all people for his good character. But, he was not clever and did not have any money. He did not stick to one job. He kept changing jobs. He tried everything but was not successful. He worked on the stock exchange for some time, then became a tea merchant. He got tired of that. He tried his hand at selling sherry, but failed again. Finally, he stopped working and lived on an allowance of 200 pounds a year. He was deeply in love with Laura Merton. Laura was the daughter of a retired Colonel. Laura also loved Hughie Erskine. Though the Colonel liked Hughie, he did not permit them to marry.
He asked Hughie to come to him with the proposal of marriage when he had ten thousand pounds of his own.

The Painter
One morning, Hughie went to meet his friend Alan Trevor. Alan was a successful painter. When Hughie entered his studio, Alan was finishing the full size painting of a beggar. The beggar was posing for Alan standing on a platform. He was an old man, bent and wrinkled with a piteous look on his face. He was wearing torn, dirty clothes and patched boots. He was holding a hat in one hand as if he was begging.

Hughie remarked that Alan had a wonderful model. Alan agreed with him and said that Hughie would not meet such a beggar every day. Hughie felt sorry for the pitiable condition of the beggar. He asked Alan how much he paid the model for a sitting. Alan said he paid ten pence an hour. Hughie wanted to know how much Alan would get after selling his picture. Alan replied that he would get two thousand pounds. Hughie said that the beggar model should get some part of the profit, as he was also working as hard as Alan. Alan did not agree with him. He told Hughie to keep quiet.

The Model
While Alan was still giving finishing touches to his picture, a servant came in and told him that the frame maker was waiting to meet him. Alan went out. The beggar who was standing till then sat down to relax. He looked very lonely and sad. Hughie searched his pocket and found a sovereign. He thought the beggar needed the money more than he did. He went near the beggar and gave the sovereign to him. The old beggar was surprised. He thanked Hughie for his generosity. When Alan returned, Hughie took leave of him.

The same night Hughie met Alan at the Palette club. He asked Alan if he had finished the picture of the beggar-man. Alan replied in the affirmative and said that the old model had taken a liking for Hughie. So, he had told the beggar everything about Hughie. Hughie told Alan that he had a lot of old clothes and wanted to give them to the old man because his clothes were in rags. He wanted to know if the old man would accept his offer. Alan said that he would tell the old model about his offer. Alan also said that he had told the model about Laura, her father, and the ten thousand pounds.

The Surprise
Hughie was angry with Alan for telling the old beggar all his problems. Alan Trevor revealed to Hughie that the beggar model was not a real beggar but he was one of the richest men in Europe. He said that his name was Baron Hausberg, who could buy all London and never feel the pinch of it. He also said the Baron had a house in every capital city and ate off gold plates and had a lot of political power.

Alan told Hughie that Baron Hausberg had asked him to paint him as a beggar. And he himself was posing as the beggar. Hughie was greatly embarassed for he had given a sovereign to a millionaire and made a fool of himself. Hughie blamed Alan for not telling him about the real identity of the beggar earlier. Alan thought it was very funny and laughed his heart out. He realised why Baron Hausberg had shown so much of interest in Hughie’s affairs. Finally, he said jokingly that the Baron would invest Hughie’s money and pay him the interest every six months. Hughie regretted his action and felt miserable.

The Messenger
The next morning, Mr. Gustave Naudin, the messenger of Baron Hausberg, came to Hughie’s house. Hughie thought that he had come for an apology for insulting the Baron by giving him a sovereign. Hughie requested the messenger to offer his sincere apologies to the Baron. Then, the messenger gave him a sealed envelope and said that the Baron had asked him to deliver it to Hughie. The message on the envelope said it was a wedding present to Hughie Erskine and Laura Merton, from an old beggar. The envelope contained a cheque for ten thousand pounds.

The Wedding
Hughie thus earned ten thousand pounds of his own and married Laura Merton. Alan was the best man and the Baron made a speech at the wedding breakfast. Alan remarked then, that millionaire models were rare enough, but model millionaires were rarer still.

Glossary:

sherry – a kind of wine
wrinkle – small line on the skin of a person’s face or hands.
sovereign – a gold coin worth one sterling.
invest – to put money in a business to try to increase its value.
admire – regard with respect, look at with pleasure.
millionaire – a person whose assets are worth one million pounds or dollars.
miserable – unhappy, uncomfortable.
faint – slight.
dreadful – extremely bad or serious.
splendid – magnificent, very impressive, excellent.
apology – regretful acknowledgment of an offence or failure.

Karnataka Board Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Structure of Atom

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Textual Questions & Answers

I. Four alternatives are given to each of the following incomplete statements, question choose the right answer.

Question 1.
The heaviest fundamental particle is.
(a) Proton
(b) electron
(c) neutron
(d) positron
Answer:
(c) neutron

Question 2.
In the scattering experiment the deflection of alpha particle is due to
(a) increase in kinetic energy
(b) force of repulsion
(c) Force of attraction
(d) decrease of kinetic energy
Answer:
(b) force of repulsion

Question 3.
The simplest atom that does not contain neutron is.
(a) Deuterium
(b) tritium
(c) hydrogen
(d) helium
Answer:
(c) hydrogen

Question 4.
The reason for the existence of isotopes is change in.
(a) Atomic number
(b) Electron number
(c) Neutron number
(d) Proton number.
Answer:
(d) Proton number.

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom in known as ……….
Answer:
Atomic mass

Question 2.
Almost all the mass of an atom is concentrated in a small region of space called the ………..
Answer:
nucleus

Question 3.
The particle of an atom that has no charge is ………….
Answer:
neutrons

Question 4.
The fundamental particle not present in a normal hydrogen atom is …………..
Answer:
neutron

Question 5.
The atomic mass of an atom is 23 and its atomic number is 11. The atom has ………….. neutrons.
Answer:
12

III. Answer the following:

Question 1.
State the postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory.
Answer:
In 1803 English chemist Dalton put forward his atomic theory. The main postulates of the theory are as follows.

1. Elements are made up of very small indivisible particles called atoms.
2. All atoms of a particular element are identical in shape, mass and other properties, but are different from the atom of other elements.
3. Atom of one element can not be converted into that of another element.
4. Atoms of an element combine in integral ratio with those of other elements to form a compound
5. An atom can neither be created nor destroyed.

Question 2.
Describe J.J Thomson’s experiment on the discovery of cathode rays.
Answer:

J.J Thomson’s and others conducted an experiment with a vacuum pump. Metal electrodes are fitted to the ends of the glass tube, as shown in the figure. He created very low pressure inside the discharge tube and applied high voltage. He observed a greenish glow near the anode of the glass tube.

The rays which are emitted from the cathode hit the anode and cause the greenish glow. The streams of rays emitted from the cathode are called cathode rays. Which are made of small particles? He called electrons.

Question 3.
List out the different characteristics of anode rays
Answer:
The characteristics of anode rays are:

1. They consist of positively charged particles.
2. They are deflected by electrical and magnetic fields. The deflection is very little when compared to the deflection of cathode rays because it consists of heavy particles
3. The deflection of the anode rays depends on the nature of the rays in the discharge tube. Heavier the gas lowers the depletion.

Question 4.
Describe Rutherford’s model of an atom?
Answer:

Ruther ford’s atomic model was also called the nuclear atom or planetary model of the atom. The model described the atom as a tiny dense, positively charged core called a nucleus, in which nearly all the mass is concentrated, around which the light negative constituents called electrons, revolve at some distance, much like planets revolving around the sun.

Question 5.
Describe Neil’s Bohr’s atomic model?
Answer:

1. Electrons revolve around the nucleus only in certain permissible circular orbits, (orbit is some times called a shell. The first
2. shell nearest to the nucleus is called ‘K.’ shell. The subsequent shells as we move away from the nucleus are L, M, N, O respectively).
3. Electrons in each shell have been associated with a definite amount of energy. Electrons in higher shell have more energy than those nearer to the nucleus.
4. The energy of an electron remains constant so long as it revolves in its own shell. The shells also represent energy levels.

Question 6.
Mention the properties of cathode rays.
Answer:
The properties of cathode rays are,

1. cathode rays are negatively charged particles
2. cathode rays are a stream of particles which travels in a straight line.
3. Cathode rays can affect a photographic plate

Question 7.
Who proposed the atomic nucleus is positively charged?
Answer:
Rutherford proposed that the atomic nucleus is positively charged.

Question 8.
State the conclusions drawn by the Scattering experiment of Rutherford?
Answer:
Positively charged particles of an atom are held together in the central region of the atom. It is called the nucleus. It is surrounded by electrons.

1. The volume of the nucleus is small when compared to the volume of an atom.
2. The mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus.
3. The nucleus is positively charged which is different in magnitude for different elements.
4. In a neutral atom, the number of electrons outside the nucleus are equal to the number of positively charged particles in the nucleus

Question 9.
Why is an atom neutral in-spite of the presence of charged particles in it?
Answer:
The number of positively charged particles (protons) in the nucleus is equal to the number of negatively charged particles (electrons) outside the nucleus. Therefore an atom is neutral.

Question 10.
List the three fundamental particles and their properties.
Answer:
The fundamental particles present in an atom are.

1. Positively charged particles called protons (p)
2. The negatively charged particles called electrons (e) and.
3. neutral particles called neutrons (n)

Question 11.
Define the term atomic number and atomic mass number of an element.
Answer:

1. Atomic number: The number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom is known as the atomic number.
   It is denoted by ‘Z’
2. Atomic mass number: The total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom is known as mass number. It is denoted by A.

Generally, the atomic number and mass number of the atom of an element is represented by a symbol Z^XA.
‘X’ is an element.

Question 12.
Define the term Isotope of an atom with a suitable example.
Answer:
Atoms of an element with different mass numbers are called Isotopes.
Ex: Hydrogen has three types of atoms,

1. ₁H¹ (protium)
2. ₁H² (deuterium)
3. ₁H³ (tritium)

Question 13.
From the symbol 19k40 state
(1) mass number of potassium
(2) atomic number of potassium
(3) write the distribution of electrons in an atom of potassium.
Answer:

1. The mass number of potassium (A)= 40
2. The atomic number of potassium (Z)=19
3. The electronic configuration of potassium = 1S², 2S²2P^s 3S²3P⁶, 4S¹

IV. Match the following:

Answer:

1. (f)
   
2. (d)
   
3. (a)
   
4. (e)

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Additional Questions & Answers

Question 1.
What is an element?
Answer:
Any Substance made up of same kind of atom is called an element. 118 elements are known to us.

Question 2.
Write an experiment to show that the cathode rays are made up of high-velocity material particles
Answer:

J.J Thomson placed a light paddle wheel in the path of cathode rays. The paddle wheel started to rotate this can happen only if the material particles have high velocity.

Question 3.
Write an Experiment to demonstrate the properties of cathode rays.
Answer:

J.J. Thomson applied an electric field parallel to the path of the rays. The cathode rays deflected towards the anode. He concluded that cathode rays negatively charged.

Question 4.
List out the characteristics of cathode rays.
Answer:
The characteristics of cathode rays are:

1. They consist of negatively charged particles.
2. cathode rays are also called as electrons.
3. electrons are lighter than the Hydrogen atom.
4. electrons mass is very small or less.

Question 5.
Describe the gold stein experiment on the discovery of anode rays.
Answer:

In 1886 Gold stein used a modified type of discharged tube with a perforated cathode. He observed that certain rays are traveling in the direction opposite to that of cathode rays. He applied an electric field parallel to the path of rays and observed that the path deflected towards the cathode. Since these rays contain positively charged particles he called positive rays or anode rays.

Question 6.
When the hydrogen gas is taken inside the discharge tube the deflection will be maximum give season.
Answer:
The positive particles of hydrogen atoms are the lightest hence the deflection will be maximum.

Question 7.
Describe the alpha-particle scattering experiment conducted by rutherford.
Answer:

Rutherford directed high speed positively charged particles called alpha particles towards a thin gold foil. He observed that most of the alpha particles passed through the foil without deflection. A few of them were deflected at very large angles from their original direction and a few were even turned back on their path.

Question 8.
Why did most of the alpha particles pass through the foil?
Answer:
Most of the alpha particles passed through the foil because most of the space in the atom was empty.

Question 9.
Why did a Few of them alpha particles deflect their original path through large angles?
Answer:
The deflection was due to the enormous repulsive force.

Question 10.
State the conclusions drawn by Scattering experiment of rutherford.
Answer:

1. Positively charged particles of an atom are held together in the central region of the atom. It is” called the nucleus. It is surrounded by electrons.
2. The volume of nucleus is small when compared to the volume of an atom.
3. The mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus.
4. The nucleus is positively charged which is different in magnitude for different elements.
5. In a neutral atom the number of electrons outside the nucleus are equal to the number of positively charged particles in the nucleus.

Question 11.
Ruther ford atomic model could of explain the stability of the atom. Explain the above statement.
Answer:
An electron revolving around the nucleus continuously should lose energy. As a result, it should be gradually pulled towards the nucleus and end up colliding with it. if this should happen then the atom would collapse ‘Rutherford’s atomic model could not explain the stability of the atom.

Question 12.
State the postulates of the Bohr model.
Answer:
In 1913 Neil’s Bohr presented a model of an atom which is now called the model. The postulates of this model are.

1. Electron revolves around the nucleus only in certain permissible circular orbits called shells.
2. The shells are designated by the letters K.L.M.N. O.P. etc.
3. Electron in each shell has been associated with a definite amount of energy. Electrons in higher shell have more energy than those nearer to the nucleus.
4. The energy of an electron remains constant as long as it revolves in its own shell.

Question 13.
From the symbol 17 CI³⁵ state
(1) mass number chlorine
(2) atomic number of chlorine
(3) write the distribution of electron in an atom of chlorine.
Answer:

1. The mass number of chlorine (A) = 35
2. The atomic number of chlorine (z) = 17
   The number of electron = number of protons = 17
3. The electronic configuration of chlorine = 1S², 2S²2P⁶, 3S²3P⁵

Question 14.
Mention the uses of Isotopes?
Answer:

1.  Medical Science
   a) Treatment of cancer
   b) Treatment of thyroid
2.  In industries to check defects
   a) To check faults in machinery.

KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Science

Karnataka Board Class 8 Science Chapter 4 Atoms and Molecules

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 4 Textual Questions & Answers

I. Four alternatives are given to each of the following incomplete statements. Choose the right answer.

Question 1.
Some elements have atomic mass in fractions. It is due to the presence of
(a) fractions of protons
(b) fractions of neutrons
(c) isotopes
(d) valence electrons.
Answer:
(c) isotopes

Question 2.
Plants in a garden make use of 22.4 liters of carbon-dioxide at STP. The numbers of molecules of carbon-dioxide utilized by the plant is
(a) 6.023 x 10²³
(b) 22.4 molecules
(c) 6.023 x 10²⁴
(d) 11.2 moles of molecules
Answer:
(a) 6.023 x 10²³

Question 3.
The atomic mass of deuterium isotope of hydrogen is 2. The atomic mass of oxygen is 16. Then the molecular mass of heavy water formed is
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 20

Question 4.
Some elements can have different valencies. It can happen due to the change in
(a) of electrons that participate in a reaction.
(b) Neutron number
(c) Proton number
(d) atomic mass number
Answer:
(a) of electrons that participate in a reaction.

II. Give scientific reason for the following:

Question 1.
The valency of noble gases is zero.
Answer:
Noble gases are 18^th group elements which have either completed shell of electrons or 8 electrons in the outermost shell. They do not have tendency to react with other elements to form compounds.

Question 2.
In the atmosphere, Oxygen is available as O₂ but not as O.
Answer:
Oxygen is written as O₂ when there are two oxygen atoms in the molecule pure oxygen doesn’t generally exist as individual atoms, two oxygen atoms bond together to form an oxygen molecule. This is because oxygen is highly reactive disconnected atoms have a very strong tendency to form bonds. If there’s nothing else available they will bond to each other.

III. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Define :
1) Atomic mass
2) Relative atomic mass
3) Gram molecular mass
4) Mole
5) Valency of an element
Answer:

1. Atomic mass: The mass of an atom of a chemical element is expressed in atomic mass units. It is approximately equivalent to the total number of protons and neutrons in the atom (the mass number) or to the average number allowing for the relative abundance of different isotopes.

2. Relative atomic mass: The ratio of the average mass of one atom of an element to one-twelfth of the mass of an atom of carbon-12 is the relative atomic mass.

3. Gram molecular mass: A mass in grams numerically equal to the molecular weight of a substance or the sum of all the atomic masses in its molecular formula.

4. Mole: Mole is the amount of pure substance containing the same number of chemical units as there are atoms in exactly 12 grams of carbon-12 (ie 6.023 x 1023)

5. Valency of elements: Valley of elements is a measure of its combining power with other atoms when it forms chemical compounds or molecules.

Question 2.
Calculate the percentage composition of Carbon and Oxygen in  CO₂ , (given atomic masses : Carbon = 12 and Oxygen = 16).
Answer:
Mass of carbon dioxide [CO₂]
= 1 (C) + 2(0)
= 1(12) + 2(16)
= 12 + 32 = 44
% mass of carbon = \(\frac { 12 }{ 44 } \) × 100 = 21.3%
% mass of oxygen = \(\frac { 32 }{ 44 }\) × 100 = 72.7%

Question 3.
A student has a piece of copper sulfate (CuSO₄) crystal. Explain the method of calculating the number of CuSO₄  molecules in that crystal. (Given atomic masses : Copper = 40, Sulfur = 32 and Oxygen = 16)
Answer:
Molecular formula of copper sulfate = CuSO₄    
Gram molecular mass of CuSO₄ = 40+32 + (16 × 4) = 72 + 64 = 136 grams
Gram molecular mass of CuSO₄ = 1 mole = 6.023 × 10²³ molecules
If the students has 136 grams of CuSO₄  then the number of molecules in that crystal will be 6.023 × 10²³

Question 4.
CaC03 \(\xrightarrow { heat }\) CaO + CO₂ ↑
From the above equation, calculate the amount of carbon dioxide in grams liberated by heating 25 g of calcium carbonate.
Answer:
CaCO₃\(\xrightarrow { heat }\) CaO + CO_{2 ↑}
(40 × 1)+(1 × 12) + (16 × 3) → (40 + 1) + (16 × 1) + (12 × 1) + (16 × 2) 40 + 12+48 → (40 + 16) + (12 + 32)
100 gms of CaCO₃ → 56 gm of CaO + 44 gms of CO₂
When 100 gms of CaCO₃ is heated 44 gms of CO₂ is liberated.
Therefore when 25 gms of CaCO₃ is heated the amount of CO₂ liberated = 11 gms

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 4 Additional Questions & Answers

I. Fill in the blanks with suitable words:

Question 1.
Modem standard for measuring atomic mass is \(\frac { 1 }{ 12 } \) mass of ………… isotope
Answer:
₆C¹²

Question 2:
The average atomic mass of chlorine is …………
Answer:
35

Question 3.
The molecular mass of water is …………
Answer:
18

Question 4.
Gram molecular volume of a gas at STP ………….. liter.
Answer:
22.4

II. Answer the following :

Question 1.
A student writes “preparation of CO₂ in the laboratory in his book. From the point of view of chemistry, what is the mistake made in writing?
Answer:
From the point of view of the mole concept, he/she should have written how many moles of CO₂ he/she is going to prepare.

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. (f)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Define atomic mass unit (a.m.u)
Answer:
one-twelth of mass of the atom ₆C¹² isotope is taken as a standard to compare the mass of other atoms and molecules this unit is called atomic mass unit.

Question 2.
How much is one a.m.u?
Answer:
One a.m.u = 1.66 x 10-²⁴ g
= 1.66 x 10-²⁷ kg
\(\frac { 1 }{ 12 } \) of the mass of one atom of carbon
6^C12 is one a. m. u. (Atomic Mass Unit)
i.e. 1.66 × 10-²⁴ g

Question 3.
What is meant by relative atomic mass of an element?
Answer:
The relative atomic mass of an element is the ratio of the mass an atom of the element to
one-twelfth of the mass of an atom of carbon 6 c

Question 4.
What is meant by the relative molecular mass of a substance?
Answer:
The relative molecular mass of a substance is the ratio of the mass of a molecule of
the substance to \(\frac { 1 }{ 12 } \) the mass of an atom of Carbon ₆C¹² isotope.

Question 5.
Write the relative atomic masses of some elements.

Element	Symbol	Relative mass
Aluminum	Al	26.98
Calcium	Ca	40.08
Carbon	C	12.01
Chlorine	Cl	35.45
Hydrogen	H	1.008
Magnesium	Mg	24.31
Nitrogen	N	14.01
Oxygen	0	15.99
Silver	Ag	107.57

Question 6.
Calculate the relative molecular mass of carbon dioxide.
Answer:
Molecular formula of carbon dioxide =CO₂
Atomic mass of Carbon = 12
Atomic mass of Oxygen = 16
1 × atomic mass of carbon + 2 × atomic mass of oxygen.
= (1 × 12) +(2 × 16) = 44
Hence relative molecular mass of carbon dioxide = 44.

Question 7.
What is meant by gram atomic mass? Give example.
Ans. Gram atomic mass of an element is its relative atomic mass expressed in grams
Ex :
(1)The gram atomic mass of a hydrogen atom is 1. 008 g.
(2) The gram atomic mass of an oxygen atom is 16 g.

Question 8.
What is meant by gram molecular mass ? Give an example.
Answer:
Gram molecular mass of a substance is its relative molecular mass expressed in gram’s
Ex :
1. The gram molecular mass of hydrogen is 2 g
2. The gram molecular mass of chlorine is 71 g.

Question 9.
Write the molecular mass of some substances.
Answer:

Question 10.
What is meant by a mole? Explain.
Answer:
A ‘mole’ represents a collection of 6.023 × 10²³ atoms or molecules. A “mole” represents the number of atoms or molecules in 22.4 liters of any gas at standard temperature and pressure.
The volume 22.4 liters is also called gram molecular volume. A ‘mole’ is equal to 6.023 × 10²³ atoms or molecules. This is also called Avogadro’s number and is represented by ‘N’.

Question 11.
Mention the signification of mole.
Answer:
Signification mole
(1) mole concept gives us a method of calculating the number of atoms present in a given mass of a substance.
(2) It helps in the calculation of the ratio of reactions consumed and products formed quantitatively.

Question 12.
To prepare one gram of hydrogen molecules using hydro caloric acid how many grams of zinc should be taken?
Answer:
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂+H₂ ↑
Gram atomic mass of zinc is = 65 g and Gram molecular mass of Hydrogen = 2 g From the above equation we can understand that 65 g of zinc gives 2 g of hydrogen molecules. To prepare 1 g of hydrogen molecules we need 32.5 g of zinc.

Question 13.
What are inert gases or noble gases? Give example.
Answer:
Some elements do not have the tendency to react with other elements to form compounds. They are called inert gases or noble gases.
Ex: Helium, Neon, Argon.
[Zero valency elements] or [Inner gases]

Question 14.
What is meant by valency? Give an example.
Answer:
Valency can be considered as the Combining capacity of an element.
Ex:

Elements	Symbol
Oxygen	2
Sodium	1
Silicon	2
Nitrogen	5
Sulfur	2

Question 15.
What is meant by variable valency?
Answer:
The same element may exhibit different valencies in different compounds and this property is called as variable valency.
Ex: Iron has 2 valencies.
Ferric has 3 valencies It is because the number of electrons from the iron atoms which participate in the chemical reaction will be either 2 or 3 depending upon conditions.

Question 16.
Write the common features of the Noble gases?
Answer:

1. Octet configuration
2. Zero valency
3. Inner in nature
4. Chemically stable
5. No free electrons are available for chemical process

KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Science

Karnataka Board Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Our Environment

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Textual Questions & Answers

I. Four alternatives are given to each of the following incomplete statements. Choose the right answer.

Question 1.
Fill in the box with an appropriate organism.
Grass → ____________ → Frog→ Snake → Eagle
(a) deer
(b) lizard
(c) grasshopper
(d) rat
Answer:
(c) grasshopper

Question 2.
One of these is a decomposer.
(a) fungi
(b) algae
(c) protozoa
(d) insect
Answer:
(a) fungi

II. Fill In The Blanks With Suitable Words:

Question 1.
The crust of the Earth is called ……….
Answer:
Lithosphere

Question 2.
The basic unit of study in the environment is ……….
Answer:
Organism

Question 3.
A group of individuals belonging to the same species is ……….
Answer:
Population

Question 4.
Different kinds of the ecosystem together constitute ………….
Answer:
Biosphere

Question 5.
In a parasitic food chain, the pyramid of the number will be ……….
Answer:
inverted.

III. Answer the following:

Question 1.
List the factors which have made life to exist on the Earth.
Answer:
The factors which have made the life to exist on the earth are as follow

1. The presence of water has some unique physical and chemical properties that are essential for supporting life’s existence.
2. As the photosynthetic algae appeared on earth the oxygen concentration increased which is ideal for the other life forms.
3. An atmosphere which is a mixture of gases water vapour to support and Sustain life.
4. Lithosphere allows life to flourish unlike the barren surface of other plants.

Question 2.
Define the following
1. Lithosphere
2. Population
3. Biotic community
4. Food web
5.Tropic level

Answer:

1. Lithosphere: The surface or crust of the earth is called the lithosphere. It accompanies the mountains, ocean floors, and the plane lands.
2. Population:  A collection of individuals belonging to the same species occupying a given area at a given time is called population.
3. Biotic community: The living components are called biotic components.
   Eg: plants, animals, bacteria, and fungi.
4. Food web: Since most organisms feed on more than one kind of food item. Every organism at even tropic level becomes linked to several food chains at the same time. A complex network of interconnected food chains forming a food web.
5. Tropic level: Representation of the different levels of feeding in the ecosystem is described as tropic levels.

Question 3.
What is an ecosystem?
Answer:
An interaction between living and non-living components is known as the ecosystem.

Question 4.
Why is the use of DDT not advisable.
Answer:
The indiscriminate use of DDT has resulted in biomagnification in the tropic level. A gradual increase in the concentration of DDT is has been detected in the tissues of small fishes; predatory birds and also in mother’s milk, therefore it is not advisable to use DDT.

Question 5.
Construct a simple food chain.
Answer:
Grass → deer → tiger

Question 6.
What may happen if all herbivores arc killed in a tern trial ecosystem?
Answer:
If all the herbivores are killed the number of producers will increase and the secondary and tertiary consumers will die of starvation, Thus the nutritional relationship ‘eating and being eaten’ will be unstable.

Question 7.
In any food chain tropic level – 1 is occupied by green plants. Give reason.
Answer:
The first trophic level of the food chain is always occupied by green plants which are termed to be producers. This is because producers directly absorb sunlight, the abiotic factor, and fix it into the food chain. This energy is transferred to organisms in other trophic levels of the food chain.

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Additional Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Explain the formation of the earth.
Answer:
When the earth was formed about 4.8 billion of years ago. Earth was a hot revolving ball of gas. The extremely high temperature and the dry climate of the earliest earth would have made it impossible for the life to appear and exist. The first multicellular organisms appeared about 1.4 billion years ago. These organisms and the other forms of life which evolved from them could survive when the condition on earth began to stabilize gradually.

Question 2.
What is hydrosphere?
Answer:
The surface of the earth is covered by water. This part of the earth is called hydrosphere.

Question 3.
Water has some unique physical ‘and chemical properties seen in other substances. Which are essential for supporting life’s existence. What are they?
Answer:

1. Water requires a considerable amount of energy to get heated up and also to get converted from a liquid state into a gaseous state. On a very hot day, water bodies help maintain atmosphere temperature cool by absorbing heat from the sun. When the sun” sets. The heat which water has absorbed is returned to the atmosphere, as water evaporates. Such regulation is crucial for the survival of living organisms.
2. Water has a high resistance to sudden changes in temperature and this feature makes water an excellent habitat for most organisms.
3. At 4° water can expand on cooling or heating this feature ensures that all the water in a water body will be close to 0° c before any freezing can occur.
4. The high surface tension of water and its tendency to expand on freezing helps in the weathering of rocks. 1 ending to soil formation.

Question 4.
Explain How did friendly atmosphere evolve on the earth?
Answer:
Atmosphere of the earth at its beginning was rich in carbon dioxide and oxygen content was very less. As photosynthetic algae appeared on earth oxygen concentration increased resulting in a shift from reducing the type of atmosphere to an oxidizing type Gradually atmosphere reached its present composition. Which is ideally suited for humans and other forms of life?

Question 5.
What is Lithosphere?
Answer:
The Surface or crust of the earth is called the lithosphere.

Question 6.
What is the biosphere?
Answer:
The hydrosphere, atmosphere, and lithosphere of the earth together constitute the biosphere. It is the sum total of all organisms and their places of living.

Question 7.
What is ecology?
Answer:
The Scientific studies which enable us to understand the totality and pattern of the relations between organisms and their environment is called ecology.

Question 8.
What are the basic laws of ecology?
Answer:
The basic laws of ecology are.

1. We can never continue to do anything in nature.
2. In nature, everything is connected to everything else.

Question 9.
Write the levels of organization in nature.
Answer:
The level of organization in nature is Species → Population → biotic community → ecosystem → biosphere.

Question 10.
Define the following terms.
1. Organism
2. Species
3. Population
4. Biotic components
5. Ecosystem
6. biotic components.
Answer:

1. Organism:  Any form of life can be called an organism.
2. Species: Species is a group of similar organisms sharing common genetic structure and capable of breeding among themselves.
3. Population:  A collection of individuals belonging to the same species occupying a given area at a given time is called population.
4. Biotic components:  The living components are called biotic components.
   Eg: plants, animals, bacteria, and fungi.
5. Ecosystem:  An interaction between living and non-living components is known as the ecosystem.
6. biotic component:  The non¬living components are called as biotic components.
   Eg: Air, water, land, sun, light

Question 11.
Name the types of ecosystems.
Answer:
Natural ecosystem can be broadly classified into two types. They are ;

1. aquatic ecosystem
2. terrestrial ecosystem.

Question 12.
List a few examples of the man-made ecosystem.
Answer:
Aquarium, Garden, Terrace Garden, zoological park.

Question 13.
What is meant by a food chain? write any two food chains.
Answer:
The kind of nutritional relationship where the food energy is getting transferred from one tropic level to another is called a food chain.
Eg:
1. Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake.
2. Algae → Insect large → fishes → Aquatic birds.
3. Grass → Rabbit → Wolf.

Question 14.
What is meant by grazing or herbivorous food chain?
Answer:
The food chain in which the primary consumers are plant-eating animals is called grazing or herbivorous food chain. This is also called a predatory food chain.
Ex: Grass → deer→ tiger.
Grass → Rabbit → wolf.

Question 15.
What is a detritivorous food chain? give example.
Answer:
The food chain in which, the primary consumers are a detrivore is called a detritivorous food chain.
Ex: Fallen leaves → termites → birds.

Question 16.
What is meant by the parasitic food chain? give example.
Answer:
The food chain in which the transfer of food energy occurs through a series of parasites at each trophic level is called the parasitic food chain.
Ex: Tree → birds → lice → protozoans.

Question 17.
Ants, termites are called detrivore why?
Answer:
Ants, termites, earthworms are called detrivores because they feed on detritus.

Question 18.
Define the food web? draw a simple food web.
Ans. A complex network of interconnected food chains forming a food web.

Question 19.
How does food become energy in an organism?
Answer:
Various organisms found in an ecosystem are constantly growing, reproducing, dying, and decaying. They need energy for all their activities. When organisms consume food the carbohydrates in their food become the source of energy. This energy their food becomes the source of energy. This energy is released as you are aware through a process called respiration. It makes the stored energy in the carbohydrates available for biological work.

Question 20.
Which is the main source of energy for all ecosystem?
Answer:
The main source of energy for all ecosystems is solar energy.

Question 21.
Draw a food chain with five tropic levels.
Answer:

Question 22.
Draw a picture of energy flow in nature.
Answer:

Question 23.
Define ecological pyramids?
Answer:
The graphical representation of the relationship between the energy number of individuals and their biomass at each tropic level in the form of a pyramid are called ecological pyramids.

Question 24.
Define the following.
1. Pyramid of numbers
2. Pyramid of biomass
3. Pyramid of energy
Answer:

1. Pyramid of biomass: A Pyramid constructed in the view of biomass, which is the dry weight of all the matter in the organisms at a tropic level is called the pyramid of biomass.
2.  Pyramid of numbers: A Pyramid constructed based on the number of individuals occupying a given tropic level at a given period of time is called the pyramid of numbers.
3.  Pyramid of energy: A Pyramid constructed on the basis of the amount of energy fixed at each level is called the pyramid of energy.

Question 25.
Draw a graphical representation of an upright pyramid of number
Answer:

Question 26.
Draw an Inverted pyramid of numbers.
Answer:

Question 27.
The pyramid of energy will be always upright. Give reason
Answer:
In any ecosystem. For any food chain, the pyramid of energy. Will be always upright because the amount of usable energy available at each trophic level is about 10% of the energy that was available at the previous tropic level.

Question 28.
What is meant by biomagnification?
Answer:
An increase in the concentration of a toxic substance or a pollutant, with every link in the food chain, is called biomagnification.

Question 29.
Why is the use of DDT not advisable?
Answer:
The indiscriminate use of DDT has resulted in biomagnification in the tropic level. A gradual increase in the concentration of DDT is has been detected in the tissues of small fishes; predatory birds and also in mother’s milk, therefore it is not advisable to use DDT. It is a non-biodegradable substance. DDT is chemically called Dichloro Diphenyl Trichloroethane

KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Science

Karnataka Board Class 8 Science Chapter 7 The World of Microbes

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Textual Questions & Answers

I. Four alternatives are given to each of the following incomplete statements. Choose the right answer.

Question 1.
One of the following does not belong to the group
(1) Aspergillus Niger
(2) Clostridium tetani
(3) Staphylococcus aureus
(4) Vibrio cholera.
Answer:
1. Aspergillus Niger

Question 2.
The locomotory structure of amoeba is
(a) cilia
(b) flagella
(c) pseudopodia
(d) tentacle
Answer:
pseudopodia

Question 3.
Chlorophyll is present in.
(a) Chlamydomonas
(b) Mushroom
(c) Yeast
(d) Aspergillus
Answer:
Chlamydomonas

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
……………….. was considered the father of microbiology.
Answer:
Louis Pasteur

Question 2.
Malaria is caused by ……………
Answer :
Plasmodium

Question 3.
Vibrio is ……………. shaped bacteria.
Answer:
comma.

III. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are micro-organisms?
Answer:
The organisms which cannot be seen with our naked eyes are called microorganisms.

Question 2.
Explain the structure of a typical bacillus.
Answer:
A bacterium is a prokaryotic cell that has an outermost layer called a cell wall and an inner cell membrane called the plasma membrane. The plasma membrane encloses the cytoplasm which contains the genetic material of a bacterium that is not enclosed by a nuclear membrane. There is a layer external to the cell wall called the capsule the capsule will be thicker if it is pathogenic (disease-causing bacteria). In addition, the bacterial cells have flagella which help in movement.

Question 3.
Draw a diagram of a typical bacillus and label the parts.

Question 4.
How can the transmission of cholera be prevented?
Answer:
Cholera can be prevented by

1. Avoid being close to infected people
2. Do not touch the nose and eye with contaminated hands.

Question 5.
What are the vaccines?
Answer:
A Vaccine is an agent that resembles a disease-causing micro-organism which is often made from weakened or killed forms of the microbe or its toxins by the immunity is developed against a particular disease.

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Additional Questions & Answers

Question 1.
What are micro-organisms? Give example.
Answer:
The organisms which cannot be seen with our naked eyes are called microorganisms.
Ex: Virus, Bacteria, unicellular organisms.

Question 2.
What is oil immersion?
Answer:
Oil immersion is a technique used to increase the resolution of a microscope

Question 3.
Who established the theory of biogenesis?
Answer:
Louis Pasteur established the theory of biogenesis.

Question 4.
Name the different shapes of bacteria.
Answer:
The different shapes of bacteria are
Bacillus – Rod-shaped bacteria
Cocci – Spherical shaped bacteria
Vibrio – Comma shaped bacteria
Spirilli – Spirally coiled shaped bacteria.

Question 5.
What is meant by bacteriophage?
Answer:
A group of viruses which infect bacteria. These are called bacteriophages. Bacteriophage is a virus.

Question 6.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of bacteriophage.

Question 7.
Explain the structure of bacteriophage.
Answer:
A bacteriophage has a head region containing the genetic material. The genetic material of a bacteriophage is DNA. The collar region contains a protein sheath.

Question 8.
Draw a neat labelled diagram Amoeba.
Answer:

Question 9.
Explain the structure of amoeba.
Answer:
Amoeba is included under the kingdom Protista. It is a protozoan. Amoeba has an external membrane called the cell membrane organelles like mitochondria and vacuole is found in the cytoplasm. The cell membrane allows materials to diffuse in and out of the cell.
Amoeba moves with the help of pseudopodia food are digested in the food vacuole contractile vacuole helps in excreting excess water and wastes.

Question 10.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of Chlamydomonas.
Ans.

Question 11.
Explain the structure of Chlamydomonas.
Answer:
Chlamydomonas is a unicellular free-living algae. The cell is oval in shape and surrounded by a definite cell wall made up of cellulose. The cell has a large cup-shaped chloroplast the cytoplasm contains the organelle like mitochondria Golgi complex contractile vacuoles etc. It moves with help of flagella.

Question 12.
List the uses of microorganisms.
Answer:3

Uses of Microorganisms are,

1. Microorganisms are used in food industry leather industry dairy industry pharmaceuticals.
2. They are used in water treatment plants and even in sewage treatment.
3. They play a very important role in agriculture.
4. They are also important for the decomposition of dead decaying substances.

Question 13.
Write short on harmful microorganisms.
Answer:

Some microorganisms are harmful too.

1. They Spoil food
2. They also cause diseases in plants and animals

Question 14.
Mention the symptoms of Influenza. How is it caused? What is made of transmission?
Answer:

1. Influenza is caused by the influenza virus
2. It is spread through Air, Contaminated handkerchiefs.
3. The symptoms are chills, fever, sore, throat, cough, muscle pains, severe headache.

Question 15.
Mention the symptoms of cholera. How did it cause? What is made of transmission?
Answer:

1. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholera
2. It is spread through contaminated water and food
3. The symptoms are vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, stomach pain.

Question 16.
Mention the symptoms of Malaria. How is it caused? What is made of transmission?
Answer:

1. Malaria is caused by plasmodium viva x.
2. It is spread through the bite of female anopheles mosquitoes.
3. The symptoms are recurring fever, chills, headache, muscle pain, tiredness, stomach pain, nausea, vomiting.

Question 17.
What are the symptoms of Aspergillosis? How is it caused? What is made of transmission?
Answer:

1. Aspergillosis is caused by Aspergillus Niger
2. It is spread by inhaling spores of aspergillus Niger
3. The symptoms are cough, fever, chest pain, and difficulty in breathing.

KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Science

Students can Download Kannada Chapter 1 Natural Resources Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Science, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka Board Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Natural Resources

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Textual Questions & Answers

I. Four alternatives are given to each of the following incomplete statements. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
One of the following does not belong to the group.
(a) Water
(b) forests
(c) petrol
(d) soil
Answer:
(c) petrol

Question 2.
Government has banned hunting of wild animals. This helps to.
(a) maintain biodiversity
(b) promote tourism
(c) provide food to animals
(d) maintain soil fertility.
Answer:
(a) maintain biodiversity

II. Fill in the blanks with suitable words:

Question 1.
Resources that get replenished in nature are called …………….
Answer:
Renewable natural resource

Question 2.
Petrol and Kerosene are ……………. forms of natural resources.
Answer:
Non – renewable

Question 3.
If there is rise in water table, soil becomes ………..
Answer:
Saline

Question 4.
Soil provides ……….. and …………… to terrestrial plants.
Answer:
Minerals and water

Question 5.
An example for renewable resources is ……….
Answer:
Solar energy

III. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are natural resources?
Answer:
The things that occur in nature and that are useful to us are called natural resources.

Question 2.
Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources.
Answer:

Renewable Resources:

• These resources can be replenished.
• These are continuously available for use and are inexhaustible.

Non-renewable Resources:

• These resources cannot be replenished.
• They get depleted, i.e. they are exhaustible.

Question 3.
List the uses of water?
Answer:
The uses of water are as follows :

1. Water is very much essential for the existence of life.
2. It is a factor for many aspects of life such as environmental stability, biodiversity conservation, fuel security, and even healthcare.
3. Water is used for various human activities like drinking, agricultural purposes washing, and recreation.
4. Water is used for heat exchange processes industries and fire extinguishers.
5. The largest use of water occurs in the agricultural sector.
6. Water is used for producing electricity by the hydroelectric power plant.

Question 4.
What is mining?
Answer:
Mining is the process of extraction and processing of minerals.

Question 5.
What happens if too many fossil fuels is used?
Answer:
Fossil fuels are non-renewable resources. They Cannot be replenished once depleted. Too much of the usage of fossils fuels leads to energy crises in the near future

Question 6.
A student argues that a nation will be rich if its forests are conserved. Explain
Answer:

1. Forest provides many products like resins gums, dyes, lace, fibers, wax, honey, medicines.
2. Forest provides raw materials for various wood-based industries such as paper, board, rayon, etc.
3. Forest provides timber which is an important material in constructing buildings and furniture.
4. Forest have aesthetic value and provide opportunities in tourism.
5. Therefore the forest plays an important role in the country’s economy.

KSEEB Class 8 Science Natural Resources Additional Questions & Answers

Question 1.
What are the natural resources?
Answer:
The things that occur in nature and that are useful to us are called natural resources.

Question 2.
Give any two examples of living resources.
Answer:
Forest and wildlife are examples of living resources.

Question 3.
Give any Four examples of non¬living resources.
Answer:
Land, water, air and mineral ores are examples of non-living resources.

Question 4.
Give reason
I) water should be used judiciously.
Answer:
Nearly 97% of water on earth is held in ocean and Seas, about 2.4% of water is found in glaciers and polar ice-caps. Only a small percentage is available for human use, therefore, water should be used judiciously.

Question 5.
What are the reasons for the depletion of water?
Answer:
The reason for the depletion of water are :

1. Increase in population.
2. Pollution and Destruction of forests.
3. Improper use of water.

Question 6.
Mention the importance of the soil.
Answer:
The importance of soil as follows :

1. Soil is a natural resource that provides minerals and water to all land plants.
2. Soil is a primary nutrient base for agricultural crops.
3. Soil is the place of living for a wide, variety of organisms like earthworms, crabs, insects, and microorganisms.

Question 7.
How does desertification occur?
Answer:
Due to waterlogging and Salinisation are the main causes of another serious problem in which once fertile lands are becoming barren and useless. This condition is called desertification.

Question 8.
Mention the importance of Forests.
Answer:
The importance of forests are as follows

1. Forest are renewable natural resources that have innumerable contributions to the environment.
2. Forests maintain the water cycle.
3. They provide habitat for wild animals.
4. They maintain Soil quantity by preventing Soil erosion.
5. They provide timber and many other useful products and services.
6. They are indicators of the natural wealth of a nation.

Question 9.
Define the term wildlife.
Answer:
The term wildlife is used to describe the species of plants and animals living in the wild.

Question 10.
What are the reasons for the extinction of many species?
Answer:
The reasons for the extinction of species are.

1. Destruction of their natural habitats.
2. Human activities such as hunting, poaching, and capturing meat, furs, horns skin, ivory, etc…

Question 11.
Write the measures for the conservation of living resources.
Answer:
The measures are taken to conserve the living resources are,

1. Proper maintenance of their natural habitats.
2. Establishment of National Parks, wildlife sanctuaries bird sanctuaries.
3. Restriction or hunting, poaching or animals by strict legislation.
4. Protection of sample population in zoos and botanical gardens and other man-made situations.
5. The Creation of seed banks, gene banks, and similar genetic resource centers.

Question 12.
What are fossils fuels? How are they formed?
Answer:
The non-renewable resources such as Coal, petroleum products and natural gas represents fossil fuels. They are formed by the result of the photosynthetic activity of green plants. Which were existing millions of years ago?

Question 13.
Name the types of coal and their carbon content.
Answer:
The types of coal are

1. Anthracite – Carbon content is about 80%, it is very hard.
2. Lignite – Carbon content is about 60%-65%.
3. Bituminous Coal – Carbon content is less than 40%.

Question 14.
Name a few petroleum products.
Answer:
Petrol, diesel, Kerosene, lubricating oils and naptha represent various forms of petroleum products.

Question 15.
Natural gas is considered as eco-friendly give reason.
Answer:
The low sulphur content of natural gas makes it the least pollutive Source of fuel. Therefore it is considered eco-friendly fuel.

Question 16.
What are minerals?
Answer:
Minerals the metallic compounds, naturally found in the earth’s crust and not formed from living matters.

Question 17.
Minerals are also considered as non-renewable resources. Give reason.
Answer:
The rule of formation of such minerals is very slow compared to the rate at which they are being used by human Such resources which cannot be replenished. Once depleted are called Non-renewable resources.

Question 18.
Non-Renewable Resources are popular why?
Answer:

1. Gives energy quickly
2. Easy to store and transportation is easy.
3. High efficiency
4. Leaves no residue

 

 

Karnataka Board Class 8 Science Chapter 15 Heat

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 15 Textual Questions & Answers

I. Four alternatives are given to each of the following incomplete statements/questions. Choose the right answer.

Question 1.
When an object is heated, the molecules that make up the object
a) begin to move faster
b) lose energy
c) become heavier
d) become lighter
Answer:
a) begin to move faster

Question 2.
The temperature of a body is an indicator of
a) The total energy of the molecules of an object
b) The average energy of the molecules of an object
c) The total velocity of the molecules of the object
d) The average kinetic energy of the. molecules of an object.
Answer:
d) The average kinetic energy of the molecules of an object.

Question 3.
A and B are two objects. The temperature of A is greater than that of B. This means that
a) The molecules of A move faster on an average than the molecules of B
b) The total energy of A is greater than the total energy of the molecules of B
c) The average potential energy of A is greater than the average potential energy of B.
d) The heat content of A will always be greater than that of B.
Answer:
a) The molecules of A move faster on an average than the molecules of B

II. Fill in the blanks with suitable words.

Question 1.
The degree of hot or cold of a body is called ………
Answer:
heat/temperature

Question 2.
Temperature is expressed in degree ……………….
Answer:
degree centigrade/ Joule

Question 3.
Substances changes from liquid to a gas at a constant temperature, it is called …………
Answer:
condensation/boiling point

Question 4.
The temperature of boiling water in the Celsius scale of temperature is ……………
Answer:
C (100/373/212/32)

Question 5.
The SI unit of heat is ……………..
Answer:
Joule/ Celsius

III. State whether the following statement is true or False :

Question 1.
Liquid expands on heating
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The unit of heat and temperature are the same
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The bi-metal strip is used in Fan
Answer:
False

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Distinguish between heat and temperature.
Answer:

1. Heat :
   • Heat is a form of energy
   • Heat energy depends upon the speed of the particles, the number of particles and size or mass, and the type of particles in an object.
   • It is the sum of energies of all molecules,
   • SI unit of heat is Joule.
2. Temperature :
   • Temperature is a measure of the degree of hot or cold. lt is a number that is related to energy, but it is not energy itself.
   • Temperature does not depend on the size or mass of an object. For example, the temperature of a small cup of water is the same as the temperature of a tub of water.
   • It is the average kinetic energy of the molecules.
   • SI unit of temperature is Kelvin.

Question 2.
Mention three different effect produced by heat.
Answer:
The three effects produced by heat are

1. Increase in temperature
2. Thermal expansion
3. Change in the physical state
4. Change in chemical change

Question 3.
Give one example to illustrate that heat can be generated from the energy of motion.
Answer:
If we rub our palms vigorously or rubbing a metal strip of an iron nail on a stone several times that is produced. There are examples to illustrate that heat can be generated from the energy of motion.

Question 4.
Describe an experiment to prove that solids expand on heating.
Answer:

Take two aluminum rods measuring 7 cm each to fix it to a stand with a paper-thin gap between the rods. Connect to a circuit. Heat the rod by a spirit lamp. Due to heat rods expand and touch each making the circuit closed. The bulb burns. This shows that solids expand due to heat.

Question 5.
Name two devices which use bimetallic strip.
Answer:
Thermal expansion of bimetallic strips used as a heat operated switch in the circuit of automatic equipment like an iron box, fire alarms, electric heater, etc. Some thermometers work on the principle of expansion of liquids In automobile engines useful work is done by the expansion of gases.

Question 6.
A Thick glass tumbler often cracks when boiling water is poured into it why?
Answer:
If we put boiling water in a thick glass tumbler. It cracks immediately, this is due to the fact that glass is a poor conductor of heat. When boiling water is put in the glass tumbler the inner surface of the glass becomes hot. So the wall expands, But the outer surface of the glass wall does not expand quickly. This uneven expansion cracks the glass.

Question 7.
State similarities and differences between the laboratory thermometer and the clinical thermometer.
Answer:
Similarities:
The laboratory or clinical thermometer is used to measure temperature or temperature changes. They are made of glass with mercury. Both are made on the property of the expansion of liquids on heating.
Differences:

1. Laboratory thermometer
   • Used to measure the temperature of any substance
   • has a long graduated capillary tube
   • The range of laboratory thermometer is 0°C to 100°C
2. Clinical thermometer
   • Used to measure the only temperature in Humans or animals
   • has a short capillary tube with a narrow constriction
   • The range of clinical thermometer 3 5°C to 42°C

Question 8.
Convert 100°F into Celsius and Kelvin scale of temperature.
Answer:
°C = \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\) ( °F – 32 )
°C = \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\) ( 100 –  32 )
°C = \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\) × 68 = \(\frac { 340 }{ 9 }\)
°C = 39.77 = 40°
I = °C + 273
k = 40 + 273
k = 313

V . Match the following

Answer:

1. g
2. F
3. e
4. b

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 15 Additional Questions & Answers

Question 1.
What is the temperature?
Answer:
An increase in average kinetic energy is called temperature.

Question 2.
What is meant by heat?
Answer:
The total kinetic energy of all the molecules in a substance is called heat. The SI unit of heat is Joule (J)

Question 3.
Mention the different effect produced by heat.
Answer:
The three effect produced by heat are

1. Increase in temperature
2. Thermal expansion
3. Change in physical state
4. Chemical change

Question 4.
In industries, metal pipelines are provided with loops at regular intervals. Why?
Answer:
In industries, hot water or molten liquid is transferred from one place to another through metal pipelines. The expansion and contraction might bend or break the pipe. To overcome this, these metal pipelines are provided with loops at regular intervals. The expansion of pipelines causes the size of the loop to increase slightly so the pipe does not break.

Question 5.
Mention the application of thermal expansion.
Answer:
Thermal expansion of bimetallic strips used as a heat operated switch in the circuit of automatic equipment like an iron box, fire alarms, electric heater etc. Some thermometers work on the principle of expansion of liquids In automobile engines useful work is done by the expansion of gases.

Question 6.
What is meant by anomalous expansion?
Answer:
The sensual property of water between 0°C to 4°C is called anomalous expansion i.e. water on cooling contracts up to 4°C and afterward it starts expanding till it freezes into ice at 0° C.

Question 7.
What is a thermometer?
Answer:
A thermometer is an instrument that measures the temperature of a system quantitatively.

Question 8.
Name different types of thermometers.
Answer:
There are three commonly used scales of temperature.

1. Celsius scale of temperature  °C
2. Fahrenheit scale of temperature °F
3. Kelvin scale of temperature  K

Question 9.
What do you mean by the Bimetallic strip thermometer?
Answer:
Bimetallic strip thermometers include two different metals that are bonded together and expand at different rates as they warm up often, long bimetallic, strips are wound into a coil and used with a dial they have a different rate of exemption.

Question 10.
Draw a diagram of a Laboratory thermometer.
Answer:

Question 11.
Draw a diagram of a clinical thermometer.
Answer:

Question 12.
Mention the two special features of the clinical thermometer.
Answer:
The capillary has a narrow bend called constriction. The range of clinical thermometer is between 35° C and 42° C.

Question 13.
What are the precautions to be taken while using a clinical thermometer?
Answer:

1. Precautions to be taken while using a clinical thermometer.
2. The thermometer should be washed before and after each use, preferably with an antiseptic solution.
3. Do not wash the thermometer with hot water.
4. Ensure that before use the mercury level is below 35° C.
5. Read the thermometer keeping the level of mercury along the line of sight.
6. Handle the thermometer with care, as you handle any glass articles.
7. Don’t hold the thermometer by the bulb while reading it.

Question 14.
Write an experiment to find the boiling point of water?
Answer:

Take about 50 Cm³ of water in a round -bottom flask and add a few fragments of broken porcelain. Heat the flask and note the temperature when boiling begins. Take readings every thirty seconds for five minutes, i.e., ten readings in all. and take the average as the boiling point.

Question 15.
Write the principle on which the thermometer is made.
Answer:
The thermometer is made on the property of the expansion of liquids on heating.

Question 16.
How does a pressure cooker work?
Answer:
As the pressure increases the boiling point of water also increases. In the pressure cookers the boiling point of water increases due to the pressure created by blocking of the steam by weight. The weight rises up and lets out the steam of the pressure crosses a certain limit. Due to the increases in the boiling points, the food substances are cooked within less time. Thus it saves energy.

Question 17.
Write an experiment to show the melting point of ice.
Answer:

Small ice cubes are taken in a Funnel. The funnel is fixed to a stand as shown in Figure. The thermometer bulb is kept in the funnel such that it is surrounded by ice cubes, keeps a glass bottle below the funnel. Ice begins to melt utilizing the heat of the surrounding air. Water thus formed drops out of the funnel. After 10 minutes note down the level of mercury in the thermometer and take the reading which shows the melting point of ice.

Question 18.
At what temperature do the Celsius and Fahrenheit thermometers show the same measurement? Prove it by calculation.
Answer:
Celsius scale has divisions between 0 and 100 while the Fahrenheit has divisions from 32 to 212 ie. 180 divisions. Since Celsius and Fahrenheit scales are equal.
\(\begin{array}{l}{\frac{C-0}{100}=\frac{F-32}{180}} \\ {C=\frac{5}{9}(F-32)} \\ {F=\frac{9}{5} C+32}\end{array}\)
∴ – 40° C = – 40°F
Give scientific reasons:

Question 19.
Ice melts when heated.
Answer:
Every solid substance melt at a definite temperature on heating. Hence, when we heat ice, the kinetic energy increases and they get separated and free to move.

Question 20.
Telephone wires sag during summer.
Answer:
The metallic wires tend to expand due to the heat of the summer, therefore they sag.

Question 21.
Space is left between small stretches while making cemented roads.
Answer:
Space is left between small stretches while making cemented roads in order to avoid accidents due to the expansion.

Question 22.
Before use, the clinical thermometer is jerked.
Answer:
Before use, the clinical thermometer is jerked so that the mercury flows back into the bulb.

Question 23.
Water cannot be used as a liquid in a thermometer.
Answer:

1. The capillary tube required to be very long.
2. The increase in the water level cannot be easily visible.

Question 24.
Common salt is added to ice.
Answer:
Common salt is added to ice in order to reduce the melting point so that ice will not melt soon.

KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Science

Karnataka Board Class 8 Science Chapter 19 Nutrition and Respiration

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 19 Textual Questions & Answers

I. Four alternatives are given to each of the following incomplete statement/ question. Choose the right answer.

Question 1.
The process of obtaining food and utilizing it in the body is ……………
(a) respiration
(b) nutrition
(c) excretion
(d) reproduction.
Answer:
(b) nutrition

Question 2.
One of these is a product of photosynthesis …………….
(a) Starch
(b) glucose
(c) Maltose
(d) sucrose.
Answer:
(a) Starch

Question 3.
Insectivorous plants commonly grow in areas where soil is deficient in
(a) carbon
(b) nitrogen
(c) potassium
(d) phosphorus.
Answer:
(b) nitrogen

Question 4.
A person applies hydrogen peroxide on his wound This is to kill
a) anaerobic bacteria
b) aerobic bacteria
c) fungi
d) protozoa.
Answer:
c) fungi

Question 5.
Amylase Converts Starch to
(a) glucose
(b) Sucrose
(c) lactose
(d) maltose
Answer:
(d) maltose

II. Answer the Following.

Question 1.
What are life processes?
Answer:
The processes such as respiration, nutrition, growth, movement, response to stimuli, excretion and reproduction that help to support and sustain life are called as life processes.

Question 2.
Explain the method of testing a leaf for starch.
Answer:
Collect a Few leaves From a plant put it in water For Some time and the take out, It is then dipped in spirit and then in Iodine Solution. Observe that the leaf turns blue-black Showing the presence of Starch.

Question 3.
Explain an experiment to demonstrate that oxygen is released during photosynthesis.
Answer:

Take two troughs Filled with water Add a few Crystals of Sodium bicarbonate to both. Place Hydrilla plants in both the troughs and invert large Funnels over them Take two test tubes, place Small pieces of Steel wool into their bottoms.

Fill the test tubes with water and invert them over the narrow ends of each of the Funnel, place one of the troughs in a bright Sunny area Whereas the other trough in dark Cupboard For about by introduced Splinters.

The Splinter burns brightly in the gas collected in the test tube which is kept outside, but not which is kept in the Cupboard. From this experiment, we can show that the gas released during photosynthesis is oxygen.

Question 4.
Differentiate between the two phases of photosynthesis
Answer:

Light reaction	Dark reaction
1. Light reaction takes place in the presence of sunlight.	1. Dark reaction takes place in the absence of sunlight (night)
2. It takes place in the grana region	2. It takes place in the stroma region

Question 5.
What are parasites? Give two examples.
Answer:
The organism which obtains Food from other organism is called a parasite. There are two types of parasites.

1. Semi parasite
   Eg: Viscum
2. Total parasite
   Eg: Cuscuta, intestinal worms like tapeworm, roundworm, etc.

Question 6.
Amoeba Cannot digest Fats Why?
Answer:
Amoeba has no enzyme to digest Fats Therefore amoeba Cannot digest Fats.

Question 7.
Explain the respiration in the cockroach.
Answer:
The tracheal system of a cockroach includes stigmata, Trachea, and Tracheoles. Stigmata are the respiratory openings in a cockroach. These are present on the lateral sides of the body. Trachea and Tracheoles carry oxygen from the diffused air to all parts of the body.

Cells take in oxygen and give out carbon dioxide to the tracheole. Haemolymph the blood of cockroach is involved in the gaseous exchange. between the cells, The carbon dioxide is diffused out through the spiracle openings.

Question 8.
Explain respiration in human beings.
Answer:
Air enters into the nasal cavity through the nostrils. Dust particles present in the air are prevented from entering the lungs. Air passes to the pharynx and then into the trachea. It has ‘C’ shaped rings which prevent it from collapsing.

The trachea is divided into bronchi and into bronchioles and a number of alveoli. Blood circulating around the alveoli gives out CO₂. This oxygenated blood reaches the cells and gives oxygen to the cells and is used for oxidizing glucose. CO₂ formed as a product is carried by the blood to the alveoli and exhaled along the same pathway.

Question 9.
Draw a diagram of the human digestive system label the parts.
Answer:

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 19 Additional Questions & Answers

Question 1.
What are autotrophs?
Answer:
The organisms which prepare their own food are called autotrophs.
Example: Green plants

Question 2.
What is photosynthesis?
Answer:
The process by which the green plants manufacture Organic Compound by using CO₂ and H₂O in the presence of sunlight and Chlorophyll.

Question 3.
What are Stomata?
Answer:
The minute Opening on the leaf Surface is called Stomata.

Question 4.
Draw a neat diagram of the cross-section of the leaf.
Answer:

Question 5.
Mention the two phases of photosynthesis
Answer:
The two phases of photosynthesis are

1. Light reaction
2. Dark reaction (Light independent reaction)

Question 6.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of Chloroplast
Answer:

Question 7.
What arc insectivorous plants? Give example.
Answer:
photo Synthetic plants which are growing in the soil, poor in nitrogen content try to obtain nitrogen by trapping and digesting insects are Called insectivorous plants.
Example: Rosecrans, Nepenthes.

Question 8.
What are epiphytes? Give example.
Answer:
Some plants Capable of photosynthesis take shelter in the host tree Such plants are Called epiphytes
Example: Orchids.

Question 9.
What are Saprophytes? Give example.
Answer:
The organism which obtains Food From dead and decaying organic matter by decomposing the Same is Called as Saprophytes
Example: bacteria, Fungi

Question 10.
What is the benefit of E-Coli bacteria in a man?
Answer:
E – Coli bacteria present in the intestine of man provide the Vital B – Complex Vitamins.

Question 11.
Define the term Symbiosis/ mutual-ism.
Answer:
The mode of nutrition in which two organisms live together and are mutually benefited is called mutual-ism or Symbiosis.

Question 12.
Mention the steps involved in Horologic nutrition.
Answer:
The Horologic nutrition involves Five steps namely

1. ingestion
2. digestion
3. absorption
4. assimilation and
5. egestion.

Question 13.
Define the following terms.

1. Ingestion
2.  Digestion
3.  Absorption
4. Assimilation
5. Egestion.

Answer:

1. Ingestion: The process of taking the Food is called ingestion.
2. Digestion: Conversion of Complex larger molecules into simple smaller molecules by the action of enzymes for easy absorption is called digestion.
3. Absorption: Taking in of Soluble digested nutrients into the blood is called absorption.
4. Assimilation: The process of converting the digested food into protoplasm I.e storing or utilizing in the ells is called assimilation.
5. Egestion: Elimination of undigested Food From the animal body is called egestion.

Question 14.
Explain the nutrition in Amoeba.
Answer:
Amoeba feeds on bacteria, diatoms, unicellular algae, minute protozoa, and even dead organic matter The pseudopodia help in surrounding and ingesting the prey into Food vacuole Digestive enzymes amylase and pro-tease Secreted in the Food Vacuole digest the carbohydrates and proteins respectively into Simple Forms.

The digested Food is diffused into the cytoplasm and circulates so that all the parts of the receives the nutrients, It is used For all the life activities. The undigested Food is egested with the help of pseudopodia.

Question 15.
What are antennae? Write its Functions.
Answer:
The pair of Feelers in the head region of Cockroach is called antennae. It senses the Food and pushes the Food into the mouth.

Question 16.
Draw a neat labeled diagram to show the digestive System of Cockroach
Answer:

Question 17.
Name the parts of alimentary canal of man.
Answer:
The alimentary Canal in eludes the mouth pharynx esophagus stomach Small intestine, large intestine and anus.

Question 18.
Mention the acid present in the gastric juice Mention its Function.
Answer:
The gastric juice contains hydrochloric acid, It kills the microbes that enters in to the stomach through Food and water.

Question 19.
Name the enzymes present in gastric juice and mention its Function.
Answer:
Enzymes present in gastric Juice are

1. pepsin : convert proteins in to polypeptides
2. Rennin : converts the soluble milk proteins insoluble curds.

Question 20.
Mention the juice produced by the liver and where is, it stored?
Answer:
Bile juice is produced by the liver and it is stored in the gall bladder. Bile juice emulsifies Fats.

Question 21.
Mention the enzymes present in pancreatic juice mention its Function.
Answer:
The pancreatic juice contains two enzymes are

1. Amylase:  diverts Starch into maltose
2. Lipase: Converts fats into simple fats

Question 22.
Mention the enzymes present in intestinal juice, mention its Functions.
Answer:

1. Enzymes present in intestinal juice are Maltose – Converts Maltose into glucose.
2. Sucrose – Converts Cane sugar into glucose
3. Lactate – Converts Milk sugar into glucose
4. Peptidase – Converts Peptidase into amino acids
5. Lipase – converts Fats into fatty acids and glycerol

Question 23.
What are villi?
Answer:
The Finger-like projection of the Small intestine which absorbs the digested Food are called villi

Question 24.
What is respiration? Name the two types of Respiration.
Answer:
Respiration is a process by which energy is liberated by oxidation of Food.

1. Aerobic respiration
2. Anaerobic respiration

Question 25.
Differentiate between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Answer:

1. Aerobic respiration:
   • oxygen is used to break down organic CO₂ and H₂O
   • A large amount of energy is liberated
   • Occurs in higher Forms of organisms
   • Glucose + Oxygen + Carbon dioxide + water + energy.
   • C₆H₂O₆ + O₂ → 6CO₂+ 6H₂O+ H₂O + Energy.
2. Anaerobic respiration
   • organic compounds are broken in the absence of oxygen, producing alcohol and CO₂
   • Small amount of energy is liberated.
   • occurs in lower Forms of organisms.
   • Glucose + Ethos Alcohol + Carbon dioxide + Energy
   • C₆H₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂ + Energy.

Question 26.
What are spiracles?
Answer:
The respiratory openings in Cockroach are called spiracles.

Question 27.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of the Respiratory System of Cockroach.
Answer:

Question 28.
Draw a neat labeled diagram of human Respiratory System.
Answer:

Question 29.
Define the Following.

1. bronchi
2. bronchioles
3. alveoli

Answer:

1. bronchi: Trachea is divided into two branches called the bronchi
2. bronchioles: The bronchi are Further branched, inf to bronchioles.
3. Air sacs: are present at the terminals of bronchioles. These are called alveoli

Question 30.
Green plants are called as auto tropes? Give reason
Answer:
Green plants can prepare their won Food. Hence, they are called autotrophs.

Question 31.
Amoeba is called as an omnivore.
Answer:
Amoeba feeds on bacteria, diatoms, unicellular algae, minute protozoa, and even dead organic matter, there Fore, Amoeba is called an omnivore.

Question 32.
Parasites have haustoria, Give reason.
Answer:
parasites have haustoria to absorb water and minerals From the host plant.

KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Science

Karnataka Board Class 8 Science Chapter 14 World of Sounds

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 14 Textual Questions & Answers

I. Four alternatives are given to each of the following incomplete statement/ question. Choose the right answer:

Question 1.
Imagine that you are listening to a popular song from a radio. Using volume control knob, you slightly increase the volume. The factor related to sound wave in this process is increase in.
a. frequency
b. velocity
c. amplitude
d. both frequency and wavelength
Answer:
c. amplitude

Question 2.
The velocity of sound is highest in.
a. air
b. water
c. glass
d. vacuum
Answer:
c. glass

Question 3.
In an unoccupied hall of a choultry you will experience the echo effect of sound. If the same hall is furnished with almirahs, tables, chairs and other commodities, you may not experience the echo clearly It is because,
a. Sound waves get absorbed by the objects in the hall
b. the are of reflecting surface decreases
c. reflected sound is reflected again
d. sound does not get reflected
Answer:
a. sound waves get absorbed by the objects in the hall.

Question 4.
The factor that is transmitted in wave motion is.
a. particles of the medium
b. vibrations of particles
c. energy of the cause of the wave
d. electrons of the medium
Answer:
a. particles of the medium

II. Fill in the blanks with suitable words:

Question 1.
The product of frequency and wave length of a sound waves is called ………..
Answer:
velocity

Question 2.
The SI unit of wave length is ………….
Answer:
Lambda

Question 3.
The velocity of sound in air at 25°C is approximately …………..
Answer:
346 m/sec

III. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Why is sound a longitudinal wave?
Answer:
Sound is a longitudinal wave because it is a mechanical wave in which the vibration of particles is parallel to the direction of the sound.

Question 2.
Explain an activity to show that sound can do work.
Answer:
Take a thin strip of paper. Hold it against sound from a loud speaker the paper starts moving. This shows that sound can do work.

Question 3.
Describe an activity to show that the sound is produced by vibration of materials.
Answer:
Take a rubber string stretch it tightly between two supports. Pluck the string, the string begins to vibrate. Then we will be able to heard some sound, stop the movement of the string. Even the sound also stops. From this activity we can show that the sound is produced by the vibration of material.

Question 4.
Make a list of five musical instrument, state how each of them produce sound.
Answer:

Musical instrument	The way it produce sound
1 .Harmonium	By the vibration of air
2.Tabla	By the vibration of the membrane
3.Sitar	By the vibration of string
4.Guitar	By the vibration of string
5. Flute	By the vibration of air

Question 5.
List two applications of reflection of sound.
Answer:

1. Ultrasound scanner: This is an invaluable diagnostic tool for examining fluid-filled organs such as bladders, kidneys, etc
2. Eco-ranging: By using an ultrasound signal sent by soar and knowing the velocity of sound in water the depth of the sea can be calculated.

Question 6.
Describe an activity that the sound requires a material medium for its propagation.
Answer:

Suspend a mobile phone inside an airtight glass bell jar as shown in the diagram connect the bell to a vacuum pump, when a call is made to that phone, the ringing tone is heard. Start removing the air from the jar by using a vacuum pump. The ringing tone feeble and feeble and cannot hear anymore. This experiment shows that sound cannot travel in a vacuum, it needs a material medium for its propagation.

Question 7.
Represent a wave graphically. Show in the diagram, the wavelength, and amplitude.
Answer:

Question 8.
Why is sound both a boon and a bone?
Answer:
A pleasant sound like Hello sir/Hello madam while addressing a person or hearing musical notes are boon and a loud sound may cause irritation, headache and loss of concentration. Long exposure to such sounds may lead to loss of sleep, tension and stress, high blood pressure, heart trouble etc. Therefore such sounds are bone to us.

Question 9.
What measures would you take to minimize the sound disturbance caused to others?
Answer:
The steps to be taken to minimize the sound disturbance are as follows

1. Turn off your electronic systems. When not in use and also to not play them too loudly
2. Soundproof your music playing area.
3. Plant more trees.
4. Regular maintenance of vehicles and machines.
5. Use earplugs.

KSEEB Class 8 Science Chapter 13 Additional Questions & Answers

Question 1.
What is sound?
Answer:
Sound is a form of energy which excites in our ears the sensation of hearing.

Question 2.
What produces sound?
Answer:
Sound is produced by a vibrating object.

Question 3.
When do materials produce sound?
Answer:
Materials generally produce sound when they move back and forth rapidly. We call such motion as ‘Vibration’

Question 4.
How is the sound produced in the Human body?
Answer:
We have a special apparatus called Larynx or voice box which is located at the upper end of the windpipe. There are two membranes called vocal cords which stretch across the larynx. The narrow slit loft between them controls the passage of air. When we push the air through the slit causes the vocal cords to vibrate which produces the sound.

Question 5.
What are the waves?
Answer:
Any energy moves through a medium by creating a disturbance in it. These disturbances may repeat themselves at regular intervals. Such periodic disturbances constitute a pattern, are called waves.

Question 6.
What are the transverse waves?
Answer:
Transverse waves are the waves, on which the particles of the medium vibrate perpendicularly to the line of propagation.
Ex: water waves.

Question 7.
How do Dolphins and whales live in water communicate?
Answer:
Dolphins and whales produce and use different kinds of sounds and whistles. These sounds travel through water and pass on messages to others. Some species of dolphins send special sounds to identify themselves.

Question 8.
What is meant by wavelength?
Answer:
The distance between two successive compressions is called the wavelength of the sound wave. This is equal to the distance between two successive rarefaction. The wavelength is represented by Lambda (‘A’)

Question 9.
What is the frequency? Explain.
Answer:
The number of times an object vibrates in on second is called Frequency. The number of compressions that pass through a point in one second also gives Frequency SI unit of Frequency is ‘hertz’.
The symbol is Hz.  1 hertz (Hz) = 1 wave per second or cycle per second.

Question 10.
What is meant by the amplitude of a sound wave?
Answer:
The highest displacement of a particle from its rest position is the amplitude of the sound.

Question 11.
What is an Amplifier?
Answer:
Amplifier is a device that increases the amplitude of a wave.

Question 12.
What is the speed of sound?
Answer:
Speed of sound is the distance traveled by it in one second. The SI unit of speed is meter per second we write this as ms^-1.

Question 13.
What is meant by the Echo?
Answer:
The reflection of sound is called Echo.

Question 14.
What do you mean by Sonic boom?
Answer:
When a plane travels faster than the speed of sound the plane breaks the sound barrier and produces a loud sound. This is called the Sonic boom.

Question 15.
Does the experiment show that sound reflects?
Answer:

There are two identical cardboard tubes P and Q with metal surface AB and screen S between the two tubes as shown in the figure. Keep a small clock at the other end of the tube ‘P’ and ear at the end of the tube Q. The tick-tick of the clock can be heard if the angle is the same.

Question 16.
What is meant by Noise?
Answer:
Some sound cause disturbance to humans and other animals, such unwanted sound is called Noise, or Unpleasant sound is called Noise [High-frequency sound].

Question 17.
Mention the harmful effects of noise pollution.
Answer:
Unwanted sound leads to noise pollution.
Effects of noise pollution.

1. 1. Loud sound may cause irritation, headache, and loss of concentration.
   2. Long exposure to such sounds may lead to loss of sleep, tension, and stress

KSEEB Solutions for Class 8 Science