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Karnataka 1st PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 11 Transport in Plants

1st PUC Biology Transport in Plants NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the factors affecting the rate of diffusion?
Answer:
Factors affecting the rate of diffusion are:

• Gradient of concentration
•  Permeability of membrane
•  Temperature
•  Pressure

Question 2.
What are porins? What role do they play in diffusion?
Answer:
The porins are proteins that form huge pores in the outer membranes of the plastids, mitochondria, and some bacteria allowing molecules up to the size of small proteins to pass through. Thus porins facilitate diffusion.

Question 3.
Describe the role played by protein pumps during active transport in plants.
Answer:
In active transport, the movable carrier proteins are called pumps. They perform transport across the membrane against the concentration gradient by using ATP as energy.

Question 4.
Explain why pure water has the maximum water potential.
Answer:
The water potential of pure water at normal temperature and pressure is zero. Due to the interaction of water molecules with the solute particle, the free energy of the water molecule decreased. In the solution value of water, the potential is always negative or less than zero. Thus pure water has maximum water potential.

Question 5.
Differentiate between the following:

1. Diffusion and Osmosis
2. Transpiration and Evaporation
3. Osmotic pressure and Osmotic Potential
4. Imbibition and Diffusion
5. Apoplast and Svmplast pathways of absorption of water in
6. Guttation and Transporation.

Answer:
(1) Differences between diffusion and Osmosis:
Diffusion:

• The movement of the molecules of solids, liquids, gases from higher: concentration to lower concentration is termed diffusion.
• Gaseous exchange through stomata occurs due to diffusion.
• Loss of water vapor from aerial parts involves the phenomenon of diffusion.

Osmosis:

• The diffusion of water or any other liquid through a semipermeable membrane into the solution having the same liquid as a solvent from higher concentration to lower concentration is termed osmosis.
• Water enters into root hair of root by osmosis.
• Osmosis is of two types. cell to cell movement of water throughout the plant body occurs through osmosis.

(2) Differences between Transpiration and Evaporation:
Transpiration:

• It is Water loss from the surface of living aerial parts of the plant. Water vapors are formed in the internal tissues of the plant.
• It involves living tissues.
• It is both a physical and physiological process. It is thus controlled by external environmental factors like relative humidity, temperature, availability of soil water, etc., and internal or plant factors like position, number, opening, and closing of stomata, the extent of the cuticle.
• It is regulated by the amount of available soil water.

Evaporation:

• It is the loss of water from the free surface of the water.
• It does not involve living tissues.
• It is purely a physical process. controlled by only environmental factors like relative humidity, temperature, wind velocity.
• It continues as long as the water is available on the surface.

(3) Differences between the osmotic pressure and osmotic potential:
osmotic pressure:
Hydrostatic pressure required to stop the movement of water molecules through a semi-permeable membrane is called osmotic pressure.

osmotic potential:
It is the amount by which the water potential of pure water is reduced known as osmotic potential by the presence of the solute. it is represented by bars and has a negative value.

(4) Differences between Imbibition and Diffusion:
Imbibition:

• Imbibition is a special type of diffusion when water is absorbed by solids-colloids-causing them to enormously increase in volume. The classical examples of imbibition are absorption of water by seeds and by dry wood.
• Imbibition is also diffusion since water movement is along a concentration gradient; the seeds and other such materials have almost no water hence they absorb water easily.

Diffusion:

• In diffusion, molecules move in a random fashion, the net result being substances moving from regions of higher concentration to regions of lower concentration. Diffusion is a slow process and is not dependent on a ‘living system’.
• Diffusion is obvious in gases and liquids, but diffusion in solids rather than solids is more likely.
• Diffusion is very important to plant since it the only means for gaseous movement within the plant body.

(5) Differences between the Apoplast and Symplast pathways of absorption of water in plants:
Apoplast:

• The apoplast is the system of adjacent cell walls that is continuous throughout the plant, except at the Casparian strips of the endodermis in the roots.
• The apoplastic movement of water occurs exclusively through the intercellular spaces and the walls of the cells.
• Movement through the apoplast does not involve crossing the cell membrane. This movement is de¬pend on the gradient.
• The apoplast does not provide any barrier to water movement and water movement is through the mass flow.
• As water evaporates into the intercellular spaces or the atmosphere, tension develops in the continuous stream of water in the apoplast.

Symplast:

• The symplastic system is the system of interconnected protoplast. Neighboring cells are connected through cytoplasmic strands that extend through plasmodesmata.
• During the symplastic movement, the water travels through the cells through their cytoplasm; intercellular movement is through the plasmodesmata.
• Water has to enter the cells through the cell membrane. Movement is again down a potential gradient.
• Symplastic movement may be aided by cytoplasmic streaming. The water then moves through the symplast and again crosses a membrane to reach the cells of the xylem.
• The movement of water through the root layers is ultimately symplastic in the endodermis. This is the only way water and other solutes can enter the vascular cylinder.

(6) Differences between Guttations and Transportation
Transportation:

• It occurs through the general surface, (cuticle), stomata and lenticels.
• The water is lost in the form of vapors during transpiration.
• It can occur through all aerial parts.
• It mainly occurs during the daytime only when the temperature is comparatively high.
• It takes place under dry conditions which favor water loss by diffusion.
• The bulk of transpiration occurs when stomata are open as transpiration through lenticels and cuticle are insignificant.
• Under deficient water conditions, excessive transpiration may lead to wilting.
• It is regulated by a number of external and internal factors such as relative humidity, temperature, opening and closing of stomata, etc.

Guttations:

• It occurs through hydathodes, present at the vein ends.
• The water is lost in the form of droplets during guttation.
• It occurs in leaves only.
• It occurs during cold hours of the night.
• It takes place under conditions that retard water loss by diffusion e.g. high relative humidity and low temperature of the atmosphere.
• It takes place only under conditions of adequate water supply and during cold and humid weather as prevails at night or early morning, although odes remain open all the time.
• It does not occur in deficient water conditions and thus never leads to wilting.
• It is mainly regulated by humidity, temperature, and availability of water in the soil.

Question 6.
Briefly describe water potential. What are the factors affecting it?
Answer:
Typically, pure water at standard temperature and pressure is defined as having a water potential of 0. The addition of solutes to water lowers its potential just as increase in pressure increases its potential. Seawater typically has negative water potentials relative to the pure water reference. If there is no restriction on flow, water molecules will proceed from the locus of pure water to the more negative water potential of the solution. Water potential of a cell is affected by both solute and pressure potential. The relationship between them is as follows
Ψ_w=Ψ_B +Ψ_p

Question 7.
What happens when a pressure greater than the atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water or a solution?
Answer:
Under constant temperature the volume of a liquid varies inversely to pressure. Moreover, if greater pressure is applied then it will change the state of the matter from liquid to solid at a given temperature. Any liquid will abide by these laws.

Question 8.
(a) With the help of well-labeled diagrams, describe the process of plasmolysis in plants, giving appropriate examples.

Plasmolysis occurs when water moves out of the cell and the cell membrane of a plant cell shrinks away from its cell wall. This occurs when the cell is placed in a solution that is hypertonic to the protoplasm. Water moves out, it is first lost from the cytoplasm and then from the vacuole. The water when drawn out of the cell through diffusion into the extracellular fluid causes the protoplast to shrink away from the walls. The cell is said to be plasmolyzed.

(b) Explain what will happen to a plant cell if it is kept in a solution having higher water potential.
Answer:
If a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, the plant cell loses water and hence turgor pressure, making the plant cell flaccid. Plants with cells in this condition wilt. Further water loss causes plasmolysis-pressure decreases to the point where the protoplasm of the cell peels away from the cell wall leaving gaps between the cell wall and the membrane, Eventually, cytolysis- the complete collapse of the cell wall can occur.

Question 9.
How is the mycorrhizal association helpful in the absorption of water and minerals in plants?
Answer:
In conifers (e.g. Pinus) the root hairs (helps in water absorption) are either very poorly developed or entirely absent. Such roots are associated with fungal hyphae is called mycorrhiza. The fungal filaments form a network around the young roots. The hyphae have a very large surface area that absorbs mineral ions and water from the soil and hands over to root.

Question 10.
What role does root pressure play in water movement in plants?
Answer:

1. As various ions from the soil are actively transported into the vascular tissues of the roots, water follows (its potential gradient) and increases the pressure inside the xylem.
2. This positive pressure is called root pressure and can be responsible for pushing up water to small heights in the stem.
3. Root pressure can, at best, only provide a modest push in the overall process of water transport.
4. They obviously do not play a major role in water movement up tall trees.
5. The greatest contribution of root pressure may be to re-establish the continuous chains of water molecules in the xylem which often break under the enormous tensions created by transpiration.
6. Root pressure does not account for the majority of water transport; most plants meet their need by the transpiratory pull.

Question 11.
Describe the transpiration pull model of water transport in plants. What are the factors influencing transpiration? How is it useful to plants?
Answer:
Despite plants not having a heart or a circulatory system, the flow of water upward through the xylem can achieve fairly high rates, up to 15 meters per hour. How is this movement accomplished? A long-standing question is whether water is “pushed” or “pulled” through the plant. Most researchers agree that water is mainly “pulled” through the plant and that the driving force for this process is transpiration from the leaves. This is referred to as the cohesion-tension-transpiration pull model of water transport. But what generates this transpirational pull?

Water is transient in plants. Less than 1% of the water reaching the leaves is used in photosynthesis and plant growth. Most of it is lost through the stomata in the leaves. This water loss is known as transpiration. Transpiration is affected by several external factors: temperature, light, humidity, wind speed. Plant factors that affect transpiration include the number and distribution of stomata, percent of open stomata, water status of the plant, canopy structure, etc.

Question 12.
Discuss the factors responsible for the ascent of xylem sap in plants.
Answer:
The transpiration-driven ascent of xylem sap depends mainly on the following physical properties of water.

• Cohesion – the mutual attraction between water molecules.
• Adhesion – an attraction of water molecules to polar surfaces.
• Surface Tension – water molecules are attracted to each other in the liquid phase more than to water in the gas phase.

Question 13.
What essential role does the root endodermis play during mineral absorption In plants?
Answer:
Like all cells, the endodermis cells have many transport proteins embedded in their plasma membrane; they let some solutes cross the membrane, but not others. Transport proteins of endodermal cells are control points, where a plant adjusts the quantity and types of solutes that it absorbs from the soil. Note that the root endoderm because of the layer of suberin has the ability to actively transport ions in one direction only. The endodermis regulates the quantity and type of minerals and ions that reach the xylem.

Question 14.
Explain why xylem transport is unidirectional and phloem transport bi-directional.
Answer:
Food, primarily sucrose, is transported by the vascular tissue phloem from a source to a sink. Usually, the source is understood to be that part of the plant which synthesizes the food and sink, the part that needs or stores the food. But, the source and sink may be reversed depending on the plant’s needs. Sugar stored in roots may be mobilized to become a source of food in the early spring when the buds of trees, act as a sink; they need energy for growth and development of the photosynthetic apparatus. Since the source-sink relationship is variable, the direction of movement in the phloem can be bi-directional. This contrasts with that of the xylem where the movement is always unidirectional.

Question 15.
Explain the pressure-flow hypothesis of translocation of sugars in plants.
Answer:
The accepted mechanism used for the translocation of sugars from source to sink is called the pressure-flow hypothesis. As glucose is prepared at the source, it is converted to sucrose. The sugar is then moved in the form of sucrose into the companion cells and then into the living phloem sieve tube cells by active transport. This process of loading at the source produces a hypertonic condition in the phloem. Water in the adjacent xylem moves into the phloem by osmosis.

As osmotic pressure builds up the phloem sap will move to areas of lower pressure. At the sink osmotic pressure must be reduced. Again active transport is necessary to move the sucrose out of the phloem sap and into the cells which will use the sugar to convert it into energy, starch, or cellulose. As sugars are removed, the osmotic pressure decreases and water moves out of the phloem.

Question 16.
What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of stomata during transpiration?
Answer:
Normally stomata are open in the day and close during the night. The immediate cause of the opening or closing of the stomata is a change in the turgidity of the guard cells. The inner wall of each guard cell towards the pore or stoma is thick and elastic. When turgidity increases within the two guard cells flanking each stoma, the thin outer walls bulge out and force the inner walls into a crescent shape.

1st PUC Biology Transport in Plants Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Biology Transport in Plants One Mark Questions

Question 1.
What is Endosmosls? (Oct. 83, Apr. 84)
Answer:
When Water enters a living system the process is called endosmosis.

Question 2.
A plant cell when kept in a certain solution got plasmolyzed. What was the nature of this solution?
Answer:
Hypertonic solution.

Question 3.
What happens when fresh Grapes are put in a sugar solution? (Apr. 90)
Answer:
Exosmosis

Question 4.
Define Plasmolysis? (April 1993, M.Q.P., Oct. 2000, 2003, July 2006, March 2010)
Answer:
Shrinking of Protoplasm due to exosmosis when cells are placed in a Hypertonic solution.

Question 5.
Define transpirational pull.
Answer:
The tension develops due to transpiration which helps in the pulling water from the soil to leaves, which is called transpirational pull.

Question 6.
What is osmosis? (Oct. 97, Apr. 04)
Answer:
Osmosis is the movement of solvent from a region of higher concentration to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane till equilibrium is attained.

Question 7.
Expand DPD (M.Q.P.)
Answer:
DPD. stands for Diffusion Pressure Deficit.

Question 8.
What is turgor pressure? (Apr. 98, 02, Oct. 04, July 2011)
Answer:
Turgor pressure is the hydrostatic presence developed in a cell due to the entry of water.

Question 9.
What is imbibition? (Oct. 98, March 09)
Answer:
Absorption of water by hydrophilic colloids.

Question 10.
What is water potential? (M.Q.P., Apr. 99, Oct. 02, July 07)
Answer:
Water potential is the difference between the free energy of water in a system and free energy of pure water.

Question 11.
What is the value of water potential of pure water at atmospheric pressure? (Apr. 05)
Answer:
Zero

Question 12.
Fresh grapes shrink in a salt solution. Give reason. (July 2007)
Answer:
Fresh grapes shrink in salt solution because of exosmosis causing plasmolysis.

Question 13.
In which plant there will be no transpiration?
Answer:
In aquatic submerged plant there will be no transpiration.

Question 14.
Give reason:
Bacteria do not survive in highly salted pickles. (March 2010)
Answer:
Bacteria do not survive in highly salted pickles because they are plasmolyzed due to the hypertonic nature of the salt.

Question 15.
Maximum absorption of water occurs In the origin of root hairs. Give reasons. (M.Q.P.)
Answer:
Root hairs provide enormous surface area for absorption. So maximum absorption of water occurs in this region.

Question 16.
Who proposed the pulsatory activity theory on the ascent of sap? (Apr. 83, Oct. 2002)
Ans:
Sir. C. Bose

Question 17.
Which theory was proposed by Dixon and Jolly? (Oct. 94)
Answer:
Cohesion-tension theory

Question 18.
Define ascent of sap. (Oct. 2003)
Answer:
The upward movement of sap (mainly water) through the xylem from the base to the tip of the plant is called ascent of sap.

Question 19.
Give reason: Girdling experiment cannot be performed in sugarcane plants. (Apr. 07)
Answer:
In monocots the vascular bundles are scattered, girdling does not remove all the phloem. So girdling experiment is not performed in sugarcane.

Question 20.
Which instrument is used to measure the rate of transpiration? (Apr. 91,92,98, M.Q.P.)
Answer:
Photometer

Question 21.
What are antitranspirants? (March 2010)
Answer:
The substances which reduce the rate of transpiration in plants without affecting C02 fixation in photosynthesis or plant growth are called antitranspirants.

Question 22.
Give reason: (July 2008)
As the wind blows the rate of transpiration increases.
Answer:
As the wind blows the rate of transpiration increases because wind removes the saturated water vapours accumulated around the stomata during blowing and increases the rate of transpiration.

Question 23.
What is Epithem? (Apr. 04, July 2006)
Answer:
Loosely arranged parenchyma like cells present just beneath the air chamber of
hydathode are called Epithem.

Question 24.
Name the process by which H₂O is lost as a liquid with the dissolved substances.
Answer:
Guttation. (Oct. 04)

Question 25.
In girdling experiment, the roots die first. (March 2011)
Answer:
In girdling experiment the roots die first because the passage of food is blocked.

1st PUC Biology Transport in Plants Two Marks Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between endosmosis and ex-osmosis. (Apr. 85, Oct. 96, M.Q.P.)
Answer:

•  Endosmosis is the movement of solvent molecules into the cell through selectively permeable membrane along a concentration gradient. Whereas, exosmosis is the movement of solvent molecules from the interior to outer medium through selectively permeable membrane along a concentration gradient.
• Cell becomes turgid due to endosmosis. Whereas, cell becomes flaccid due to exosmosis.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Turgid and Flaccid condition. (Apr. 87)
Answer:

• Turgid: A Turgid cell is one in which DPD = zero. The call has water to its maximum capacity and priasma membrane is extended right up to the cell wall.
• Flaccid: A Flaccid cell is one in which DPD = OP, the cell loses water and plasma membrane surrounds the shrunk protoplasm.

Question 3.
Define T.P. and DPD. What is the value of D.P.D. in a turgid cell? (Oct. 94)
Answer:

• T.P – Turgor Pressure: It is the hydro-static pressure developed when a cell is placed in hypertonic solution or pure water resulting in endosmosis.
• DPD – Diffusion Pressure Deficit: The quantitative decrease or deficit in diffusion pressure caused due to the addition of solutes is called DPD. In a turgid cell, DPD equals zero.

Question 4.
Write any two significances of diffusion in plants. (June 2009)
Answer:
The significance of diffusion in plants is

• To bring about gaseous exchange O₂ and CO₂.
• Transport of food material from one sieve-tube to the other.

Question 5.
Name any four physical theories of Ascent Of Sap. (Oct. 1993)
Answer:
Physical theories of Ascent of Sap.

• Atmospheric pressure theory
• Imbibitional theory
• Capillarity
• Root pressure theory.

Question 6.
Point but differences between Transpiration and Guttation. (M.Q.P.,April 96, 99, 03, 2006, Oct. 97, 2003)
Answer:
(1) Guttation
(a) Transpiration

(1) Water is lost in liquid form.
(a) Water is lost in vapour form.

(2) Loss of water takes place through hydathodes.
(b) Loss of water takes place through stomata

(3) Seen in some herbaceous plants only.
(c) Universal occurrence.

(4) Occurs only in the early morning time.
(d) Occurs when temperatures are high and bright light.

Question 7.
Mention any four environmental factors affecting transpiration.
(Oct. 01, April 05, July 2006)
Answer:
The four environmental factors affecting transpiration are light intensity, temperature, wind velocity and humidity.

Question 8.
Write the differences between transpiration and Evaporation. (March 2011)
Answer:
Transpiration

• It is a physiological phenomenon.
• It is controlled process
• It takes place through the surface of leaves, young stem, etc.
• Amount of water transpired is less.

Evaporation

• It is a simple physical phenomenon.
• It is not controlled.
• It takes place through the surface of various open water bodies and does not require the living organs or plants.
• The amount of water evaporated is more.

Question 9.
What is stomatal frequency?
Answer:
The number of stomata per square centimeter area of leaf is called stomatal frequency.

Question 10.
Write any four significances of transpiration. (March 2010)
Answer:
The significance of transpiration are

• Increase the rate of water and mineral absorption.
• Reduces leaf temperature resulting in cooling effect.
• Water is circulated within the plant body and maintains cell turgidity.
• Promotes the development of mechanical tissues.

Question 11.
Draw a labelled sketch of Hydathode. (Apr. 99,2001)
Answer:

Question 12.
Discuss any three environmental factors affecting transpiration. (July 2007)
Answer:

• Wind: When the wind velocity is high the rate of transpiration increases.
• Humidity: higher the humidity the rate of transpiration decreases i.e. transpiration increases on a sunny day and decreases on a cloudy day.
• Temperature: higher the temperature greater is the rate of transpiration.

Question 13.
Define translocation and Ascent of Sap (April 1991)
Answer:
Movement of organic solutes or photosynthates from one part of the plant to the other is called Translocation. Ascent of Sap: Upward movement of Sap from the base to the tip of the plant is called Ascent of Sap.

Question 14.
Mention any 2 theories on mechanisms of Phloem conduction. (Oct. 1994)
Answer:
The theories put forth to explain Phloem conduction are

• Transcellular streaming
• Munch hypothesis

1st PUC Biology Transport in Plants Three Marks Questions

Question 1.
When any dry plant material or seeds are kept in water, the swell up name and define the phenomenon involved in this change. Describe the two conditions necessary for the phenomenon to occur.
Answer:
Imbibition is the phenomenon involved. It is a type of diffusion of water along a gradient into an adsorbent the two conditions are

• There must exist a water potential gradient between the surface of the adsorbent and the liquid imbibed.
• The affinity between the adsorbent and the liquid imbibed.

Question 2.
What is root pressure? How is it demonstrated experimentally?
Answer:
Root pressure is defined as the positive hydrostatic pressure developed in the root cortical cells, which pushes water into xylem upto a certain height. Root pressure can be demonstrated in the following ways:

• Choose a well-watered soft-stemmed plant
• Cut the stem horizontally near the base with sharp blade.
• Drops of fluid ooze out of the cut stem indicates a positive hydrostatic pressure, the root pressure.
• If the cut end is contracted to a rubber tube, the liquid can be collected and the rate of exudation measured.

Question 3.
Define diffusion. Is it active or passive? Why is diffusion important to plants?
Answer:
Diffusion is defined as the random movement of ions or molecules of any substance from the region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration until equilibrium is attained. It is a passive process.
Importance to plants:

• It is the only means of gaseous exchange within the plant body.
• During transpiration, water vapour moves out of the leaf surface by diffusion.

Question 4.
Define the following:

(i) isotonic
Answer:
The external solution is isotonic, if it balances the osmotic pressure of the cell i.e. it has the same solute concentration as the cytoplasm.

(ii) Hypotonic
Answer:
If the external solution is weaker than the cytoplasm, it is said to be hypotonic.

(iii) Hypertonic
Answer:
If the external solution is more concentrated than the cytoplasm, it is hypertonic.

Question 5.
Describe 3 properties of water responsible for transpiration driven ascent of sap.
Answer:

• Cohesion – mutual attraction between water molecules
• Adhesion – attraction between water molecules and lignocellulosic cell wall of tracheary elements of xylem.
• Surface tension – Water molecules are attracted to each other in liquid phase more than water in gaseous phase.

1st PUC Biology Transport in Plants Five Marks Questions

Question 1.
Explain imbibition with an example. (M.Q.P.)
Answer:
Imbibition is the absorption of water by hydrophilic colloids. Imbibition requires an affinity between the imbibant and substance imbibed. Hence seeds and wood imbibe water where as rubber imbibes ether. Imbibition also requires a difference in water potential of imbibant and substance imbibed. Imbibition results in a pressure called imbibitional pressure of high magnitude and is defined as “the potential maximum developed in the imbibant due to entry of water.” Example: Wooden doors and windows absorb moisture in monsoon.

Question 2.
Describe an experiment to demonstrate the ascent of sap.
Answer:

Aim:
To demonstrate ascent of sap using a Balsam or Peperomia plant

Procedure:
A rooted Balsam or Peperomia plant is placed in Eosin solution taken in a beaker and left aside under bright sunlight. After a few hours a section of the stem is taken and viewed under the microscope without staining.

Result:
A red streak can be seen through the transparent stem. The Xylem of the stem T.S. is coloured red.

Inference:
Because of transpiration pull the water (eosin solution) rises into the root, through the stem leaves and because of the transparent stem Xylem appears red. The path taken is through Xylem proved by viewing the section without staining.

Question 3.
Explain the cohesion tension theory; and mention its merits and demerits.
OR
Explain the transpiration pull theory of Ascent of Sap. Write Its one merit and demerit. (April 2006,2009, June 2009)
Answer:
This theory was proposed by Dixon and Jolly (1894). It is most important and widely accepted physical theory. This theory is based on the following features,

(1) Cohesion and adhesion:
The water molecules remain attracted by a force called cohesion. The force by which water molecules remain adherel to the lateral wall of trachea and trancheids of xylem is called adhesion. The cohesive and adhesive properties of water form an unbroken continuous water column in xylem. Such water column is continuous from roots to the leaves.

(2) Transpiration pull or tension:
Transpiration pull is a force created due to transpiration. OR a negative force or tension or it is pull created as a result of transpiration which is transmitted down to the root. As transpiration occurs, mesophyll cells of leaf loose water in the form of water vapour. Due to the loss of water vapours, the cytoplasm of mesophyll cells becomes concentrated and its osmotic concentration  ( OC ) osmotic pressure ( OP ) and DPD are increased so they absorb water from the adjacent cells.

This process continues (evaporation absorption of water from the adjacent cells evaporation) upto the xylem vessels of leaf, then to the xylem vessels of petiole, stem and root. In other words, this tension is transmitted all the way down to the unbroken column of water through the stem to the absorbing parts or the root. So entire water column is pulled up.

Merits of transpiration pull theory:

(1) The force created by transpiration pull and cohesion is known to be capable of lifting the water column even to a height of 2000 m.

(2) The cohesive force of water is up to 350 atmospheres. The transpiration force created at the region of leaf is only 20 -50 atmospheres. It falls on the continuous water column but column does not break because the cohesive force of 350 atm can overcome this.

Question 4.
Explain stomatal apparatus with a neat labelled diagram and mechanism of opening and closing of stomata. (Apr. 84, 87, 95, 2005, Oct. 98, M.Q.P.)
Answer:

Stomatal IT movement has been explained by two important theories starch hydrolysis theory and proton transport concept.

Starch Hydrolysis Theory: This theory was proposed by Lloyd and elaborated by Scarth. It is also called Starch Sugar interconversion. It is based on the interconversion of Starch and sugar and effect of PH on enzymes.

Starch + P→ (Glucose-1-phosphate) n

During the day CO₂ is used in photosynthesis, concentration is low in guard cells, as a result, the pH rises to 7.0. Enzyme is activated and starch is hydrolysed to glucose phosphate. This causes endosmosis which brings about turgidity and the guard cells open.

During night CO₂ accumulates in guard cells and is converted to carbonic acid, PH decreases to 5.0 and causes the conversion of sugar to starch. Since it is insoluble water diffuses out causing exosmosis, guard cells are flaccid and the guard cells close.

This theory has the following drawbacks

• Photosynthesis in guard cells is too slow to bring about Osmotic changes.
• Malic acid accumulates in place of sugars.
• Enzymes does not catalyse the reverse reaction.

Proton Transport or Active potassium mechanism:

This theory was explained by Levitt. Guard cells in presence of sunlight use C02 during photosynthesis. With decrease in CO₂ concentration, P^H rises causing conversion of starch to sugar and finally, Malic acid is accumulated. This dissociates into H⁺ and Malate ions and by using ATP exchange H⁺ for K⁺ to form Potassium malate. The water potential becomes more negative causing endosmosis and the guard cells become turgid and stomata open.

During the dark Photosynthesis decreases, CO₂ concentration increases and PH decreases to 5.0. K⁺ flows and again Malic acid accumulates. Flaccidity occurs as a result of exosmosis making the guard cells close. Closing is also influenced by ABA and Ca⁺² ions.

Question 5.
‘Transpiration is necessary evil’ Discuss. (Oct. 86, 92, Apr. 91, 93, M.Q.P.)
Answer:
Transpiration is regarded as a ‘necessary evil’ because it has both advantages and
disadvantages.
Advantages:

1. lncreases rate of water absorption and mineral absorption.
2. lncrease the rate of transport within the plant body.
3. Reduces leaf temperature resulting in a cooling effect.
4. Water is circulated within the plant body and thereby maintains cell turgidity.
5. Promotes the development of mechanical tissues.

Disadvantages:

1. lf transpiration exceeds rate of absorption it results in death due to wilting.
2. In rapid transpiration, turgor is lost and general metabolism is affected.
3. It unnecessarily uses energy and creates, water shortage which causes death by desiccation.

Unavoidable: As long as Stomata are open the process continues.

Question 6.
Explain Steward’s starch glucose interconversion theory. (April 2007, March 2010, July 2010)
Answer:
(1) Starch hydrolysis theory:

(Starch – glucose inter conversion theory). This theory was proposed by steward (1964). It is modified theory of starch – sugar interconversion theory.

According to this theory following changes bring the opening of stomata.

• During day time, guard cells consume (use) CO₂ for photosynthesis. So CO₂ concentration decreases in the guard cells. pH of guard cells rises to almost 7.
• Under low CO₂ concentration and at pH7, starch is hydrolysed into glucose -1 – P
  ( glucose -1 -phosphate) in the presence of phosphorylase enzyme.
• Glucose -1 – P is convented into glucose -6 – phosphate in the presence of
  phospho glucomutase.
• Glucose -6 – P is finally converted into glucose is the presence of phosphatase.
• When starch is hydrolysed, glucose formed in the guard cells. Since glucose is osmotically active, Osmotic Concentration & Osmotic Pressure of guard cells increases &yw decreases.
• Water is drawn into the guard cells from the surrounding subsidiary cells.
• Guard cells become turgid due to endosmosis. So turgor pressure is developed in the guard cells. The TP exert a pressure on the outer thin elastic wall of guard cell, resulting in stretching of outer wall. The inner thick wall also stretched outward. It results in the  opening of stomata.

Following changes bring closing of stomata.

• During night, in the absence of photosynthesis, CO₂ accumulates in guard cells. Its concentration increases in guard cells. pH of guard cells decreases and it becomes 5(acidic).
• Under high CO₂ concentration and at pH5, glucose is convented into glucose
  -1 – phosphate in the presence of hexokinase.
• Glucose -1 – phosphate is further converted into starch in the presence of phosphorylase.
• Starch formed in guard cells, which is insoluble and osmotically enactive. So OC and OP of guard cells decreases, ψ ω of cell sap of guard cells is increased.
• Water from the guard cells diffuse out into the subsidiary cells due to exosmosis.
• Guard cells become flaccid, outward stretched walls regain their original position and stomata become closed.

Question 7.
Explain the structure of hydathode with a labelled sketch.
Answer:

• T.P – Turgor Pressure: It is the hydro-static pressure developed when a cell is placed in hypertonic solution or pure water resulting in endosmosis.
• DPD – Diffusion Pressure Deficit: The quantitative decrease or deficit in diffusion pressure caused due to the addition of solutes is called DPD. In a turgid cell, DPD equals zero.

The hydathodes are present at the tips of the veins It consists of pore in the epidermis and it is guarded by guard cells. Just below the pore there is an air chamber. Just below the air chamber there is a group of loosely arranged thin walled, colourless cells (parenchyma like cells) are called epithem (Epithem are loosely arranged thin walled parenchyma cells present just below the air chamber of hydathode). Tracheids of xylem open just below the epithem. They are the ends of the xylem tissue of the veins.

Question 8.
Give any 5 differences between transpiration and guttation.
Answer:
Differences between transpiration and guttation.

Transpiration

• In transpiration water is lost in the form of water vapour.
• Transpired water is pure
• Transpiration takes place through stomata, cuticle and lenticel.
• It takes place during day hours.
• It is controlled by opening & closing by stomata (Stomatal mechanism).

Guttation

• In guttation, water is lost in the form of liquid droplets.
• The liquid coming out in guttation is not pure but it contains a number of dissolved substances like minerals, salts, sugar etc.
• Guttation takes place through hydathode.
• It takes place during the night or in the early morning.
• It is not controlled since hydathodes always remain open.

Question 9.
Define translocation of organic solutes.
Explain Munch’s hypothesis. Write its one merit and one demerit (Oct. 99, July 2011)
Answer:
Movement of organic solutes or photo synthates from one part of the plant to the
other is called translocation.

Munch used a model system to explain the translocation of solutes. Two Osmometers A and B were taken. ‘A’ filled with concentrated sugar solution and ‘B’ with dilute sugar solution. The Osmometers are made of semipermeable membranes. These are connected by means of a double bent tube ‘C’ containing water. The entire system is left in a trough D containing water. Water enters the osmometer A because of osmosis resulting in mass flow from A to C and finally B. The water from B is forced out because of pressure created due to mass flow.

This working model is comparable to the actual process occurring in plants, a pressure gradient exists between the source (comparable to A) where sugar is loaded (leaves) using ATP and the sink (comparable to B) where sugar is unloaded (storage organs). In the leaves, sugar enters the sieve tubes from companion cells which lower the water potential which pushes the sugar solution through the sieve tube-like water being pushed through a hose. At the sink, sugar is actively unloaded with the use of ATP, which increases the water potential and water moves out.

This, however, is the accepted model of phloem transport.
The theory fails to explain

• Bidirectional flow of organic substances.
• The role played by phloem.
• The resistance offered by plasmodesmata and sieve plates.
• It regards the process as purely physical

 

merits

• Supply end always has a high sugar level
• Turgor decreases in defoliated plants.

Question 10.
Explain Munch Hypothesis. (April 85, 88, 90, 2001, Oct. 1997, M.Q.P., July 2008)
Arts:

(b) Comparison of Munch Hypothesis in Plants
Answer:
Munch used a model system to explain the translocation of solutes. Two Osmometers A and B were taken. ‘A’ filled with concentrated sugar solution and ‘B’ with dilute sugar solution. The Osmometers are made of semipermeable membranes. These are connected by means of a double bent tube ‘C’ containing water. The entire system is left in a trough D containing water. Water enters the osmometer A because of osmosis resulting in mass flow from A to C and finally B. The water from B is forced out because of pressure created due to mass flow.

This working model is comparable to the actual process occurring in plants, a pressure gradient exists between the source (comparable to A) where sugar is loaded (leaves) using ATP and the sink (comparable to B) where sugar is unloaded (storage organs). In the leaves, sugar enters the sieve tubes from companion cells which lower the water potential which pushes the sugar solution through the sieve tube-like water being pushed through a hose. At the sink, sugar is actively unloaded with the use of ATP, which increases the water potential and water moves out.

This, however, is the accepted model of phloem transport.
The theory fails to explain

• Bidirectional flow of organic substances.
• The role played by phloem.
• The resistance offered by plasmodesmata and sieve plates.
• It regards the process as purely physical

 

Karnataka 1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 2 The Earth

You can Download Chapter 2 The Earth Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Geography Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

1st PUC Geography The Earth One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the approximate age of the Earth? (T.B.Q)
Answer:
4.6 Billion years

Question 2.
What is antipodal balance?
Answer:
The arrangement of land and water bodies on the earth is called ‘Antipodal balance’.

Question 3.
Name a unique planet in the solar system.
Answer:
Earth is a unique planet in the solar system.

Question 4.
At what distance is the Earth situated from sun?
Answer:
Earth is situated at a distance of about 150 million kms from the sun.

Question 5.
Where does the orbit of Earth lie in solar system?
Answer:
The orbit of Earth lies between Venus and Mars.

Question 6.
Where does Earth stand among the planets?
Answer:
The earth is the fifth largest planet in terms of size.

Question 7.
Why Earth is called a ‘Watery planet’.
Answer:
Earth is called a ‘Watery Planet’ due to abundance of water which covers about 71% of the surface of the Earth.

Question 8.
What are the three important realms of the Earth?
Answer:
Lithosphere, Hydrosphere and Atmosphere are the three important realms of the Earth.

Question 9.
What is Equator?
Answer:
Equator is an imaginary line that divides the Earth into two hemispheres.

Question 10.
What are antipodes?
Answer:
Two places situated geometrically on opposite sides of the earth.

Question 11.
Which is the largest and smallest continent in the world?
Answer:
Asia & Australia.

Question 12.
Name the oldest proof in respect of shape of the Earth. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Aristotle proves that the circular shadow of the Earth during a lunar eclipse on the moon . proves that Earth is spherical.

Question 13.
Who conducted Bed Ford Experiment? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Dr. Alfred Russel Wallace conducted Bed ford level Experiment in 1956, along the Bed ford level canal area in Britain.

Question 14.
What is the total geographical area of the earth? (T. B. Qn)
Answer: 510Millionsq.km

Question 15.
Who was the first person to calculate the distance between places? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The distance between places on the Earth was first calculated by Greek Philosopher Eratosthenes.

Question 16.
What Is the shape of the earth?
Answer:
The shape of the Earth Spherical Shape or Geoid in Shape

Question 17.
What is the equatorial circumference of the Earth?
Answer:
The equatorial circumference of the Earth 40,076km

Question 18.
What is the polar circumference of the earth?
Answer:
The polar circumference of the Earth is 40,006km

Question 19.
What is antipodal balance?
Answer:
The arangement of land and water bodies on (be earth is catted ‘Antipodal balance’.

Question 20.
What is the total area of land in the earth?
Answer:
149.1 sq.km (29.1%)

Question 21.
What is the total area of water in the earth?
Answer:
The total area of water 368sq.km (70.9%)

Question 22.
What percent of the total land area is in the northern hemisphere?
Answer:
60% of land area

Question 23.
What is the average density of the Earth?
Answer:
5.517gcm

Question 24.
What is the velocity of the earth at the eqoator?
Answer:
The velocity of die earth at the equator 1600km per hour

Question 25.
What is the velocity of the earth at the polar?
Answer:
The velocity of the earth at the polar is zero.

Question 26.
What amount of time does the Earth take to complete one rotation? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The actual period of one Rotation is 23hr 56 min and 4.09 sec or 24 hours.

Question 27.
Define Orbit. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The fixed path on which the Earth revolves round the Sun is known as Orbit.

Question 28.
On what date does the Summer Solstice occur? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Summer Solstice occur on June 21st, due to the Earth’s inclination.

Question 29.
How many temperature zones are there on the globe? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
There are three temperature zones, a) Torrid zone b) Temperate zone and c) Frigid zone.

Question 30.
Who proposed geocentric theory?
Answer:
Claudius Ptolemy proposed geocentric theory.

Question 31.
Who proposed sun centric theory?
Answer:
Nicolaus Copernicus was proposed sun-centric theory.

Question 32.
Which continent is called as ‘Ice Continent’?
Answer:
Antarctica is located entirely in the southern hemisphere covered with ice. This is called ‘Ice Continent’.

Question 33.
What is the length of Equator?
Answer:
The length of Equator is 40,076 km.

Question 34.
Which line divides the Earth into two hemispheres? Name the hemispheres?
Answer:
The equator divides the Earth into two hemispheres known as Northern hemisphere and Southern hemisphere.

Question 35.
What is rotation?
Answer:
The earth rotates or spins over its axis from west to east. This movement of the earth on its own axis is called rotation.

Question 36.
What is Sidereal Day?
Answer:
The period of rotation 23hours, 56 minutes and 4.09 seconds is known as “Sidereal Day”.

Question 37.
What is Revolution?
Answer:
The movement of the earth along its orbit around the Sun is called Revolution.

Question 38.
What is circle of illumination?
Answer:
A line that bisects areas on the earth receiving sunlight and those areas in darkness cuts the spherical earth into lighted and dark halves.

Question 39.
What are the two types of earth movements?
Answer:
The two types of earth movements are Rotation and Revolution.

Question 40.
Mention the average speed of the rotation.
Answer:
Average speed of the rotation of earth near equator is 1670 km/hr.

Question 41.
What is parallelism of the earth’s axis?
Answer:
The earth maintained 23 degree to its perpendicular throughout the orbit of the earth. This feature is described as parallelism of earth’s axis.

Question 42.
Which experiment has proved the rotation of the earth?
Answer:
Foucault’s Experiment

Question 43.
Which movement causes seasons?
Answer:
Revolution, Causes Seasons.

Question 44.
Which country is called the land of midnight sun?
Answer:
Norway is called the land of midnight sun.

Question 45.
What is an ‘Axis’?
Answer:
The axis is an imaginary line joining the north and South Pole of the globe.

Question 46.
What is Prime meridian?
Answer:
Prime meridian is an imaginary line passing through Greenwich near London.

Question 47.
What is diurnal motion of Earth?
Answer:
Rotation of Earth is from west to east and rising of Sun from east then settling in the west is diurnal motion of Earth.

Question 48.
What causes unequal day and night?
Answer:
Inclination of Earth’s axis causes unequal day and night.

Question 49.
Which is the longest and shortest day in southern hemisphere?
Answer:
22nd December is the longest and 21st June is the shortest day.

1st PUC Geography The Earth Two Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Why Northern hemisphere and southern hemisphere are called land and Water hemisphere?(T.B.Q)
Answer:
The Northern Hemisphere has 60% of land and 40% of water. Therefore it is called the ‘Land Hemisphere. The Southern hemisphere has 81% of water and 19 % of land in the Southern hemisphere. So it is called the ‘Water Hemisphere’.

Question 2.
Why is the Earth known as a unique planet?
Answer:
Earth is a unique planet because it has large variety of life forms ranging from microscopic plant and animal organism to the largest of trees and animals.

Question 3.
What is lunar Eclipse?
Answer:
A lunar Eclipse occurs when the moon passes directly behind the earth while rotating when the earth comes in between the sun and the moon and its shadow falls on the moon.

Question 4.
Why the Earth is called ‘Living Planet’?
Answer:
The Earth is the home for all forms of life like plants, animals and human beings because of its suitable distance from the Sun, range of temperature, life supporting gases, atmosphere water cycle etc. It is the only planet that supports life, that is why it is called ‘Living Planet’.

Question 5.
What is Earth’s axis?
Answer:
An imaginary line passing through the centre of the earth and joining the North Pole with South Pole is called axis.

Question 6.
How many planets are larger than the earth?
Answer:
Four planets are larger than the earth i. e Jupiter Saturn, Uranus and Neptune.

Question 7.
Mention the major continent in the world.
Answer:
A continent is a large continuous mass of land that exists above sea level. There are seven, major continents Asia, Africa, North America, South America, Antarctica, Europe and Australia.

Question 8.
Mention the major ocean in the world.
Answer:
Oceans are the large expanse of water covering large area of the earth’s surface. There are four major oceans namely, Pacific Ocean, Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean and Arctic Ocean.

Question 9.
What is Geoid? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The hypothetical shape of the earth, coinciding with mean sea level and its imagined extension under land areas. The earth is not a complete sphere, but is slightly flattened at the poles and bul ging the equator. So die shape of the earth is called ‘Geoid’.

Question 10.
Mention the Equatorial and polar diameter of the Earth? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Equatorial diameter of the Earth is 12,75tton and Polar diameter of the Earth is 12,714km

Question 11.
Name the highest and lowest points on the land. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Mount Everest (8850 mtr-Nepal) is the tallest mountain in die world. The challenger deep in the Marina trench (10898 mtr) near the Philippine Island in the Pacific Ocean is the deepest part of the ocean in the world.

Question 12.
Mention the fonr evidences of spherical shape of Me Earth?
Answer:
Circum navigation, Sunrise and Sunset, The Bradford experiment and the circular horizon are the evidences of spherical shape of the earth.

Question 13.
What is Bed ford level canal Experiment?
Answer:
The Bedford level canal Experiment conducted by Dr. A.R. Wallace, also proves that the earth is spherical in shape, in this experiment three poles of equal height Were fixed in a straight line at an equal distance of one mile from one another over a stretch of water in a canal. When the poles observed through a telescope, the middle pole appeared to be higher then the other two poles because of the curved surface.

Question 14.
What is Circum Navigation?
Answer:
If a ship starts sailing from a point, moving constantly in the same direction, it reaches the same point form where it has started its journey. This shows that the earth is spherical in shape.

Question 15.
What is circular Horizon?
Answer:
When we observe the horizon from a hill top or from the deck of a ship, it is always circular in shape. It widens with increasing altitude. This could be so only in a spherical body.

Question 16.
What is deflection of Winds? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
As a result of the earth’s rotation from west to east cause change in the direction of winds. The direction of the winds is deflected towards their right in the northern hemisphere and towards their left the southern hemisphere.

Question 17.
What is inclination of the Earth? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The Earth’s axis is not at right angle (perpendicular) to the plane of the elliptical orbit. The axis is inclined at an angle of 66 1/2° to the plane of the orbit. This is known as ‘Inclination of the Earth’s axis’.

Question 18.
Distinguish between Perihelion and Aphelion. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:

• Aphelion: July 4th the earth is far from the sun and is said to be in Aphelion position. Aph means away and hellion means Sun. At this point the distance between the sun and the earth is 152 million km.
• Perihelion: Jan 3rd the earth is nearest to the sun and is said to be in Perihelion position Peri means near, hellion means sun. At this point the distance between the sun and the earth is 147 million km.

Question 19.
State the difference between Autumn Equinox and Spring Equinox. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
On two days in a year, the sun shines vertically over the Equator i.e., at an angle of 90°. This angle decreases as one moves away from the equator.
Autumn Equinox refers to, On September 23rd, the vertical rays of the Sun falls on the Equator, Therefore, the days and nights are equal in both the hemispheres. On 21st March, the vertical rays of the sun fall son the Equator, therefore, the duration of days and nights are equal in both the hemispheres.

Question 20.
Why Norway is called ‘Land of Mid-night Sun’? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Norway is known as the ‘Land of the Mid-night Sun’ because Sun does not go below the horizon or come above it on 21st June. It moves at a low elevation from horizon-to-horizon. Although its altitude is very low, it continues shinning longer for all the 24 hours.

Question 21.
Mention the difference between Torrid and Temperate zones. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The Torrid Zone The zone stretches between 23’/2°N and south latitudes and more or less receives the vertical rays of the sun. As a result, this region experiences moderately warm climate throughout the year.
The Temperate zone: In between the Torrid and the frigid zones i.e., between 23!/2°N and South and 66’/2°N and S lies the Temperate Zone. In this zone the sun’s rays fall obliquely and hence the region experiences a moderate climate.

Question 22.
What is ‘Perihelion’?
Answer:
Jan 3rd the earth is nearest to the sun and is said to be in Perihelion position. Peri means near, hellion means sun. At this point the distance between the sun and the earth is 147 million km.

Question 23.
What is ‘Aphelion’?
Answer:
July 4th the earth is far from the sun and is said to be in Aphelion position. Aph means away and hellion means Sun. At this point the distance between the sun and the earth is 152 million km.

Question 24.
What is meant by local and standard time?
Answer:
The lime calculated from the local noon of a place is called the local time. The time of the standard meridian is called standard time.

Question 25.
What is Sidereal year?
Answer:
The Earth takes 365 days, 6hours 9 minutes and 9.5 seconds to complete one revolution. This period is known as Sidereal Year.

Question 26.
What is Solar Year?
Answer:
The average duration to complete one revolution requires 365 days and 6 hours. It is known as Solar Year.

Question 27.
What is Equinox?
Answer:
The various positions of earth on its orbit in a year, in between these two positions, on March 21st and Sept 23rd, the earth has two other important positions. During these two positions the rays of the Sun are vertical over the equator. Therefore, the days and nights are equal all over the world. These two positions are known as ‘Equinox’.

Question 28.
What is Leap year?
Answer:
The earth requires 365 1/4 days to complete one revolution round the sun. But, for practical purposes, a year is taken as 365 days. The difference of 1/4 day in each year is adjusted once in four year and that year is taken 366 days. That year is called a leap year.

Question 29.
Mention four effects of Rotation of Earth?
Answer:

• Occurrence of day and night.
• Tides and currents.
• Polar flattening and equatorial bulging
• Deflection in the direction of winds.

Question 30.
What are the effects of revolution of Earth?
Answer:

• Inequality of day and night.
• Occurrence of seasons.
• Distribution of important lines of latitude.
• Different climatic zones

Question 31.
What is Coriolis force?
Answer:
An apparent force caused by the earth’s rotation. The coriolis force is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the northern hemisphere and towards the left in the southern hemisphere. This is also known as ‘Ferrel’s law’.

Question 32.
What are seasons? How they are caused?
Answer:
Seasons refer to periods of a year which have some peculiar climatic conditions. They are caused due to the revolution of the earth.

1st PUC Geography The Earth Five Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Describe the size of the Earth. (T.B. Qn).
Answer:
The ancient people made attempts to determine the size of the Earth. About 2,000 years ago a Greek astronomer, Eratosthenes, who lived In Alexandria in Egypt succeeded in calculating the size of the earth almost accurately, according to him, the earth’s circumference at the equator was 41,140kms. It was very close to the actual circumference of the earth, as known today.

The actual equatorial circumference of the earth is 40,076km, where as the polar circumference is 40,006km. The difference between the two is 70km. The earth’s equatorial diameter is 12,757km and the polar diameter is 12,714km. The difference is 43km. The geoids shape of the earth makes the circumference through the poles little less than that along the equator. The total surface area of the earth is 510. 9 million sq kms of the surface area, 71 % is covered by water mass and 29% is covered by landmass. The water mass is 361 million sq.kms and the land area is 149 million sq.kms. The land area is divided into seven continents and many island. The continents are Asia, Africa, and North America, South America, Antarctica, Europe and Australia.

The water area consist of five ocean, namely, the pacific Ocean, the Atlantic Ocean, the Indian Ocean, the Antarctic ocean and the Arctic Ocean and many gulfs, bays and seas. The globe is divided into two hemispheres, namely the northern hemisphere and the southern hemisphere, by the equator. The northern hemisphere contains 2/3 of the land and the southern hemisphere contains 1/3 of the land. The zero degree meridians decide the globe into two hemispheres, namely, the eastern hemisphere and the western hemisphere.

Question 2.
Name and explain the proofs in support of the spherical shape of the Earth. (T.B. Qn)
Answer:
There are several proofs to regard the earth as a spherical shape of the Earth.
a. Heavenly bodies appear to be spherical: The Sun, the Moon and other heavenly bodies appear to be spherical when viewed from different position. The earth is one of them and hence it must also be spherical in shape.

b. The Lunar Eclipse: The lunar eclipse proves that the Earth is in spherical shape. During lunar eclipse when the Earth is between the Sun and the Moon, the shadow of the Earth falls on the Moon. Aristotle was the first scholar to show this by looking at the shadow of the Earth on the lunar surface. Later, this was ascertained by Ptolemy. This is considered to be the oldest proof in respect of the shape of the Earth.

c. Sunrise and Sunset: The time of Sunrise and Sunset is not the same everywhere in the world. This is due to spherical shape of the Earth. If the Earth were to be flat all places on the Earth would have had sunrise and sunset at the same time everywhere in the world.

d. Circumnavigation: Circumnavigation of the world can only be possible when the Earth is in spherical shape. If one start on a sea voyage towards the east, by moving constantly in the same direction, he would be able to complete a circle of the world and reach the original point form where he had started.

e. The Bed Ford level experiment: Dr.Alfred Russel Wallace conducted an experiment in 1956, along the Bed Ford level canal area in Britain. It is the most convincing proof of the curvature of the Earth. He fixed three poles of same height at an interval of about mile apart and observed through a telescope. It was found that the pole in the middle was higher than other two poles. It is due to the curvature of the Earth. If the Earth were to be flat all the poles would have the same horizontal level.

f. Sighting a ship: A ship on the sea approaching the coast, when seen from the short does not come into view all at once. The observer first sees the mast and then the hull and finally the whole ship. A ship moving away from the coast disappears gradually and finally out of view. If the Earth were to be flat the whole ship would have come into view.

g. Aerial and Satellite Photographs: The photographs taken by the cosmonauts in the recent decades and satellites have provided ample proof to show that the earth is spherical in shape.

Question 3.
Explain the effects of the rotation of the Earth. (T.B. Qn)
Answer:
Rotation of the Earth causes various effects. They are:
a. Day and night caused by the rotation of the earth on its axis. This is because parts of the earth which face the sun have day and the parts which do not face the sun have night. This happen with precision and progression and not suddenly – The time when the sun beings to cast its light in the sky is known as dawn. At noon. The sun is overhead. At dusk, it is twilight and the sun is seen disappearing in the sky. At night, it is completely dark.

b. The duration of the day and night is not equal at all places on the earth because of the inclined axis. The length of days varies with respect to the seasons as well as latitude

c. The sun, the moon and the stars seem to move from east to west. This is because the earth spins from west to east. This effect is similar to what one experiences while looking at trees from a moving train.

d. The speed of rotation has created a centrifugal force resulting in a bulge in the middle portion of the earth and flattened top at the poles.

e. The earth’s rotation affects the movement of water in the oceans. The tides are deflected because of the rotation of the earth.

f. Rotation causes difference in time over various places on the earth.

g. The Earth acts as huge magnet: The one end of the needle of the compass always points towards the north magnetic pole. That means, the earth acts as a magnet. The rotation . of the earth causes the earth to act as a magnet.

h. Rotation of the Earth influences the movement of ocean water, particularly ocean currents.

i. The rise and fall in the sea level is called tides. Rotation of the Earth causes the lacing of water bodies to the Moon. The gravitational attraction of the Moon and position of the water bodies cause tides. This is a regular phenomenon due to Earth’s rotation.

Question 4.
Describe the special latitudes and temperature zones of the globe with a neat diagram. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Due to the Earth’s inclination at 66 1/2°and revolution, we recognize a few special latitudes on the globe. The vertical rays of the Sun strike the Earth at different points at different times of the year. On March 21st and September 23rd it falls on the middle of the Earth i.e., Equator. On June 21st the vertical rays fall on 23 1/2° North – Tropic of Cancer and on December 22nd it falls on 23 1/2° South- Tropic of Capricorn. On June 21st the Sun’s rays reach 66 1/2° South Antarctic circle. The North Pole (90° south) is the two ends of the Earth’s axis.

On the basis of special latitudes the globe may be divided into ‘Temperature zones’ or ‘ Heat zones’. Direct rays of the sun produce more heat than the slanting rays. The region near the equator receives more direct rays of the Sun. These rays are intense over smaller areas and so it heats up the Earth more. As we go away from the equator, the sun’s rays strike the Earth’s surface with slanting rays, spreading over a larger area so, they do not heat as intensely as the direct rays. Therefore, when we go from the equator to the poles, we come across zones with varying temperatures.

The Torrid Zone The zone stretches between 231/2°N and south latitudes and more or less receives the vertical rays of the sun. As a result, this region experiences moderately warm climate throughout the year.

The Temperate zone: In between the Torrid and the frigid zones i.e., between 23 1/2°N and South and 66 1/2°N and S lies the Temperate Zone. In this zone the sun’s rays fall obliquely and hence the region experiences a moderate climate.

The Frigid Zone: This zone extends from Arctic Circle to North Pole (66 1/2°N to 90°N) in the Northern Hemisphere and the Antarctic circle to South Pole (66 1/2° S to 90° S) is known as ‘Frigid Zone’. Since the sun’s rays fall extremely obliquely in this region, the region experience extremely cold climate.

1st PUC Geography The Earth Ten Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1.
How do seasons occur? Explain with a neat diagram. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Seasons occurs as an effect of earth’s revolution. Seasons refers to periods of a year which have some peculiar climatic conditions. Seasons are caused due to the following.

1. The inclination of the earth’s axis.
2. The parallelism of the earth’s axis
3. Revolution of the earth.

There are four seasons in a year. They are:
1.Summer 2. Autumn 3. Winter 4. Spring. As per the international Calendar, the four seasons have a period of 3 months. From the point of view of the earth’s indication, there are four positions of solstices and equinoxes. So, there are four seasons according to the positions of the earth in one complete revolution around the sun. Those four seasons are:

a. Summer Season: On June 21st the northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun while the southern hemisphere is tilted away from the sun. The rays of the sun fall vertically on the Tropic Cancer and the areas within the Artistic circle remain in sunlight for all 24 hours. The northern hemisphere has longer days and shorter night. At this time the northern hemisphere has longer days and shorter night. At this time the northern hemisphere enjoys summer season and this portion is called “summer solstice”. Solstice means sun stops.

b. Autumnal Season: On 23rd September the northern hemisphere and the southern hemisphere are equally inclined or tilted towards the sun. The sun rays are vertical at the equator. As a result, the days and night are equal all over the world. At this time, in the northern hemisphere the season is neither hot nor cold. It is a situation between summer and winter seasons. It is called autumn season. At this time in the southern hemisphere, there is spring season. This position of the earth on 23rd September is known as autumnal equinox.

c. Winter Season: On 22nd December the southern hemisphere is inclined or tilted towards the sun, and northern hemisphere is inclined or tilted away from the sun. The sun is vertical at the Tropic of Capricorn, i.e. at 23 lA°S. At this time there is winter season in the northern hemisphere, and summer season in the southern hemisphere. This position is known as winter solstice.

d. Spring Season: On 21st March the northern and southern hemisphere are equally inclined towards the sun. The conditions are similar to those of autumnal equinox. From 21st March to 21st June, the earth is moving on its northern limits. During this period, there is spring season in the northern hemisphere and autumn season in the southern hemisphere. This season lasts for three months and continues with fresh cycle of summer. In India, the beginning of the spring is considered very auspicious and is celebrated as the first day of the year.

Karnataka 1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 1 Geography as a Discipline

You can Download Chapter 1 Geography as a Discipline Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Geography Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

1st PUC Geography as a Discipline One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define Geography. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The scientific study of the earth surface and its various climates, natural resources and human activities.

Question 2.
What is Modern Geography? (T. & Qtl)
Answer:
Modem geography deals with interaction between Earth and human activities.

Question 3.
Who is the Father of Geography?
Answer:
Eratosthenes

Question 4.
Who used the term physical Geography first?
Answer:
Immanuel Kant

Question 5.
What is Lithosphere?
Answer:
The solid outer layer of the earth is known as Lithosphere

Question 6.
What is Atmosphere?
Answer:
The gaseous envelope circling the earth is known as the atmosphere.

Question 7.
What is Hydrosphere?
Answer:
The major part of the earth’s surface is covered with water in various forms such as oceans, seas, lakes, rivers, ponds etc.

Question 8.
What is Biosphere?
Answer:
The major zone of the earth which consists of various forms of life includes both the animals as well as plants.

Question 9.
What is Geomorphology?
Answer:
It is a systematic study of landforms, their evolution and related processes.

Question 10.
What is Climatology?
Answer:
Climatology encompasses the study of structure of atmosphere and elements of climates and climatic types and regions.

Question 11.
What is pedology?
Answer:
It is the scientific study of soil formation, structure, texture, chemical composition and their influence on plant growth.

Question 12.
What is Hydrology?
Answer:
Hydrology studies the realm of water over the surface of the earth including oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies and its effect on different life.

Question 13.
What are the two divisions of Bio-geography?
Answer:
Phytogeography and Zoo-geography

Question 14.
What is cartography?
Answer:
It is the science of making maps and charts.

Question 15.
What is Meteorology?
Answer:
It is the study of weather conditions and their related elements.

Question 16.
What is Seismology?
Answer:
The study of Earthquakes

Question 17.
What is Astronomical geography?
Answer:
It is the study of heavenly bodies of the space like planets, satellites, stars etc in relation to the earth.

Question 18.
What is economic geography?
Answer:
Economic geography deals with the spatial aspects of production, distribution and consumption and also helps in understanding the most proper location for establishing different human activities.

Question 19.
Which branch of Geography deals with heavenly bodies of the space. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Astronomical Geography is the study of the heavenly bodies of the space.

Question 20.
What is Bio-Geography? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
It is the scientific study of the distribution of plants and animals.

Question 21.
Name the branches of Physical Geography. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Geomorphology, climatology, Meteorology, Pedology are the major branches of physical geography.

Question 22.
Name the important two divisions of Geography?
Answer:
Physical and Human Geography

Question 23.
What is physical Geography?
Answer:
The systematic study of the natural elements which constitute the earth’s surface.

Question 24.
Mention the components of Physical Geography?
Answer:
Lithosphere, Hydrosphere, Atmosphere and biosphere

Question 25.
What is Seismology?
Answer:
The systematic study of earth quakes and propagation of elastic waves through the Earth.

1st PUC Geography as a Discipline Two Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Why Geography is called ‘Earth Science’? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Geography is fundamentally a description of the earth. It deals with the varied natural or physical factors of environment, such as land forms, mountains water bodies, minerals, climate, soils, natural vegetation and plains.

Question 2.
Explain the term of Geography?
Answer:
The word Geography is derived from the two Greek word ‘Geo’ which means earth and Graphic which means writing or study. Thus literally Geography means writing or study about the earth. Geography not only deals with a description of the earth, but it also deals with its inhabitants. So, Geography is the study of the earth and its people.

Question 3.
State the content of Geography?
Answer:
Geography is a study of the varied features on the earth’s surface and their characteristics. Varied natural or physical factors of environment. Such as land forms, water bodies, minerals, climate, soils, natural vegetation and animal life, cultural or man made factors of environment like human settlement, their skills and capacities and the inter relationship between environment and man are included into the content of the geography.

Question 4.
What is Cultural Environment?
Answer:
The Cultural environment consists of all man made features on the surface of the earth. It is created by man for his own benefit. The settlements, dwellings, transport facilities, agriculture, industries, religion and government are some of the elements of cultural environment. It is also varies from place to place.

Question 5.
Write two definitions of Geography?
Answer:
Vidal de la blache: Geography is the science of places.
Marthe: Geography is the science of distribution.

Question 6.
Write two definitions of Physical Geography?
Answer:
Oxford Dictionary: The branch of geography which deals with the natural features of the earth surface
Monk house F.J: Physical geography is concerned with those aspects of geography, which are concerned with the shape and form of the land surface, the configuration, the extent, and the nature of the seas and oceans.

Question 7.
How is Geography a discipline of synthesis? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
It is considered to be a liaison subject. It recognizes the fact that the world is a system of interdependency. Geography as an integrating discipline stands midway between Natural Science and Social Science. –

Question 8.
What is Mathematical Geography? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The study of the shape and size of the earth, measurement of its curvature is known as Mathematical Geography. It helps to represent Latitudes, Longitudes, Shape of the Earth, Size, Cartographic and Quantitative Techniques, latitudes, longitude, shape of the Earth, Size, Cartographic and Quantitative Techniques.

Question 9.
What is Oceanography? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The branch of science that deals with the physical and biological properties and phenomena of the sea, ocean, relief of the ocean floor.

Question 10.
Name the four branches of Human Geography. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Cultural Geography, Historical Geography, Economic Geography, Agricultural Geography.

Question 11.
What is the main focus of Physical Geography? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The main focus of the Physical geography is on the life layer, a zone of the lands and oceans containing most of the world of organic life or biosphere. It concern physical factors that make the life layer habitable for all forms of plants and animals, but more particularly for humans.

Question 12.
What is physical Environment?
Answer:
The natural elements of the earth’s surface are known as physical or natural environment. It comprises the elements like land forms, climate, rivers, soils, mountains, vegetation, animals. These are the gift of the nature and also variable from one place to another.

1st PUC Geography as a Discipline Five Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Explain the divisions of Geography?
Answer:
There are two divisions of Geography 1. Physical geography and Human Geography. Physical Geography: Physical geography is the systematic study of the natural elements which constitute the earth’s surface. These elements are grouped into four categories such as the land, the water bodies, and the air and the plants as well as animals. Physical geography is an important branch of Geography which deals with the physical features of the Earth. Including land, air and water. It is an area of study that brings together and inter-relates the important elements of the physical environment of humans. It deals with the physical environment or physical aspect s of the Earth that are crated by nature.

Important areas of studies are:

• Geomorphology – land, land features and landforms.
• Climatology – Climate, atmospheric conditions and climatic change.
• Meteorology – Weather conditions and weather changes,
• Oceanography – Seas, oceans, relief of the ocean floor, configuration of ocean water, movements of ocean water etc.
• Soil Geography – Formation and distribution of soils on the Earth.

Human Geography: It deals with man and his activities, particularly cultural environment factors or man made features. Important among them are culture, society, agriculture, mining, industry, transport, tourism, trade, population size etc., viz., Cultural Geography, Historical geography Political Geography, Agricultural Geography, and Economic Geography etc.

Question 2.
Explain the meaning, content and scope of physical geography.
Answer:
Geography can be classified into three major braches in terms of its contents. Physical geography is one of the major branch of geography. Meaning of Physical geography: Physical geography is the study of the natural environment on the surface of the earth or close to the surface of the earth. Physical geography is not so . much a basic science, but is an integration of a number of earth and life sciences which give insight into the nature of man’s environment. In other words, physical geography is the study of the physical or relief features, such as the land forms, the water bodies, the distribution of minerals, soils, climates, plants and animals which constitute natural or physical environment.

Content of physical Geography: Physical geography is the study of important components or factors of physical or natural environment or close to the earth’s; surface which influence man and his activities. It is the study of the physical aspects or elennents of the environment, such as land forms, water bodies, minerals, soils, climate, natural v egetation, animal life, etc depending upon which man lives and works.

Scope of Physical Geography: The scope of physical geography is very wide. Modern physical geography tries to interpret the natural environment as a dynamic entity. That is, it studies the interaction between the varies components of the environment rather than concentrating on a single component. In earlier period, its scope was confirmed only to record natural features on the earth’s surface like mountain, rivers, lakes, seas, etc. After successful exploration, discoveries and the development of science and technology, the scope of physical geography has widened. So, the physical geography converts the study of physical factors like the lithosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere.

Question 3.
Explain the Field of Geography?
Answer:
The field of geography is very vast and contains several braches, because physical geography deals with physical as well as biological aspects. It includes the continents, water bodies, flora and fauna, atmosphere and its conditions. These constitute physical environment and determine the life and activities of human being in the different areas of the world. It deals with a variety of features, elements, and their origin and distribution pattern on the Earth’s surface. Field of geography the study of the areal differentiation on the earth covers surface, of its elements and feature, i.e. relief, drainage, climate, soil, vegetation, mineral deposits, population, land use etc.

These can be divided into two types. Natural features and Cultural features. All the physical elements and factors responsible for them form the environment. All those factors and elements which formed by nature come under natural environment. It includes landforms, climate, vegetation and animals, minerals, water bodies etc. They vary from place to place and have influence on the life and activities of human beings.

Human being must utilize the natural environment in the best possible manner to fulfill his needs and adjust to it. All those factors which are created by man form the cultural environment. It comprises of man-made features like human skill, races, religion, languages, settlements, tradition, political attitude, distribution of population etc. The factors of natural and cultural environment are inter connected and complex changes have taken place in certain region.

Question 4.
Explain the nature and importance of physical Geography.
Answer:
Physical geography is one of the major branch of geography. It deals with the physical aspects of the Earth and their effects on human beings.

Nature of Physical Geography: Physical Geography is the integrated study of the physical environment on close to the earth’s surface. Physical environment does not remain static. Because physical environment is complex and factors vary from place to place, they have changed through time, for e.g. Land forms, climate, plants and animals etc. So it is an ever changing process. The pattern of of natural features in different parts of the earth is continuously changing. Importance of Physical Geography: Modern physical geography is of much value and significance.

The value of modern physical geography is as follows:

1. Physical geography not only deals with the important components of physical or natural environment, but also deals with the inter-connections between the various components of natural environment.
2. Physical geography deals with the important components of the natural or physical environment. The natural environment and its spatial changes can be understood from a study of physical geography.
3. The study of physical geography is essential to understand the natural environment of the earth, evolved by natural process through millions of years. The natural environment varies from one place to another.
4. An understanding of the agents, processes and elements of physical environment, enable us to evaluate the varied nature of human life.
5. Physical geography also provides information as to how man is able to adjust himself to his environment.
6. Modern physical geography tries to interpret the natural or physical environment as a dynamic activity.

Question 5.
Explain the important branches of Physical geography. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The field of physical geography is wide as it includes the study of the entire surface of the earth and also its physical and biological process as well as their morphology. Modern geography has witnessed the development of many branches and some of them even grown into separate disciplines. Some of the important branches of physical geography are as follows:

• Geomorphology: It is a systematic study of landforms, such as mountains, plateaus, plains, valleys, etc.
• Climatology: Climatology encompasses the study of structure of atmosphere and elements of climates and climatic types and regions.
• Meteorology: The scientific study of atmosphere condition is called meteorology.
• Pedology: It is the scientific study of soil formation, structure, texture, chemical composition and their influence on plant growth.
• Hydrology: Hydrology studies the realm of water over the surface of the earth including oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies and its effect on different life.
• Seismology: It is the study of Earthquakes, their effects and distribution.
• Astronomical Geography: It is the study of heavenly bodies of the space like planets, satellites, stars etc in relation to the earth.
• Volcanology: It is the scientific study of tectonic process of volcanoes.
• Astronomical geography: It is the study of heavenly bodies of the space like planets, satellites, stars etc in relation to the earth.
• Bio-geography: It is the systematic study of the distribution of plants and animals.
• Hydrology: The study of water on the earth’s land is known as hydrology.
• Oceanography: The study of waves, tides and currents and the other characteristics of oceans, known as oceanography

Question 6.
Explain the branches of Geography.
Answer:
1. Physical Geography.
The field of physical geography is wide as it includes the study of the entire surface of the earth and also its physical and biological process as well as their morphology. Modern geography has witnessed the development of many branches and some of them even grown into separate disciplines.

Some of the important branches of physical geography are as follows:

• Geomorphology: It is a systematic study of landforms, such as mountains, plateaus, plains, valleys, etc.
• Climatology: Climatology encompasses the study of structure of atmosphere and elements of climates and climatic types and regions.
• Meteorology: The scientific study of atmosphere condition is called meteorology.
• Pedology: It is the scientific study of soil formation, structure, texture, chemical composition and their influence on plant growth.
• Hydrology: Hydrology studies the realm of water over the surface of the earth including oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies and its effect on different life.
• Seismology: It is the study of Earthquakes, their effects and distribution.
• Astronomical Geography: It is the study of heavenly bodies of the space like planets, satellites, stars etc in relation to the earth.
• Volcanology: It is the scientific study of tectonic process of volcanoes.
• Astronomical geography: It is the study of heavenly bodies of the space like planets, satellites, stars etc in relation to the earth.
• Bio-geography: It is the systematic study of the distribution of plants and animals.
• Hydrology: The study of water on the earth’s land is known as hydrology.
• Oceanography: The study of waves, tides and currents and the other characteristics of oceans, known as oceanography.

2. Human geography: It deals with man and his activities particularly cultural environment factors on man made factors, Important among them are culture, Society, agriculture, mining, industry, transport forming trade population etc.
Some of the important grander of Human geography are as fallows:

(1) Political geography: It deals with spatial unit, people distribution, political behavior, political divisions etc.

(2) Economic geography: It refers to basic attributes of the economy such as production, distribution exchange of goods and consumption. It deals with the spatial aspects of production, distribution and consumption and also helps on understanding the most proper location for establishing different human activities.

(3) Commercial Geography: It deals with the spatial distribution of trade and commercial practices etc.

(4) Population Geography: It helps to understand the distribution, growth density, migration and various other components of population.

You can Download Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division Questions and Answers, 1st PUC Biology Question Bank with Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

1st PUC Biology Question Bank NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the average cell cycle span for a mammalian cell?
Answer:
It is significant to note that in the 24-hour average duration of the cell cycle of a human cell or mammalian cells, cell division proper lasts for only about an hour.

Question 2.
Distinguish cytokinesis from karyokinesis.
Answer:

• Karyokinesis: It is a phase in which the division of the nucleus into two daughter nuclei occurs. Separation of daughter chromosomes occurs in this phase. It consists of four substages namely prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
• Cytokinesis: It refers to the division of the cytoplasm resulting in two daughter cells.

Question 3.
Describe the events taking place during the interphase.
Answer:
Interphase is divided into three phases viz. G( phase, S phase, and G2 phase.
Gj phase (Gap 1): G( phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication. During G( phase the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA.
S phase (Synthesis): S or synthesis phase marks the period during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place. During this time the amount of DNA per cell doubles. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to 4C. However, there is no increase in the chromosome number; if the cell had diploid or 2n number of chromosomes at G|, even after S phase the number of chromosomes remains the same i.e., 2n.
G2 phase (Gap 2): In animal cells, during the S phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus, and the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm. During the G2 phase, proteins are synthesised in preparation for mitosis while cell growth continues.

Question 4.
What is the G₀(quiescent phase) of the cell cycle?
Answer:
Some ceils in adult animals which divide occasionally to replace cells that are lost exit the G₁ phase to enter an inactive stage called the quiescent stage (G₀) of the cell cycle. Cells in this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so by the organism.

Question 5.
Why is mitosis called equational division?
Answer:
Mitosis called equational division because it keeps the chromosome number constant and genetic stability in daughter cells.

Question 6.
Name the stage of the cell cycle at which one of the following events occur:

1. Chromosomes are moved to the spindle equator.
2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
3. The pairing between homologous chromosomes takes place.
4. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

Answer:

1. Metaphase
2. Anaphase
3. Zygotene
4. Pachytene

Question 7.
Describe the following:
(1) synapsis
(2) bivalent
(3) chiasmata Draw a diagram to illustrate your answer.
Answer:
1. Synapsis: During zygotene, stage chromosomes start pairing together and this process of association is called synapsis.
2. Bivalent: The synaptonemal complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called a bivalent or a tetrad.
3. Chiasmata: The beginning of diplotene is recognized by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and the tendency of the recombined homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to separate from each other except at the sites of crossovers. These X-shaped structures are called charismata. In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene can last for months or years.

Question 8.
How does cytokinesis in plant cells differ from that in animal cells?
Answer:
Due to the presence of a cell wall, cytokinesis in a plant cell is significantly different from that in animal cells. Rather than forming a contractile ring, plant cells construct a cell plate in the middle of the cell. The golgi apparatus releases vesicles containing cell wall materials. These vesicles fuse at the equatorial plane and form a cell plate that represents the middle lamella between the walls of two adjacent cells.

Question 9.
Find examples where the four daughter cells from meiosis are equal in size and where they are found unequal in size.
Answer:
The four daughter haploid cells may or may not be equal in size at the end of meiosis II with telophase II.

Question 10.
Distinguish anaphase of mitosis from anaphase I of meiosis
Answer:

Anaphase of Mitosis	Anaphase I of Meiosis
(a) Centromeres are split at this stage and chromatids separate. (b) The chromosomes are large and thin	(a) Centromeres do not divide at this stage. Homologous chromosomes separate while sister chromatid remains associated at their centromeres. (b) Chromosomes are shorter and thicker

Question 11.
List the main differences between mitosis and meiosis.
Answer:

Mitosis	Meiosis
(a) Mitosis consists of a single division.	(a) Meiosis is a two-phase division.
(b) Mitosis is an equational division. The daughter cell has a same number of chromosomes as that of the parent cell.	(b) The chromosome number in the daughter cell is reduced to half of that in the parent cell.
(c) Mitosis results in growth.	(c) Meiosis results in reproduction.
(d) Mitosis results in two daughter cells.	(d) Meiosis results in four daughter cells.
(e) The daughter cells are similar to that of a parent	(e) The daughter cells vary from their parent cell
(f) Mitosis occurs continuously in somatic cells.	(f) Meiosis occurs in germ cells during garnet genesis.
(g) Mitosis is a simple division	(g) Meiosis is a complex division.

Question 12.
What is the significance of meiosis?
Answer:
The significance of meiosis:

1. It reduces the number of chromosomes to half in the daughter cells.
2. It is a very essential phenomenon in the life cycle of sexually reproducing animals as it restores the fixed number of chromosomes present in the somatic cells, characteristic of the species.
3. Gametes are formed as a result of meiosis. Each gamete possesses half the number of chromosomes present in the somatic cells.
4. It avoids the multiplication of chromosomes and thus maintains the stability and a constant number of chromosomes of the species.
5. During the crossing over the exchange of nuclear material (genes) cause genetic variations within the species. As a result, new combinations of hereditary material are formed.

Question 13.
Discuss with your teacher about

1. haploid insects and lower plants where cell-division occurs, and
2. some haploid cells in higher plants where cell-division does not occur.

Answer:

1. Haploid insect – Honey bee
   haploid lower plants – Spirogyra, Riccia.
2. Male and female gametes.

Question 14.
Can there be mitosis without DNA replication in ‘S’ phase?
Answer:
DNA replication is necessary for cell division and cell division cannot happen without DNA replication.

Question 15.
Can there be DNA replication without cell division?
Answer:
Generally, DNA replication is followed by cell division. But, there can be DNA replication without cell division.

Question 16.
Analyse the events during every stage of cell cycle and notice how the following two parameters change
(i) Number of chromosomes (N) per cell
(ii) Amount of DNA content (C) per cell
Answer:
G1 Phase – 2N 2C
S Phase – 2N 2C
G2 Phase – 4N 4C
M Phase – 2N 2C
2N corresponds to diploid chromosomes whereas 2C corresponds to diploid.

• The number of chromosomes doubles after mitotic cell division and becomes half after meiotic cell division.
• During the S phase the DNA content doubles, but the number of chromosomes remains the same.

1st PUC Biology Question Bank Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Biology Question Bank One Mark Questions

Question 1.
What is Karyokinesis? (B’lore North 2005)
Answer:
The division of the nucleus is called karyokinesis.

Question 2.
What is interphase?
Answer:
The nondividing phase of the cell is interphase

Question 3.
In which phase DNA replication takes place?
Answer:
S or synthetic phase.

Question 5.
Mention the substages of Interphase.
Answer:
G₁ stage, ‘S’ stage and G₂ stage.

Question 6.
What is Cytokinesis? (B’lore North, Dharwar .04)
Answer:
Division of cytoplasm is called cytokinesis.

Question 7.
Mention the Substages of Mitosis.
Answer:
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis.

Question 8.
Give two differences between plant and animal cell division.
Answer:

• In-plant cell, Asters are not formed.
  In animal cell Asters are formed.
• In-plant cell, cytokinesis occurs due to the formation of a cell plate.
  In an animal cell, cytokinesis occurs due to the formation of a cleavage furrow.

Question 9
What is kinetochore?
Answer:
The kinetochore is a discoidal area on the chromatid which is the site of attachment of spindle fibre.

Question 10.
What Is genetic crossing over? (B.North. 04)
Answer:
Exchanges of segments between non-sister chromatids of the bivalents are called Genetic crossing over.

Question 11.
What are Chiasmata?
Answer:
The regions where segments of non-sister chromatids of the bivalents are exchanged are called chiasmata.

Question 12.
What is interkinesis?
Answer:
Interkinesis is an interphase between meiosis I and meiosis II.

Question 13.
Define cell cycle.
Answer:
The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesis the other constituents of the cell, and eventually divides into two daughter cells is termed as the cell cycle.

Question 14.
What percentage of the duration of the cell cycle does interphase last?
Answer:
More than 95%.

Question 15.
What happens during the ‘S’ phase In animal cells?
Answer:
During the ‘S’ phase in animal cells, DNA replication begins in the nucleus, and the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm.

Question 16.
Name the two major types of cell division.
Answer:
Mitosis and meiosis.

Question 17.
What is a metaphase plate?
Answer:
The plane of alignment of the chromosomes at metaphase is referred to as the metaphase plate.

Question 18.
When do the centromeres of chromosomes divide in a cell of the root tip?
Answer:
During anaphase of mitosis.

Question 19.
Name the stage of mitosis, when chromosomes start their poleward movement.
Answer:
Anaphase.

Question 20.
When does the nucleolus reappear during mitosis?
Answer:
Telophase.

Question 21.
What is a cell plate?
Answer:
The formation of the new cell wall begins with the formation of a simple precursor, called the cell plate that represents the middle lamella between the walls of two adjacent cells.

Question 22.
Define meiosis.
Answer:
The specialized kind of cell division that reduces the chromosome member by half resulting in the production of haploid daughter cells is called meiosis.

Question 23.
What indicates the beginning of diplotene?
Answer:
The beginning of diplotene is recognised by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and the tendency of the recombined homologous chromosomes to separate from each other.

Question 24.
Name the last state of prophase I and what marks this stage?
Answer:
Diakinesis is the last stage of prophase I and it is marked by the terminalisation of chiasmata.

Question 25.
When does the actual reduction in the number of chromosomes take place during meiosis?
Answer:
Anaphase I.

Question 26.
What is Interkinesis?
Answer:
The stage between the two meiotic divisions (Meiosis I and Meiosis II) is called interkinesis.

Question 27.
Name the stage of all division to study the chromosome morphology.
Answer:
Metaphase.

1st PUC Biology Question Bank Two Marks Questions

Question 1.
Write the three processes which take place in interphase.
Answer:
Three processes which take place in interphase are:

• The replication of DNA and the synthesis of histones and nuclear proteins.
• Division of centriole to form two new centrioles which lie at a right angle to each other.
• The synthesis of the energy-rich compounds to provide energy for mitosis.

Question 2.
Name any four stages of prophase of meiosis (M.Q.P., Mandya. 05)
Answer:
Leptotene, Zygotene
Pachytene, Diplotene & Diakinesis.

Question 3.
Bring out any four differences between mitosis and meiosis. (Hassan. 05, D.K. 2008)
Answer:

• Mitosis is seen in somatic cells, whereas Meiosis is seen in germ cells.
• Mitosis is an equational division, whereas Meiosis is a reductional division.
• In mitosis no crossing over, whereas in miosis crossing over between non-sister chromatids is seen.
• In mitosis one cell produces two cells with the same chromosome number, whereas In meiosis one cell produces four haploid cells

Question 4.
Write any 2 differences between Mitosis and Meiosis.
Answer:

• Mitosis consists single nuclear divisions.
  Meiosis consists of two nuclear divisions.
• In mitosis crossing over is absent.
  In Meiosis crossing over is present.

Question 5.
Mention the substages of Meiosis
Answer:

• Proohase II
• Metaphase II
• Anaphase II
• Telophase II
• cytokinesis.

Question 6.
Define Ceil Cycle. Mention two main stages of Ceil Cycle.
Answer:
The series of events occurring in a growing cell that occurs between the formation of cell and its division into daughter cells is called cell cycle. Two main stages are Interphase and M. Phase.

Question 7.
Mention the differences between G and G₂ phase of Interphase.
Answer:

G1 phase	G2 phase
(a) It is the first substage of interphase that follows cytokinesis (b) The Cell is metabolically active and contiguously grows but does not replicate its DNA. (c)  Certain cells may stop dividing and enter G0 phase	(a)  It is the last substage of interphase which is followed by M-phase (b)  Proteins are synthe­sized in preparation for mitosis while cell growth continues (c)  All cells entering G2 phase continue with the M-phase

Question 8.
What are kinetochores? What is their function?
Answer:
Kinetochores are small disc-shaped structures at the surface of centromeres. They serve as the binding site for the spindle fibres to the centromeres of chromosomes.

Question 9.
Mention the events that occur during diakinesis.
Answer:
The events that occur during diakinesis:

• There is terminalisation of chiasmata.
• The chromosomes are fully condensed.
• The assembling of the meiotic spindle is initiated.
• The nucleolus and nuclear membrane break down and disappear completely by the end of diakinesis.

Question 10.
What is crossing over? Name the enzyme responsible for it.
Answer:
Crossing over is defined as the exchange of equivalent segments between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes and the exchange of genetic material between them. The enzyme responsible for crossing over is recombinase.

Question 11.
Mention the events that occur during diakinesis.
Answer:
During diakinesis, there is terminalisation of chiasmata. The chromosomes are fully condensed and the meiotic spindle is assembled to prepare the homologous chromosomes for separation. The nucleolus disappears and the nuclear envelope breaks down.

Question 12.
Mention the key features of metaphase in mitosis.
Answer:

• Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
• Chromosomes are moved to the spindle equator and get aligned along with the metaphase plate through spindle fibres to both poles.

Question 13.
What is syncytium? Give an example.
Answer:
In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which multinucleate condition arises leading to the formation of the syncytium.
E.g: liquid endosperm in coconut.

Question 14.
How does metaphase I differ from metaphase?

Metaphase I	Metaphase II
(a)  The homologous pairs of chromosomes are arranged in two rows near the centre of the spindles. (b) There no metaphasic plate formed (c) The arms of the chromosomes are at spindle fibres	(a)  Centromeres of all the chromosomes are arranged in a single row at the centre of the spindles (b) A metaphase plate is formed (c)  The arms of the chromosomes are parallel to the fibres.

Question 15.
Name the four substages of prophase I.
Answer:

• Leptotene
• Zygotene
• Pachytene
• diplotene

1st PUC Biology Question Bank Three Marks Questions

Question 1.
What is the role of the centrosome with centriole?
Answer:
The centrosome with centriole plays a very important role in mitosis and meiosis. It forms spindle-shaped fibers attached to 10 chromosomes and these place chromosomes to the equator and then to the poles. Without the centrosome with centriole, these processes were not able to be performed in the cell.

Question 2.
Describe the events in the telophase of mitosis.
Answer:
Telophase is the final stage of mitosis. The events that happen in telophase are:-

• Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements.
• Nuclear envelop assembles around the chromosome cluster.
• Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform.

Question 3.
How and why chromosome number is maintained the same in the cell mitotic division.
Answer:
The chromosomes in the prophase stage of mitosis are 2N, which later becomes 4N. Then in anaphase I, the chromosomes segregate, followed by nuclear and cell division. Which restores the chromosome number to 2N.

Question 4.
Diagrammatically show the stages of Meiosis I.
Answer:

Question 5.
Diagrammatically shows the stages of Meiosis I.
Answer:

1st PUC Biology Question Bank Five Marks Questions

Question 1.
Explain Anaphase and Telophase of Mitosis
Answer:
Anaphase:

• The centromere of each chromosome splits. So that chromatids separate.
• The separated chromatids along with the centromeres get pulled to the opposite poles. Such movement of chromatids takes place by the shortening of chromosomal fibres. The Anaphasic chromosomes appear V, L, J or I shaped.

Telophase:

• Condensed chromosomes begin to decondense, become thin and produce the chromatin network.
• Spindle fibers, asters, disappear.
• Nucle I membrane, nucleoli are formed. So at the end cell consists of two nuclei one at each pole

Question 2.
With neat labelled diagrams explain Meiosis I (Gulbarga, Belgaum, B.South 04, D.K. 07)
Answer:
The first meiotic division is reductional division so that two haploid cells are formed.
Meiosis I consists I Karyokinesis I: It has the following stages;

A. Prophase:
It lasts for a long period and studied under the following substages.
(Shimoga. 06)

(a) Leptotene following is the characteristic of leptotene
Chromosomes are long, thin and they are double-stranded each chromosome appears as a string of beads. Such beads are called chromomeres.

(b) Zygotene

• Homologous chromosomes come to lie side by side, closely applied at every point this process of pairing is called Synapsis.
• Each pair is called bivalent and each bivalent consists of 2 chromatids, so-called tetrad.
• The two chromatids of the same chromosome are called sister chromatids and chromatids belonging to two different chromosomes are called non-sister chromatids.

(c) Pachytene :

• Two non-sister chromatids of each tetrad get coiled around each other and exchanges segments
• This process is called genetic crossing over. It results in the recombination of genes. Crossing over takes place by breaking and reunion of chromatids.
• The points where exchanges have occurred appear X – shaped structure. It is called chiasmata.

(d) Dipiotene

• Chromosomes are more condensed
• The attraction between homologous chromosomes disappears, but repulsion begins.
• Repulsion produces chain like 8 – shaped or o shaped bivalents.
• Repulsion results in the criminalization of chiasmata and finally disappears.

(e) Diakinesis:
Nucleolus disappear, nuclear membranes disappears and each bivalent shows four chromatids.

(B) Metaphase
(i) Paired chromosomes ar-range at the equatorial plane of the spindle and spindle fibres become attached to the centromeres of each chromosome.

(C) Anaphase
Spindle fibres contract so bivalent move towards the opposite poles of the spindle. The separated chromosomes are called univalents. The two centromeres of a homologous pair move towards the opposite poles along with the chromosomes.

(D) Telophase :

• Chromosomes reach the poles. They uncoil and become thin and long thread-like.
• Nuclear membrane and Nucleoli reappear:
• Cytokinesis I
• A constriction develops in the middle of the cell which becomes deep and the cytoplasm is divided into two equal parts.

Question 3.
With neat labelled diagrams explain Mitosis In an Animal Cell. (Shimoga, Chikmagalore, Dharwar, Bijapur 2004, B’Iore North, Tumkur, Kolar, Mandya 2005)
Ans:
There are two processes. They are
(1) Karyokinesis.
(2) Cytokinesis

(1) Karyokiriesis: It is divided into the following sub-stages.

• The duplicated chromosomes undergo condensation (become Short and thick).
• Each chromosome has two chromatids and remains attached to each other at the region of the centromere.
• Centrioles are duplicated and begin to move towards the other pole of the cell.
• Aster begins to appear around each centriole.
• Spindle fibers begin to appear.
• Nuclear membranes and Nucleolus disappear.

• Spindle fibres are completely formed.
• Chromosomes are highly condensed and they arrange at the equator.
• Spindle fibre attached to the centromere and arms project in a different direction.

The spindle fibers become short and two chromatids of each chromosome separate and move away from the equator to the opposite poles. The moving chromosomes exhibit different shapes like V or J shapes.

The daughter chromosomes arrived at the poles start uncoiling become thin. The nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear around the chromosome at each pole. Spindle fibres disappear.

(ii) Cytokinesis: A furrow develops in the middle of the cell which depends at the centre and divides the cytoplasm into two equal parts.

Question 4.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of the Metaphase chromosome and explain any four parts.
Answer:
1) Karyokiriesis: It is divided into the following sub-stages.

• The duplicated chromosomes undergo condensation (become Short and thick).
• Each chromosome has two chromatids and remains attached to each other at the region of the centromere.
• Centrioles are duplicated and begin to move towards the other pole of the cell.
• Aster begins to appear around each centriole.
• Spindle fibers begin to appear.
• Nuclear membranes and Nucleolus disappear.

• Spindle fibres are completely formed.
• Chromosomes are highly condensed and they arrange at the equator.
• Spindle fibre attached to the centromere and arms project in a different direction.

The spindle fibers become short and two chromatids of each chromosome separate and move away from the equator to the opposite poles. The moving chromosomes exhibit different shapes like V or J shapes.

The daughter chromosomes arrived at the poles start uncoiling become thin. The nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear around the chromosome at each pole. Spindle fibres disappear.

(ii) Cytokinesis: A furrow develops in the middle of the cell which depends at the centre and divides the cytoplasm into two equal parts.

Question 5.
Describe the Zygotene and Pachytene stage of Meiosis. (D. Kannada 2009)
Answer:
Zygotene:

• Homologous chromosomes come to lie side by side, closely applied at every point this process of pairing is called Synapsis.
• Each pair is called bivalent and each bivalent consists of 2 chromatids, so-called tetrad.
• The two chromatids of the same chromosome are called sister chromatids and chromatids belonging to two different chromosomes are called non-sister chromatids.

Pachytene:

• Two non-sister chromatids of each tetrad get coiled around each other and exchanges segments
• This process is called genetic crossing over. It results in the recombination of genes. Crossing over takes place by breaking and reunion of chromatids.
• The points where exchanges have occurred appear X – shaped structure. It is called chiasmata.

Question 6.
When does each of the following occur in mitosis?

1. The nuclear membrane reappears
2. The chromosomes are the thickest and shortest
3. Centromere divides into two
4. Chromosomes begin to coil
5. The nuclear membrane disappears

Answer:

1. Telophase.
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Prophase
5. Prophase.

Question 7.
Give the specific scientific term for the following:

1. The period between two successive mitotic divisions
2. Process of all division by which chromosome member is halved.
3. Nuclear division in mitosis
4. Phase in the cell cycle when proteins and RNA are synthesized
5. The point at which two sister chromatids are held together.

Answer:

1. Interphase
2. Meiosis
3. Karyokinesis
4. Interphase
5. Centromere

Question 8.
March the following:
(a) Protein Synthesis – (i) Meiosis
(b) Equational division – (ii) Zygotene
(c) Reductlonal division – (iii) G₂ phase
(d) Synaptonemal complex – (iv) diplotene
(e) Chlasmata – (v) Mitosis
Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (v)
(c) – (i)
(d) –  (ii)
(e) –  (iv)

You can Download Chapter 2 Units and Measurements Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Physics Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

1st PUC Physics Units and Measurements TextBook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
(a) The volume of a cube of side 1 cm is equal to ……….. m³
Answer:
The volume of a cube = (side)³
= (1 cm)³
= (1 × 10^-2 m)³
= 1 × 10^-6 m³

(b) The surface area of a solid cylinder of radius 2.0 cm and height 10.0 cm is equal to ………. (mm)²
Answer:
Surface area of a solid cylinder is given by S = 2πr (h+r)
Where r = radius = 2 cm = 20 mm and
h = height = 10 cm = 100mm.
∴Surface area = 2 × π × 20 (100 + 20)
= 4800 × 3.14
= 1.5 × 10⁴ mm² .
Note: This rounding off is because there are only 2 significant figures in the measured value of the radius of the cylinder.

(c) A vehicle moving with a speed of 18 km h^-1 covers ……….. m in 1 s
Answer:
18 km h^-1 = \(\frac{18 \times 1000 m}{3600 s}\) = 5 ms^-1
Note: km h^-1 can be converted to ms^-1 by multiplying by 5/18.

(d) The relative density of lead is 11.3. Its density is ………. g cm^-3 or …….. kg m^-3
Answer:
Actual density =
relative density × density of water.
Density in g cm^-3 = 11.3 × 1 g cm^-3
Density in kg m^-3 = 11.3 × 1000 kgm^-3
= 11300 kgm^-3

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks by suitable conversion of units
(a) 1 kg m² s^-2 = …………. g cm² s^-2
Answer:
1 Kg m²s^-2 = \(\frac{\left(1 \times 10^{3} \mathrm{g}\right) \times\left(1 \times 10^{2} \mathrm{cm}\right)^{2}}{1 \mathrm{s}^{2}}\)
=1 × 10⁷g cm²s^-2

(b) 1 m =……….. ly
Answer:
1 light year
= 3 × 10⁸ × 3600 × 24 × 365
= 1 × 10¹⁶m

(c) 3.0 m s^-2 =……. km h^-2
Answer:
3.0 m s^-2 =\(\frac{3 \times 10^{-3} k m}{(1 / 3600 h)^{2}}\)
= 3.888 × 10⁴ km h^-2
= 3.9 × 10⁴ km h^-2
( expressed in 2 significant figures)

(d) G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N m² (kg)^-2 = ……. (cm)³ s^-2 g^-1.
Answer:
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 Nm² (kg) ^-2
1 N = 1 kg m s^-2
∴G = 6.67 × 10 = 6.67 × 10^{-11 ×} (100 cm)³ s^-2 (1000g)^-1
= 6.67 × 10^-8 (cm)³ s ^-2 g^-1

Question 3.
A calorie is a unit of heat or energy and It equals about 4.2 J where 1J = 1 kg m² s^-2. Suppose we employ a system of units In which the unit of mass equals α kg, the unit of length equals β m, the unit of time is γ s. Show that a calorie has a magnitude 4.2 α¹ β²γ² in terms of the new units.
Answer:
1 new unit of mass = α kg
⇒ 1 kg = \(\frac{1}{\alpha}\) new units of mass
1 new unit of length = β m
⇒ 1m = \(\frac{1}{\beta}\) new units of length
1 new unit of time = γ s
⇒ 1 s = \(\frac{1}{\gamma}\) new units of time
1 calorie = 4.2 kg m² s^-2
= 4.2 \(\left(\frac{1}{\alpha}\right)\left(\frac{1}{\beta}\right)^{2}\left(\frac{1}{\gamma}\right)^{-2}\)
= 4.2 \(\alpha^{-1} \beta^{-2} \gamma^{2}\) in terms of the new units.

Question 4.
Explain this statement clearly:
“To call a dimensional quantity ‘large’ or ‘small’ is meaningless without specifying a standard for comparison”. In view of this, reframe the following statements wherever necessary:

1. Atoms are very small objects
2. A jet plane moves with great speed
3. The mass of Jupiter is very large
4. The air inside this room contains a large number of molecules
5. A proton is much more massive than an electron
6. The speed of sound is much smaller than the speed of light.

(Note: There is no unique answer for each of these questions.)

Answer:

1. Atoms are very small as compared to the tip of a pin.
2. A jet plane moves at a higher speed as compared to a helicopter.
3. The mass Of Jupiter is very large as compared to the size of the earth.
4. The air inside the room contains a large number of molecules as compared to that in one mole of gas.
5. A proton is much more massive than an electron.
6. The speed of sound is much smaller than the speed of light.

Question 5.
A new unit of length is chosen such that the speed of light in a vacuum is unity. What is the distance between the Sun and the Earth in terms of the new unit if light takes 8 min and 20 s to cover this distance?
Answer:
As the dimension of velocity are [L¹ T^-1] i.e v = [L¹ T^-1]
Since velocity of light in the new system is 1,
T = 480 + 20 = 500 s,
So l = [L¹ T-¹] = [L¹] [500]-¹
or L = 500 on new units.
∴The distance of Sun from Earth = 500

Question 6.
Which of the following is the most precise device for measuring length:

1. A vernier caliper with 20 divisions on the sliding scale
2. A screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions on the circular scale
3. An optical instrument that can measure length to within a wavelength of light?

Answer:

1. Least measurement possible with vernier callipers =1 / 20 mm = 5 × 10^-5 m
2. Least measurement possible with screw gauge = 1 / 100 mm = 1 × 10^-5 m
3. Least measurement possible with the optical instrument = 300 nm = 3 × 10^-7 m

Clearly (c) is the most precise device.

Question 7.
A student measures the thickness of a human hair by looking at it through a microscope of magnification 100. He makes 20 observations and finds that the average width of the hair in the field of view of the microscope is 3.5 mm. What Is the estimate on the thickness of the hair?
Answer:
Estimate on the thickness of the hair
= \(\frac{\text { width of the hair }}{\text { magnification }}\)
= \(\frac{3.5 \mathrm{mm}}{100}\)
= 0.035mm

Question 8.
(a) You are given a thread and a metre scale. How will you estimate the diameter of the thread?
Answer:
Repeatedly wind the thread over the breadth of the scale such that there is no space between adjacent windings. Find the number of windings in a given length.
The diameter of the thread = \(\frac{\text { length on the scale }}{\text { Number of windings }}\)

(b) A screw gauge has a pitch of 1.0 mm and 200 divisions on the circular scale. Do you think it is possible to increase the accuracy of the screw gauge arbitrarily by increasing the number of divisions on the circular scale?
Answer:
No. When the number of divisions are arbitrarily increased, the accuracy might increase up to a certain extent only.

(c) The mean diameter of a thin brass rod is to be measured by vernier calipers. Why is a set of 100 measurements of the diameter expected to yield a more reliable estimate than a set of 5 measurements only?
Answer:
When more measurements are taken, the likelihood of random errors is decreased. Hence a set of 100 measurements is more reliable than a set of 5 measurements.

Question 9.
The photograph of a house occupies an area of 1.75 cm² on a 35 mm slide. The slide is projected onto a screen, and the area of the house on the screen is 1.55 m². What is the linear magnification of the projector-screen arrangement?
Answer:
Area of the house = 1.75 cm²
Let’s assume that the house is square in shape.
Length of a side of the house = \(\sqrt{1.75}\) cm
Area of the house on the screen 1.55 m²
Length of a side of the house on the screen = \(\sqrt{1.55}\)m
= \(\sqrt{1.55}\) × 100 cm
Linear magnification= \(\frac{\text { length on the screen }}{\text { length on the slide }}\)
= \(\frac{\sqrt{1.55} \times 100 \mathrm{cm}}{\sqrt{1.75}}\)
= 94.1

Question 10.
State the number of significant figures in the following:

1. 0.007 m²
2. 2.64 × 10²⁴ kg
3. 0.2370 g cm^-3
4. 6.320 J
5. 6.032 N m^-2
6. 0.0006032 m²

Answer:

1. 0.007 m² = 7×10^-3m² → 1 significant figure.
2. 2.64 × 10²⁴ Kg → 3 significant figures.
3. 0.2370 g cm^-3 → 4 significant figures.
4. 6.320 J → 4 significant figures.
5. 6.032 Nm^-2 → 4 significant figures
6. 0.0006032 m² → 6.032 × 10^-4 m² → 4 significant figures.

Question 11.
The length, breadth and thickness of a rectangular sheet of metal are 4.234 m, 1.005 m, and 2.01 cm respectively. Give the area and volume of the sheet to correct significant figures.
Answer:
As Area = (4.234 x 1.005) x 2 = 8.51034 = 8.51 m²
Volume = (4.234 x 1.005) x (2.01 x 10^-2) = 8.55289 x 10^-2 = 0.0855 m³.

Question 12.
The mass of a box measured by a grocer’s balance is 2.300 kg. Two gold pieces of masses 20.15 g and 20.17 g are added to the box. What is

1. the total mass of the box,
2. the difference in the masses of the pieces to correct significant figures?

Answer:

1. Total mass of the box = 2.300 kg + 20.15 g + 20.17 g = 2.34032 kg = 2.34 kg.
2. The difference in the masses of the pieces = 20.17 g – 20.15 g = 0.02 g.

Question 13.
A physical quantity /Ms related to four observables a, b, c and of as follows :
P = a³b²\(/(\sqrt{\mathrm{cd}})\)

The percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c, and d are 1%, 3%, 4%, and 2%, respectively. What is the percentage error In the quantity P? If the value of P calculated using the above relation turns out to be 3.763, to what value should you round off the result?
Answer:
P = a³b²\(/(\sqrt{\mathrm{c}} \mathrm{d})\)
Percentage error in P

Question 14.
A book with many printing errors contains four different formulas for the displacement y of a particle under going a certain periodic motion :
(a) y = a sin 2πt/T
(b) y = a sin vt
(c) y = (a/T) sin t/a
(d) y = \((a\sqrt{2})\) (sin 2πt/T + cos 2πt/T)
(a = maximum displacement of the particle, b a speed of the particle. T = time-period of motion). Rule out the wrong formulas on dimensional grounds.
Answer:
Here we need the dimension of the LHS = dimension of RHL = L¹
Also, the dimension of the argument of the trigonometric function = dimensionless

(a) Dimension of the argument of the sine function
\(\frac{T^{1}}{T^{1}}\mathrm{T}^{0}\) = dimensionless.
Dimension of a = L¹ = dimensions of y.
∴ This formula is dimensionally correct.

(b) Dimension of the argument of the sine function
= [LT^-1] [T¹] = L¹
∴ This formula is dimensionally incorrect.

(c) Dimension of the argument of the sine function
= t/a = \(\frac{T}{L}\) = [L^-1] [T¹] Also,
dimension of (\(\frac{a}{t}\)) = \(\frac{L}{T}\) = LT^-1 Clearly,
∴ This formula is dimensionally incorrect.

(d) Dimension of \(a\sqrt{2}\) = L¹ = dimension of y Dimension of the argument of the sine function
= dimension of the argument of the cosine function = 2π\(\frac{t}{T}\) = \(\frac{T^{1}}{T^{1}}\) = T° = dimensionless.
∴ This formula is dimensionally correct.

Question 15.
A famous relation in physics relates ‘moving mass’ m to the ‘rest mass’ m₀ of a particle In terms of its speed and the speed of light, c. (This relation first arose as a consequence of special relativity due to Albert Einstein). A boy recalls the relation almost correctly but forgets where to put the constant
c. He writes :m = \(\frac{m_{0}}{\left(1-v^{2}\right)^{1 / 2}}\) Guess where to put the missing c.
Answer:
We need the dimension of the RHS to be equal to M¹. Since m₀ has the dimension of M¹, the denominator must be dimensionless.

⇒ \(\left(1-v^{2}\right)^{\frac{y}{2}}\) must be corrected to be dimensionless.
1 is dimensionless, v² has the dimensions [L¹T^-1]² = L² T^-2

Using c, we need to make 1 – v² dimensionless. Since c has the same dimensions as v, c/v and v/c are both dimensionless.
∴ The corrected formula must be
m = \(\frac{m_{0}}{\left(1-v^{2} / c^{2}\right)^{1 / 2}}\) or m = \(\frac{m_{0}}{\left(1-c^{2} / v^{2}\right)^{1/2}}\)

Since m₀ is the rest mass, m = m₀ when v = o. (body at rest)
For the first formula, when v = 0, m = undefined, which is wrong.
∴ Corrected formula is m = \(\frac{m_{0}}{\left(1-v^{2} / c^{2}\right)^{1/ 2}}\)

Question 16.
The unit of length convenient on the atomic scale is known as an angstrom and is denoted by Å: 1 Å = 10^-10 m. The size of a hydrogen atom is about 0.5 Å. What is the total atomic volume in m³ of a mole of hydrogen atoms?
Answer:
Radius of a hydrogen atom = r = 0.5 Å = 0.5 × 10^-10m
Volume of a mole of hydrogen atoms = Volume of a hydrogen atom × Number of hydrogen atoms in 1 mole
= \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr³ × N_A
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × 3.14 × ( 0.5 × 10^-10)³ × 6.022 × 10²³
= 3 × 10^-7 m³ (rounded off to 1 significant figure)

Question 17.
One mole of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure occupies 22.4 L (molar volume). What is the ratio of molar volume to the atomic volume of a mole of hydrogen? (Take the size of hydrogen molecule to be about 1

1. Why is this ratio so large?
Answer:
Atomic volume of a mole of hydrogen
= \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3} \times N_{A}\)
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × 3.14 × (1 × 10^-10)³ × 6.022 × 10²³
= 2.52 × 10^-6 m³
Required ratio
= \(\frac{22.4 L}{2.52 \times 10^{-6} m^{3}}\)
= \(\frac{22.4 \times 10^{-3}}{2.52 \times 10^{-6}} \)
= 9 × 10³
This ratio is large because the intermolecular separation in a gas is much larger than the size of a molecule.

Question 18.
Explain this common observation clearly: If you look out of the window of a fast-moving train, the nearby trees, houses, etc. seem to move rapidly in a direction opposite to the train’s motion, but the distant objects (hilltops, the Moon, the stars, etc.) seem to be stationary. (In fact, since you are aware that you are moving, these distant objects seem to move with you).
Answer:
When a train moves rapidly, the line of sight changes its direction rapidly. On the other hand, in the case of far-off objects, the line of sight changes its direction extremely slowly.

Question 19.
The principle of ‘parallax’ is used in the determination of distances of very distant stars. The baseline AB is the line joining the Earth’s two locations six months apart in its orbit around the Sun. That is, the baseline is about the diameter of the Earth’s orbit. 3 × 10¹¹m. However, even the nearest stars are so distant that with such a long baseline, they show parallax only of the order of 1¹¹ (second) of arc or so. A parsec is a convenient unit of length on the astronomical scale. It is the distance of an object that will show a parallax of 1¹¹ (second) of arc from opposite ends of a baseline equal to the distance from the Earth to the Sun. How much is a parsec in terms of metres?
Answer:
Distance of the earth from the Sun =
= b = 1/2 × diameter of earth’s orbit
⇒ b= 0.5 × 3 × 10¹¹ m
b = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m
1 parsec = D = b/θ
= \(\frac{1.5 \times 10^{11} \mathrm{m}}{1^{11}}\) = \(\frac{1.5 \times 10^{11}}{\left(\frac{1}{3600}\right)}\)
= \(\frac{1.5 \times 10^{11}}{\frac{1}{3600} \times \frac{\pi}{180}}\) = 3 × 10¹⁶ m

Question 20.
The nearest star to our solar system is 4.29 light-years away. How much is this distance In terms of parsecs? How much parallax would this star (named Alpha Centaurl) show when viewed from two locations of the Earth six months apart in Its orbit around the Sun?
Answer:
Distance of Alpha Centauri from the Earth = 4.29 ly
= 4.29 × 365 × 24 v 3600 × 3 × 10⁸ = 4.06 × 10¹⁶m
1 parsec = 3.084 × 10¹⁶ m
∴ Distance = \(\frac{4.06 \times 10^{16}}{3.084 \times 10^{16}}\) = 1.32parsec.
D = b/θ
b = 3 × 10⁴, D = 4.06 × 10¹⁶ m
Parallax θ = 2 × D = 2.64

Question 21.
The Sun is a hot plasma (ionized matter) with its Inner core at a temperature exceeding 10⁷ K, and its outer surface at a temperature of about 6000 K. At these high temperatures, no substance remains in a solid or liquid phase. In what range do you expect the mass density of the Sun to be, In the range of densities of solids and liquids or gases? Check if your guess is correct from the following data: mass of the Sun = 2.0 × 10³⁰ kg, radius of the Sun = 7.0 × 10⁸m.
Answer:
Actual Density of the Sun = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Volume }}\)
= \(\frac{2 \times 10^{30} \mathrm{kg}}{\frac{4}{3} \pi \times\left(7 \times 10^{8}\right)^{3} \mathrm{m}^{3}}\)
= 1.4 × 10³ kg m^-3

Question 22.
When the planet Jupiter is at a distance of 824.7 million kilometers from the Earth, Its angular diameter is measured to be 35.72″ of arc. Calculate the diameter of Jupiter.
Answer:
D = 824.7 million km
θ = 35.72¹¹
b = Dθ
=> b = 824.7 v 10⁶ km × 35.72¹¹
824.7 × 10⁶ km × \(\frac{35.72}{3600}\) × \(\frac{\pi}{180}\) km
=1.429 × 10⁵ km

1st PUC Physics Units and Measurements Additional Exercises Questions and Answers

Question 23.
A man walking briskly In the rain with speed v must slant his umbrella forward making an angle θ with the vertical. A student derives the following relation between θ and v: tan θ = v, and checks that the relation has a correct limit: as v -> o, θ -> o, as expected. (We are assuming there is no strong wind and that the rain falls vertically for a stationary man). Do you think this relation can be correct? If not, guess the correct relation.
Answer:
Since tan θ is dimensionless, we need the RHS of the equation tan θ = v to be dimensionless.
Let the speed of the rainfall be v¹. Then, by the method of dimensions, we get that tan θ = v/v¹ or v¹/v
When the man is stationary (v = 0), he must hold the umbrella straight.
i.e θ = 0°
tan θ = 0 when v = 0
∴ The required relation is tan θ = v/v¹

Question 24.
It is claimed that two cesium clocks if allowed to run for 100 years, free from any disturbance, may differ by only about 0.02 s. What does this imply for the accuracy of the standard cesium clock in measuring a time – interval of 1 s?
Answer:
Since the maximum error possible for 2 clocks is 0.02 s, the error for 1 clock = 0.01 s.
∴ Accuracy = \(\frac{3600 \times 24 \times 365 \times 100}{0.01}\)
= 3.15 × 10¹¹
= 1 part in to¹¹ to 10¹²

Question 25.
Estimate the average mass density of a sodium atom assuming its size to be about 2.5 Å. (Use the known values of Avogadro’s number and the atomic mass of sodium). Compare it with the density of sodium in its crystalline phase: 970 kg m^-3. Are the two densities of the same order of magnitude? If so, why?
Answer:
Mass of 1 mole (N_A) of sodium atoms = 23 g.
Mass of 1 atom of sodium = \(\frac{23 \mathrm{g}}{\mathrm{N}_{\mathrm{A}}}\)
= \(\frac{23 g \times 10^{-3} k g}{6.022 \times 10^{23}}\)
= 3.819 × 10^-26
Density of sodium atom = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Volume }}\)
= \(\frac{3.819 \times 10^{-26}}{\frac{4}{3} \pi \times\left(2.5 \times 10^{-10}\right)^{3}}\)
= 583.5 kg m^-3

970 kg m^-3 and 0.6 × 10³ kg m^-3
are of the same order of magnitude because atoms are tightly packed in solid-state, so the atomic mass density is quite close to the density of the solid.

Question 26.
The unit of length convenient on the nuclear scale is a fermi: 1 f = 10^-15m. Nuclear sizes obey roughly the following empirical relation:
r = r₀A^1/3
where r is the radius of the nucleus, A its mass number, and r₀ is a constant equal to about 1.2 fm. Show that the rule implies that nuclear mass density is nearly constant for different nuclei. Estimate the mass density of sodium nucleus. Compare it with the average mass density of a sodium atom obtained in Exercise. 2.27.
Answer:
Mass of 1 mole (N_A) of atoms of an element = A g
= A × 10^-3 kg
Mass of  1 atom = \(\frac{A \times 10^{-3} k g}{N_{A}}\)
Density of the atom = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Volume }}\)

which is a constant.
Mass density of the sodium nucleus


= 2.30 × 10¹⁷ kg m ^-3
= 0.2 × 10¹⁸ kg m ^-3
\(\frac{\text { Nuclear density }}{\text { Atomic density }}\) for sodium

= 0.33 × 10¹⁵
∴ Nuclear density is roughly 10¹⁵ to 10¹⁵ times the atomic density.

Question 27.
A LASER is a source of very intense, monochromatic, and unidirectional beam of light. These properties of laser light can be exploited to measure long distances. The distance of the Moon from the Earth has been already determined very precisely using a laser as a source of light. A laser light beamed at the Moon takes 2.56 s to return after reflection at the Moon’s surface. How much Is the radius of the lunar orbit around the Earth?
Answer:
Time for the laser reach the moon
= 1/2 × 2.56 s = 1.28 s
∴ Distance from the Earth to the moon = 1.28 s × speed of light in vacuum = 1.28 × 3 × 10⁸ms^-1
= 3.84 × 10⁸m
∴ The radius of the lunar orbit = 3.84 × 10⁸m.

Question 28.
A SONAR (sound navigation and ranging) uses ultrasonic waves to detect and locate objects underwater. In a submarine equipped with a SONAR the time delay between generation of a probe wave and the reception of its echo after reflection from
an enemy submarine is found to be 77.0 s. What is the distance of the enemy submarine? (Speed of sound in water =
1450 ms^-1).
Answer:
Time for the SONAR to reach the enemy submarine = 1/2 × 77.0 s = 38.5s
Distance of the enemy submarine = 38.5 s × speed of Sound in water
= 38.5 s × 1450 m s^-1 = 55825 m = 55.8 km.

question 29.
The farthest objects in our Universe discovered by modern astronomers are so distant that light emitted by them takes billions of years to reach the Earth. These objects (known as quasars) have many puzzling features, which have not yet been satisfactorily explained. What is the distance in km of a quasar from which light takes 3.0 billion years to reach us?
Answer:
Distance of the quasar from the earth = Distance travelled by light in 3 billion years
= 3 × 10⁵ kms^-1 × 3 × 10⁹ × 365 × 24 × 3600
= 2.8 × 10²² km.

Question 30.
It is a well-known fact that during a total solar eclipse-the disk of the moon almost completely covers the disk of the Sun. From this fact .determine the approximate diameter of the moon.
Answer:
AC = AD, AB = AE

From the data, we get the distances of the Sun and Moon from the Earth, as well as the diameter of the Sun.
Using the concept of similar triangles
ΔABE ~ ΔACD ⇒ \(\frac{A B}{A D}=\frac{B E}{C D}\)
⇒ BE = diameter of the moon
= CD × \(\frac{\mathrm{AB}}{\mathrm{AD}}\) =

= 3568 km.

Question 31.
A great physicist of this century (P.A.M. Dirac) loved playing with numerical values of Fundamental constants of nature. This led him to an interesting observation. Dirac found that from the basic constants of atomic physics (c, e, mass of electron, mass of proton) and the gravitational constant G, he could arrive at a number with the dimension of time. Further, it was a very large number, its magnitude being close to the present estimate on the age of the universe (~15 billion years). From the table of fundamental constants in this book, try to see if you too can construct this number (or any other Interesting number you can think of). If its coincidence with the age of the universe were significant, what would this imply for the constancy of fundamental constants?
Answer:
[c] = [LT^-1]
[e] = [IT]
[m_e] = [mp] = [M]
[G] = [M^-1 L³ T²]
[∈_o]= [M^-1 L^-3 T⁴ I²]
By the given condition
[c]^a [e]^b [m_e]^c[mp]^d [G]^e [∈_o]^f = [T]
[LT^-1]^a [IT]^b [M]^c[M]^d [M^-1L³T^-2]^e × [M^-1 L^-3 T⁴I²]^f = [T]
[M^c+d-e-f L^a+3e-3f T^-a+b-2e+4f I^b+2f]
[M⁰ L⁰ T¹ I⁰]

Comparing the powers of M, L, T and I, we get
⇒c + d-e – f               = 0    →(1)
a + 3e – 3f                  = 0    →(2)
-a + b -2e + 4f           = 1    →(3)
b + 2f                         = 0    →(4)
We have 4 equations but 6 unknowns. Hence we cannot arrive at a unique solution. But we can get the solutions by guessing the values for some of the unknowns.
Let a = -3, e = -1, f = -2 c = -2, Now we have d = -1 and b = 4
∴ The equation is of the form =

where k is a constant.

1st PUC Physics Units and Measurements One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is a unit?
Answer:
The standard quantity in terms of which a physical quantity is measured is called the unit of that physical quantity.

Question 2.
What are the fundamental quantities?
Answer:
The quantities, which are independent of other physical quantities are called fundamental quantities.

Question 3.
What are derived quantities?
Answer:
The quantities, which are derived from fundamental quantities are called derived quantities.

Question 4.
What is dimensional formula?
Answer:
A formula in which a physical quantity is expressed in terms of fundamental quantities is called the dimensional formula.

Question 5.
What are the dimensions?
Answer:
Dimensions of a physical quantity are the powers to which the fundamental quantities must be raised to obtain the unit of a given physical quantity.

Question 6.
State the principle of homogeneity of dimensions.
Answer:
The principle of homogeneity of dimensions states that the dimensional formula of all the terms in an equation must be the same.

Question 7.
Write the dimensional formula for velocity.
Answer:
LT^-1.

Question 8.
Write the dimensional formula for force.
Answer:
MLT².

Question 9.
Write the dimensional formula for power.
Answer:
ML²T³.

Question 10.
Name a physical quantity that has a unit but no dimension.
Answer:
Angle. (Bangalore South, North 05)

Question 11.
Write the dimensions of the coefficient of viscosity?
Answer:
[η] = [M¹L^-1T^-1].
∴ Dimensions of co-efficient of viscosity are 1 in mass, -1 in length and -1 in time.

Question 12.
Name the SI unit of weight.
Answer:
SI unit of weight is Newton (N).

Question 13.
Write the number of significant figures in each of the following measurements

1. 1.67 × 10^-27 kg
2. 0.270 cm

Answer:

1. Three significant figures.
2. Three significant figures.

Question 14.
Name the S.I unit used to express the amount of substance.
Answer:
Mole.

Question 15.
How many newtons make 1 kg wt?
Answer:
9.8 N = 1 kg wt.

1st PUC Physics Units and Measurements Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the fundamental quantities.
Answer:
Mass, length, time, temperature, amount of substance, luminous intensity and electric current.

Question 2.
What are derived quantities? Give examples.
Answer:
The quantities, which are derived from fundamental quantities, are called derived quantities. E.g: Velocity is derived from length and time, Charge is derived from current and time. Area is derived from length, Volume is derived from the length, etc.

Question 3.
Mention the applications of dimensional equations.
Answer:
Dimensional equations are used :

1. To check the correctness of an equation.
2. To derive the relation between different physical quantities.
3. To convert one system of units into another system.

Question 4.
Using the method of dimension check the correctness of the equation, v² = u²+2as
Answer:
v² = u²+2as, writing the dimensional formula for each of them
[LT^-1]² = [LT^-1]² + [LT^-2] [L]
[IL²T^-2] = [L² T^-2] + [L² T^-2]
All the terms have the same dimensional formula & hence the Equation is dimensionally correct.

Question 5.
Find the area of the circle of radius 3.458 cm up to correct significant figures.
Answer:
A = πr²
= 3.142 × 3.458² = 37.57 cm²

Question 6.
The radius of a solid sphere is measured to be 11.24 cm. What is the surface area of the sphere to appropriate significant figures?
Answer:
r = 11.24 cm
Surface area = 4 πr² = 4 × 3.142 × (11.24)²
= 1588 cm²

Question 7.
If A = (12.0 ±0.1) cm and
B = (8.5 ± 0.5) cm, find:
(i) A + B and (ii) A – B
Answer:
(i) A + B = (12.0 ± 0.1) + (8.5 ± 0.5)
= (20.5 ±0.6) cm
(ii) A-B = (12.0 ± 0.1) – (8.5 ±0.5)
= (3.5 ± 0.6) cm.

Question 8.
Magnitude of force F experienced by a certain object moving with speed V is given by F = Kv2, where K is a constant. Find the dimensions of K.
Answer:
F =Kv2
Taking dimensions of each term, we get
[M L T-2] = [ K ] [L T^-1]²
⇒ [K] = \(\frac{\left[M L T^{-2}\right]}{\left[L^{2} T^{-2}\right]}\)
[K] = [ML^-1]

Question 9.
For the determination of ‘g’ using a simple pendulum, measurenents of I and T are required. Error in the measurement of which of these will have a larger effect on the value of ‘g’ thus obtained and why? What is done to minimise this error?
Answer:
The formula for ‘g’ is
g = 4 π² \(\frac{I}{\mathrm{T}^{2}}\)
∴ \(\frac{\Delta g}{g}=\frac{\Delta I}{I}+2 \frac{\Delta T}{T}\)
Error in the measurement of T will have a larger effect on the obtained value of ‘g’. To minimise this error, a large number of measurements of T is taken.

1st PUC Physics Units and Measurements FourFive Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The side (r) of a cube is measured as (11.3 ± 0.1) cm. What is the volume of the cube?
Answer:
Volume V = r³
\(\frac{\Delta r}{r}\) = \(\frac{0.1}{11.3}\) = 0.009
\(\frac{\Delta V}{V}\)= 3 × \(\frac{\Delta r}{r}\) = 0.027
V = (11.3)³ = 1442.9 cm³
ΔV = 1442.9 × 0.027 = 38.96 cm³
Volume of the cube = (1442.9 ± 38.96)cm³

Question 2.
A drop of olive oil of radius 1 mm spreads into a circular film of diameter 40 cm on a water surface. Estimate the size of an oil molecule.
Answer:
Volume of the oil is conserved. Radius of oil drop = R = 1 mm
Radius of the oil film on the water surface is r = 20 cm
The thickness of the oil film formed represents the size of the oil molecule.
\(\frac{4}{3} \pi \mathrm{R}^{3}\) = πr² × size of a molecule
⇒Size of a molecule = \(\frac{4}{3} \times \frac{R^{3}}{r^{2}}\)
= \(\frac{4}{3} \times \frac{\left(1 \times 10^{-3}\right)^{3}}{\left(20 \times 10^{-2}\right)^{2}}\)
= 0.33 × 10^-7 m

Question 3.
A large fluid star oscillates in shape under the influence of its own gravitational field. Using dimensional analysis, find the expression for period of oscillation (T) in terms of radius of the star (R), mean density of the Fluid (p) and universal gravitational constant (G).
T α R^a \(\rho\)^b G^c
Considering the dimensions of the terms,
[M⁰ L⁰ T¹] = [L¹]^a [ML^-3]^b [M^-1 L³ T^-2]^c
[M⁰ L⁰ T¹] = [M^b-c L^a-3b+3c T^-2c]
Equating the powers of M, L and T,
we get b – c = 0
a – 3b + 3c = 0
– 2c = 1
⇒b = c, a = 0,c = -1/2
∴ T = K R° \(\rho^{-x / 2} G^{-y / 2}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{K}}{\sqrt{\rho \mathrm{G}}}\)
where K is a constant.

Question 4.
The length and breadth of a rectangle are (5.7 ±0.1) cm and (3.4 ±0.2) cm. Calculate the area of the rectangle with error limits.
Answer:
I = (5.7 ± 0.1) cm
b = (3.4 ± 0.2) cm
Area = lb = 5.7 × 3.4 = 19.38 cm²
\(\frac{\Delta A}{A}=\frac{\Delta I}{I}+\frac{\Delta b}{b}\)
⇒ ΔA = \(\left(\frac{0.1}{5.7}+\frac{0.2}{3.4}\right)\) × 19.4
= 1.5 cm²
∴ A = (19.4 ± 1.5) cm²

Question 5.
From the bottom of a rock mountain, If the angle of elevation of its top increases from 30° to 45° on moving 100 m towards the rock In the horizontal direction through the base of the rock.
Answer:
∆ In ABC, \(\frac{h}{x}\) = tan 45°

In ABD, \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{x}+100}\)
= tan 30°
⇒ \(\frac{h}{h+100}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
⇒ \(\mathrm{h}=\frac{100}{(\sqrt{3}-1)}\)
h = 136.6 m

Question 6.
If the units of force, velocity and energy are 100 dyne, 10cm/sec and 400 ergs respectively, what will be the units of mass, length and time?
Answer:
F = 100 dyne = [M LT^-2]
V = 10 cm s^-1 = [LT^-1]
E = 400 ergs = [M L²T^-2]

L = 4 cm
[L T^-1] = 10
⇒4T^-1 = 10
⇒T = 0.4 sec
[M L T^-2] = 100
⇒M 4 × (0.4)^-2 = 100
⇒M = 4 gm

Question 7.
If the displacement of a body, = (200 ± 5) m and time taken by it is t = (20 ± 0.2) s, find the percentage error In the calculation of velocity.
Answer:
\(\frac{\Delta V}{V} \times 100 \%=\frac{\Delta S}{S} \times 100 \%+\frac{\Delta t}{t} \times 100 \%\)
= \(\frac{5}{200}\) × 100+\(\frac{0.2}{20}\) × 100
= 2.5 + 1
= 3.5%

Question 8.
Using the principle of homogeneity of dimensions, find which of the following is correct.

Where T is the time period, G Is the gravitational constant, M is the mass and r is the radius of the orbit.
Answer:
Dimensions of LHS in each case =

Question 9.
A physical quantity Q is given by Q = \(\frac{A^{2} \cdot B^{3 / 2}}{C^{4} \cdot D^{/ 2}}\). The percentage error In A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 4% and 2% respectively. Find the percentage error in Q.
Answer:

= 22%

1st PUC Physics Units and Measurements Questions from the previous question papers

Question 1.
Check the correctness of the following equation.
1. v = u + at
2. s = ut + 1/2 at²
Answer:
1. Given equation is v = u + at , Writing the dimensional formula of each of them we get,
[LT^-1] = [LT^-1] + [LT²][T]
[LT^-1] = [LT^-1] + [LT^-1]
All the terms have the same dimensional formula and hence the equation is dimensionally correct.

2. Given equation is s = ut + 1/2 at²
Writing the dimensional formula of each of them we get,
[L] = [LT^-1][T] + [LT^-2][T²]
[L] = [L]+[L]
All the terms have the same dimensional formula and hence the equation is dimensionally correct.

Question 2.
The period of oscillation (T) of a simple pendulum Is found to depend on
i) mass of the pendulum (m)
ii) length of the pendulum (I)
iii) acceleration due to gravity (g).
Derive the relation between them.
Answer:
Let T ∝m^x I^y g^z
T = k m^x I^y g^z ……………….. (1)
where ‘k’ is constant of proportionality. Writing the dimensional formula of equation (1),
[T] = [M]^x[L]^y[LT^-2]z
[M⁰ L⁰ T] = [M^xL^y+zT^-2z]
Comparing the dimensions we get,
x = 0, y + z = 0, -2z = 1
x = 0, y = – z , z = -1/2
x = 0, y = 1/2 , z = -1/2
Substituting in (1) we get,

Experimetnally the value of constant ‘k’ is found to be 2π.

Question 3.
Convert MKS unit of force Into the CGS unit. Or Relate newton and dyne. OR Show that 1 newton =10⁵ dyne by method of dimension.
Answer:
Let MKS unit of force = n × CGS unit of force

∴ MKS unit of force = 10⁵ CGS unit of force i.e., 1 newton = 10⁵

Question 4.
Mention the limitations of dimensional analysis.
Answer:
The limitations of dimensional equations are:

• Even though a given equation is dimensionally correct, it is not possible to conclude that it is truly correct.
• The constant of proportionality cannot be determined.
• This method cannot be used for deriving equations involving trigonometric and logarithm functions.
• This method cannot be used to derive equations where addition or subtraction is involved.

Question 5.
Check the correctness of the equation sn = u+\(\frac{a}{2}\) (2n-1) by dimensional analysis, where the symbols have the usual meaning.
Answer:
Writing the dimensional formula of each of them, we get
L¹ = LT^-1+LT^-2[T]
L¹ = LT^-1+LT^-1
Since all the terms do not have the same dimensional formula, the equation is dimensionally not correct.

Question 6.
Check the correctness of equation, E = mc² by dimensional analysis, where the symbols have their usual significance.
Answer:
Writing the dimensional formula of each of them,
we get M¹ L²T^-2 = M¹ L²T^-2
All the terms have the same dimensional formula & hence the equation is dimensionally correct.

Question 7.
Define dimensions of a physical quantity. Write the dimensions of velocity, force, and energy.
Answer:
Dimensions of physical quantities are the powers to which the fundamental quantities, must be raised to obtain that physical quantity.
1) [velocity] = [M⁰L¹T^-1]
Dimension of velocity in mass 0, in length 1, & in time -1.
2) [Force] = [M¹L¹T^-2]
Dimension of force in mass 1, in length 1 & in time -2.
3) [Energy] = [M¹L²T^-2]
Dimension of energy in mass 1, in length 2 & in time -2.

Question 8.
Show that 1 Joule = 10⁷erg by the method of dimension.
Answer:
Let MKS unit of work
=n × CGS unit of work.

∴ MKS unit of work = 10⁷ CGS unit of work.
i.e 1 J = 10⁷ erg.

Question 9.
Write a note on the SI system.
Answer:
SI system represents the “International system of units”. It was adopted in 1971 at the general conference on Weights and Measures :
S.I. system has seven fundamental units. They are

1. meter for length,
2. kilogram for mass
3. second for time
4. ampere for electric current
5. Kelvin for temperature
6. candela for luminous intensity
7. mole for Amount of substance.

There are 2 supplementary units, They are

1. radian for measurement of angle in a plane.
2. steradian for measurement of angle in solid angle.

Question 10.
Write any two applications and any two limitations of dimensional analysis.
Answer:
Dimensional equations are used :

• To check the correctness of an equation.
• To derive the relation between different physical quantities.
• To convert one system of units into another system.

The limitations of dimensional equations are:

• Even though a given equation is dimensionally correct, it is not possible to conclude that it is truly correct.
• The constant of proportionality cannot be determined.
• This method cannot be used for deriving equations involving trigonometric and logarithm functions.
• This method cannot be used to derive equations where addition or subtraction is involved.

Question 11.
Write the dimensions for
i) force
ii) pressure
iii) volume and
iv) velocity.
Answer:
i) [F] = [MLT^-2].
ii) [p] = [ML^-1T^-2].
iii) [V] = [M⁰L³T⁰].
iv) [V] = [M⁰LT^-1].

Karnataka 1st PUC Business Studies Question Bank Chapter 12 International Business – II

You can Download Chapter 12 International Business – II Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Business Studies Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – II Textual Questions and Answers

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – II Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following documents are not required for obtaining an export license?
a. IEC number
b. Letter of credit
c. Registration cum membership certificate
d. Bank account number
Answer:
b. Letter of credit

Question 2.
Which of the following documents is not required in connection with an import transaction?
a. Bill of lading
b. Shipping bill
c. Certificate of origin
d. Bank account number
Answer:
b. Shipping bill

Question 3.
Which of the following do not form part of duty drawback scheme?
a. Refund of excise duties
b. Refund of customs duties
c. Refund of export duties
d. Refund of income dock charges at the port of shipment
Answer:
d. Refund of income dock charges at the port of shipment

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not a document related to fulfill the customs formalities
a. Shipping bill
b. Export licence
c. Letter of insurance
d. Proforma invoice
Answer:
b. Export licence

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not a part of export documents?
a. Commercial invoice
b. Certificate of origin
c. Bill of entry
d. Mate’s receipt
Answer:
c. Bill of entry

Question 6.
A receipt issued by the commanding officer of the ship when the cargo is loaded on the ship is known as
a. Shipping receipt
b. Mate receipt
c. Cargo receipt
d. Charter receipt
Answer:
b. Mate receipt

Question 7.
Which of the following document is prepared by the exporter and includes details of the cargo in terms of the shippers name, the number of packages, the shipping bill, port of destination, name of the vehicle carrying the cargo?
a. Shipping bill
b. Packaging list
c. Mate’s receipt
d. Bill of exchange
Answer:
a. Shipping bill

Question 8.
The document containing the guarantee of a bank to honour drafts drawn on it by an exporter is
a. Letter of hypothecation
b. Letter of credit
c. Bill of lading
d. Bill of exchange
Answer:
b. Letter of credit

Question 9.
Which of the following does not belong to the World Bank group?
a. IBRD
b. JDA
c. MIGA
d. IMF
Answer:
d. IMF

Question 10.
TRIP is one of the WTO agreements that deal with
a. Trade in agriculture
b. Trade in services
c. Trade related investment measures
d. None of these
Answer:
d. None of these

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – II Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the formalities involved in getting an export license.
Answer:
Important formalities in getting an export license are as follows:

1. Opening a bank account in any bank authorized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and getting an account number.
2. Obtaining Import Export Code (IEC) number from the Directorate General Foreign Trade (DGFT) or Regional Import Export Licensing Authority.
3. Registering with appropriate export promotion council.
4. Registering with Export Credit and Guarantee Corporation (ECGC) in order to safeguard against risks of non-payments.

Question 2.
Why is it necessary to get registered with an export promotion council?
Answer:
It is necessary for the exporter to become a member of the appropriate export promotion council and obtain a Registration Cum Membership Certificate (RCMC) for availing benefits available to export firms from the Government like duty exemptions, and these councils also provide incentives to the exporters.

Question 3.
What is IEC number?
Answer:
Import Export Code (IEC) number is given to an export firm by Director General for Foreign Trade (DGFT) which the firm needs to be filled in various export/import documents. For obtaining the IEC number, a firm has to apply to the DGFT with documents such as exporter/importer profile, bank receipt of requisite fee, certificate from the banker on the prescribed form, two copies of photographs attested by the banker, details of the non-resident interest and declaration about the applicant’s non¬association with caution listed firms.

Question 4.
What is pre-shipment finance?
Answer:
Pre-shipment finance is the finance that the exporter needs before shipment of the order for procuring raw materials and other components, processing and packing of goods and transportation of goods to the port of shipment or we can say pre-shipment to undertake export production.

Question 5.
Why is it necessary for an export firm to go in for pre-shipment inspection?
Answer:
An export firm has to go in for pre-shipment inspection as required by the Government of India to ensure that only good quality products are exported from the country. The government has passed Export Quality Control and Inspection Act, 1963 for this purpose of compulsory inspection of certain products by a competent agency as designated by the government.

If the product to be exported comes under such a category, the exporter needs to contact the Export Inspection Agency (ElA) or the other designated agency for obtaining inspection certificate. The pre-shipment inspection report is required to be submitted along with other export documents at the time of exports.

Such an inspection is not compulsory in case the goods are being exported by star trading houses, trading houses, export houses, industrial unit’s setup in Export Processing Zones/Special Economic Zones (EPZs/SEZs) and 100% Export Oriented Units (EOUs).

Question 6.
Discuss the procedure related to excise clearance of goods.
Answer:
The exporter has to apply, to the concerned Excise Commissioner in the region with an invoice because according to the Central Excise Tariff Act, excise duty is payable on the materials used in manufacturing goods. If the Excise Commissioner is satisfied, he may issue the excise clearance. But in many cases the government exempts payment of excise duty or later on refunds it if the goods so manufactured are meant for exports. This is done to provide an incentive to the exporters to export more and also to make the export products more competitive in the world markets.

Question 7.
Explain briefly the process of customs clearance of export goods.
Answer:
The goods must be cleared from the customs before these can be loaded on the ship. For obtaining customs clearance, the exporter prepares the shipping bill which contains particulars of the goods being exported, the name of the vessel, the port at which goods are to be discharged, country of final destination, exporter’s name and address, etc. Five copies of the shipping bill along with the following documents are then submitted to the Customs Appraiser at the Customs House for clearance:

1. Export Contract or Export Order
2. Letter of Credit
3. Commercial Invoice
4. Certificate of Origin
5. Certificate of Inspection, where necessary
6. Marine Insurance Policy

After submission of these documents the superintendent of the concerned port trust is approached for carting order and after obtaining it, the Cargo is physically moved into the port area and stored in shed.

Question 8.
What is bill of lading? How does it differ from bill of entry?
Answer:
Bill of lading is issued by the shipping company after the receipt of freight; it serves as evidence that the shipping company has accepted the goods for carrying to the designated destination. In case the goods are being sent by air, this document is referred to as airway bill. On the other hand “Bill of entry” is filled by the importer for assessment of customs import duty.

One appraiser examines the document carefully and gives the examination order. The importer procures the said document prepared by the appraiser and pays the duty, if any After payment of the import duty, the bill of entry has to be presented to the dock superintendent. The examiner gives his report on the bili of entry which is then presented to the port authority which issues the release order after receiving necessary charges.

Question 9.
What is Shipping Bill?
Answer:
Shipping bill is the main document on the basis of which the customs office gives the permission for export. Shipping bill contains particulars of the goods being exported, the name of the vessel, the port at which goods are to be discharged, country of final destination, exporters name and address, etc. Exporter prepares the shipping bill for obtaining customs clearance. Thus, we can say shipping bill is the bill which is prepared by exporter and required for the customs clearance.

Question 10.
Explain the meaning of Mate’s receipt.
Answer:
A mate receipt is a receipt issued by the commanding officer of the ship when the cargo is loaded on board, and contains the information about the name of the vessel, berth, date of shipment, description of packages, marks and numbers, condition of the cargo at the time of receipt on board the ship, etc. The port superintendent, on receipt of £ort dues, hands over the mate’s receipt to time C&F agent.

Question 11.
What is a letter of credit? Why does an exporter need this document?
Answer:
A letter of credit is a guarantee issued by the importer’s bank that it will honor up to a certain amount of export bills to the bank of the exporter. Letter of credit is the most appropriate and secure method of payment adopted to settle international transactions. The exporter needs this letter to Insure against the non-payment of dues by the importer in the foreign country as there is always a risk in the collection of payment from the importers. Thus, in order to protect the exporter from financial loss “Letter of credit” is needed.

Question 12.
Discuss the process involved in securing payment for exports.
Answer:
The process involved in securing payment for exports includes the following steps:

(i) After the shipment of goods, the exporter informs the importer about the shipment of goods.

(ii) The exporter sends the documents like certified copy of invoice, bill of lading, packing list, etc. needed by the importer to claim the title of goods on their arrival at his/her country and getting them customs cleared. These documents are sent through exporter’s banker with the instruction that these may be delivered to the importer after acceptance of the bill of exchange,

(iii) On receiving the bill of exchange, the importer releases the payment in case of sight draft or accepts the usance draft for making payment on maturity of the bill of exchange.

(iv) The exporter’s bank receives the payment through the importer’s bank and is credited to the exporter’s account.

(v) The exporter can get immediate payment from his/ her bank on the submission of documents by signing a letter of indemnity.

(vi) After receiving the payment for exports, the exporter needs to get a bank certificate of payment which states that the necessary documents relating to the particular export consignment have been presented to the importer for payment and the payment has been received in accordance with the exchange control regulations.

Question 13.
Differentiate between the following (i) Sight and usance drafts (ii) Bill of lading and airway bill (iii) Pre-shipment and post-shipment finance
Answer:
(i) Sight and Usance Drafts: In the case of sight draft, the drawer instructs the bank to hand over the relevant documents to the importer against payment. But in the case of usance draft, the drawer- instructs the bank to hand over the relevant documents to the importer against acceptance of the bill of exchange.

(ii) Bill of Lading and Airway Bill: Bill of lading is a document prepared and signed by the master of the ship acknowledging the receipt of goods on board. It contains terms and conditions on which the goods are to be taken to the port of destination. On the other hand, Airway Bill is a document wherein an airline/shipping company gives its official receipt of the goods onboard its aircraft and at the same time gives an undertaking to carry them to the port of destination.

(iii) Pre-shipment and Post-shipment Finance: Pre-shipment finance is provided to an exporter for financing the purchase, processing, manufacturing or packaging of goods for export purpose while the post-shipment finance is provided to the exporter from the date of extending the credit after the shipment of goods to the export country.

Question 14.
Explain the meaning of the following documents used in connection with import transactions (i) Trade enquiry (ii) Import license (iii) Shipment of advice (iv) Import general manifest (v) Bill of entry
Answer:
(i) Trade Enquiry: A trade enquiry is a written request by an importing firm to the exporter for supply of information regarding the price and various terms and conditions on which the latter is ready to exports goods.

(ii) Import License: License which permits the import of goods that cannot be imported freely is called an import license. The importer needs to consult the Export Import (IZXIM) policy in force to know whether the goods that he or she wants import are subject to import licensing. Iji case goods can be imported only the license the importer needs to procure an import license.

(iii) Shipment of Advice: Shipment advice contains information about the shipment of goods. The information provided in the shipment advice includes details such as invoice number, bill of lading/airways bill number and date, name of the vessel with date, the port of export, description of goods and quantity, and the date sailing of vessel. The overseas supplier dispatches the shipment advice to the importer after loading the goods on the vessel.

(iv) Import General Manifest: Import general manifest is a document that contains the details of the imported goods. It is a document on the basis of which unloading of cargo takes place. It is provided by the person in charge of the carrier (ship or airway) to the officer in charge at the dock.

(v) Bill of Entry: Bill of entry is a form filled by the importer for assessment of customs import duty. One appraiser examines the document carefully and gives the examination order. The importer procures the said document prepared by the appraiser and pays the duty, if any. After payment of the import duty, the bill of entry has to „ be presented to the dock superintendent. The examiner gives his report on the bill of entry which is then presented to the port authority which issues the release order after receiving necessary charges.

Question 15.
List out major affiliated bodies of the World Bank.
Answer:
Major affiliated bodies of the World Bank are

1. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
2. International Financial Corporation (IFC)
3. International Development Association (IDA)
4. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
5. International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)

Question 16.
Write short notes on the following (i) UNCTAD (ii) MIGA (iii) World Bank (iv) ITPO (v) IMF
Answer:
(i) UNCTAD
TheUnitedNations Conference on Trade and Development(UNCTAD) was established in 1964 as a permanent intergovernmental body. It is the principal organ of the United Nations General Assembly dealing with trade, investment, and development issues. The organization’s goals are to “maximize the trade, investment and development opportunities of and developing countries and assist them in their efforts to integrate into the world economy on an equitable basis”. UNCTAD was created to address the concerns of developing countries over the international market, multi-national corporations, and the disparity between developed nations and developing nations.

The primary objective of the UNCTAD is to formulate policies relating to all aspects of development including trade, aid, transport, finance and technology. The conference ordinarily meets once in four years. UNCTAD has 194 member States and has its permanent secretariat in Geneva. One of the principal achievements of UNCTAD has been to conceive and implement the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP). Under the GSP Scheme, manufactured goods exports and some agricultural goods from the developing countries enter duty-free or at reduced rates in the developed countries. This was done in order to promote exports of manufactured goods from developing countries.

(ii) MIGA
The Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) was established in April, 1988 to supplement the functions of the World Bank and IFC with the following objectives:

1. To encourage flow of direct foreign investment into the less developed member countries.
2. To provide insurance cover to investors against political risks.
3. To provide guarantee against non-commercial risks (like currency transfer risk, war and civil disturbances and breach of contract).
4. To insure new investments, expansion of existing investments, privatization and financial restructuring.
5. To provide promotional and advisory services.
6. To establish credibility.

(iii) World Bank
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), commonly known as World Bank, emerged from the Breton Woods Conference. The main objectives of World Bank were to aid the task of reconstruction of the war-affected economies of Europe and assist in the development of the underdeveloped nations of the world. At present, the World Bank is a group of five international organizations responsible for providing finance to different countries. Its headquarters is situated at Washington DC. World Bank is entrusted with the task of economic growth and widening the scope of information trade.

During its initial years of inception, it placed more emphasis on developing infrastructure facilities like energy, transportation and others but the results were not found to be very satisfactory due to poor administrative structure, lack of institutional framework and non-availability of skilled labour in under developed countries. World , Bank also extends assistance to different countries of raising cash crops so that their ’ incomes rise and they may export the same for earning foreign exchange.

The bank has also been providing resources for education, sanitation, health care and scale enterprises. The World Bank is no longer confined to simply providing financial assistance for infrastructure development, agriculture, industry, health and sanitation. It is also involved in areas like removal of rural poverty through raising productivity, increasing income of the rural poor, providing technical support, and initiating research and cooperative ventures.

(iv) ITPO
Indian Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO) was setup on 1 st January, 1992 under the Companies Act, 1956 by the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India. Its head quarter is at New Delhi. ITPO was formed by merging the two erstwhile agencies viz., Trade Development Authority and Trade Fair Authority of India. ITPO is a service organization and maintains regular and close interaction with trade, industry and government.

It serves the industry by organizing trade fairs and exhibitions within the country as well as abroad, It helps export firms in participating in international trade fairs and exhibitions, developing exports of new items and providing support and updated commercial business information. ITPO has five regional offices at Mumbai, Bengaluru, Kolkata, Kanpur and Chennai and four international offices at Germany, Japan, UAE and USA.

(v) IMF
International Monetary Fund (IMF) came into existence in 1945 and has its headquarters located in Washington DC. In 2005, it had 191 countries as its members. The major idea underlying the setting up of the IMF is to evolve an orderly international monetary system to facilitate the system of international payments and adjustments in exchange ratesamong national currencies.

Some of the important functions of IMF include:

1. Acting as a short-term credit institution.
2. Providing machinery for the orderly adjustment of exchange rates.
3. Acting as a reservoir of the currencies of all the member countries, from which a borrower nation can borrow the currency of other nations.
4. Acting as a lending institution of foreign currency and current transaction.
5. Determining the value of a country’s currency and altering it, if needed, so as to bring about an orderly adjustment of exchange rates of member countries.
6. Providing machinery for international consultations.

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – II Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Rekha Garments has received an order to export 2000 men’s trousers to Swift Imports Limited located in Australia. Discuss the procedure that Rekha Garments would need to go through for executing the export order.
Answer:
Steps involved in executing the export order are as follows:
(i) Assessing Creditworthiness of Swift Imports Limited and Securing a Guarantee for Payments: After receiving the receipt of indent, Rekha Garments should make necessary enquiry about the Creditworthiness of Swift Imports Limited, in order to assess the risks of non-payment by the importer.

(ii) Obtaining Export License: After assuring about payments, the exporting firm Rekha Garments would initiate the steps relating to compliance of export regulations which demand that the export firm must have an export license before it proceeds with exports.

(iii) Obtaining Pre-shipment Finance: Rekha Garments would then approach its banker for obtaining pre-shipment finance to undertake export production, for procuring raw materials and other components, processing and packing of goods and transportation of goods to the port of shipment.

(iv) Production or Procurement of Goods: Rekha garments would proceed to get the goods ready as per the specifications of the importer. Either the firm would itself produce the goods or else buy them from the market.

(v) Pre-shipment Inspection: If the product to be exported comes under the category of compulsory inspection, Rekha Garments needs to contact the Export Inspection Agency (EIA) or the other designated agency for obtaining inspection certificate.

(vi) Excise Clearance: Rekha Garments would then have to apply to the concerned Excise Commissioner in the region with an invoice. If the Excise Commissioner is satisfied, he would issue the excise clearance. Rekha Garments may get the refund
of excise duty known as drawback as it is exporting the goods.

(vii) Obtaining Certificate of Origin: Some importing countries provide tariff concessions or other exemptions to the goods coming from a particular country. If such benefits are available, the importer may ask the exporter to send a certificate of origin.

(viii) Reservation of Shipping Space: The exporting firm applies to the shipping company for provision of shipping space. It has to specify the types of goods to be exported, probable date of shipment and destination, the port of destination. On acceptance of application for shipping, the shipping company issues a shipping order.

(ix) Packing and Forwarding: The goods are then properly packed and marked with necessary details such as name and address of the importer, gross and net weight, port of shipment and destination, country of origin, etc. Rekha Garments would then have to make necessary arrangement for transportation of goods to the port.

(x) Insurance of Goods: The exporter would then get the goods insured with an insurance company to protect against the risks of loss or damage of the goods due to the perils of the sea during the transit.

(xi) Customs Clearance: The goods must be cleared from the customs before these can be loaded on the ship. For obtaining customs clearance, Rekha Garments would have to prepare the shipping bill. Five copies of the shipping bill along with the other required documents would then be submitted to the Customs Appraiser at the customs house.

(xii) Obtaining Mates Receipt: The goods are then loaded on board the ship ’ for which the mate or the captain of the ship issues mate’s receipt to the port superintendent.

(xiii) Payment of Freight and Issuance of Bill of Lading After the receipt of freight, the shipping company would issue a bill of lading which serves as an evidence that the shipping company has accepted the goods for carrying to the designated destination.

(xiv) Preparation of Invoice: After sending the goods, an invoice of the dispatched goods would be prepared. The invoice states the quantity of goods sent and the amount to be paid by the importer and would be presented to Swift Imports limited for payment.

Question 2.
Your firm is planning to import textile machinery from Canada. Describe the procedure involved in importing.
Answer:
Following is the procedure involved in importing textile machinery from Canada:

(i) Trade Enquiry
The importing firm approaches the textile machinery export firms in Canada with the help of trade enquiry they collecting information about their export prices and terms of exports. After receiving a trade enquiry, the exporter will prepare a quotation called proforma invoice and send it to our firm.

(ii) Procurement of Import License
We will consult the Export Import (EXIM) policy in force to know whether the textile machinery import^re subject to import licensing. In case it can be imported only against the licence, we will procure an import licence.

(iii) Obtaining Foreign Exchange
As payment for imports will be made in Canadian dollars, our firm will have to make an application to a bank authorized by RBI to issue foreign exchange.

(iv) Placing Order or Indent
After obtaining the import licence, our firm will place an import order or indent with the exporter for supply of the specified products containing information about the price, quantity, grade and quality of machinery and the instructions relating to packing, shipping, ports of shipment and destination, delivery schedule, insurance and mode of payment.

(v) Obtaining Letter of Credit
If the payment terms agreed between us and the overseas supplier then our firm should obtain the letter of credit from its bank and forward it to the overseas supplier.

(vi) Arranging for Finance
Our firm would make arrangements in advance to pay to the exporter on arrival of goods at the port.

(vii) Receipt of Shipment Advice
Advice After loading the ordered textile machinery on the vessel, the overseas supplier will dispatch the shipment advice to our firm which contains information about the shipment of goods.

(viii) Retirement of Import Documents
After shipping the machinery, the overseas supplier will prepare a set of necessary documents including bill of exchange, commercial invoice, bill of lading/airway bill, packing list, certificate of origin, marine insurance policy, etc. and will hand it over Mo his or her banker for their onward transmission and negotiation to our firm. The acceptance of bill of exchange for the purpose of getting deliveiy of the documents is known as retirement of import documents after which the bank handover the import documents to the importer.

(ix) Arrival of Goods
Goods will be shipped by the overseas supplier as per the contract. The officer in charge at the dock will provide the document called import general manifest on the basis of which unloading of cargo will take place.

(x) Customs Clearance and Release of Goods
Textile machinery imported into India will have to pass through customs clearance. Firstly, our firm will have to obtain a delivery order, pay dock dues and obtain port trust dues receipt and then fill in a form bill of entry for assessment of customs import duty. After payment of the import duty, the bill of entry has to be presented to the dock superintendent. The examiner will give his report on the bill of entry and we will present the bill of entry to the port authority who will issue the release order after receiving necessary charges.

Question 3.
Discuss the principal documents used in exporting.
Answer:
Following are the principal documents used in exporting:
(i) Documents Related to Goods

(a) Export Invoice
Export invoice is a sellers bill for merchandise and contains information about goods such as quantity, total value, number of packages, marks on packing, port of destination, name of ship, bill of lading number, terms of delivery and payments, etc.

(b) Packing List
A packing list is a statement of the number of cases or packs and the details of the goods contained in these packs. It gives details of the nature of goods, which are being exported and the form in which these are being sent.

(c) Certificate of Origin
This is a certificate which specifies the country in which the goods are being produced which entitles the importer to claim tariff concessions or other exemptions on goods originating from certain pre-specified countries.

(d) Certificate of Inspection
For ensuring quality, the government has made it compulsory for certain products to be inspected by some authorized agency like Export Inspection Council of India (EICI) which issues the certificate that the consignment has been inspected as required under the Export (Quality Control and Inspection) Act, 1963, and satisfies the conditions relating to quality control and inspection as applicable to it, and is export worthy.

(ii) Documents Related to Shipment

(a) Mate’s Receipt
The mate’s receipt indicates the name of the vessel, berth, date of shipment, description of packages, marks and numbers, condition of the cargo at the time of receipt on board the ship, etc. and is given by the commanding officer of the ship to the exporter after the cargo is loaded on the ship.

(b) Shipping Bill
The shipping bill contains particulars of the goods being exported, the name of the vessel, the port at which goods are to be discharged, country of final destination, exporter’s name and address, etc. It is the main document on the basis of which custom; office grants permission for the export.

(c) Bill of Lading/Airway Bill
Bill of lading is issued by the shipping company after receipt of the freight, which serves as an evidence that the shipping company has accepted the goods for carrying to the designated destination. In the case the goods are being sent by air, this document is referred to as airway bill.

(d) Marine Insurance Policy
It is a certificate of insurance contract whereby the insurance company agrees in consideration of a payment called premium to indemnify the insured against loss incurred by the latter in respect of goods exposed to perils of the sea.

(iii) Documents Related to Payment

(a) Letter of Credit
A letter of credit is a guarantee issued by the importer’s bank that it will honor up to a certain amount the payment of export bills to the bank of the exporter. Letter of credit is the most appropriate and secure method of payment adopted to settle international transactions.

(b) Bill of Exchange
Bill of exchange is a written instrument drawn by exporter on the importer asking the latter to pay a certain amount to a certain person or the bearer of the bill of exchange. The documents giving title to the export consignment are passed on to the importer only when the importer accepts the order contained in the bill of exchange.

(c) Bank Certificate of Payment
Bank certificate of payment is a certificate that the necessary documents relating to the particular export consignment has been presented to the importer for payment and the payment has been received in accordance with the exchange control regulations.

Question 4.
List and explain various incentives and schemes that the government has evolved for promoting the country’s export.
Answer:
Major export promotion measures are as follows:
(i) Duty Drawback Scheme Excise and customs duties paid on export goods are refunded to exporters on production of proof of exports of these goods to the concerned authorities.

(ii) Export Manufacturing Under Bond Scheme This facility entitles firms to produce goods without payment of excise and other duties if the firms give an undertaking (i.e., bond) that they are manufacturing goods for export purposes and will export such products on their production.

(iii) Exemption from Payment of Sales Taxes and Income Tax Goods Meant for Export Purposes are not Subject to Sales Tax Exemption from income tax is available only to 100% Export Oriented Units (100 % EOUs) and units set up in Export Processing Zones (EPZs)/Special Economic Zones (SEZs) for select years.

(iv) Advance Licence Scheme It is a scheme under which an exporter is allowed to duty free supply of domestic as well as imported inputs required for the manufacture of export goods.

(v) Export Promotion Capital Goods Scheme (EPCGS) The main objective of this scheme is to encourage the important of capital goods for export production. This scheme allows export firms to import capital goods at very low rates of customs duties subject to actual user condition and fulfillment of specified export obligations.

(vi) Scheme of Recognizing Export Firms as Export House, Trading House and Superstar Trading House The government grants the status of export house, trading House, star trading house to select export firms based on achieving a prescribed average export of performance in past select years and assistance is given to them in marketing their products globally.

(vii) Export of Services In order to boost the export of services, various categories of service houses have been recognized on the basis of the export performance of the service providers.

(viii) Export Finance Finance is made available at concessional rates of interest to the exporters. Pre-shipment finance is provided to an exporter for financing the purchase, processing, manufacturing or packaging of goods for export purpose. Post-shipment finance is provided to the exporter from the date of extending the credit after the shipment of goods to the export country.

(ix) Export Processing Zones (EPZs) Export processing zones are industrial estates usually situated near seaports or airports with an objective to provide an internationally competitive duty free environment for export production at low cost. EPZs are now converted to Special Economic Zones (SEZs) which are free from all rules and regulations governing imports and exports units except relating to labour and banking.

(x) 100% Export Oriented Units (100 per cent EOUs) The 100%. Export oriented units scheme was introduced in early 1981 adopting the same production regime as EPZs but a wider option in location. EOUs were established with a view to generating additional production capacity for exports by providing an appropriate policy framework, flexibility of operations and incentives.

Question 5.
Identify various organizations that have been set up in the country by the government for promoting country’s foreign trade.
Answer:
Various organizations that have been set up in the country by the government for promoting country’s foreign trade are as follows:

(i) Department of Commerce
Department of Commerce in the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India is the apex body responsible for formulating policies in the sphere of foreign trade, increasing commercial relations with other countries, state trading, export promotional measures and the development, and regulation of certain export-oriented industries and commodities.

(ii) Export Promotion Councils (EPCs)
Export Promotion Councils are non-profit organizations registered under the Companies Act or the Societies Registration Act, as the case may be. Their basic objective is to promote and develop the country’s exports of particular products falling under their jurisdiction.

(iii) Commodity Boards Commodity
Boards are the boards which have been specially established by the Government of India for the development of production of traditional commodities and their exports and supplement the EPCs. At present there are seven commodity boards in India: Coffee Board, Rubber Board, Tobacco Board, Spice Board, Central Silk Board, Tea Board, and Coir Board.

(iv) Export Inspection Council (EIC)
Export Inspection Council of India was setup by the Government of India under Section 3 of the Export Quality Control and Inspection Act 1963. The council aims at sound development of export trade through quality control and pre-shipment inspection.

(v) Indian Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO)
Indian Trade Promotion Organisation was setup on 1 st January 1992. ITPO is a service organization which serves the industry by organizing trade fairs and exhibitions within the country and abroad and helps export firms in participating in international trade fairs and in developing exports of new items.

(vi) Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT)
Indian Institute of Foreign Trade is an institution that was setup in 1963 by the Government of India as an autonomous body. It has recently been recognized as Deemed University. It provides training in international trade, conduct researches in areas of international business, and analyzing and disseminating data relating to international trade and investments.

(vii) Indian Institute of Packaging (IIP)
The Indian Institute of Packaging was set up as a national institute jointly by the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India, and the Indian Packaging Industry and allied interests in 1966. It is a training-cum-research institute pertaining to packaging and testing and caters to both domestic and export markets. It also undertakes technical consultancy, testing services on packaging developments, training and educational programmes, promotional award contests, information services and other allied activities.

(viii) State Trading Organizations
The State Trading Organisation (STC) was set-up in May 1956 with the main objective of to stimulate trade, primarily export trade among different trading partners of the ’.world. Later the government set up many organization such as Metals and Minerals Trading corporation (MMTC) and Handicrafts Export Corporation (HHEC).

Question 6.
What is World Bank? Discuss its various objectives and role of its affiliated agencies.
Answer:
The World Bank was established in 1944, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), is the common name of World Bank, which was formed as a result of the Bretton Woods Conference. The main objectives behind setting up this international organization to aid the task of reconstruction of the war-affected economics of Europe and assist in the development of the underdeveloped nations of the world, Till late 1950s, the World Bank remained preoccupied with the task of restoring war-torn nations in Europe after which it turned its attention to the development of underdeveloped nations. Various objectives and roles of its affiliated agencies are given below International Development Association (IDA)

The main objectives of IDA are:

1. It provides finance on easy terms.
2. It provides help in poverty alleviation.
3. It provides help in economic development programmes.
4. Extend macroeconomic management services.

The Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) Major objectives of MIGA are:

1. To encourage flow of direct foreign investment into the less developed member countries.
2. To provide insurance cover to investors against political risks.
3. To provide guarantee against non-commercial risks (like dangers involved in currency transfer, war and civil disturbances and ,breach of contract).
4. To insure new investments, expansion of existing investments, privatization and financial restructuring.
5. To provide promotional and advisory services.
6. To establish credibility.

We can conclude that the World Bank is no longer confined to simply providing financial assistance for infrastructure development, agriculture, industry, health and sanitation and is involved in areas like removal of rural poverty through raising productivity, providing technical support, and initiating research and cooperative ventures.

Question 7.
What is IMF? Discuss its various objectives and functions.
Answer:
International Monetary Fund (IMF) came into existence in 1945 with an aim to evolve an orderly international monetary system, i.e., facilitating system of international payments and adjustments in exchange rates among national currencies. Its headquarters is located in Washington DC. In 2005, it had 191 countries as its members.

Major Objectives of IMF

1. To promote international monetary cooperation through a permanent institution.
2. To facilitate expansion of balanced growth of international trade and to contribute thereby to the promotion and maintenance of high levels of employment and real income.
3. To promote exchange stability with a view to maintain orderly exchange arrangements among member countries.
4. To assist in the establishment of a multilateral system of payments in respect of current transactions between members.

Functions of IMF

1. Acting as a short-term credit institution.
2. Providing machinery for the orderly adjustment of exchange rates.
3. Acting as a reservoir of the currencies of all the member countries, from which a borrower nation can borrow the currency of other nations.
4. Acting as a lending institution of foreign currency and current transaction.
5. Determining the value of a country’s currency and altering it, if needed, so as to bring about an orderly adjustment of exchange rates of member countries.
6. Providing machinery for international consultations.

Question 8.
Write a detailed note on features, structure, objectives and functioning of WTO.
Answer:
GATT was transformed into World Trade Organisation (WTO) with effect from 1 st January 1995. The headquarters of WTO are situated at Geneva, Switzerland.

Features of WTO

1. WTO is a permanent organization created by an international treaty ratified by the governments and legislatures of member states.
2. It governs trade not only in goods, but also in services and intellectual property rights.
3. It is a member driven rule-based organization in the sense that all the decisions are taken by the member governments on the basis of a general consensus.
4. It is the principal international body concerned with solving trade problems between countries and providing a forum for multilateral trade negotiations.
5. It has a global status similar to that of the IMF and the World Bank.
6. As on 11th December 2005, there were 149 members in WTO.

Structure of WTO

(i) WTO comprises of The Ministerial Conference, which is composed of international trade ministers from all member countries and is responsible for setting the strategic direction of the organization and making all final decisions on agreements under its wings. The Ministerial Conference meets at least once ever two years.

(ii) The General Council is composed of senior representatives of all members responsible for overseeing the day-to-day business and management of the WTO.

(iii) The Trade Policy Review Body is also composed of all the WTO members. It periodically reviews the trade policies and practices of all member states.

(iv) The Dispute Settlement Body is also composed of all the WTO members and oversees the implementation and effectiveness of the dispute resolution process for all WTO agreements.

(v) The Councils on Trade in Goods and Trade in Services operate under the mandate of the General Council and are composed of all members. They provide a mechanism to oversee the details of the general and specific agreements on trade in goods and services.

(vi) The Secretariat and Director General undertakes the administrative functions of running all aspects of the organization. The Secretariat has no legal decision making powers but provides vital services, and often advice, to those who do. The Secretariat is headed by the Director General, who is elected by the members.

(vii) The Committee on Trade and Development and Committee on Trade and Environment have specific mandates to focus on these relationships, which are especially relevant to how the WTO deals with sustainable development issues.

Major Objectives of WTO

1. To ensure reduction of tariffs and other trade barriers imposed by different countries.
2. To engage in such activities which improve the standards of living, create employment, increase income and effective demand and facilitate higher production and trade.
3. To facilitate the optimal use of the world’s resources for sustainable development.
4. To promote an integrated, more viable and durable trading system.

Functions of WTO

1. Promoting an environment that is encouraging to its member countries to come forward to WTO in mitigating their grievances.
2. Laying down a commonly accepted code of conduct with a view to reducing trade barriers including tariffs and eliminating discriminations in international trade relations.
3. Acting as a dispute settlement body.
4. Ensuring that all the rules and regulations prescribed in the Act are duly followed by the member countries for the settlement of their disputes.
5. Holding consultations with IMF and IBRD and its affiliated agencies so as to bring better understanding and cooperation in global economic policy making.
6. Supervising on a regular basis the operations of the revised Agreements and Ministerial declarations relating to goods, services and Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – II Additional Questions And Answers

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – II Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is not an economic rationale for trade intervention?
a. preservation of national identity
b. balance of payments considerations
c. employment
d. protection to domestic industry
Answer:
a. preservation of national identity

Question 2.
Fujairah is a free trade zone located in
a. Sharjah
b. Cairo
c. Dubai
d. Mumbai
Answer:
c. Dubai

Question 3.
Direct payments made by the government to domestic companies to encourage exports or to protect them from imports are known as
a. subsidies
b. export tariffs
c. voluntary export restraints
d. aids
Answer:
a. subsidies

Question 4.
A quantitative import or export restriction which prohibits or limits the quantity of a product being exported or imported is called
a. quota
b. import tariff
c. embargo
d. restraint
Answer:
a. quota

Question 5.
Bilateral agreements that restrict exports are called
a. voluntary export restraints
b. export quotas
c. transit tariffs
d. orderly marketing arrangements
Answer:
a. voluntary export restraints

Question 6.
The WTO was born out of negotiations in which round of the GATT?
a. Uruguay Round
b. Geneva Round
c. Tokyo Round
d. Torquay Round
Answer:
a. Uruguay Round

Question 7.
Which of the following is referred to as a predecessor to WTO?
a. World Bank
b. IMF
c. GATF
d. OPEC
Answer:
c. GATF

Question 8.
The quota that restricted trade in textiles was known as
a. TRIMS
b. MFA
c. GATS
d. TRIPS
Answer:
b. MFA

Question 9.
The current round of negotiation in the WTO is known as the
a. Torquay Round
b. Seattle Summit
c. Cancun Meet
d. Doha Development Round (DDA)
Answer:
d. Doha Development Round (DDA)

Question 10.
UNCTAD was established in
a. New York in 1964
b. Geneva in 1958
c. Geneva-in 1964
d. Washington DCin 1947
Answer:
c. Geneva-in 1964

Question 11.
An industrial unit which offers its entire production for export is called
a. FTZ
b. EPZ
c. EOU
d. industrial estate
Answer:
c. EOU

Question 12.
An industrial estate whose production is normally intended for exports is called
a. EOU
c. EOU
c. FTZ
d. SEZ
Answer:
c. EOU

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – II Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is pre-shipment finance?
Answer:
After obtaining the necessary export license, the exporter has to approach his banker to obtain pre-shipment finance for carrying out production or procumbent of goods, if he is in need of such finance.

Question 2.
What is bill of lading?
Answer:
A bill of lading is an official receipt issued by the shipping company for the receipt of goods on board the ship.

Question 3.
What is shipping bill?
Answer:
A shipping bill is a document prepared by an exporter or his forwarding agent, stating there in the various details of the goods exported.

Question 4.
What is mate’s receipt?
Answer:
When the ship arrives at the port, the dock authorities will arrange for the loading of the goods on board the ship. When goods are loaded on board the ship, the mate will issue a receipt know as mate’s Receipt to the Dock Authorities.

Question 5.
What is bill of entry?
Answer:
A bill of entry is a form supplied by the customs office to the importer it is to be filled in by the importer at the time of receiving the goods. It is prepared in triplicate and is submitted to the customs office.

Question 6.
What is charter party?
Answer:
The contract entered into by the exporter with the owner of the ship for hiring or a part of the ship is known as Charter party.

Question 7.
What is letter of credit?
Answer:
A letter of credit is a letter issued by a bank I the importer and a validity date by which the goods must be dispatched by the exporter upto a specified amount in respect of the goods.

Question 8.
What is an indent?
Answer:
Indent is a document which the importer sends to the exporter in which he orders the supply of required goods.

Question 9.
What is duty drawbacks?
Answer:
Under this scheme, goods meant for exports are exempted from payment of excise and customs duly. Therefore, and such duty paid on export goods are refunded to exporters on the production of proof of export of goods, to the concerned authorities, such refunds are called customs drawbacks.

Question 10.
Write a note on UNCTAD.
Answer:
The general dissatisfaction of the developing countries with the GATT and the need for new international co-operation in the field of trade and aid to reduce the trade gap of developing countries led to the establishment of the United Nation Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) as a subsidiary organ of the United Nation in December, 1964. The first United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD-1) was attended by About 120 member countries. The head-quarters of UNCTAD are in Geneva in Switzerland.

Aim of UNCTAD: The principal aim of UNCTAD is to promote international trade so as to accelerate the economic growth of underdeveloped countries and to bring them in line with the advance countries.

Question 11.
Write a note on World Bank.
Answer:
No doubt, the International Monetary fund, the first of the twins born at Bretton Woods, is an international financial institution intended for providing finical assistance to member countries. But financial assistance from the I.M.F is available only for correcting a temporary disequilibrium in the balance of payments of member countries, and not for adjusting the fundamental disequilibrium in the balance of payments. In other words only short-term financial assistance is available from the I.M.F., and not long-term financial assistance.

Question 12.
Write a note on IMF.
Answer:
The hard-felt need for international monetary co-operation led to the Bretton woods Conference of July, 1944. At the conference, the “Keynes” and the “white’s Plan” were discussed in detail by the representatives of 44 countries, and it was decided to start tow international financial institutions. IMF International Monetary Fund) and India: India is one of the founder members of the I.M.F. It is one of the largest subscribers. Its subscription is next only to the U.S.A. the U.K. West, Germany, France, Japan and Saudi Arabia.

Question 13.
Distinguish between GATT and WTO.
Answer:
The two difference between GATT and WTO.

The General Agreement on Trade & Tariffs	World Trade Organization
l. The GATT was an adhoc or temporary	1. The WTO is a permanent arrangement.
2. The GATT is the predecessor of the WTO.	2. The WTO is the successor of the GATT.

Question 14.
State the functions of WTO.
Answer:
The important functions of WTO are:

1. Acting as dispute settlement body.
2. Eliminating discrimination in international trade relation.
3. Laying down a commonly accepted code of conduct with view to reduce trade barriers.

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – II Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain any two functions of Word Bank.
Answer:
Functions of the World Bank:
The functions of the World bank are as follow

i. Granting of Loans: The most important function of the Bank is the granting of liberal long-term untied loans to member countries for specific development projects in the field of agriculture, irrigation, power, water supply, industry, transport, education, etc.

ii. Provision of Technical Assistance: Another important function of the Bank is the provision of technical assistance to the member countries. It sends to the member countries its economic resources. It assigns highly qualified experts to member countries to provide advice on economic development programmes. It also gives short-term training o the officers of the member countries in the preparation and implementation of development projects through the Economic development institute, set up in 1956.

iii. Other Functions: In addition to the provision of financial and technical assistance to member countries, the Bank performs some other functions also. It uses its good offices for the settlement of disputes between member countries. For instance, it has settled the dispute between India and Pakistan regarding the sharing of the water of the Indus basin. Similarly, it has settled the dispute between England and U.A.R. regarding the compensation for the nationalization of the Suez Canal.

Question 2.
Explain any two functions of IMF.
Answer:
The main functions of the International Monetary Fund are:

1. Promotion of Exchange Stability: The fund is convinced that stable exchange rates are essential for the balanced growth the multilateral trade. With this end in view, it has taken upon itself the responsibility of maintaining stable exchange rates among the currencies of member counties.

2. Elimination of Exchange Control and Other Exchange Restrictions: The Fund feels that, if there are restrictions on purchase and sale of foreign exchange, the rates of exchange- agreed’ upon cease to be effective. So, it wants to ensure that there are no exchange control and other exchange restrictions on ordinary trade and current transactions.

3. Granting of Loans out of its Financial Resources: The Fund can use its resource for granting loans to member countries. A member country facing a temporary deficit in its balance of payments can purchase from the Fund the required foreign currency to meet the deficit by offering its own currency in exchange. The purchase of the required foreign currency from the Fund by Member Country by giving its own currency in return is call a load from the fund.

4. Management of Scarce Currencies: Sometimes, it may so happen that many member countries may demand from the Fund the currency of the particular country, because all of them are indebted to that country on account of the chronic favorable balance of trade enjoyed by that country. If such a situation arises, the Fund will try to increase the supply of that currency either by borrowing from the country concerned or by purchasing that currency with gold. If the supply of that currency, still, proves to be insufficient to satisfy the needs of all the needy members, the fund declares the currency scarce, and rations that currency among the countries needing them.

Question 3.
Write a note on GATT.
Answer:
Formation of The General Agreement on Trade and Tarifs. The General agreement on Trade and tariffs was a contractual agreement among the member nations. It was signed in 1947, and came into force on 1st January, 1948. The GATT was launched at Geneva in 1948 by 23 countries including India. The GATT comprised a trade pact among the member countries. The GATT was basically a forum for international bargaining on the removal of barriers to international trade and to liberalise the international trade among the member countries.

The GATT is the predecessor of the WTO. The GATT deals with international agreement on trade in goods. The dispute settlement system provided by the GATT was not effective. The GATT was just a set of rules and multinational agreement with no institutional foundation.

Question 4.
What is special economic zone?
Answer:
Special economic zones are those zones which are specially designed duty free enclaves deemed as foreign territory for the purpose of trade operations, duties and tariff. They are free from import-export regulations except those relating to banking and labour. They are give incentives and facilities for their establishment and development.

A special economic zone may be set up for the manufacture of goods and rendering of services, processing, assembling, trading, repair, remaking, reconditioning, re¬engineering including making of gold, silver or platinum jewellery or articles thereof in connection there with.

The important features of special economic zones are:

1. Setting up a manufacturing, trading or service unit is allowed.
2. Creation of designated duty-free enclave treated as a foreign territory for trade operations, duties and tariffs.
3. No license is required for setting up these units.
4. Domestic sales are subject to customs duty and import duty policy in force.
5. 100% foreign direct investment is permitted through automatic route in the manufacturing sector.

Question 5.
What is export processing zone?
Answer:
Export possessing zones are industrial estates which form enclaves form the domestic tariff area. These are usually situated near sea ports or air ports. They are intended to provide and internationally competitive duty-free environment for export production at low cost.

Today, there are seven export processing zones in the country. They are:

1. Kandla Export Processing Zone at Kandla in Gujarat.
2. Santa Cruz Electronic Export Processing Zone at Santa Cruz in Mumbai.
3. Noida Export Processing Zone at Noida in Uttar Pradesh.
4. Madras Export Processing Zone at Chennai in Tamil Nadu.
5. Cochin Export Processing Zone at Kochi in Kerala.
6. Falta Export Processing Zone at Falta in West Bengal.
7. Vishakhapatnam Export processing Zone at Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh.

In the export processing zones, raw materials, intermediate products, equipments and machinery are allowed to be imported without payment of customs duty. The products of the units located in these zones are generally exported.

It may be noted that recently the export processing zones have been converted into special economic zones which are more advanced from of export processing zones.

Question 6.
Explain the export documents.
Answer:
A number of documents are used in export bunnies.
The various documents used in export business can be broadly classified into three categories. They are:

I. Documents related to goods.
The various documents related to goods are:

1. Letter of Enquiry: Receipt of an enquiry from the prospective importer is the first step in export procedure.
2. Quotation: After receiving the letter of enquiry from the importer, the exporter sends his reply to the importer through a Quotation referred to as proforma invoice.
3.  Indent or order: If the importer is satisfies with the quotation, he accepts the quotation and sends to the exporter and order directly or an indent though an intermediary like indent house, export house etc.
4. Invoice or Foreign Invoice: The exporter has to prepare and send to the importer an invoice known as Export Invoice.
5. Packing List: A pacing list is a statement which states the number of cases or packs and the details of the goods contained in the packs.
6. Certificate of Origin: The Certificate of origin will be sent by the exporter to the importer along with the other shipping documents.
7. Consular invoice: The exporter has to get a Consular Invoice form the consul of the Importing Country residing in the exporting county.
8. Certificate of Inspection: The authorized agency carries out the inspection of goods and issues a certificate called the certificate of inspection.

II. Documents related to shipment.

The various documents related to shipment are:

1. Shipping order: If the shipping company is willing to carry’ the goods, it will issue to the forwarding agent a document called shipping Order.
2. Charter Party: The contract entered into by the exporter with the owner of the ship for hiring or a part of the ship is known as Charter party.
3. Shipping bill: A shipping bill is a document prepared by an exporter or his forwarding agent, stating there in the various details of the goods exported.
4. Dock Receipt: After getting the Customs Export pass, the forwarding agent has to arrange for carrying the goods to the dock.
5. Mate’s Receipt: When the ship arrives at the port, the dock authorities will arrange for the loading of the goods on board the ship. When goods are loaded onboard the ship, the mate will issue a receipt known as mate’s Receipt to the Dock Authorities.
6. Bill of lading: A bill of lading is an official receipt issued by the shipping company for the receipt of goods on board the ship.
7. Cart Ticket: cart ticket, car chit or gate pass is prepared by the exporter.
8. Marine Insurance Policy: After the shipment of the goods, the forwarding agent will arrange for the insurance of the good s with a marine insurance company.

III. Document related to payment.

The various documents related to payment are:

1. Letter of Credit: A letter of credit is a letter issued by a bank of the importer and a validity date by which the goods must be dispatched by the exporter upto a specified amount in respect of the goods.

2. Foreign Bill of Exchange: Foreign bill of exchange is one of the methods of obtaining payment for the exports.

3. Bank certificate of Payment: Bank certificate of payment is a certificate which states that the necessary documents including the bill of exchange relating to the particular export consignment have been negotiated and the payment has been received in accordance with the exchange control regulations.

Question 7.
Explain the import documents.
Answer:
Many documents are used in import business. The important documents used in import business are:

1. Trade Enquiry: A letter of enquiry or a trade enquiry is a letter written by an importer to an exporter requesting him to provide information regarding the price and various terms and conditions on which the exporter is willing to export the goods required by the importer.

2. Proforma Invoice: A proforma invoice is a document sent by the exporter to the importer stating the details as to the quality, grade, design, size, weight and price of the export goods and the terms and conditions on which those goods will be exported. It is similar to a quotation give by the exporter to the importer.

3. Indent or Import Order: An import order or indent is a document which the importer sends to the exporter in which he orders the supply of required goods.

4. Letter of Credit: In shot, a letter of credit is a document that contains guarantees from the importers bank to hour the payment upto a specified amount of the bill of exchanged drawn by exporter fro importer goods to the importer.

5. Shipment Advice: Shipment advice is a document sent by the importer to the importer stating that the shipment of goods has been made.

6. Bill of Lading: As explained in the context of export documents, a bill of lading is a documents, a bill of lading is a document prepared and signed by the master of the ship, acknowledging the receipt of goods on board the ship. The also contain the terms and conditions in which the goods are to be taken to the port of destination.

7. Bill of Entry: A bill of entry is form supplied by the customs office to the importer it is to be filled in by the importer at the time of receiving the goods. It is prepared and is submitted to the customs office.

8. Bill of exchange: In the context of export trade, a bill of exchange to drawn by the exporter on the importer asking him to pay a certain amount to a certain person or the bearer of the instrument.

9. Import general Manifest: Import general manifest is a document that contains the details of the imported goods is the document on the basis of which unloading of cargo takes place.

10. Dock Challan: Dock charges are required to be paid when all the formalities of customs are completed. So, the importer or his clearing agent pays the dock dues or charges.

Question 8.
Explain the institutional support provided by the Government for the promotion of foreign trade.
Answer:
Every country is interested in promoting its foreign trade, particularly exports. The government of India has introduced the following schemes for the promotion of India’s foreign trade.

1. Advance license Scheme: Under this scheme, an exporter is allowed duty free supply of domestic as well as imported inputs required for the manufacture of export goods. This scheme is available to both exporters who export on a regular basis and also to those who export on adhoc basis.

2. Export Promotion Capital Goods Scheme: This scheme is intended to encourage
the import of capital goods for producing export goods. Under this scheme, export firms are allowed to import capital goods at negligible or lower rates of customs duties subject o actual user conditions and fulfillment of specified export obligations.

3. Export of services: Under this scheme, to boost the export of services, various ’ categories of service houses have been recognized on the basis of their export performance. They are referred to as service export house, International Service Export house and International Star service Export House on the basis of their export performance.

4. Export Finance: Exporters require finance not only for producing goods for export but also after the shipment of the goods, because it may take some time to receive payment from the importers. Therefore, two types of export finances are made available to exporters by authorized banks.

5. Duty Drawback Scheme: Under this scheme, goods meant, for exports are exempted from payment of excise and customs duty. Therefore, and such duty paid on export goods are refunded to exporters on the production of proof of export of goods, to the concerned authorities, such refunds are called customs drawbacks.

6. Export Manufacturing under Bond Scheme: Under this scheme, Business firms can produce goods without payment of excise and other duties. But the firms desirous of getting such a facility have to give an undertaking that they are manufacturing goods for exports purposes and will export such products on their production.

7. Exemption from Payment of sales Taxes and Income-Tax: Under this scheme, goods meant for export purposes are exempted from payment pf sales tax. Further, the income derived from export operations have exempted from payment of income-tax a long time. However, at present, exemption from income- tax is available only to 100% export -oriented units and units set up in Export processing Zones/special Economic Zones for select years.

8. Scheme of Recognizing export firm as Export house, Trading House and Star Trading House: This scheme is intended to promote established exporters and help them in marketing their products in international markets. Under this scheme, the Government grants the status of Export House, Trading House and Star Trading House to select export firms. This status is granted to firms only on their achieving prescribed average export performance in the past select years and also on their fulfillment of other conditions as laid down in the import-export policy.

You can Download Chapter 9 Biomolecules Questions and Answers, 1st PUC Biology Question Bank with Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 9 Biomolecules

1st PUC Biology Biomolecules NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are macromolecules? Give examples.
Answer:
Biomacromolecules are found in acid-insoluble fractions. They are polymeric compounds e.g., polysaccharides, proteins, and nucleic acids. They have a high molecular weight of more than 1000 Daltons.

Question 2.
Illustrate a glycosidic, peptide, and phosphodiester bond.
Answer:
Peptide bond: In a polypeptide or a protein, amino acids are linked by a peptide bond which is formed when the carboxyl (COOH) group of one amino acid reacts with the amino (NH2) group of the next amino acid with the removal of a water molecule.
Glycosidic bond: In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides are linked by a glycosidic bond. This bond is also formed by dehydration. This bond is formed between two carbon atoms of two adjacent monosaccharides.

Phosphodiester bond: In a nucleic acid, a phosphate moiety links the 3’-carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the 5’-carbon of the sugar of the succeeding nucleotide. The bond between the phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar is an ester bond. As there is one such ester bond on either side, it is called the phosphodiester bond.

Question 3.
What is meant by the tertiary structure of proteins”
Answer:
In proteins, only right-handed helices are observed. Other regions of the protein thread are folded into other forms in what is called the secondary structure. In addition, the long protein chain is also folded upon itself like a hollow woolen ball, giving rise to the tertiary structure, (Fig 9.2 a, b.) This gives us a 3-dimensional view of a protein. Tertiary structure is absolutely necessary for the many biological activities of Proteins

Question 4.
Find and write down structures of 10 interesting small molecular weight biomolecules. Find if there is any industry that manufactures the compounds by Isolation. Find out who are the buyers.
Answer:

Ranboxy, Merck, etc. manufacture these macromolecules. Research institutes by these micromolecules

Question 5.
Proteins have a primary structure, if you are given a method to know which amino acid is at either of the two termini (ends) of a protein, can you connect this information to purity or homogeneity of a protein?
Answer:
In primary structure, proteins have a linear arrangement of aminoacids. Because proteins are made up of 20 different types of amino acids we can not make a statement of purity or homogeneity only by knowing the terminal amino acids.

Question 6.
Find out and make a list of proteins used as therapeutic agents. Find other applications of proteins (e.g., Cosmetics, etc.)
Answer:
Therapeutic Agents:
Contraceptive pills: As they are hormones so they are made up of protein.
Nutritional Supplements: Many brands are available as protein supplements.
Example: Protinex
Other use: Chicken cubes are used in making soups and dishes.

Question 7.
Explain the composition of triglyceride.
Answer:
Glycerol combines with three similar fatty acids to form triglyceride. Structure/Composition of triglyceride

Question 8.
Can you describe what happens when milk is converted into curd or yoghurt, from your understanding of proteins?
Answer:
When milk is converted into yoghurt or curd then coagulation of milk protein i.e., casein occurs. Casein is converted to paracaesin in the formation of curd.

Question 9.
Draw the structure of the amino acid, alanine.
Answer:
Structure of alanine

Question 10.
What are gums made of? Is Fevicol different?
Answer:
The gums are made of lignocellulose which is secreted in the form of resin from resin ducts of plant. It is an adhesive substance which is used in the artificial adhesion of different substances. It is capable of causing a large viscosity in the solution.

Fevicol is different from gums as it is an artificial substance. Fevicol is a synthetic glue. These adhesives are a mixture of ingredients (typically polymers) dissolved in a solvent. As the solvent evaporates, the adhesive hardens. Depending on the chemical composition of the adhesive, they will adhere to different materials to greater or lesser degrees. These adhesives are typically weak and are used for household applications.

Question 11.
Find out a qualitative test for proteins, fats and oils, amino acids and test any fruit juice, saliva, sweat, and urine for them.
Answer:
(a) Test for protein

• Xanthoproteic test
• Biuret’s test

(b) Test for Amino acid

• Ninhydrin test

(c) Test for fats and oils

• Sudan test
• Spot test

Question 12.
Describe the important properties of enzymes.
Answer:
Properties of enzymes are as following:

• Lowering the activation energy
• Lowering the energy of the transition state
• Providing an alternative pathway
• Reducing the reaction entropy change
• Increases in temperatures speed up reactions
• Unique enzyme for unique substance
• A small quantity is enough to facilitate a faster reaction.

1st PUC Biology Biomolecules Additional Questions and Answers

1st PUC Biology Biomolecules One Mark Questions

Question 1
What are biomolecules?
Answer:
Biomolecules or biological, molecules are the elements occurring in the molecular form, in the living systems.

Question2.
What are the building blocks of nucleic acids?
Answer:
Nucleotides.

Question 3.
What are 3 groups of Carbohydrates?
Answer:

• Monosaccharides
• Oligosaccharides
• Polysaccharides.

Question 4.
What is a Glycosldlc bond?
Answer:
The bond formed between two monosaccharides is called a glycosidic bond.

Question 5.
Name the disaccharide present in milk.
Answer:
Lactose.

Question 6.
Which protein molecule does catalyse biochemical reactions?
Answer:
Enzymes.

Question 7.
What are Polysaccharides?
Answer:
Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates and are the polymers of simple sugar molecules.

Question 8.
Name the Polysaccharide present in the plant cell wall. (U. Kannada 2008)
Answer:
Cellulose.

Question 9.
Name the Polysaccharide present in the human liver.
Answer:
Glycogen.

Question 10.
Define Protein.
Answer:
Proteins are microbiological molecules composed of monoacids.

Question 11.
What are the monomeric units of proteins?
Answer:
Aminoacids.

Question 12.
Name one phospholipid found in the cell membrane.
Answer:
Lecithin

Question 13.
Name the proteins of hairs and nails.
Answer:
Keratin.

Question 14.
Give an example of simple protein.
Answer:
Albumin.

Question 15.
What is a peptide bond? (Gulbarga 2004)
Answer:
It is a bond formed between two amino acids in a protein molecule. (CO-NH)

Question 16.
Give an example for Conjugated proteins.
Answer:
Glycoprotein (Bijapur. 2004, B.North. 04)

Question 17.
Give an example for derived proteins.
Answer:
Peptone.

Question 18.
Give an example for nonessential amino acids?
Answer:
Glutamic acid.

Question 19.
Define lipid.
Answer:
Lipids are organic compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen as well as nitrogen and phosphorus. They are the esters of fatty acids and alcohol.

Question 20.
Give an example of simple lipid.
Answer:
Waxes.

Question 21.
Name two unsaturated fatty acids.
Answer:
Ole’s acid and Linoleic acid.

Question 22.
Name two saturated fatty acids.
Answer:
Butyric acid, Stearic acid.

Question 23.
Give an example of phospholipids.
Answer:
Lecithin.

Question 24.
What is an enzyme? (B’lore North 2004)
Answer:
Enzymes are biological catalysts produced by living cells.

Question 25.
What do you mean by the activation of enzymes?
Answer:
The conversion of the inactive form of an enzyme into an active form is known as the activation of enzymes.

Question 26.
What are Lyases?
Answer:
These are the enzymes that catalyze reactions involving the breaking of large molecules without the addition of water.

Question 27.
What are Hydrolases?
Answer:
These are enzymes capable of accelerating hydrolytic reactions.

Question 28.
What is an apoenzyme?
Answer:
The protein part of an enzyme is called ‘apoenzyme’.

Question 29.
What is a Coenzyme?
Answer:
The nonprotein part of an enzyme is called ‘coenzyme’.

Question 30.
What Purines and Pyrimidines?
Answer:
These are nitrogenous bases.

Question 31.
What is a nucleoside?
Answer:
It is a combination of nitrogenous base and pentose sugar.

Question 32.
What Is a nucleotide? (Chikmagalur 2004)
Answer:
A nucleotide is a combination of nucleoside and phosphoric acid.

Question 33.
What is the bond present between the successive nucleotides of a single Poly-nucleotide strand?
Answer:
Phosphodiester.

Question 34.
What is the type of sugar present in RNA?
Answer:
Ribose sugar.

Question 35.
Give the name for animal starch.
Answer:
Glycogen. (Bijapur 2004)

Question 36.
Expand DNA. (Dharwar 2004)
Answer:
Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid.

Question 37.
Give an example for chromoproteins.
Answer:
Hemoglobin. (Gulbarga 2004)

Question 38.
What type of sugar is found in DNA?
Answer:
Deoxyribose (Belgaum 2004)

Question 39.
Give an example of the asteroid. (B. North 2005)
Answer:
Testosterone, Progesterone

Question 40.
Define enzyme. (Tumkur 2005)
Answer:
Enzymes are biological catalysts produced by living cells.

Question 41.
What are triglycerides? (Udupi 2005)
Answer:
These are the esters of three molecules of fatty acids and one molecule of glycerol.

Question 42.
Mention one use of gelatin. (B1 North 2005)
Answer:
Gelatin is used in the preparation of ice cream, medicinal capsules, films, and photographic papers, (anyone)

Question 43.
Find the odd member in the given group giving one reason. Sucrose, glucose, lactose, maltose. (Kolar 2005)
Answer:
Glucose because it is a monosaccharide, while all the others are disaccharides.

Question 44.
Give one example for Disaccharide.
Answer:
Sucrose, Lactose (D.Kannada 2007)

Question 45.
Name the catalytic proteins. (D.K. 2008)
Answer:
Pepsin, amylase esterases, polymerases.

Question 46.
Name the pyrimidine present only in DNA.
Answer:
Jhymne. (D. Kannada 2010)

Question 47.
What is meant by ash?
Answer:
Ash is the remnant of a living tissue that is denied and fully burnt till all the carbon compounds in it are oxidized to gaseous form and removed.

Question 48.
What are amino acids?
Answer:
Amino acids are organic compounds containing an amino group and an acidic group as substituents on the same carbon (a – carbon)

Question 49.
How many types of amino acids are found in proteins?
Answer:
Twenty types.

Question 50.
Name any two aromatic amino acids?
Answer:
Tyrosine, tryptophan.

Question 51.
Why do amino acids change their structure in varying pHs?
Answer:
Because of the ionizable nature of -NH₂ and -COOH groups present in amino acids, the structure of amino acids changes in solutions of different pHs.

Question 52.
Give the zwitterionic form of amino acids.
Answer:

Question 53.
How many carbon atoms are present in each of the following:
(a) Palmitic acid
(b) Arachidonic acid?
Answer:
(a) 16 carbon atoms
(b) 20 carbon atoms.

Question 54.
Name the lipid that is tri-hydroxy propane.
Answer:
Glycerol.

Question 55.
Give examples of carbon compounds with heterocyclic rings?
Answer:
Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil, and thymine.

Question 56.
Name the nitrogen base present only in RNA?
Answer:
lilac

Question 57.
What is a polymer of amino acids called?
Answer:
Proteins.

Question 58.
Mention the function of GLUT – 4?
Answer:
It enables glucose transport into cells.

Question 59.
Give few examples of alkaloids.
Answer:
Morphine and Codeine.

Question 60.
Give examples of toxins.
Answer:
Ricin and Abrin.

Question 61.
What is the function of collagen?
Answer:
It forms the intercellular ground substance.

Question 62.
Give the name of proteins that fight infectious agents.
Answer:
Antibodies.

Question 63.
Name the protein that is most abundant in the animal world.
Answer:
Collagen.

Question 64.
Name the protein that is most abundant in the whole biosphere.
Answer:
Ribulose bisphosphate Carboxylase – Oxygenase (Ru Bis Co).

Question 65.
Mention the polymer of fructose.
Answer:
Inulin.

Question 66.
Why cannot cellulose hold l2 molecules?
Answer:
Cellulose does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold l2 molecules.

Question 67.
Name the chemical present in the exoskeleton of arthropods.
Answer:
Chitin.

Question 68.
Give examples of heteropolysaccharides.
Answer:
Glucosamine, Chitin.

Question 69.
Name a few substituted purines.
Answer:
Adenine and guanine.

Question 70.
Name few substituted pyrimidines.
Answer:
Cytosine, Thymine, and Uraciltion of carbonic acid from carbon dioxide and water.

Question 71.
How are the two strands of DNA held together?
Answer:
They are held by hydrogen fonds between the nitrogen bases.

Question 72.
How many hydrogen bonds exist between Guanine and Cytosine.
Answer:
Three.

Question 73.
How many hydrogen bonds exist between Adenine and Thymine?
Answer:
Two.

Question 74.
Define metabolism.
Answer:
Metabolism is all the chemical reactions that constantly occur in living organisms.

Question 75.
What is the dynamic state of the body constituents?
Answer:
The flow of metabolites at a definite rate; and direction in the living body is called the dynamic state of the body constituents.

Question 76.
What are enzymes chemically?
Answer:
Enzymes are chemically proteins.

Question 77.
Define the rate of chemical process and how is it expressed?
Answer:
The rate of a physical or chemical process refers to the amount of product formed per unit of time.
It is expressed as \(rate=\cfrac { \delta P }{ \delta T } \)

Question 78.
What is the rule of thumb in the variation of rate?
Answer:
Rate doubles or decreases by half in either direction for every 10°C change in temperature.

Question 79.
What is the active site of an enzyme?
Answer:
Active site of an enzyme is a service or pocket into which the substrate fits.

Question 80.
What is the function of carbonic anhydrase?
Answer:
Carhonic anhydrase catalyzes the formation of carbonic acid from carbon dioxide and water

Question 81.
What is a substrate In an enzyme action?
Answer:
The chemical substance on which the enzyme acts is called the substrate.

Question 82.
Define activation energy of the reaction.
Answer:
The difference in the average energy content of the substrate form, from that of the transition state, is called activation energy.

Question 83.
What is an inhibitor of enzyme action?
Answer:
The chemical substance which decreases or shuts off enzyme activity is called an inhibitor.

Question 84.
What are the essential components of many coenzymes? Give examples.
Answer:
The essential components of many coenzymes are vitamins.
e.g.: coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and NADP contain the vitamin niacin.

1st PUC Biology Biomolecules Two Marks Questions

Question 1.
Give a list of important monosaccharides.
Answer:
Glycerol, Ribose, Deoxyribose, Glucose, Fructose, and Galactose.

Question 2.
What are triglycerides?
Answer:
In a triglyceride three similar or different fatty acids are attached to three hydroxyl groups of glycerol by an ester bond.

Question 3.
What are Polysaccharides? Give examples. (Belgaum 2004)
Answer:
Polysaccharides are the polymers of simple sugar molecules. They contain more than 10 units of monosaccharides. Examples: Starch, Cellulose.

Question 4.
Write two functions of carbohydrates.
Answer:

• They are the principal source of energy.
• They form the structural components in living organisms.

Question 5.
In which form carbohydrate Is stored in plants and animals?
Answer:

• plants – starch.
• In animals – Glycogen.

Question 6.
What are homopolysaccharides? Give two examples.
Answer:
These are polysaccharides composed of only one type of monosaccharides.
Examples: Starch, Cellulose.

Question 7.
Where are the following found?
Glycosidic bonds, ester bonds, peptide bonds, energy-rich bonds, double bonds.
Answer:

• Glycosidic bonds: Disaccharides.
• Ester bond: Between glycerols and fatty acids.
• Peptide bond: Proteins
• Energy-rich bond: ATP
• Double bond: Unsaturated fatty acids.

Question 8
List any two functions of proteins.
Answer:
Proteins act as biocatalysts as they form enzymes. Proteins like fibrinogens help in the clotting of blood.

Question 9.
What la an aminoacid sequence?
Answer:
It is a particular order in which amino acids are arranged to form a specific protein. The aminoacids sequence in a protein molecule is of paramount importance.

Question 10.
What are saturated and unsaturated fatty acids? Give examples.
Answer:

• Saturated fatty acids do not possess double bonds in their hydrocarbon chain.
  Examples: butyric acid.
• Unsaturated fatty acids have one or more double bonds in their hydrocarbon chain. Example: Oleic acid.

Question 11.
Write two functions of Lipids. (B. North 04)
Answer:
’They function as reserve food material in living organisms. They provide a rich source of energy.

Question 12.
What are enzymes? Mention any 2 groups of enzymes.
Answer:
Enzymes are the stable, specific protein molecules which act as biocatalysts.
Following are the 2 groups of enzymes:

• Oxide – reductases
• Isomerases.

Question 13.
What is competitive inhibition?
Answer:
Competitive Inhibition:
When in a biochemical reaction an inhibitor has a close structure with the substrate and it binds to the enzyme rather than the other substrate. This process of competition between the inhibitor substrate for the active site is called competitive inhibition.
e.g. in Kreb’s Cycle, malonale completes with Suecinate for the active site of succinate dehydrogenase.

Question 14.
State the components of DNA.
Answer:
DNA is composed of nitrogenous bases like adenine, guanine, cytosine and Thymine, pentose sugar deoxyribose, and a phosphate group.

Question 15.
Name the nitrogenous bases of RNA. (Shimoga 2006)
Answer:

• Adenine
• Guanine
• Cytosine
• Uracil

Question 16.
Write any two functions of DNA.
Answer:

• It controls protein biosynthesis.
• It is the genetic material in most organisms.

Question 17.
What is a nucleotide? List the nucleotides of RNA.
Answer:
A nucleotide is the combination of a nitrogenous base, sugar, and phosphoric acid. The following are the nucleotides of RNA.

• adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
• guanosine monophosphate (GMP)
• cytidine monophosphate (CMP)
• Uridine monophosphate (UMP)

Question 18.
What are the functions of RNA?
Answer:

• It acts as genetic material in many viruses.
• It helps in the process of protein synthesis.

Question 19.
List any two differences between DNA and RNA. (B. North., Gulbarga. 2004, D.K. 2006,2008)
Answer:

• DNA is a double-stranded molecule. RNA is a single-stranded molecule.
• DNA has deoxyribose sugar.
• RNA has Ribose sugar.
• DNA is genetic RNA is non-genetic
• DNA has Adenine, cytosine, Gnanine & Thymine as Nitrogenous bases RNA has Adenine, cytosine, Guanine & uracil as nitrogenous bases

Question 20.
Give an example for the following
(a) Respiratory pigment
(b) Protein present In hair
(c) Protein present in muscle fiber
(d) Sugar in milk.
Answer:
(a) Respiratory pigment: Haemoglobin.
(b) A protein present in hair: Keratin
(c) Protein present in muscle fibre: Myosin
(d) Sugar in milk: Lactose.

Question 21.
With reference to DNA, mention the types of
(a) Pyrimidine bases
(b) Purine bases (Udupi 2005)
Answer:
(a) Pyrimidine bases – Cytosine & Thymine
(b) Purine bases – Adenine & Guanine

Question 22.
Write four properties of enzymes (D.Kannada 2005,2011)
Answer:

• Enzymes are needed in a minute quantity for the acceleration of biochemical reactions.
• Enzymes exhibit specificity in their reactions. Each enzyme can act on a particular substance/substrate only.
• Enzymes act within a narrow range of pH and temperature. So they are referred to as thermolabile compounds.
• Enzymes can act either way in a biochemical reaction because biochemical reactions are reversible.

Question 23.
Differentiate between a nucleoside and a nucleotide. (Bangalore North 2005)
Answer:
Nucleoside

• Consists of sugar and a nitrogenous base.
• The linkage present is called glycosidic.
• Eg. is Adenosine, Deoxyadenosine.

Nucleotide

• Consists of sugar, nitrogenous base & phosphoric acid.
• The linkage present is termed phosphorites linkage.
• Eg. is Adenylic acid, deoxy adenylic acid.

Question 24.
Give any two biological significances of amino acids. (Udupi 2005)
Answer:

• Some proteins act as chemical messengers (hormones).
• Muscle proteins like actin and myosin help in muscle contraction.

Question 25.
Name the monomer of nucleic acids and mention Its components. (M.Q.P, Kolar, Hassan, Shimoga, Belgaum, Bangalore Rural,Chikmagalur 2005)
Answer:
Nucleotide comprising sugar, a nitrogenous base, and phosphoric acid.

Question 26.
Give the biological significance of carbohydrates. (Bangalore Rural 2005)
Answer:

• Carbohydrates are the major source of energy for the living world.
• They form the reserve food material in both plants and animals.
• They form the structural components in living organisms.
• They are essential in the regulation of fat metabolism.

Question 27.
Write any five biological significance of lipids. (Bangalore South 2005)
Answer:

• lipids form the main constituents of biological membranes.
• Lipids provide protective coverings like cuticles on leaves, hairs & feathers in animals.
• Lipids function as reserve food material in living organisms.
• Lipids provide a rich source of energy.
• Steroids regulate physiological activities.

Question 28.
Write the structural formula of:
(I) Galactose
(II) glucose
Answer:

Question 29.
What are fatty acids? Give two examples.
Answer:
Fatty acids are compounds which has a carboxyl group attached to an R group. The R group could be a methyl (-CH₃), or ethyl (-C₂Hs), or a higher number of -CH₂ groups (1 carbon to 19 carbons). Eg; Palmitic acid, Arachidonic acid.

Question 30.
State the differences between oils and fats
Answer:

Oils	Fats
(a)  Oils are liquids at temperature. (b) Melting point is low (c) They are unsaturated compounds (d) They react easily	(a)  Fats are solids at room temperature. (b) Melting point is high (c) They are saturated (d) They do not react easily.

Question 31.
Differentiate between essential and non-essential amino acids.
Answer:

Essential amino acids	Non-essential amino acids
(a) These are the amino acids that are not synthesized in the body.	(a) These are the amino acids that are synthesized in the body.
(b) Dietary proteins form the source of essential amino acids.	(b) They need not be taken in the diet.

Question 32.
Differentiate between starch and cellulose.
Answer:

Starch	Cellulose
(a)  It forms helical secondary structures (b) Starch can hold l2 molecules (c)  Starch is stained blue with iodine (d) It is a storehouse of energy in plant tissues	(a)  It does not contain helical structures. (b) It cannot hold l2 molecules (c)  It cannot be stained blue with iodine (d)  It is present in the cell wall

Question 33.
Write the structural formula of
(i) Adenylic acid
(ii) Uracil
Answer:

Question 34.
Describes the primary structure of proteins.
Answer:
The sequence of amino acids, i.e. the positional information of the amino acids in a protein is called the primary structure of a protein. A Protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by the first amino acid and the right end represented by the last amino acid. The first amino acid is also called an N-terminal amino acid and the last amino acid is called the C-terminal amino acid.

Question 35.
Describe the quaternary structure of proteins and give example.
Answer:
Some proteins are an assembly of more than one polypeptide or subunits. The manner in which these individual folded polypeptides or subunits are arranged with respect to each other (e.g. linear string of spheres, spheres arranged one upon the other in the form of a cube or plate) is the architecture of a protein which is referred to as the quaternary structure of a protein. Eg: Adult human hemoglobin consists of 4 subunits. Two of these are identical to each other. Hence, two subunits of a -type and two subunits of p-type together constitute the human hemoglobin (Hb).

Question 36.
What are cofactors for enzymes? Name the types of cofactors.
Answer:
The non-protein constituents that are found in the enzyme to make it catalytically active are called co-factors. Types of co-factors are

• prosthetic group
• Co-enzymes
• Metal ions.

1st PUC Biology Biomolecules Three Marks Questions

Question 1.
Explain the terms monoglyceride, diglycerides, and triglyceride.
Answer:

• Monoglyceride: It is a lipid with one molecule of glycerol and one molecule of fatty acid.
• Diglyceride: It is a lipid with one molecule of glycerol and two molecules of fatty acids.
• Triglyceride: It is a lipid that has one molecule of glycerol and three molecules of fatty acids.

Question 2.
What are nucleosides? Name the four of them which occur in RNA.
Answer:
Nucleosides are compounds having nitrogen bases attached to a sugar.
Nucleosides occurring in RNA are:

• Adenosine
• guanosine
• cytidine
• and uridine.

Question 3.
Mention the differences between primary and secondary metabolites. Give examples of each.
Answer:

Primary Metabolite	Secondary Metabolites
(a) These are the metabolites which have identifiable functions and play a specific role in metabolism. (b) These are important in human metabolic processes Eg: amino acids, sugars.	(a) These are the metabolites formed during metabolism whose exact function is not known. (b) These are useful for human welfare Eg: Alkaloids, flavonoids antibiotics.

Question 4.
Name the two types of biomolecules present in the cells of living organisms. Mention the differences.
Answer:
Two types of biomolecules are

Biomacromolecules	Biomacromolecules
(a) These molecules have their molecular weight of less than one thousand daltons. (b) These are found in the acid-soluble fraction. Eg: amino acids, sugars, alkaloids, etc	(a) These biomolecules have a molecular weight in the range of ten thousand daltons and above. (b) These are found in the acid-insoluble fraction. Eg: proteins, nucleic acids polysaccharides, etc.

Question 5.
(a) What is meant by complementary base pairing?
(b)What is the distance between two successive bases in a strand of DNA?
(c)How many base pairs are present in one turn of the helix of a DNA strand?
Answer:
(a) In a DNA, a purine always pairs with a pyrimidine i.e. adenine pairs with thymine
(A = T) and guanine with cytosine (G = C). This is called a complementary pairing.
(b) 3.4 A0
(c) 10 base pairs.

Question 6.
Describe the influence of temperature and pH on enzyme action with graphs.
Answer:
Enzymes generally function in a narrow range of temperature and pH. Each enzyme shows its highest activity at a particular temperature and pH called the optimum temperature and optimum pH. Activity declines both below and above the optimum value. Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat. Any change in pH alters the tertiary structure of the enzyme protein and thereby reduces the enzyme activity.

Question 7.
Describe competitive inhibition with an example.
Answer:
When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as a competitive inhibitor and the process is called competitive inhibition. Due to its close structural similarity with the substrate, the inhibitor competes with the substrate for the substrate-binding site of the enzyme. Consequently, the substrate cannot bind and as a result, the enzyme action declines.
Eg:- Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate which closely resembles the substrate succinate in structure.

Question 8.
Discuss the functions of polysaccharides.
Answer:
The functions of polysaccharides are as follows:

• Starch and glycogen are the major storage foods of the organic world.
• On hydrolysis storage carbohydrates provide both energy and carbon chains.
• Chitin is the structural carbohydrates of fungal walls and the exoskeleton of arthropods.
• Cellulose is the structural substance of cell walls in most plants.
• Cellulose is economically important in the production of furniture, shelter, fuel, paper, textiles, ropes, rayon, cellophane, plastics, shatterproof glass, propellant explosives, emulsifier, and raw material for several fermentation products.

1st PUC Biology Biomolecules Five Marks Questions

Question 1.
Enumerate the properties of enzymes and ” its classification. (D. Kannada 2007)
Answer:
Properties of Enzymes:

• Enzymes are needed in a minute quantity for the acceleration of biochemical reactions.
• Enzymes exhibit specificity in their reactions. Each enzyme can act on a particular substance only.
• Enzymes act within a narrow range of pH and temperature. So they are referred to as thermolabile compounds.
• Enzymes can act either way in a biochemical reaction because biochemical reactions are reversible.
• Enzymes can be destroyed or inactivated by a number of substances like cyanide, iodo acetic acid, malonic acid, etc. The substances capable of hampering enzymatic reactions are called enzyme inhibitors.
• Enzymes work in teams, making cell metabolism a continuous process.

Classification of enzymes.
‘Enzymes are classified into six major groups based on type of functions.
They are –

• Oxide-Reductases
• Transferases
• Hydrolases
• Lyases
• Isomerases
• Ligases

(1) Oxide-Reductases:
These are enzymes catalyzing oxidation and reduction reactions. These oxidation and reduction reactions are generally referred to as redox reactions.

(2) Transferases:
These enzyme accelerate reactions involving transfer of functional groups from one compound to another compound.

(3) Hydrolases:
These are enzymes capable of accelerating hydrolytic reactions. Breaking down large molecules with the addition of water is called hydrolysis. Enzymes involved in a hydrolytic reaction are referred to as hydrolases.

(4) Lyases:
These enzymes catalyze reactions involving the breaking of large molecules without the addition of water.

(5) Isomerases:
These enzymes catalyse reactions involving rearrangement of molecule structure of the substrate to form an isomer. Hence they catalyse isomerization reactions they are termed isomerases.

(6) Ligases: These enzymes accelerate synthetic reactions like polymerization.

Question 2.
a. Expand DNA. (D. Kannada 2006)
Answer:
Deoxy ribonucleic acid

b. List the nucleotides of DNA
Answer:
d AMP (deoxy adenylic acid)
d GMP (deoxy guanylic acid)
d CMP (deoxy cytidylic acid)
d TMP (deoxy thymidylic acid)

c. Write 4 functions of DNA.
Answer:

• Carries genetic information
• Auto catalytic and heterocatalytic function (replication and protein synthesis)
• Mutation
• Repair

Question 3.
What will be the amino acid if the R-group is:
(i) hydrogen
(ii) methyl group
(iii) hydroxymethyl group write the respective structures
Answer:
(i) Glycine
(ii) Alanine
(iii) Serine

Question 4.
Mention any five secondary metabolites with two examples for each.
Answer:

• Pigments – Carotenoids, Anthocyanins
• Alkaloids – Morphine, Codeine, etc.
• Essential oils – Lemongrass oil
• Toxins – Abnn, Ricin
• Drags – Vinblastin, curcumin
• Polymeric substances – Rubber, gems
• Terpenoids – Monoterpenes, Diterpenes.

Question 5
Mention any five proteins with their functions.
Answer:

• Collagen – Intercellular ground substance
• Trypsin – Enzyme
• Insulin – Hormone
• Antibody – Fights infectious agents
• Receptor – Sensory reception like smell, taste, hormone etc.
• GLUT- 4- Enables glucose transport into cells.

Question 6.
Describe the Watson and Crick model of DNA structure with a diagram.
Answer:
Watson and Crick’s model explain the secondary structure exhibited by DNA. This model says that the DA exists as a double helix. The two strands of polynucleotides are antiparallel Le. run in the opposite direction. The backbone is formed by the sugar-phosphate-sugar chain. The nitrogen bases are projected more or less perpendicular to this backbone but face inside.

‘A’ of one strand compulsorily base pairs with T on the other strand and ‘G’ of one strand pairs with ‘C’ on the other strand. Three are two hydrogen bonds between A and T and three hydrogen bonds between G and C. Each strand appears like a helical staircase. Each step of ascent is represented by a pair of bases. At each step
of ascent, the strand turns 360. One full turn of the helical strand would involve ten steps or ten base pairs. The pitch is 34A° and the rise per base pair is 3.4 A° The form of DNA with the above-mentioned salient features is called B-DNA.

Question 7.
How do enzymes accelerate biochemical reactions? Explain the nature of enzyme action, describing the steps In the catalytic cycle of enzyme action.
Answer:
Enzymes accelerate the reaction by reducing the activation energy of the process/reaction. Each enzyme (E) has a substrate (S) binding site in its molecule so that a highly reactive enzyme-substrate complex (ES) is produced. This complex is short-lived and dissociates into its products (P) and the unchanged enzyme with an intermediate formation of the enzyme-product complex (EP). The formation of the ES complex is essential for catalysis.

E + S □ ES → EP → E + P

The catalytic cycle of enzyme action can be described in the following steps:

• The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, fitting into the active site.
• The binding of the substrate induces the ‘ enzyme to alter its shape, fitting more tightly around the substrate.
• The active site of the enzyme, now in close proximity of the substrate breaks the chemical bonds of the substrate and the new enzyme- product complex is formed.
• The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and the free enzyme is ready to bind to another molecule of the substrate and run through the catalytic cycle once again.

Question 8.
Explain how enzymes bring about high rates of chemical conversions using the concept of activation energy.
Answer:
Consider the following reaction in which the enzyme (E) that is a protein with an ‘active site’ converts a substrate (S) into a product (P)

Substrate ‘S’ binds the enzyme (E) at its active site within a given cleft or pocket to form an ‘ES’ complex. This complex formation is a transient phenomenon. During the state where the substrate is found to the enzyme active site, a new structure of the substrate called transition state structure is formed. After the bond breaking/making is completed, the product ‘P’ is released from the active site.

Here the structure of substrate gets transformed into the structure of products (S). The pathway of this transformation goes through transition state structure and many more ‘altered structural states’ between the stable substrate and the product. Stability is related to the energy status of the molecule.

If product ‘P’ is at a lower level than ‘S’ (Refer to the figure given below), the reaction is exothermic or spontaneous. However, whether it is an exothermic or endothermic (energy-requiring) reaction, the ‘S’ has to go through a much higher energy state or transition state. The difference in the average energy content of “S’ from that of this transition state is called activation energy. Enzymes bring down this energy barrier making the transition of ‘S’ to ‘P’ easier and quicker.

Question 9.
Fill in the blanks.
(1) In a polysaccharide ……………is the reducing end and is the non-reducing end.
Answer:
Right end, left end

(2) Metabolic pathways that lead to complex from the simpler structure is called ………….. pathway.
Answer:
anabolic

(3) The most important form of energy in living systems is ……………….
Answer:
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

(4) In our skeletal muscle, under anaerobic conditions acid is formed and under aerobic conditions ………….. acid is formed.
Answer:
Lactic, Pyruvic

Karnataka 1st PUC Business Studies Question Bank Chapter 11 International Business – I

You can Download Chapter 11 International Business – I Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Business Studies Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – I Textual Questions and Answers

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – I Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In which of the following modes of entry, does the domestic manufacturer give the right to use intellectual property such as patent and trademark to a manufacturer in a foreign country for a fee
a. Licensing
b. Contract manufacturing
c. Joint venture
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Licensing

Question 2.
Outsourcing a part of or entire production and concentrating on marketing operations in international business is known as
a. Licensing
b. Franchising
c. Contract manufacturing
d. Joint venture
Answer:
c. Contract manufacturing

Question 3.
When two or more firms come together to create a new business entity that is legally separate and extinct from its parents it is known as
a. Contract manufacturing
b. Franchising
c. Joint ventures
d. Licensing
Answer:
c. Joint ventures

Question 4.
Which of the following is not an advantage of exporting?
a. Easier way to enter into international markets
b. Comparatively lower risks.
c. Limited presence in foreign market
d. Less investment requirements
Answer:
c. Limited presence in foreign market

Question 5.
Which one of the following modes of entry requires higher level of risks?
a. Licensing
b. Franchising
c. Contract manufacturing
d. Joint venture
Answer:
d. Joint venture

Question 6.
Which one of the following modes of entry permits greatest degree of control over overseas operations?
a. Licensing/franchising
b. Wholly owned subsidiary
c. Contract manufacturing
d. Joint venture
Answer:
b. Wholly owned subsidiary

Question 7.
Which one of the following modes of entry brings the firm closer to international markets?
a. Licensing
b. Franchising
c. Contract manufacturing
d. Joint venture
Answer:
d. Joint venture

Question 8.
Which one of the following is not, amongst India’s major export items?
a. Textiles and garments
b. Gems and jewellery
c. Oil and petroleum products
d. Basmati rice
Answer:
c. Oil and petroleum products

Question 9.
Which one of the following is not amongst India’s major import items?
a. Ayurvedic medicines products
b. Oil and petroleum
c. Pearls and precious stones
d. Machinery
Answer:
a. Ayurvedic medicines products

Question 10.
Which one of the following is not amongst India’s major trading partners?
a. USA
b. UK
c. Germany
d. New Zealand
Answer:
d. New Zealand

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – I Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate between international trade and international business.
Answer:

SI. No.	International Trade	International Business
(i)	International trade means movements of goods only.	Business transaction that takes place between two or more countries is known as international business.
(ii)	It involves only the movements of goods and international currency is used for dealing.	It involves not only the international movements of goods and services but also capital, personnel, technology and intellectual property like trademarks, patents.
(iii)	International trade is a narrow term.	International business is much broader than international trade.

Question 2.
Discuss any three advantages of international business.
Answer:
For Nations: Three advantages of international business to the nations are:

1. International business helps a country to earn foreign exchange which it can later use for meeting its imports of capital goods, technology, petroleum products, etc.
2. International trade allows a country to produce what a country can produce more efficiently, and trade the surplus production so generated with other countries to procure what they can produce more efficiently.
3. International business helps the countries in improving their growth prospects and creates employment opportunities.

For Firms: Three advantages of international business to the firms are:

1. International business can be more profitable than the domestic business, as business firms can earn more profits by selling their products in countries where prices are high.
2. International business leads to fuller utilization of production capacity as a result these firms get benefits of large economies of scale and reduction in the cost of production.
3. Companies get strategic and technical advantages by going international.

Question 3.
What is the major reason underlying trade between nations?
Answer:
The major reason behind international business is that the countries have unequal distribution of natural resources among them or have differences in their productivity levels because of which they cannot produce all that they need equally well or at equal ‘ costs. Trade between nations allows a country to produce what a country can produce more efficiently, and trade the surplus production so generated with other countries to procure what they can produce more efficiently.

Question 4.
Discuss as to why nations trade.
Answer:
The countries have unequal distribution of natural resources among them or have differences in their productivity levels because of which they cannot produce all that they need equally well or at equal costs. Availability of various factors of production such as labour, capital and raw materials that are required for producing different goods and services differ among nations.

Moreover, labour productivity and production costs differ among nations due to. various socio-economic, geographical and political reasons. Due to these differences each country finds it advantageous to produce those select goods and services that it can produce more efficiently at home, and procuring the rest through trade with other countries which the other countries can produce at lower costs. This is precisely the reason as to why countries trade with others.

Question 5.
Enumerate limitations of contract manufacturing.
Answer: Following are the limitations of contract manufacturing:

(i) Local firms might not adhere to production design and quality standards, thus causing serious product quality problems to the international firm.

(ii) Local manufacturers in the foreign country looses his control over the manufacturing process because goods are produced strictly as per the terms and specifications of the contract.

(iii) The profitability of local firms producing under contract manufacturing is low as it is not free to sell the contracted output as per its will. It has to sell the goods to the international company at prices agreed upon under the contract which may be lower than the open market prices.

Question 6.
Why is it said that licensing is an easier way to expand globally?
Answer:
Licensing is considered to be the easier way of expanding globally due to following advantages:

(i) Under the licensing system, it is the licensor who sets up the business unit and invests his/her own money in the business and the licensor has to virtually make no investments abroad. Licensing is, therefore, considered a less expensive mode of entering into international business.

(ii) Licensor is paid by the licensee by way of fees fixed in advance as a percentage of production or sales turnover and licensor does not bear risk of losses.

(iii) Since the business in the foreign country is managed by the licensee who is a local person, there are lower risks of business takeovers or government interventions.

(iv) Licensee being a local person has greater market knowledge and contacts which can prove quite helpful to the licensor in successfully conducting its marketing operations.

Question 7.
Differentiate between contract manufacturing and setting up wholly owned production subsidiary abroad.
Answer:
Contract manufacturing refers to a type of international business where a firm enters into a contract with one or a few local manufacturers in foreign countries to get certain components or goods produced as per its specifications while in a wholly owned subsidiary the parent company acquires full control over the foreign company by making 100% investment in its equity capital.

Question 8.
Distinguish between licensing and franchising.
Answer:
(i) Licensing is an agreement between licensor and licensee whereas franchising is an agreement between franchisee and franchiser.

(ii) Licensing means permitting other party in a foreign country to produce and sell goods under trademark, patents whereas franchising means sell or distribute the branded products in a specific geographical area, e.g., through its franchising system Me Donald’s operates fast food restaurants in the whole world.

Question 9.
List major items of India’s exports.
Answer:
Major items of India’s exports are:
(i) Primary Products.
(a) Agricultured and allied products.
(b) Ores and minerals
(ii) Manufactured Goods.
(a) Textiles including garments
(b) Gems and jewellery
(c) Engineering goods
(d) Chemicals and related products
(e) Leather

Question 10.
What are the major items that are exported from India?
Answer:
The major items that are exported from India include:
(i) Primary Products
(a) Agricultured products
(b) Ores and minerals

(ii) Manufactured Goods
(a) Textiles including garments
(b) Gems and jewellery
(c) Engineering goods
(d) Chemicals and related products
(e) Leather and manufactures

Question 11.
List the major countries with whom India trades.
Answer:
Following are the major countries with whom India trades:

1. USA
2. UK
3. Belgium
4. Germany
5. Japan
6. Switzerland
7. Hong Kong
8. UAE
9. China
10. Singapore
11. Malaysia

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – I Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is international business? How is it different from domestic business?
Answer:
Manufacturing and trade beyond the boundaries of one’s own country is known as international business. International business is defined as those business activities that take place across the national frontiers. It involves not only the international movements of goods and services, but also of capital, personnel, technology and intellectual property like patents, trademarks, know-how and copyrights. Domestic and international businesses differ from each other in the following aspects:

(i) Nationality of Buyers and Sellers
In the case of domestic business, both the buyers and sellers are from the same country but in international business buyers and sellers come from different countries and their languages, attitudes, social customs and business goals and practices are not identical as in case of domestic business. This makes relatively more difficult for them to interact with one another and finalize business transactions.

(ii) Nationality of Other Stakeholders
The other stakeholders such as employees, suppliers, shareholders/partners and general public associated with firms doing international business have different nationalities while in the case of domestic business all such factors belong to one country. Therefore, decision making in international business becomes much more complex due to wider set of values and aspirations of the stakeholders belonging to different nations.

(iii) Mobility of Factors of Production
The degree of mobility of factors like labour and capital is generally less between countries than within a country due to legal restrictions and variations in socio-cultural environments, geographic influences and economic conditions.

(iv) Customer Heterogeneity Across Markets
Since buyers in international markets hail from different countries, they differ in their socio-cultural background. Differences in their tastes, fashions, languages, beliefs and customs, attitudes and product preferences cause variations in not only their demand for different products and services, but also in variations in their communication patterns and purchase behaviors. Such variations greatly complicate the task of designing products and evolving strategies appropriate for customers in different countries.

(v) Differences in Business Systems and Practices
The differences in business systems and practices are considerably higher among countries than within a country as countries differ from one another in terms of their socio-economic development, availability, cost and efficiency of economic infrastructure and market support services, etc which make it necessary for firms interested in international business to adapt their production, finance, human resource and marketing plans as per. the conditions prevailing in the international markets.

(vi) Political System and Risks
Political factors such as the type of government, political party system, political ideology, political risks, etc, have an impact on business operations. International business firms need to monitor political changes in the concerned countries and devise strategies to deal with diverse political risks. These firms also face discrimination as nations tend to favor products and services originating in their own countries to those ’coming from other countries while this is not a problem for business firms operating domestically.

(vii) Differences in Business Regulations and Policies
Every country has its own set of business laws and regulations. These laws, regulation and economic policies are more or less uniformly applicable within a country but they differ widely among nations. Tariff and taxation policies, import quota system, subsidies and other controls adopted by a nation are not the same as in other countries and often discriminate against foreign products, services and capital.

(viii) Difference in Currency
International business involves the use of different currencies while in domestic business all transactions are done in the same currency. International business firms have to keep exchange rate fluctuations into consideration in fixing prices of their products and hedging against foreign exchange risks.

Question 2.
“International business is more than international trade”. Comment.
Answer:
International trade comprises of exports and imports of goods and forms an important component of international business. But the scope of international business is substantially wider than that of international trade. International business includes international exchange of services such as international travel and tourism, transportation, communication, banking, warehousing, distribution and advertising.

It also covers foreign investments and overseas production of goods and services. Multinational companies have started making investments into foreign countries and undertaking production of goods and services in foreign countries to explore foreign markets and produce at lower costs. All these activities form part of international business. To conclude, we can say that international business is a much broader term and is comprised of both the trade and production of goods and services across frontiers.

International trade is done through exporting of goods while international business modes include licensing, franchising, contract manufacturing, joint ventures and establishment of wholly owned subsidiaries apart from exporting.

Question 3.
What benefits do firms derive by entering into international business?
Answer:
Firms derive the following benefits by entering into international business:

(i) Prospects for Higher Profits
International business can be more profitable than the domestic business as business firms can earn more profits by selling their products in countries where price are high when the domestic prices are lower.

(ii) Increased Capacity Utilization
Firms can make use of their surplus production capacities and also improving the profitability of their operations by going for overseas expansion and procuring orders from foreign customers. Production on a larger scale often leads to economies of scale, which in turn lowers production cost and improves per unit profit margin.

(iii) Prospects for Growth.
Business firms can improve prospects of their growth by entering into overseas markets » when demand for their products starts getting saturated in the domestic market.

(iv) Way out from Intense Competition in Domestic Market Internationalization is the only way to achieve significant growth when competition in the domestic market is very intense. A highly competitive domestic market induces many companies to go international in search of markets for their products.

(v) Improved Business Vision.
The growth of international- business of many companies is essentially a part of their business policies or strategic management. The vision to become international comes from the urge to grow, the need to become more competitive, the need to diversify and to gain strategic advantages of internationalization.

Question 4.
In what ways is exporting a better way of entering into international markets than setting up wholly owned subsidiaries abroad?
Answer:
Exporting is a better way of entering into international markets than setting up wholly owned subsidiaries abroad in the following ways:

1. Exporting is the easiest way of gaining entry into international markets. It is less complex than setting up and managing joint ventures or wholly owned subsidiaries abroad.
2. Exporting involves lesser time and effort as business firms are not required to invest that much time and money as it is needed when they set up manufacturing plants and facilities as wholly owned subsidiary in host countries.
3. Since exporting does not require much of investment in foreign countries, exposure to foreign investment risks is nil or much lower than that in establishing wholly owned subsidiary.

Question 5.
Discuss briefly the factors that govern the choice of mode of entry into international business.
Answer:
The following factors govern the choice of mode of entry into international business:

(i) Ease of Entry
Some modes of entry into international business like exporting involve lesser formalities than others such as going for joint ventures, franchising or wholly owned subsidiaries. Thus, initially exporting is the mode generally adopted for the entry in to international markets.

(ii) Associated Risk .
Risk of international exposure is higher in joint ventures and wholly owned subsidiaries more investment is involved and socio-economic conditions of the host country along with political and regulatory concerns become more important. Therefore, some other mode like licensing or contract manufacturing might be chosen to reduce risk.

(iii) Efforts Involved
Time and effort one-needs to put in’ is another factor which determines the mode international business. Mode like exporting, licensing and franchising involve lesser effort than joint venture or wholly owned subsidiary.

(iv) Degree of Control
If a firm wants to exercise full control over the operations in foreign countries; it goes for wholly owned subsidiary. Similarly, degree of control is higher in franchising as compared to licensing and so on.

(v) Nature of Business
If the business requires the firm to be in close contact with the customers in the foreign markets, wholly, owned subsidiary or joint venture’ is more suitable while if the products can be supplied from a distance, modes like exporting can suffice. The nature of products being manufactured and availability of raw material also determine the mode of entry into international business.

Question 6.
Discuss the major trends in India’s foreign trade. Also list the major products that India trades with other countries.
Answer:
India’s share in world trade in 2003 was very low i.e., just 0.8% as compared to those of other developing countries such as China (5.9%), Hong Kong (3.0%), South Korea (2.6%), Malaysia (1.3%), Singapore (1.9%), and Thailand (1.1%). India’s share in world merchandise exports started rising fast since 2004, reached 1.3% in 2009 and 1.5% in 2010. It increased to 1.9% in the first half of 2011, mainly due to the relatively higher Indian export growth of 55% compared to the 23.1% export growth of the world.

Trends in India’s Foreign Trade in Goods Volume of Trade Share of foreign trade in the country’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has considerably increased from 14.6% in 1990-91 to 24,1% in 2003-04. India’s total merchandise exports were Rs. 606 crore in 1950-51 which increased to Rs. 293367 corers in 2003-04, representing an increase of over 480 times over the last five decades.

During the last decade, India’s exports and imports registered a five to seven fold increase from US $ 44.6billion and US $ 50.5 billion respectively in 2000- 01 to US $ 251.1 billion and US $ 369.8 billion in 2010-11 respectively. While the Compound Annual Growth Rates (CAGR) of India’s exports and imports (in US dollar terms) were 8.2% and 8.4% respectively in the 1990s, they increased to 19.5% and 25.1% during 2000-01 to 2008- 09. Total imports.

which stood at Rs. 608 crore in 1950-51 increased to Rs. 359108 corers in 2003-04, thus registering a growth of about 590 times during the same period. Composition of Trade Composition wise, textiles and garments, gems and jewellery, engineering, products and chemicals and related products and agricultural and allied products are India’s major items of India’s exports. Great changes in the sectoral composition of India’s export basket were seen in the 2000s decade.

The share of petroleum crude and products increased by 11.8 percentage points during the 10-year period from 2000-1 to 2009-10, and further increased by 4.8 percentage points from 2009-10 to the first half of 2011-12. The share of the other two sectors, i. e., manufactures aildirrinidiy products fell -abnest-proportionately by 11.6 and 1.1 percentage points respectively during 2000-1 to 2009-10.

Although in overall terms India accounts for just above 1% of world exports, in many individual product items such as tea, pearls, precious and semi-precious stones, medicinal and pharmaceutical products, rice, spices, iron ore and concentrates, leather and leather manufactures, textile yarns fabrics, garments , and tobacco, its share is much higher and ranges between 3% to 13%.

India even holds the distinct position of being the largest exporter in the world in select commodities such as basmati rice, tea, and ayurvedic products. As far as imports are concerned, products like crude oil and petroleum products, capital goods (i.e., machinery), electronic goods, pearl, precious and semi-precious stones, gold, silver and chemicals constitute major items of India’s imports. India’s trade in services has also grown manifold over the years.

Question 7.
What is invisible trade? Discuss salient aspects of India’s trade in services.
Answer:
Invisible trade refers to trade in services. Service exports and imports involve trade in intangibles because of which trade in services is also known as invisible trade. Trade in services includes trade in tourism and travel, boarding and lodging, entertainment and recreation, transportation, professional services, communication, construction and engineering, marketing, educational and financial services.

India’s trade in services has increased substantially over the years. Both the exports and imports of services relating to foreign travel, transportation and insurance have increased at a high rate during the last four decades. Software and other miscellaneous services (including professional technical and business services) have emerged as the- main categories of India’s exports of services. While the relative share of travel and transportation has declined from 64.3% in 1995-96 to 29.6%. In 2003-2004, the share of software exports has gone up from 10.2% to around 49% in the corresponding

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – I Additional Questions And Answers

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – I Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which trade theory holds that nations can increase their economic well-being by specializing in the production of goods they produce more efficiently than anyone else?
a. The factor endowment theory.
b. The theory of absolute advantage.
c. The theory of comparative advantage.
d. The international product life cycle theory.
Answer:
b. The theory of absolute advantage.

Question 2.
Which theory holds that nations should produce those goods for which it has the greatest relative advantage?
a. The factor endowment theory.
b. The theory of relative advantage,
c. The theory of absolute advantage.
d. None of the above.
Answer:
d. None of the above.

Question 3.
Which of the following holds that a government can improve the economic well-being of a country by encouraging exports and discouraging imports without a reliance on previous metals?
a. Neo-mercantilism.
b. The Leontief paradox.
c. Quotas.
d. Mercantilism.
Answer:
a. Neo-mercantilism.

Question 4.
In country A, it takes 10 labor hours to produce cloth and 20 labor hours to produce grain. In country B, it takes 20 labor hours to produce cloth and 10 labor hours to produce grain. Which country should produce grain?
a. No country should produce grain.
b. Both A and B should produce grain.
c. A
d. B.
Answer:
d. B.

Question 5.
In North, it takes 50 labor hours to produce cloth and 100 hours to produce grain. In South, it takes 200 labor hours to produce cloth and 200 hours to produce grain. Which of the following statements is true?
a. South has an absolute advantage in the production of grain.
b. North has a comparative advantage in the production of cloth.
c. South has an absolute advantage in the production of both cloth and grain.
d. North should produce grain.
Answer:
b. North has a comparative advantage in the production of cloth.

Question 6.
In country X, it takes 50 labor hours to produce cloth and 100 hours to produce grain. In country Y, it takes 200 labor hours to produce cloth and 200 hours to produce grain. At what price would X start to be willing to trade with Y?
a. More than half a unit of grain per unit of cloth.
b. More than half a unit of cloth per unit of grain.
c. More than a quarter unit of grain per unit of cloth.
d. More than a quarter unit of cloth per unit of grain.
Answer:
a. More than half a unit of grain per unit of cloth.

Question 7.
Which of the following theories holds that countries will produce and export products that use large amounts of production factors that they have in abundance?
a. Mercantilism.
b. The theory of absolute advantage.
c. The factor endowment theory.
d. None of the above.
Answer:
c. The factor endowment theory.

Question 8.
Vernon’s international product life cycle theory :
a. helps explain the movement from absolute advantage to comparative advantage.
b. shows why the United States, surprisingly, exports relatively more labor-intensive goods and imports capital-intensive goods.
c. extends the concept of comparative advantage by bringing into consideration the endowment and cost of factors of production.
d. helps explain why a product that begins as a nation export often ends up becoming an import.
Answer:
d. helps explain why a product that begins as a nation export often ends up becoming an import.

Question 9.
Which of the following products have moved through the IPLC and are now in the standardized product stage?
a. Computer memory cards.
b. Televisions.
c. DVD players.
d. All of the above.
Answer:
d. All of the above.

Question 10.
Which of the following factors influence trade?
a. The stage of development of a product.
b. Government.
c. The relative price of factors of productions.
d. All of the above.
Answer:
d. All of the above.

Question 11.
If the price of the Japanese Yen declines considerably against the British Pound:
a. British goods are relatively cheaper for Japanese consumers.
b. it is always because of British government interference.
c. Japanese goods are relatively cheaper for British consumers.
d. it is always because of Japanese government interference.
Answer:
c. Japanese goods are relatively cheaper for British consumers.

Question 12.
If a Japanese firm sold $10 billion of machinery in US and the US dollar declined against the Japanese currency:
a. the Japanese company will make sure that the difference is paid back to its affiliate.
b. the Japanese company will move funds to the home country.
c. the Japanese firm will report more revenue (in terms of Yen) than if the US dollar had remained stable.
d. the Japanese firm will report less revenue (in terms of Yen) than if the US dollar had remained stable.
Answer:
d. the Japanese firm will report less revenue (in terms of Yen) than if the US dollar had remained stable.

Question 13.
Which of the following is not a reason to erect trade barriers?
a. Protect local jobs.
b. Encourage local production.
c. Promote import activity.
d. Reduce reliance on foreign suppliers.
Answer:
c. Promote import activity.

Question 14.
Which of the following countries is not a member of OPEC?
a. Iran.
b. Venezuela.
c. Iraq.
d. Afghanistan.
Answer:
d. Afghanistan.

Question 15.
A company of the US has excess products that it does not want to sell into the US market because it will bring down the domestic price and instead sells it at another country at below the cost of production. What is this called?
a. Countervailing.
b. Dumping,
c. International trade
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. Countervailing.

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – I Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is international business?
Answer:
International business refers to business that takes place across the national boundaries, i. e., between countries. It includes business activities like manufacturing, trade and services beyond the geographical boundaries of a country.

Question 2.
What is the basis for international business?
Answer:
International business arises because of geographical specialization among countries. Different countries of the world are endowed with different natural resources due to geographical factors like physical features, climatic conditions, socials, etc.

Question 3.
What is contract manufacturing?
Answer:
Contract manufacturing is a mode of entry into international business under which a business firm in a country enters into a contract with local manufacturer in the foreign country to get certain goods produced or services rendered as per its specification. However, the firm retains with itself the responsibility of marketing the goods.

Question 4.
What is licensing?
Answer:
Licensing is a contract arrangement in which a firm in a country allows a firm in a foreign country to use its patent or. trademarks or technology for a consideration known as royalty.

Question 5.
What is franchising?
Answer:
Franchising is very much similar to licensing. The patent company which gives the franchise for a fee is called the franchiser, and the other company is called the franchisee. Franchising covers the business of restaurant, hotel, travel agency, wholesale trade, retail trade, etc.

Question 6.
What is joint venture?
Answer:
Joint venture is a business jointly owned by two or more firms located in two different countries.

Question 7.
State one difference between international trade and international business.
Answer:
The one difference between international trade and international business: International trades produces the goods cheaply, but international business cannot produce the goods cheaply.

Question 8.
State one difference between licensing and franchising.
Answer:
The one difference between licensing and franchising.
Licensing is used in connection with marketing of products, whereas franchising is used in connection with marketing of services.

Question 9.
Distinguish between domestic business and international business.
Answer:
The two differences between domestic and international business are:

Basis of difference	Domestic Business	International business
1. Territorial limits	Domestic business takes place between the geographical boundaries of a nation. In other words, domestic business takes place between buyers and sellers of the same nation.	International business takes place between different nations. In other words, the buyers and sellers in international business belong to different nations.
2. Homogeneity or heterogeneity of markets	Domestic markets are relatively more homogeneous in nature.	International markets are heterogeneous in nature.

Question 10.
Explain the scope of international business.
Answer:
The scope of international business is quite wide. It includes not only exports and, imports of goods abut also exports and imports of services. It includes even licensing franchising and foreign.investment.

The various activities which constitute the scope of international business are:

1. Exports and imports of merchandise
2. Exports and imports of services
3. Licensing and franchising
4. Foreign investments.

Question 11.
State the advantages and disadvantages of contract manufacturing.
Answer:
Advantage of contract manufacturing:

• There is no investment risk in this strategy, as there is no investment in production facilities in the foreign country.

Disadvantage of contract manufacturing:

• This mode is not suitable in cases involving high tech products and technical secrets.

Question 12.
State the advantages and disadvantages of licensing and franchising.
Answer:

Advantage of licensing and franchising:

• There is lesser risk of Government interference on the turnover of business in licensing or franchising, because the business in managed by local persons.

Disadvantage of licensing and franchising:

• There is danger that the licensee or franchisee may star an identical business, slightly different from the one licensed or franchised.

Question 13.
State the advantages and disadvantages of joint venture.
Answer:
Advantage of Joint Venture:

• Joint venture facilitates easy entry into international business.

Disadvantage of Joint Venture:

• There is the risk of leakage of technology and trade secrets in case of joint venture.

Question 14.
State the advantages and disadvantages wholly-owned subsidiary.
Answer:
Advantage of wholly-owned subsidiary:

• Under this strategy, the parent company enjoys full control over its operations in the foreign country.

Disadvantage wholly-owned subsidiary:

• The parent company, being the sole owner, has to bear all the losses of the subsidiary company.

1st PUC Business Studies International Business – I Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the various modes of entry into international business.
Answer:
There are various ways of entering into international business. They are:

1. Exporting and Importing: Exporting means selling or sending goods and services form the home county to foreign country.
Importing means purchasing goods and services from a foreign country or bringing them to the home county.

2. Contract Manufacturing: Contract manufacturing is a mode of entry into ‘ international business under which a business firm in a country enters into a contract with local manufacturer in the foreign country to get certain goods produced or services rendered as per its specification! However, the firm retains with itself the responsibility of marketing the goods.

3. Licensing and Franchising: Licensing is a contract arrangement in which a firm in a country allows a firm in a foreign country to use its patent or trademarks or technology for a consideration known as royalty. Franchising is very much similar to licensing. The patent company which gives the franchise for a fed is called the franchiser, and the other company is called the franchisee. Franchising covers the business of restaurant, hotel, travel agency, wholesale trade, retail trade, etc.

1. Joint venture: Joint venture is a business jointly owned by two or more firms located in two different countries.

2. Wholly-owned Subsidiary: A wholly-owned subsidiary is subsidiary company which is owned by a parent company or holding company. In other words, a wholly-owned subsidiary is a subsidiary company in whose equity capital, 100% investment is made by the parent or holding company.

Question 2.
Explain the benefits of international business.
Answer:
The advantages or benefits of international business can be classified into:

1. Advantages or benefits to the trading nations.
2. Advantages or benefits to the participating firms.

Advantages Or Benefits To The Trading Nations

1. Regional Specialisation: International business contributes to territorial or regional specialisation or division of labour.

2. Fuller and More Efficient Utilisation of Available Resources: By enabling a country to concentrate on the production of those goods for which its resources are best suited, international business facilitated fuller and better utilization of the available resources.

3. Expansion of Domestic Industries: By widening the markets for goods, international business contributes to the expansion of domestic industries of a country.

Advantages Or Benefits To The Participating Firms

1. Growth of Business: International business contributes to the growth of business of participating firms by encouraging large-scale production and large-scale international business.
2. Improved business Vision: International business helps business firms to have improved business vision and become increased export business.
3. Higher Profits to Participating Firms: International business offer better prospects for higher profits to firms participating in international business through wider markets and better prices.

Question 3.
Explain the demerits of international business!
Answer:
The dements of international business are:

1. Excessive Dependence on other countries: International business, by making a country concentrate on the production of only those goods for which it is best suited, makes a county depend on other-countries even for essential products. Such dependence creates serious difficulties for a country, especially in times of war when international business becomes impossible.

2. Foreign competition: International business gives rise to foreign competition to a country. Foreign competition may ruin domestic industries, especially small and cottage industries which are unable to face such competition.

3. One-side development: International business may lead to one-sided development of a nation’s economy. Because of the specialisation resulting from international business, a country may develop a certain sector of her economy, neglecting other sectors. This dependence on one sector is not good for the overall growth of a country.

4. Balance of Payment Problem: International business may cause serious balance of payment problem. The balance payment problem may force a country to borrow from international sources. Huge foreign debt may impair a country’s capacity to import goods.

5. Import of Luxury and Other Unwanted Goods: International business may encourage the import of luxury and other unwanted goods which are not necessary for the masses. Such imports may ruin the economy of country.

Karnataka 1st PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth

You can Download Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Geography Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

1st PUC Geography Interior of the Earth One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Continental Crust? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
This is the uppermost layer of the crust and the earth. The mean thickness of Continental Crust around 30km.

Question 2.
Name the discontinuity found between Mantle and Core. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Gutenberg/Oldham discontinuity found between Mantle and Core.

Question 3.
Why the inner core is called ‘solid core’? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
It is the lower layer of the Core consisting of hard molten rocks. Most of the materials are in molten form.

Question 4.
Mention the three major layers of the interior of the Earth.
Answer:
The three major layer of the interior of the Earth are the crust, the mantle and the core.

Question 5.
What is the crust?
Answer:
The outer or upper most thin and lightest layer of the earth is the crust.

Question 6.
What are the two layers of the lithosphere?
Answer:
Sial and Sima are layers of the lithosphere.

Question 7.
Where is Mohorovicic discontinuity?
Answer:
It is a boundary that separates the earth’s crust and the mantle.

Question 8.
Which layer is called pyrosphere?
Answer:
The layer lies in between the crust and the core of the earth is known as pyrosphere. It begins from Mohorovicic discontinuity and continues up to a depth of Gutenberg discontinuity.

Question 9.
What is Nife?
Answer:
The inner core of the barrysphere is called ‘Nife’ as it consists of Nickel and Ferrous (Iron).

Question 10.
Where is Gutenberg discontinuity?
Answer:
The boundary that separates the mantle from the core is known as ‘Gutenberg Discontinuity’.

Question 11.
Which zone is called as Mantle zone?
Answer:
The Pyrosphere is also called Mantle zone.

Question 12.
Which zone is called Core?
Answer:
The zone of Barrysphere is called as Core. It is the innermost layer of the earth.

Question 13.
What is Sima?
Answer:
The lower part of the earth’s crust is named as ‘Sima’ As it consists of Silica and Magnesium.

Question 14.
What is sial?
Answer:
The outer portion or top layer of the crust is made up of granite rocks in which silica and aluminum elements predominate is known as Sial.

Question 15.
Name the instrument used to record seismic waves. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Seismograph is used to record seismic waves.

Question 16.
Which is the most destructive earthquake wave? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Surface waves (long period waves) are most destructive earthquake wave.

Question 17.
Define Tsunami. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
A large sea wave occasionally experienced along the sea coast caused by an underwater or sub-marine earthquake is called Tsunami.

Question 18.
What is Homo-seismal line? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Lines drawn on the map to show the places recording the same time of occurrence of earthquake.

Question 19.
Mention the region which record more seismic activities in the world. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The Circum-pacific belt record more seismic activities in the world.

Question 20.
What are the three concentric zones of the earth?
Answer:
Lithosphere, Pyrosphre and the core are the three concentric zones of the earth.

Question 21.
What do you mean by Seismology?
Answer:
The science of study of earthquakes is called seismology.

Question 22.
What is iso-seismal line?
Lines drawn on the map to show the places experiencing the same intensity of earthquake.

Question 23.
What is Homo-seismal lines?
Answer:
Lines drawn on the map to show the places experiencing the same time of occurrence of earthquakes.

Question 24.
Mention the two scales of earthquakes.
Answer:

• Richter scale
• Mercalli Scale

Question 25.
What is co-seismal line?
Answer:
Lines drawn on the map to show the places experiencing same intensity and same time of occurrence of earthquake.

Question 26.
Which zone is called ‘Zone of fracture’?
Answer:
The mid-continental belt.

Question 27.
Which waves are called transverse waves
Answer:
Secondary waves.

Question 28.
Which zone is called Core
Answer:
The zone of Barrysphere is called as Core.

Question 29.
Who is ‘Seismologist’?
Answer:
The Person who is specialized in the study of earthquakes are called Seismologist.

Question 30.
Which waves are called ‘transverse’ waves?
Answer:
Secondary waves are called transverse waves.

Question 31.
What is Earthquakes?
Answer:
It means Vibration of the earth crust. The shaking or sudden vibration or series of vibrations are resulted from sudden movements of the earth’s crust.

Question 32.
What is seismograph?
Answer:
An instrument devised to record and measure the intensity of earthquake is known as ‘seismograph’.

Question 33.
What is Seismogram?
Answer:
It is the science which studies various aspects of seismic waves generated during the occurrence of earthquakes.

Question 34.
Where are the seismograph Stations established in India?
Answer:
In India, the seismograph centers are located at Kodaikanal (T.N), Poona, Kolaba (Maharashtra) Kolkata (W.B) and Gowribidnur (Karnataka).

Question 35.
Who and when postulated the elastic rebound theory?
Answer:
Elastic rebound theory was propounded by Harry Fielding Reid, and American Geologist in 1911.

Question 36.
What are the Tsunamis?
Answer:
These are the waves of greater height produced by the earthquakes in the oceans. Tsunami is a Japanese term. Tsu means port and nami means waves. Thus waves approaching the port are called Tsunamis.

Question 37.
Mention the waves of Earthquakes?
Answer:
There are three major waves

1. Primary waves (P)
2. Secondary waves (S) and Surface waves (L).

Question 38.
What is Focus?
Answer:
The place of the origin of an earthquake in the earth’s crust is called focus

Question 39.
Which earthquake belt is known as zone of fracture?
Answer:
The Mid- continental belt.

Question 40.
What is Epicenter?
Answer:
The point where the earthquake waves or shock waves reach the surface for the first time is called epicenter.

Question 41.
Which waves of earthquakes are highly destructive?
Answer:
The surface waves or Long wave are most destructive as they vibrate much.

Question 42.
Who invented the Richter scale?
Answer:
Charles Richter of U.S.A in invented Richter scale in 1935.

Question 43.
Mention the region which record more seismic activities in the world. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The Circum-pacific belt record more seismic activities in the world.

Question 44.
What is Volcano? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
A volcano is an opening in the crust of the Earth through which heated materials consisting of gases, hot water, lava and fragments of rocks are ejected from the interior of the Earth.

Question 45.
Name any one volcano of India. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Narcondam in Andaman & Nicobar Islands is also an important volcano of India.

Question 46.
Which Volcano is called ‘Lighthouse of the Mediterranean’?
Answer:
Stromboli is known as ‘Lighthouse of the Mediterranean’.

Question 47.
What is ‘Volcanology’?
Answer:
The scientific study of volcano is known as ‘Volcanology’

Question 48.
What is ‘Ring of Fire’?
Answer:
The circum-pacific belt is also called Pacific ‘Ring of Fire’. This belt experiences greater number of volcanoes.

Question 49.
State the derivation of the term volcano.
Answer:
The word volcano is derived from a hill located in the island ‘Volcano’ north of Sicily.

Question 50.
What is Vent?
Answer:
Vent refers to the passage in the earth’s crust through which lava and other volcanic materials are ejected. The vent, generally, occurs in the weaker part of the earth’s crust.

Question 51.
What is crater?
Answer:
A typical volcano is a cone-shaped hill with a pit like opening at the top. This opening which acts as the mouth of the volcano is called a crater.

Question 52.
What is Cone?
Answer:
Volcanic materials are ejected through the mouth of the volcano. The ejected volcanic materials accumulate around the vent, and give rise to the volcanic cone.

Question 53.
What is an active volcano?
Answer:
Volcanoes which erupts frequently even now as known as “active volcanoes”. E.g. Mt. Etna in Sicily, Stromboli inLipati islands. Paricutin in Mexico, Cotopaxi in Andes etc. There are about 500 active volcanoes all over the world.

Question 54.
What are the two types of lava?
Answer:
Basic lava and Acidic lava are the two types of Lava.

Question 55.
What is Basic lava?
Answer:
It is composed of iron and magnesium, black inn colour and highly fluid, when it is poured out from the volcano, it flows for a long distance and forms

Question 56.
Where is the only active volcano in India?
Answer:
Barren and Norcondom Island located to the northeast of port Blair of Andaman Islands.

Question 57.
What is Acidic lava?
Answer:
Acidic lava is highly viscous, contains high percentage of silica. If flows slowly and solidifies quickly. Hence deposition occurs only around the craters with steep slopes called domb shaped volcano.

Question 58.
What is Ash cone?
Answer:
A cone-shaped hill formed by of volcanic ash that is built up around a volcanic vent is called ash cone.

Question 59.
Which volcanoes are called “Super Volcanoes?
Answer:
Mt. Vesuvius, Mt. krakatau and Mt. Pelean Volcanoes are called ‘Super Volcanoes.

Question 60.
What is volcanic Spine?
Answer:
The acid lava, which is vicious, solidifies quickly and blocks the vent. This stands up as a steep-sided cone called spine or plug.

Question 61.
What is Geyser?
Answer:
A Geyser is a hot spring form which a column of hot water and stream are alternatively ejected to a great height.

Question 62.
What is laccolith?
Answer:
Laccolith is a large mound of igneous rock formed along a bedding plane in the sedimentary rock layers.

Question 63.
What is Batholith?
Answer:
Batholith is a very large dome -shaped intrusion of igneous rock. It is exposed to the surface only after considerable erosion.

Question 64.
What is lava plateau?
Answer:
An extensive elevated land made up of depositional lava called lava plateau.

Question 65.
What are solid Materials?
Answer:
Volcanic bombs, dust, pumice, Scoria, Volcanic ash, cinder and rock fragments.

Question 66.
What are extrusive landfoms?
Answer:
landforms are formed by the accumulation and solidification of lava and other material ejected by volcanoes eg: volcanic cones, crater etc.

Question 67.
Define petrology. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The Scientific study of rocks is called‘Petrology’.

Question 68.
Give an example for plutonic rock.(T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Granite, Gabbro, Diorite is the example for plutonic rock.

Question 69.
Why secondary rocks are called aqueous rocks? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Secondary rocks are called aqueous rocks because these rocks are formed by water.

Question 70.
How is carbonaceous rock formed? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
These rocks are formed by the decay and decompositions of plants, trees and vegetation, which are rich in carbon e.g. Coal.

Question 71.
What is Metamorphism? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The process of transformation of rocks from one type to another under conditions of high temperature and pressure is known as Metamorphism.

Question 72.
What is a mineral? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Mineral is a natural inorganic substance which has certain chemical and physical properties.

Question 73.
Which mineral covers largest area of the Earth’s crust? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Feldspar and silica covers largest area of the Earth’s crust.

Question 74.
Give an example for non-ferrous mineral. (T. B. Qn) ‘
Answer:
Bauxite, mica

Question 75.
Which rocks associate with fossils? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Sedimentary rocks are associate with fossils.

Question 76.
What is .an Intrusive rock?
Answer:
Intrusive rocks are formed by the cooling of the magma deep inside the crust of the earth and its solidification under great pressure.

Question 77.
Which type of rocks marble is an example?
Answer:
Metamorphic rocks are the example of Marble.

Question 78.
Which type of rock sand stone is an example?
Answer:
Sand stone is an example of metamorphic rocks.

Question 79.
Which type of rocks basalt in an example?
Answer:
Basalt is the best example of volcanic igneous rocks.

Question 80.
In which type of rocks coal and petroleum reserves are found.
Answer:
Coal and Petroleum reserves are found in Sedimentary rocks.

Question 81.
What are the metamorphic rocks?
Answer:
The rocks that have been changes either in form or compositions without disintegration are called metamorphic rocks.

Question 82.
What are Sedimentary rocks?
Answer:
The rocks which are formed due to aggregation and compactness of sediments are known as “Sedimentary rocks.”

Question 83.
What are Plutonic rocks?
Answer:
The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at great depth inside the earth are called Plutonic igneous rock’s.

Question 84.
Which rock is known as Stratified rocks?
Answer:
Sedimentary rocks are also known as Stratified rocks and Secondary rocks.

Question 85.
What are arenaceous rocks?
Answer:
These are formed mainly due to deposition, commentating and consolidation of sane grains e. g. Sand stone.

Question 86.
What are argillaceous rocks?
Answer:
These rocks are formed largely by fine clay particles e.g. Shale or mudstone these are impermeable.

1st PUC Geography Interior of the Earth Two Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Mention any two features of Oceanic Crust. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The lower part of the Crust is known as Oceanic crust. It s thickness is around 5 Km. this layeris rich in silica and magnesium. The mean density of this layer is 2.95gm.

Question 2.
Why Mantle is very important in the Earth’s interior? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The portion of the Earth’s interior below’ the Crust is called mantle. It extends from 60 km to , 7,900km. The density of this layer ranges from 3.3 to 5.7gm.The mantle is a composition of dense and rigid rocks which have minerals like magnesium and iron.

Question 3.
What is Mantle?
Answer:
The portion of the earth’s interior, lying beneath the crust and above the core, is known as the mantle. It is largely made up of basic silicates, rich in iron and magnesium. It extends to a depth of 2,900 kms of inside the earth

Question 4.
What is lithosphere?
Answer:
The outer most part of the earth or the crust is known as Lithosphere. It forms only 0.5 percent of the total volume of the earth. The thickness of the crust varies from 10 to 60km. It consists of all the three major types of rocks, such as Igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic rock.

Question 5.
What is Pyrosphere?
Answer:
This layer lies n between the crust and the core of the earth. It begins from Mohorovicic discontinuity and continues up to a depth of2900km where ‘Gutenberg discontinuity’ separates the central core form the pyrosphere. It constitutes about 16percent of the total volume of the earth. The specific gravity of pyrospehre varies at different depths, generally it increase towards the central core. The Pyrosphere is also called Mantle zone.

Question 6.
What is Isostacy?
Answer:
One interesting property of the continental and oceanic crust is that these tectonic plates have the ability to rise and sink. This phenomenon, known as isostacy, occurs because the crust floats on top of the mantle like ice cubes in water. When the Earth’s crust gains weight due to mountain building or glaciations, it deforms and sinks deeper into the mantle if the weight is removed, the crust becomes more buoyant and floats higher in the mantle.

Question 7.
What is Barysphre?
Answer:
It is the inner most layer of the earth. It extends from Gutenberg discontinuity to the central point of the earth and has a thick mass of about 3478 Km. It consists about 83% of the total volume of the earth. It is a spherical zone extending from 2900 km to 6378 km. The core of the earth is also divided into two layers namely outer core and inner core.

Question 8.
State the difference between Focus and Epicenter. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The point in the interior of the Earth from where the earthquake tremors originate is called the seismic focus. Earthquake tremors move from the focus in all directions. The point o the Earth’s surface vertically above the focus is called the epicenter. The Earthquake is felt first at the epicenter.

Question 9.
Name any two causes for earthquakes. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Folding, Faulting, volcanic activity, landslides are the major causes for earthquakes. Earth quakes are also caused by human activities such as mining, nuclear explosion.

Question 10.
Distinguish between Iso-seismal and Co-seismal lines. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Lines drawn on the map to show the places experiencing the same intensity of earthquake are called Iso-seismal lines. Lines drawn the map to show the places experiencing same intensity and same time of occurrence of earthquake are called Co-seismal lines.

Question 11.
Which scales are used to measure the intensity of an earthquake? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
To measure the intensity and magnitude of the earthquakes two scales are sued There are Richter scale and Mercalli Scale.

Question 12.
What is a volcanic earthquake?
Answer:
These are associated with the activity of volcanoes and occur as a result of depth explosion of the gases and magma. Such volcanoes are confined to volcanic areas. The intensity of such earthquakes depends on the intensity of volcanic eruption. They are not very destructive e.g. Krakatau (1883) and Katmai (1912).

Question 13.
What are Tectonic earthquakes?
Answer:
These are caused due to faulting, folding and displacement of blocks of the (lithosphere) crust. Due to some structural activity, earth stresses are produced. These stresses build up a fracture, the rock masses on either side on the fracture get displaced and the strain is released. AH major earthquakes are said to be of tectonic origin and are very disastrous. E.g. Koyna (1907) Quetta (1935).

Question 14.
What are Collapse earthquakes?
Answer:
These are associated with the processes of falling of rocks and avalanches in mountain, large landslides, and the collapse of natural caves and so on. These earthquakes are confined to earth’s surface and constitute only a small number of the total earthquakes.

Question 15.
What is Tectonic force?
Answer:
Such as faulting, breaking of rocks, raising or sinking of the layers of the earth Folding, of the strata or vapour trying to come out from beneath the earth.

Question 16.
What is volcanic force?
Answer:
Violent eruptions and extrusion of igneous magma from below the earth. Volcanic earthquakes are caused by gas explosions or the undoming and fissuring of volcanic structures. Such earthquakes bccur either simultaneously with eruptions or more commonly in the period preceding an eruption.

Question 17.
What are surface waves?
Answer:
These are the slowest waves and reach the Epicentre at the Last stage. Surface waves are also called ‘Long’ waves of ‘Long period’ waves. The speed of these waves is around 3 to4 km per second and are confined to the upper layer of the crust. These waves cause heavy destruction and damage on the crust of the Earth.

Question 18.
Mention any two causes of a volcano. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The temperature inside the Earth increases with the increasing depth (1°C per 32m) Formation of magma because of increase in temperature and reduction in pressure.

Question 19.
Distinguish between Active and Extinct volcanoes. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Active Volcanoes are those volcanoes which erupt regularly or frequently e.g. Mt. Etna in Sicily and Stromboli of Italy, Mauna Loa. Extinct volcanoes are volcanoes which have not been active for considerable period of time .There are no possibilities of future eruption in these volcanoes. These volcanoes are also called Sleeping or Dead volcanoes. Narcondum, Vesuvius and Krakatoa are examples of extinct volcanoes.

Question 20.
Name any two active volcanoes of the world. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Mauna Lopa and Mauna Kea of Hawaiian Islands, Cotopaxi and Chimborazo of Ecuador Mt. Etna and Stromboli of Italy, St Helens of USA.

Question 21.
Name any two countries which come under the Circum-pacific belt. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Japan, USA, Hawaiian Islands, Philippines, Alaska, New Zealand.

Question 22.
How are Igneous rock formed? Give examples. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The word ‘Igneous’ is derived from the Latin word ‘ignis’ meaning fire. These rocks are primary rocks formed by the cooling, solidification and crystallization of magma.
On the basis Silica content, igneous rocks are classified as

• Acid igneous rocks: Granite
• Basic igneous rocks: Gabbro.

Question 23.
What are dormant volcanoes?
Answer:
Dormant volcanoes are those volcanoes which have remained inactive for a long period of time, but may erupt in the future e.g. Mt Fuiyama in Japan.

Question 24.
What is Extinct Volcanoes?
Answer:
Extinct volcanoes are volcanoes which will most probably not erupt again in the future. Vesuvius and Krakatoa are example of extinct explosions. Popa in Myanmar (Burma) also is an example of extinct volcano.

Question 25.
What are intermediate volcanoes?
Answer:
Some of the volcanoes are characterized with both explosive and tranquil eruptions. These are intermediary volcanoes as they are named after their mode of eruption. Since the materials thrown out are different, they posses both the qualities. Some time solid fragments are thrown with explosion, whereas sometimes only lava flows out silently. As such the slope of the hills formed with the deposition is also of intermediately.

Question 26.
What is Cinder Cone?
Answer:
The erupted solid particles consist of large rock fragments as well as small angular rock pieces. Cinder as they are called is deposited around the vent to form cinder cone.

Question 27.
Which is highest Volcanic Mountain the world?
Answer:
OJOSS del Salado, 6891 meters located between Argentine and Chile boundary, in of South America is the highest Volcanic Mountain in the world (Andes Mountain).

Question 28.
What is Hot springs?
Answer:
Hot springs or thermal spring’s are more common. The water sinks deep inside where the rocks are heated. The heated water rises to the surface without any explosion. Such springs contain dissolved minerals which are of medicinal value. They can be also used to generate electricity. Iceland has thousands of hot springs.

Question 29.
What is Lava dome?
Answer:
The shape of lava dome is determined by the nature of lava. The highly fluid basic lava builds up shield dome with gently rising slopes, and flattened top. The basic lava, which is highly viscous, builds up dome with a great height and steep slope.

Question 30.
What are Intrusive Land forms?
Answer:
Intrusive land forms occur when lavas solidified within the earth’s crust and gives rise to various shapes or forms intrusive landforms are formed along the bedding planes of sedimentary rocks.

Question 31.
What is Dyke?
Answer:
The Magma from the interior of the earth finds its way towards the surface through a passage. When it is able to reach the surface, it cools and solidifies, and a vertical or highly inclined feature is formed, and such a features is called dyke.

Question 32.
What is Hot springs?
Answer:
Hot springs or thermal spring’s are more common. The water sinks deep inside where the rocks are heated. The heated water rises to the surface without any explosion. Such springs contain dissolved minerals which are of medicinal value. They can be also used to generate electricity. Iceland has thousands of hot springs

Question 33.
What is composite cone?
Answer:
A volcanic cone composed of alternative layers of ash, cinder and lava is called composite cone. This results from the accumulation of materials over a long period of time from a number of eruptions. This type of cone is the most common volcanic feature. Fujiyama of Japan and Mt. Etna of Sicily are examples of this type of cone.

Question 34.
What is volcanic crater?
Answer:
The opening of the volcano through which materials are throughout is known as a crater. It is a funnel shaped hollow at the top. Sometimes in the explosive volcanoes the peak of the volcano is blown up to form a caldera.

Question 35.
How are Igneous rock formed? Give examples. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
The word ‘Igneous’ is derived from the Latin word ‘ignis’ meaning fire. These rocks are primary rocks formed by the cooling, solidification and crystallization of magma. On the basis Silica content, igneous rocks are classified as

• Acid Igneous rocks: Granite
• Basic igneous rocks: Gabbro.

Question 36.
Distinguish between Arenaceous and Argillaceous rocks. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Arenaceous rocks are formed when grains of coarse or fine sand are cemented together. They are porous, and can hold water, e.g. Sand stone Argillaceous rocks are consist mostly of fine clay which gets hardened and forms shale or mudstone, e.g. Shale.

Question 37.
How is contact metamorphism different from regional metamorphism? (X. B. Qn)
Answer:
Contact metamorphism is directly related to the volcanic activity. When the hot molten magma comes to the surfaced of the Earth, it passes through joints and fissures in the rocks. The rocks coming in contact with the magma or lava get baked or burnt to form metamorphic rock. E.g. Marble from Limestone. Regional metamorphism is associated with Earth movements and processes of mountain building. In this the masses of Igneous and Sedimentary rocks are squeezed and buribd deep in the earth. E.g. Slate from Clay, Graphite from Coal.

Question 38.
Give four examples of metamorphic rock. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Marble, Diamond, Quartzite, Ruby, Emerald are the examples of metamorphic rock.

Question 39.
What are metallic and non-metallic minerals? (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Metallic Minerals are the minerals in metallic form or contain metal. Few metallic minerals are Iron ore, Manganese ore, Copper ore etc.
Non-metallic minerals are not in metallic form and they do not contain metal. E.g. Mica, Sulphur, Lead, Zinc, Phosphate etc.

Question 40.
What is Rock cycle?
Answer:
The rock cycle is a general model that describes how various geological processes create, modify, and influence rocks This model suggests that the origin of all rocks can be ultimately traced back to the solidification of molten magma. Magma consists of a partially melted mixture of elements and compounds commonly found in ‘rocks. Magma exists just beneath the solid crust of the Earth in an interior zone known as the mantle.

Question 41.
Mention the types of sedimentary rocks?
Answer:
Based on Origin and composition sedimentary rocks are divided into three types

1. mechanically formed rocks.
2. Chemically formed rocks.
3. Organically formed rocks.

Question 42.
What are hypabyssal rocks?
Answer:
These are intermediate rocks between the extruded volcanic rocks and the deep plutonic rocks. They are formed due to cooling and solidification of magma in cracks, pores, crevices etc.

Question 43.
What are Extrusive Rocks?
Answer:
The rock which are formed by the cooling and solidification of magma or lava on the surface of the earth re known as “Extrusive Igneous rocks”. These rocks are also called volcanic rocks, as they are formed during volcanic eruption. No crystals are formed in these rocks due to rapid cooling of lava; basalt is typical example of this kind of rock. ‘

Question 44.
Mention the characteristics of igneous rocks?
Answer:
The chief characteristics of igneous rocks are.

• Igneous rocks are associated with volcanic activities.
• They are compare and massive
• They do not have stratas and are not porous.
• They are crystalline and do not contain any fossils.
• They are quite hard and resistant to weathering and erosion.
• They contains metallic minerals
• Suitable for construction purpose
• They re very valuable minerals in recent years.

Question 45.
What are Calcareous rocks?
Answer:
Calcareous rocks are formed mostly from the remains of living organisms. These rocks contain calcium carbonate or lime. They include limestone and chalk. They are porous and soluble.

Question 46.
What is Metamorphism?
Answer:
The process of transformation of rocks from one type to another under the conditions of high temperature and pressure is called Metamorphism. The word metamorphism is derived from the term ‘Metamorphose’ means change in form.

Question 47.
What are carbonaceous rocks?
Answer:
These are formed due to the transformation of vegetative matter. Under the impact of heat and pressure the remains of plants are turned into hard layers. E.g. coal.

Question 48.
What is a sedimentary rock? Why it is called aqueous rocks?
Answer:
The rocks which are formed due to aggregation and compactness of sediments are known as “Sedimentary rocks.” These are formed by the deposition of sediments derived form older rocks, plants and animal remains by rivers, winds, glaciers etc. These sediments are hardened into rocks by pressure. Most often, they are formed on the bed of shallow seas or lakes and so they are called aqueous rocks.

Question 49.
What are Rudaceous rocks?
Answer:
These are formed due to cementation and consolidation of pebbles and boulders e.g. Conglomerate and breccias. When large rounded pebbles are firmly cemented to form rocks they are known as conglomerate. When the rock fragments are angular and cemented together to form rocks. They are called breccias. These are porous rocks.

Question 50.
What is a Mushroom Rock? How is it formed?
Answer:
The rocks having broad upper part and narrow base resembling an umbrella or mushroom are called Mushroom Rocks. These are formed due to abrasive work of wind.

Question 51.
Describe the work of river in the upper and middle course.
Answer:
The work of running water in the form of surface runoff or overland flow and streams is most important of all the exogenesis or plantation process e.g. ground water, sea waves, glaciers, wind etc. Because the running water is the most widespread exogenesis process on this plant earth.

1st PUC Geography Interior of the Earth Five Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Explain the structure and composition of the Earth with a neat diagram.(T.B.Qn)
Answer:
On the basis of the physical and chemical properties of the earth’s surface, behavioral patterns of seismic waves of earthquakes and the lava erupted form volcanoes, it is generally held that the earth is composed of three layers or parts.

1. The crust: The outer or upper most layer of the earth is the crust. It is solid and is the thinnest and lightest part. It is 6to 60 kms thick. It has two layers.
a. Continental crust or sial: The upper part consist of sedimentary and granite rocks’ and forms the continents. Its major constituent elements are silica and aluminum. So, it is termed as sial. Its average thickness ranges between 10-12 km.

b. Oceanic crust or Sima: The lower part of other Crust is known as oceanic crust. Its thickness is around 5 km. This layer is rich in silica and Magnesium. Therefore, it is called Sima. The lower continuous layer is mostly composing of silica and magnesium and so it is termed as sima. The mean density of this layer is 2.95gm. Conrad discontinuity between Sial and Sima and Mohorovicic discontinuity between Crust and Mantle are the major discontinues in the crust.

2. The Mantle: The portion of the earth’s interior, lying beneath the crust and above the core is known as mantle. It is largely made up of basic silicates, rich in iron and magnesium. It extends from 60 to 2,900km. The density of this layer from 3.3 to 5.7gm. The mantle has two parts.

a. Upper Mantle: This is the outer layer of the Mantle known as Asthenosphre. Most of the earthquakes and volcanoes take birth due to disorder in this layer.

b. Lower Mantle: This is the lower layer of the Mantle known as Mesosphere and it is in solid form. Repetti discontinuity between Asthenosphere and Mesosphere and Gutenberg discontinuity between Mantle and Core are the major discontinues in the mantle

3. The core: The core is the central part of the earth’s interior. It extends from the lower boundary of the mantle to the centre of the earth for about 6,400 kms. The most important materials of core are nickel and ferrous (Nife). The core consists of two layers, namely.

a. Outer core: It is the outer layer of the Core consisting hard molten rocks. Most of the materials are in molten form. It extends from 2900km to 4980km.

b. Inner core: It is the lower layer of the Core with very high temperature and pressure. Most of the materials are in solid form therefore, it is called solid core. The average temperature of this layer is around 2900° C. Transition discontinuity is found between Outer. Core and Inner Core.

Question 2.
What is an Earthquake? Describe the causes and effects of earthquake. (T.B.Q)
Answer:
An Earthquake is a sudden vibration or oscillation in the Crust of the Earth. It is a form of energy of wave motion transmitted through the surface layer of the Earth. The place of origin of an Earthquake in the Earth’s crust is called ‘Focus’. The point on the Earth surface which is perpendicular to the focus, receiving seismic waves is called ‘Epicentre’.

Causes of Earthquake: On the basis of occurrence earthquakes can be classified into three types. They occur due to several causes such as tectonic forces, folding, faulting, volcanic eruptions landslides, avalanches, man-made factor.

Tectonic Earthquakes: These are caused due to folding, faulting and displacement of blocks of rocks in the Earth’s crust. They are highly intensive and destructive seismic activities.

Volcanic Earthquakes: These are associated with the volcanic activities and are usually caused at great depths. They are with low intensity and magnitude. The destruction and damage are slightly lesser than earthquakes caused by Tectonic forces.

c. Earthquakes caused by man-made factors: Over interaction of man underground nuclear explosion etc, are causing great change in the crustal formation leading to seismic activity. E.g. Koyna dam (India)-1967, Hoover dam (U.S.A)-l 935, Mangladam (Pakistan). Effects of Earthquakes: Earthquakes cause violent disturbances and widespread damage and destruction, especially on the epicentre region.

• Earthquakes cause changes in the earth’s surface. Cracks and fissures develop in the earth’s crust.
• Vibrations, caused by earthquakes, lead to landslides in mountainous regions, damming the rivers.
• vertical or horizontal cracks are formed, and the land is elevated or lowered, forming lakes.
• Deep cracks may be developed in dams after the earthquake. For instance, deep cracks were developed in the Koyna dam after the earthquake.
• The beds of rivers may be raised by the earthquakes. For example, the bed of the river Brahmaputra was raised during the Assam earthquakes.
• here is the greatest danger of falling of houses, roads railway lines factories, bridges, dams, aerodromes, and other man-made structures, resulting in loss of life and property.
• The underground water system is disturbed.

Question 3.
Explain the distribution of Earthquakes.
Answer:
No part of the earth is free from the quakes. But their frequency of occurrence and intensity varies. On the surface of the earth hundreds of quakes of different intensity are recorded every year.
The earthquakes distribution is grouped into 5 major belts they are:

1. Circum-pacific Belt: This belt includes the Rockies of North America, Andes of South America and the island of East Coast of Asia, U.S.A, Chile, Peru, Alaska, Japan and Indonesia. This belt has high frequency of earthquakes of very high magnitude.
2. The extensive ocean basic of the Pacific Ocean is seismically highly active
3. The Alphs-Himalayan fold mountain region. It comprises Southern Europe, North Africa, Central Asia, Northern Mountain region of India. This belt is known as “Zone of fracture’.
4. The Mid oceanic ridges of Atlantic and Indian Ocean.
5. The longitudinal Rift valley of East African Coast which run north to south for several thousand kilometers.

Question 4.
Explain the Earthquake waves?
Answer:
The earthquake waves based on their mode of traveling and velocity are broadly classified into three types. They are,

1. Primary (P) waves
2. Secondary (S)waves
3. Surface (L) waves

1. Primary (P) waves: These are also known as Push waves or waves of compression. The particles vibrate in the direction of the movement of the wave, similar to a sound wave. They can travel through solid, liquid and gases. The velocity varies from 5.5 to 13 km per second depending on the medium of their travel they are the first to be recorded in the epicenter by the seismograph.

2. Secondary (S) waves: They are recorded on a seismogram after the P) waves. These are also called traverse or shake waves (S). These are distortional waves as the particles vibrate at right angles to the direction of the movement of the waves. The velocity of the secondary waves varies form 3 to 7 kms per second. They can travel through the interior and outer layer of the earth but cannot be transmitted by liquids.

3. Surface waves: These are also described as Long waves (L). The ‘L’ waves travel along the surface of the earth and are recorded after ‘P’ and ‘S’ waves. Their speed is 4 kms. The surface waves are most destructive as they vibrate much.

Question 5.
How does a Volcano erupt? Explain the types of Volcanoes. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
A volcano is an opening in the crust of the Earth through which heated materials consisting of gases, hot water, lava and fragments of rocks are ejected from the interior of the Earth. A passage in the earth’s crust through which magma and other volcanic materials are ejected is called Vent’. The funnel shaped hollow at the top of the cone of a volcano is called ‘Crater’. A large basin shaped crater bounded by steep sides is known as ‘Caldera’.
Types of Volcano: On the basis of periodicity or frequency of eruption, volcanoes are classified into three types.

a. Active Volcanoes: Volcanoes which constantly eject solid, liquid and gaseous materials are known as active volcanoes, e.g. Mt. Etna in Sicily and Stromboli of Italy, Mauna Loa.

b. Dormant Volcanoes: Volcanoes which become quiet after eruption shows no indications of further future eruptions, but erupt again after a long period very violently is called Dormant Volcanoes. These volcanoes cause enormous damage to human life and property.

c. Extinct volcanoes are volcanoes which have not been active for considerable period of time .There are no possibilities of future eruption in these volcanoes. These volcanoes are also called Sleeping or Dead volcanoes. Narcondum, Vesuvius and Krakatoa are examples of extinct volcanoes.

Question 6.
Explain the distribution of volcanoes:
Answer:
The volcanoes of the world are found certain areas. They are closely related to regions of folding and faulting and are found near the sea coast and islands. Most of the volcanoes are found in three belts:

i. Circum pacific belt
ii. Mid continental belt
iii. Mid Atlantic belt.

i. Circum pacific belt: The greatest concentration of volcanoes is found in this belt. It accounts for about two thirds of the world’s volcanoes. So it is also known as “Pacific ring of fire”. This belt starts form New Zealand, continues northwards into New Guinea, Indonesia, Philippines, coastal china, Japan, Kamchatka and Aleutian islands.

ii. Mid continental belt: This belt consist of Italy, Spain, France, Greece, turkey, Iran, Baluchistan, Myanmar and finally ends inn the eastern part of India.

iii. Mid Atlantic Belt: It includes the western part of India and islands east Atlantic Ocean. It extends form ice land t St. Helena including Madeira, Ascension Island, Cape Verde islands, Canary Island, St. Vincent and Azores. Besides a few volcanoes are also found in the Indian ocean-Mauritius Madagascar and in the rift valley region of Africa, consisting ofKilimanjaro.

Question 7.
Explain the materials of the volcanoes.
Answer:
Three types of volcanic materials are distinguished as Liquid, sold and gaseous materials.

1. The liquid material: Lava is the most important liquid material ejected by volcanoes.
The molten rock material is called “Magma” below other earth’s surface, while it is called lava when it reaches the earth’s surface. There’are two main types of lava-acid lava and basic lava.

2. Solid materials: It consists of volcanic dust, volcanic ash, cinder, volcanic bombs and large angular fragments. The finest particles thrown out by volcanoes are called ‘volcanic dust’. They are grey in color and very light in weight. The molten lava shoots up to the sky at the time of explosion.

Then it cools and solidifies into round mass before falling to the earth. It is called “volcanic bomb’. Small lava fragments are thrown out by a volcano during eruption and are known as “lapilli or pumice’. These are angular in shape and as big as finger joints. The smaller fragments of lava smaller than lapilli are like peas and are called “volcanic ash” or ‘Cinder’. The solid angular fragments which are bigger than lapilil are known as ‘Breccia’.

3. Gaseous Material: A variety of gaseous mixture comes out of a volcano, accompanied by liquid and solid materials, e.g. Vapour, hydrogen, carbon dioxide, sulphur, ammonium chloride etc. But vapour or steam is the most important. Sometimes huge amount of steam is thrown out to form dark clouds above the crater, like a ‘cauliflower’ in shape, it may bring heavy downpour of rain.

Question 8.
Explain the causes and effects of volcanoes.
Answer:
In ancient times, Greeks believed that volcanic eruptions were due to anger of Goddess ‘Vulcan’, living under the Mt.Vulcan (Lipari Islands near Sicili of Italy). People thought that volcano was the mountain of fire.
Causes of Volcano: The volcanic eruptions are closely associated with various causes.

• Gases and water vapour formed due to heating of underground water.
• Movement and breaking of major and minor plates of the Earth.
• Ascent of magma forced by excess pressure.
• The temperature inside the Earth increases with the increasing depth 1°C per 32m).
• Formation of magma because of increase in temperature and reduction in pressure.

Effects of volcanoes:

• Volcanoes are natural hazard and disaster which cause extensive damage to life and property.
• Volcanoes cause damage to agricultural fields, industries, dwellings, buildings, roads, railways, airports, dams, reservoirs etc.
• Volcanoes cause diversion of river course and flooding of water.
• Volcanic dust, ash and smoke cause air pollution.
• Volcanic eruption sometimes produce seismic waves.

Question 9.
What is a rock? Describe the different types of rocks. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Rock refers to the hard and resistant materials of the earth’s crust. But scientifically rock includes even soft and loose materials like chalk, clay, etc. So, rock refers to any solid materials, hard or soft of which the crust of the earth is formed. All rocks do not have the same chemical composition. But minerals have their own chemical compost in and physical prosperities. .The earth’s crust is made up of various types of rocks

Types of Rocks: Rocks can be classified into three major groups on the basis of their origin or mode of formation. They are:

A. Igneous rocks: The term Igneous is derived from the Latin word “Ignis”, means lire. Thus the igneous rocks are formed by the cooling and solidification of molten material which is called magma. Igneous rocks are also called primary rocks, because they were the firs to be formed. As they are the rocks from which all other types of rocks are derived, they are also called parent rocks.
Igneous rocks are commonly classified on the basis of mode of formation into two major types.

i. Intrusive rocks
ii. Extrusive rocks.

I. Intrusive rocks: The magma cannpt escape out to the earth’s surface, it cols slowly inside the earth’s crust and hardens into rock. This type of rock is known as Intrusive Igneous rock. E.g. Granite and dolerite. These rocks can be divided into two type’s a. Plutonic rocks and b. Hybabyssal rocks.

a. Plutonic rocks: The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at great depth inside the earth are called Plutonic igneous rocks.
b. Hybabyssal rocks: These are intermediate rocks between the extruded volcanic rocks and the deep plutonic rocks. They are formed due to cooling and solidification of magma in cracks, pores, crevices etc.

II. Extrusive rocks: Rocks formed by cooling and solidification of lava on the surface of the Earth is called extrusive igneous rocks. E.g. Basalt.

B. Sedimentary Rocks: These rocks which are formed due to aggregation and compactness
of sediments are known as sedimentary. In other words, sedimentary rocks are formed bye day the deposition of sediments derived form older rocks, planets and animals remains by river, winds, glaciers etc and these sediments are hardened into rocks by pressure. As they are formed by the consolidation of sediments. They are called sedimentary rocks. They are also called stratified rocks,

a. Mechanically-formed rocks: The rock which have been formed form the accumulation of rock materials, derived form other rocks and have been cemented together are known as “ Mechanically formed rocks.” The mechanically formed rocks consist of sediments which have been carried and deposited by rivers, glaciers, winds or waves and cemented together with clay or line. On the basis of rock materials. These rocks can be divided into three main categories. They are: Rudaceous rocks, Arernaceous rocks and Argilious rocks.

b. Chemically formed rocks: The chemical often settle down and hardened to form rocks known as chemically formed rocks. For example: Gypsum and rock salt, running water dissolves and carries chemicals and where evaporation takes place, these chemicals are deposited at the mouth of springs, caves or caverns or in lakes. Rock salt and gypsum are formed form deposit of salt in strata on the beds of lakes.

c. Organically formed rocks: Organic rocks are formed form the remains of organisms, i.e. of animals and plants. Examples: coal, limestone etc. On the basis of lime and carbon content, organically formed rocks can be divided into two kinds, namely.

(i) Calcareous rocks: Calcareous rocks are formed mostly from the remains of living organisms. These rocks contain calcium carbonate or lime. They include limestoneand chalk. They are porous and soluble.

(ii) Carbonaceous rocks: These are formed due to the transformation of vegetative matter. Under the impact of heat and pressure the remains of plants are turned into hard layers. E.g. coal.

C. Metamorphic rocks: Rock which has been changes either in form or in composition without disintegration is called metamorphic rocks. These rocks are metamorphosed from igneous sedimentary rocks. Igneous and sedimentary rocks may undergo chemical and physical changes because of pressure and heat and form metamorphic rocks. The intense heat and pressure in the earth’s curst alters the composition and appearance of rocks completely or partially to produce a new type of rocks. In this manner metamorphic. rocks are formed. Marble, Diamond, Quartzite, Ruby, Emerald are the examples of metamorphic rock.

Question 10.
Explain the uses of rocks.
Answer:

• Rocks are one of the most valuable resources to mankind.
• The sedimentary rocks are the chief sources of petroleum and coal
• The metallic minerals are associated with the igneous rocks. The minerals of great economic value are iron ore, nickel, copper, lead, zinc, chromate, manganese, and rare materials like gold, silver and platinum.
• Under tropical conditions the sedimentary rocks also contain reserves of Bauxite, tin and manganese.
• Even metamorphic rocks like marble and precious minerals like gems, rubies, Graphite are most valuable.
• Rocks are also essentially required as a raw material for construction works.
• Further decaying of rocks forms soils.
• The chemical composition as well as physical properties of soil is directly related to the parental rocks. The fertility of the soils is much determined by the rocks. As such rocks also influence agricultural activities of man.

Question 11.
Explain the types of sedimentary rocks?
Answer:
The rocks which are formed due to aggregation and compactness of sediments are known as “sedimentary rocks.” According to their origin and composition, sedimentary rocks can be divided into two main categories. They are:

1. Inorganic rocks: Inorganic rocks are rocks formed from mineral matter which has been obtained by disintegration or decomposition of rocks. Inorganic rocks can be divided into two types. They are

a. Mechanically-formed rocks: The rock which have been formed form the accumulation of rock materials, derived form other rocks and have been cemented together are known as “ Mechanically formed rocks.” The mechanically formed rocks consist of sediments which have been carried and deposited by rivers, glaciers, winds or waves and cemented – together with clay or line. On the basis of rock materials, these rocks can be divided into three main categories. They are:

1. Rudaceous rocks
2. Arernaceous rocks
3. Argilious rocks

i. Rudaceous rocks: Rudaceous rocks are formed due to cementation and consolidation of pebbles and boulders. Rudaceous rocks consist of rock pieces and grave, cemented together, by clay or line. They are porous and can hold water. If the rock pieces are angular in shape and cemented together, they are called breccias. If the rock pieces are rounded and cemented tighter, they are called conglomerate.

ii. Arenaceous rocks: These are formed mainly due to deposition, CQmmentating and consolidation of sane grains e.g. Sand stone.

iii. argillaceous rocks: These rocks are formed largely by fine clay particles e..g. Shale or mudstone these are impermeable.

B. Chemically formed rocks: The chemical often settle down and hardened to form rocks known as chemically formed rocks. For example: Gypsum and rock salt, running water dissolves and carries chemicals and where evaporation takes place, these chemicals are deposited at the mouth of springs, caves or caverns or in lakes. Rock salt and gypsum are formed form deposit of salt in strata on the beds of lakes.

C. Organic Rocks: Organic rocks are formed form the remains of organisms, i.e. of animals and plants. Examples: coal, limestone etc. On the basis of lime and carbon content, organically formed rocks can be divided into two kinds, namely.

a. Calcareous rocks: Calcareous rocks are formed mostly from the remains of living organisms. These rocks contain calcium carbonate or lime. They include limestone and chalk. They are porous and soluble.

b. Carbonaceous rocks: These are formed due to the transformation of Vegetative . matter. Under the impact of heat and pressure the remains of plants are turned into hard layers. E.g. coal.

Question 12.
What is a mineral? Explain the types of minerals. (T. B. Qn)
Answer:
Mineral is a natural inorganic substance which has certain chemical and physical properties. The scientific study of minerals is called Mineralogy. Minerals are used by man for various human activities. Understanding them minerals their types and uses is very important as natural resources of the earth.

Types: Minerals are classified into different types on the basis of nature, texture, and sues. Important among them are,

1. Metallic Minerals: These minerals are not in metallic form and they do not contain metal. A few non-metallic minerals are Mica, Asbestos, Sulphur, lead, Zinc, Phosphate etc.
2. Non-Metallic Minerals: These minerals are not in metallic form and they do not contain metal. A few non-metallic minerals are Mica, Asbestos, Sulphur, Lead, Zinc, Phosphate etc.

Minerals are also classified into other types.
Ferrous minerals which contain Iron e.g. Iron Ore. Non-ferrous minerals – these minerals do not contain ferrous e.g. Bauxite, Mica. – A few minerals are used for making decorative, commercial and precious ornaments are called Precious minerals. E.g. Platinum, Diamond, Gold and Silver. Some minerals are use for the generation of energy. They are Nuclear or atomic minerals e.g. Uranium, Thorium etc.

1st PUC Geography Interior of the Earth Ten Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Explain the landforms created by volcanoes?
Answer:
Various types of landforms are produced by the volcanoes. They can be grouped into

1. Extrusive landforms
2. Intrusive landforms

1. Extrusive landforms: The landforms which have been formed due to the accumulation and solidification of lava and other materials given out by volcanoes are known as extrusive landforms. The important extrusive land forms are:

a. Volcanic cones: volcanic cones are the most typical form of extrusive features or landforms.

The lava and other ejected materials that reach the surface of the earth are accumulated around the crater, and cones are formed. The formation of cones depends jupon the nature of explosion and the materials emitted out of it. There fore, cones are various types. They are:

• Cinder cones: A volcanic cone formed by volcanic cinder accumulated around the crates is called cinder cone.
• Ash cone: A cone shaped hill formed by of volcanic ash that is built up around a volcanic ent is called ash cone.
• Composite cone: A volcanic cone composed of alternative layers of ash, cinder and lava is called composite cone.
• Parasite cone: Some times, many smaller cones are developed in the neighborhood of the main cone. They are called parasite cone.

b. Crater: A crater is pit at the top of volcanic vent, during volcanic eruption, materials form the top of the cone are blown off and a bowl- shaped depression is formed. It is known as crater.
Caldera: Sometime a violent explosion blow away the original cone and forms a large basin-shaped depression called caldera
Volcanic spine: The acid lava, which is vicious, solidifies quickly and blocks the vent. This stands up as a steep-sided cone called spine or plug.
Lava dome: The shape of lava dome is determined by the nature of lava. The highly fluid basic lava builds up shield dome with gently rising slopes, and flattened top. The basic lava, which is highly viscous, builds up dome with a great height and steep slope
Lava plateau: An extensive elevated land made up of depositional lava called lava plateau.

2. Intrusive land forms: Intrusive landforms occur when lava solidifies with the earth’s. crust and gives rise to various shapes or forms. Intrusive landforms are formed along the bedding planes of sedimentary rocks. There are various forms of intrusive landforms. They are:

Dyke: The Magma from the interior of the earth finds its way towards the surface through a passage. When it is able to reach the surface, it cools and solidifies, and a vertical or highly inclined feature is formed, and such a features is called dyke.
Sill: A sheet of magma which lies along the bedding plan is called sill.
Laccolith: Laccolith is a large mound of igneous rock formed along a bedding plane in the sedimentary rock layers.
Batholith: Batholith is a very large dome – shaped intrusion of igneous rock. It is exposed to the surface only after considerable erosion.

Hot springs or thermal spring’s are more common. The water sinks deep inside where the rocks are heated. The heated water rises to the surface without any explosion. Such springs contain dissolved minerals which are of medicinal value. They can be also used to generate electricity. Iceland has thousands of hot springs. A Geyser is a hot spring form which a column of hot water and stream are alternatively ejected to a great height.

You can Download Chapter 11 कबीरदास के दोहे Questions and Answers Pdf, Notes, Summary, 1st PUC Hindi Textbook Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Textbook Answers Sahitya Vaibhav Chapter 11 कबीरदास के दोहे

कबीरदास के दोहे Questions and Answers, Notes, Summary

I. एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए:

प्रश्न 1.
किसके प्रताप से सब दुःख दर्द मिटते हैं?
उत्तर:
सद्गुरु के प्रताप से सब दुःख दर्द मिटते हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
कबीर के गुरु कौन थे?
उत्तर:
कबीर के गुरु रामानंद थे।

प्रश्न 3.
कबीर किस पर बलिहारी होते हैं?
उत्तर:
कबीर गुरु पर बलिहारी होते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
माटी कुम्हार से क्या कहती है?
उत्तर:
माटी कुम्हार से कहती है, तू मुझे क्यों रौंदता करता है? एक दिन ऐसा होगा कि जब मैं तुझे रौदूंगी।

प्रश्न 5.
किसको पास रखना चाहिए?
उत्तर:
निंदकों को पास रखना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 6.
कस्तूरी कहाँ बसती है?
उत्तर:
कस्तूरी मृग की नाभि में बसती है।

प्रश्न 7.
कबीर किसकी राह देखते हैं?
उत्तर:
कबीर भगवान राम की राह देखते हैं।

प्रश्न 8.
क्रोध किसके समान है?
उत्तर:
क्रोध मृत्यु के समान हैं।

प्रश्न 9.
दुःख में मनुष्य क्या करता है?
उत्तर:
दुःख में मनुष्य भगवान का स्मरण करता है।

प्रश्न 10.
कबीरदास के अनुसार किसकी जाति नहीं पूछनी चाहिए?
उत्तर:
कबीरदास के अनुसार साधु (सज्जन) की जाति नहीं पूछनी चाहिए।

अतिरिक्त प्रश्नः

प्रश्न 11.
गुरु के मिलने से कबीर की क्या मिट गयी?
उत्तर:
गुरु के मिलने से कबीर की दुविधा मिट गयी।

प्रश्न 12.
कबीर के दोनों ओर कौन खड़े हैं?
उत्तर:
कबीर के दोनों ओर गुरू और गोविंद खड़े हैं।

प्रश्न 13.
एक दिन माटी किसे रौंदेगी?
उत्तर:
एक दिन माटी तुझे (मनुष्य के अहंकार को) रौंदेगी।

प्रश्न 14.
निन्दक की कुटी कहाँ बनानी चाहिए?
उत्तर:
निन्दक की कुटी घर के आँगन में बनानी चाहिए।

प्रश्न 15.
स्वभाव किसके बिना निर्मल हो सकता है?
उत्तर:
स्वभाव बिना साबुन और बिना पानी के निर्मल हो सकता है।

प्रश्न 16.
मृग बन में क्या ढूँढ़ता है?
उत्तर:
मृग बन में कस्तूरी ढूँढ़ता है।

प्रश्न 17.
घटि घटि क्या है?
उत्तर:
घटि घटि में भगवान राम हैं।

प्रश्न 18.
जहाँ दया है, वहाँ क्या है?
उत्तर:
जहाँ दया है, वहाँ धर्म है।

प्रश्न 19.
लोभ किसके समान है?
उत्तर:
लोभ पाप के समान है।

प्रश्न 20.
पल में क्या हो जाएगा?
उत्तर:
पल में परलै (प्रलय – सर्वनाश) हो जाएगा।

प्रश्न 21.
साधु से क्या पूछना चाहिए?
उत्तर:
साधु से ज्ञान पूछना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 22.
किसका मोल करना चाहिए?
उत्तर:
तलवार का मोल करना चाहिए।

II. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिएः

प्रश्न 1.
गुरु की महिमा के बारे में कबीर क्या कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
गुरु की महिमा के बारे में कबीर कहते हैं कि गुरु के प्रताप से सब दुःख दर्द मिट जाते हैं। वह बड़ा भाग्यशाली है कि उसे रामानंद जैसे गुरु मिले। गुरु भगवान से बढ़कर हैं क्योंकि उन तक पहुंचने का मार्ग गुरु ही बताते हैं। अतः कबीर कहते हैं कि अगर गुरु और गोविन्द दोनों उसके सामने हो तो वह गोविन्द (भगवान) से पहले गुरु को ही प्रणाम करेंगे।

प्रश्न 2.
जीवन की नश्वरता के बारे में कबीर के क्या विचार हैं?
उत्तर:
जीवन की नश्वरता के बारे में कबीरदास कहते हैं कि यह मनुष्य जीवन क्षण-भंगुर है। इसलिए इसके प्रति अहंकार नहीं करना चाहिए। जो कुम्हार मिट्टी को रौंदता है, उससे मिट्टी कहती है- तू मुझे क्यों रौंदता है? एक दिन वह भी आयेगा, जब तू मर जायेगा, तो इसी मिट्टी में तुम्हें गाड़ दिया जाएगा। तब मैं तुझे रौंदूंगी। अतः मानुष-तन का गर्व नहीं करना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 3.
दया और धर्म के महत्व का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
दया और धर्म ये दोनों अच्छे गुण या आचरण हैं। जहाँ दया होती है, वहाँ धर्म भी होता है और जहाँ लोभ (लालच) होता है, वहाँ पाप होता है। इसी प्रकार जहाँ क्रोध होता है, वहाँ काल या मृत्यु होती है और जहाँ क्षमा होती है, वहाँ ईश्वर होते हैं। अतः ईश्वर की प्राप्ति के लिए दया और क्षमा को अपनाना चाहिए, लोभ व क्रोध को त्यागना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 4.
समय के सदुपयोग के बारे में कबीर क्या कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
समय के सदुपयोग के बारे में कबीरदास कहते हैं कि हमें जो काम कल करना है, उसे आज ही कर लेना चाहिए और जो आज करना है, वह अभी कर लेना चाहिए। क्योंकि कल क्या होगा, किसने जाना? पल भर में प्रलय हो सकता है, फिर कब करोगे? बाद में पछताने से क्या होगा?

प्रश्न 5.
कबीर के अनुसार ज्ञान का क्या महत्व है?
उत्तर:
कबीरदास ज्ञान का महत्व प्रतिपादित करते हुए कहते हैं कि साधु की कभी जाति नहीं पूछनी चाहिए। यदि पूछना ही है, तो उसके ज्ञान के बारे में चर्चा कर सकते हैं। हमें खरीदनी है तलवार, तो तलवार का मूल्य जानना है, नाकि तलवार को रखने के म्यान का। अतः ज्ञान को महत्व देना चाहिए।

अतिरिक्त प्रश्नः

प्रश्न 6.
गुरु और गोविंद में से कबीर किसे चुनना चाहते हैं और क्यों?
उत्तर:
कबीर कहते हैं कि अगर गुरु और परमात्मा दोनों एक साथ खड़े हैं तो मैं सबसे पहले गुरु को चुनूँगा। क्योंकि गुरु ने ही मुझे परमात्मा के दर्शन कराये हैं। परमात्मा के दर्शन तो गुरु के उपदेश और उनकी कृपा के द्वारा ही होते हैं।

प्रश्न 7.
कबीर के अनुसार निन्दक को क्यों पास रखना चाहिए?
उत्तर:
कबीर के अनुसार निंदक को सदा अपने समीप रखना चाहिए क्योंकि उसके द्वारा निन्दा होने के भय से हम कोई बुरा कार्य नहीं करेंगे। निंदकों की निंदा-भरी बाते सुन-सुनकर हमें आत्मसुधार करने का मौका मिलेगा।

प्रश्न 8.
कस्तूरी मृग के द्वारा कबीर कौन सी सीख देते हैं?
उत्तर:
कस्तूरी मृग की नाभि में सुगंध होती है लेकिन वह उसे जंगल में खोजता फिरता है। उसी तरह लोग भी ईश्वर को मन्दिर-मस्जिद में खोजते फिरते है लेकिन ईश्वर तो सबके हृदय में निवास करता है। कबीर कहते हैं हमें ईश्वर को बाहर नहीं भीतर खोजना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 9.
राम मिलन के बारे में कबीर के विचार स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
राम मिलन के बारे में कबीर कहते हैं- मैं तुम्हारा नाम रटती हुई बहुत दिनों से तुम्हारी राह देख रही हूँ। तुमसे मिले बिना मेरे मन को शांति नहीं है।

प्रश्न 10.
कबीर ने राम स्मरण का कौनसा सही मार्ग समझाया है?
उत्तर:
कबीर राम स्मरण के बारे में बताते हुए कहते हैं कि हमें राम का स्मरण सुख और दुःख में सदैव समान भाव से करना चाहिए। लेकिन लोग उल्टा करते हैं। जब दुःख आता है तभी भगवान को याद करते हैं। कबीर कहते हैं- यदि हम सुख में भी भगवान को याद करेंगे, उनकी भक्ति करेंगे तो दुःख हमारे निकट कभी आएगा ही नहीं।

III. ससंदर्भ भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए:

प्रश्न 1.
माटी कहै कुम्हार से, तू क्या रौंदे मोय।
इक दिन ऐसो होयगो, मैं रौंदुंगी तोय॥
उत्तर:
प्रसंग : प्रस्तुत दोहा हमारी पाठ्य पुस्तक ‘साहित्य वैभव’ के ‘कबीरदास के दोहे’ से लिया गया है। इसके रचयिता कबीरदास हैं।
संदर्भ : प्रस्तुत दोहे में कबीरदास जी हमें यह संदेश देते हैं कि दुनिया नश्वर है। हमें किसी चीज का घमंड या अहंकार नहीं करना चाहिए।
स्पष्टीकरण : कवि मनुष्य के अहंकार तथा क्षणभंगुर जीवन के बारे में कहते हैं कि – मिट्टी कुम्हार से कहती है कि तू मुझे क्यों रौंदता है? इतना क्यों अहंकार करता है? एक दिन वह भी आएगा, जब मैं तुझे रौंदूंगी, तब तुम्हारा अहंकार कहाँ रहेगा? हे मानव! अहंकार मत कर। यह जीवन क्षणभंगुर है। मिट्टी का मानव मिट्टी में मिल जाएगा। यानी मनुष्य अपनी मृत्यु के बाद मिट्टी में ही मिल जाता है। इससे मनुष्य जीवन के अस्थायी होने का परिचय मिलता है।

प्रश्न 2.
निंदक नियरे राखिये, आँगन कुटी छबाय।
बिन पानी, साबुन बिना निर्मल करै सुभाय॥
उत्तर:
प्रसंग : प्रस्तुत दोहा हमारी पाठ्य पुस्तक ‘साहित्य वैभव’ के ‘कबीरदास के दोहे’ से लिया गया है। इसके रचयिता कबीरदास हैं।
संदर्भ : यहाँ कबीर कहते हैं कि आलोचना करने वाले का हमें सदैव सम्मान करना चाहिए।
स्पष्टीकरण : कबीर के अनुसार हमें अपनी निंदा करनेवाले अर्थात आलोचना करनेवाले को अपने समीप रखना चाहिए। हमें उसकी कड़वी, बुरी लगनेवाली बातों से नाराज नहीं होना चाहिए। कड़वी लगने वाली बातों में हमारी भलाई की, हमारे कल्याण का भाव निहित होता है। कबीर कहते हैं ऐसे व्यक्ति को घर में जगह देनी चाहिए। उसके पास रहने से हमको यह लाभ होगा कि वह बिना पानी-साबुन के हमारे स्वभाव को स्वच्छ बना देगा अर्थात् हम उसके द्वारा निन्दा होने के डर से कोई बुरा कार्य नहीं करेंगे। आशय यह है कि निंदको की निंदा भरी बातें सुन-सुनकर हमें
आत्मसुधार करने का मौका मिलता है।

प्रश्न 3.
कस्तूरी कुंडलि बसै, मृग ढूँढे बन मांहि।
ऐसे घटि घटि राम हैं, दुनिया देखै नांहि॥
उत्तर:
प्रसंग : प्रस्तुत दोहा हमारी पाठ्य पुस्तक ‘साहित्य वैभव’ के ‘कबीरदास के दोहे’ से लिया गया है। इसके रचयिता कबीरदास हैं।
संदर्भ : यहाँ कबीरदास जी कहते हैं कि हमें प्रत्येक प्राणी के साथ प्रेमपूर्वक व्यवहार करना चाहिए, सच्ची भक्ति के साथ जीवन को सार्थक बनाना चाहिए, क्योंकि वही सच्ची भक्ति है।
स्पष्टीकरण : संत कवि कहते हैं कि मनुष्य ईश्वर को पाने के लिए इधर-उधर भटकता है, जब कि ईश्वर उसी के अन्दर या उसी के पास है। जैसे कि – कस्तूरी मृग की नाभि में ही है, पर मृग नहीं जानता और भ्रमित होकर सारे वन में उसे ढूँढ़ता फिरता है। इसी प्रकार घट-घट में राम समाया हुआ है, पर मानव उसे भ्रम के कारण देख नहीं पाता।

प्रश्न 4.
दुःख में सुमिरन सब करे, सुख में करै न कोय।
जो सुख में सुमिरन करे, तो दुःख काहे होय॥
उत्तर:
प्रसंग : प्रस्तुत दोहा हमारी पाठ्य पुस्तक ‘साहित्य वैभव’ के ‘कबीरदास के दोहे’ से लिया गया है। इसके रचयिता कबीरदास हैं।
संदर्भ : यहाँ कबीरदास जी कहते हैं कि ईश्वर का हमेशा स्मरण करते रहना चाहिए।
स्पष्टीकरण : कबीरदास के अनुसार हम दुःख-तकलीफ में ईश्वर को याद करते है परन्तु सुख में ईश्वर को भूल जाते है। मनुष्य केवल अपने स्वार्थ के लिए ईश्वर को याद करता है। कबीर का मत है कि जिस दिन मनुष्य सुख में ईश्वर का ध्यान करेगा उस दिन से उसे दुःख का सामना नहीं करना पड़ेगा। ईश्वर के स्मरण से मिलने वाली शक्ति द्वारा उसका दुःख सुख में परिवर्तित हो जायेगा।

कबीरदास के दोहे कवि परिचयः

संत काव्यधारा के सर्वाधिक प्रतिभाशाली एवं भक्तिकालीन निर्गुण भक्ति के प्रवर्तक कबीरदास का जन्म काशी में सन् 1399 में हुआ। नीरु एवं नीमा नामक जुलाहा दंपति ने आपका पालनपोषण किया। कबीर अनपढ़ थे किन्तु वे आत्मज्ञानी थे। रामानंद जी की शिक्षाओं से प्रभावित कबीरदास जी को कुछ लोग रामानन्द का ही शिष्य मानते हैं। एक दूसरा मत उन्हें सूफी सिद्धांत के प्रतिपादक शेख तकी का शिष्य मानता है। आपने हिन्दू-मुस्लिम एकता, भौतिक एवं आत्मिक परिष्कार, शुद्ध प्रेम, सच्चाई, सादगी आदि पर बल दिया। आपकी मृत्यु सन् 1518 में मगहर नामक स्थान में हुआ।

कबीरदास की रचनाएँ तीन भागों में विभक्त हैं- साखी, सबद और रमैनी जो ‘बीजक’ नामक ग्रंथ में संकलित है। कबीर की भाषा को प्रायः ‘खिचडी भाषा’ या ‘सधुक्कड़ी भाषा’ कहा जाता है जिसमें ब्रज, अवधी, राजस्थानी, अरबी, फारसी आदि के शब्द पाये जाते हैं। आप के प्रमुख शिष्य धर्मदास जी ने ‘बीजक’ का संग्रह किया था।
प्रस्तुत दोहों में कबीर ने गुरु-महिमा, शरीर की नश्वरता, परमात्मा की सर्वव्यापकता, भक्तिभावना एवं नीतिपरक उपदेश आदि गुणों पर प्रकाश डाला है।

दोहे का भावार्थः

1) सद्गुरु के परताप तैं मिटि गया सब दुःख दर्द।
कह कबीर दुविधा मिटी, गुरु मिलिया रामानंद ॥ १ ॥

कबीरदास इस दोहे में गुरु की महिमा का वर्णन करते हुए कहते हैं कि सच्चे गुरु के मिल जाने से सारे दुःख-दर्द मिट गए हैं। कबीर के अनुसार जब उन्हें रामानंद जैसे सच्चे (सद्गुरु) गुरु मिल गये, तो उनकी सारी दुविधाएँ (कठिनाइयाँ) मिट गईं।

In this couplet, Kabir elaborates upon the generosity and greatness of a guru and says that upon finding a real guru, all pain and suffering will vanish. According to Kabir, when he found the real guru such as his own guru Ramanand, all his troubles and difficulties vanished.

शब्दार्थ :

• परताप – तेज, प्रभुत्व;
• तें – से;
• दुविधा – संशय, असमंजस;
• मिटि गया – दूर हो गया।

2) गुरु गोविन्द दोऊ खड़े, काके लागूं पायँ।
बलिहारी गुरु आपने, जिन गोविन्द दियो बताय ॥ २॥

गुरु और परमात्मा दोनों एक ही साथ खड़े हुए हैं, इन दोनों में से मैं किसको प्रणाम करूँ? हे गुरु, मैं आप पर न्योछावर होता हूँ। क्योंकि आपने मुझे परमात्मा के दर्शन कराये हैं। अर्थात् परमात्मा के दर्शन गुरु के उपदेश और उनकी कृपा के द्वारा ही होते हैं। इसलिए गुरु की परमात्मा से भी अधिक महत्ता है।

Here, Kabir explains the importance of a guru. If one were to find both the guru and God standing before him/her, who should one bow to first? Kabir says that if both guru and Govind (God) stood before him, he would first fall at the feet of the guru. He explains this by saying that guru is greater than God, because guru is the one who shows us the path to God.

शब्दार्थ :

• काके – किसके;
• बलिहारी – न्योछावर होना, कुरबान करना;
• दोऊ – दोनों।

3) माटी कहै कुम्हार से, तू क्या रौंदे मोय।
इक दिन ऐसो होयगो, मैं रौंदूंगी तोय ॥ ३॥

इस दोहे में कबीरदास मनुष्य के अहंकार के बारे में कहते हैं। माटी कुम्हार से कहती है- तू मुझे क्यों रौंद रहा है? एक दिन ऐसा आएगा, जब मैं तुझे रौंदूंगी। अर्थात् जन्म लेनेवाला यह मनुष्य एक दिन मिट्टी में मिल जाएगा।

In this couplet, Kabir comments on the arrogance and egoistic nature of man. The mud asks the potter why he is trampling upon it, and what he is trying to gain. The mud warns the potter that a day will come when he will be trampled upon by the mud. Kabir implies that when man dies he will be buried in the earth to become one with it, and therefore, one must not be too egoistic in life.

शब्दार्थ :

• माटी – मिट्टी;
• रौंदना – पैरों से कुचलना, दबाना
• मोये – मुझे;
• तोये – तुझे;
• कुम्हार – मिट्टी के बर्तन बनानेवाला
• होयगो – होगा।

4) निंदक नियरे राखिये, आँगन कुटी छबाय।
बिन पानी, साबुन बिना निर्मल करै सुभाय ॥४॥

अपने निंदक को सदा अपने समीप रखो। हो सके तो अपने आँगन में ही एक कुटिया बनवा दो। उसके पास रहने से हमको यह लाभ होगा कि वह बिना पानी और साबुन के हमारे स्वभाव को स्वच्छ बना देगा अर्थात् हम उसके द्वारा निन्दा होने के भय से कोई बुरा कार्य नहीं करेंगे। आशय यह है कि निंदकों की निंदा-भरी बाते सुन-सुनकर हमें आत्मसुधार करने का मौका मिलेगा।

Here, Kabir explains the importance of criticism. We always try to keep our most vocal critics at a distance. Kabir says that we must always keep the people who criticize us, close to us. He says that they are the ones who help us clean ourselves without soap or water. What Kabir intends to say is that when someone criticizes us, they help us to see our mistakes which we often overlook. When we are aware of our mistakes, we can rectify them. Thus, without soap or water, our critics help us clean our mind and heart. They help us correct ourselves and hence, we must always keep them close to us.

शब्दार्थ :

• नियरे – पास;
• राखिये – रख लीजिए;
• छबाय – बनाकर;
• सुभाय – स्वभाव

5) कस्तूरी कुंडली बसै, मृग ढूंढे बन मांहि|
ऐसे घटि घटि राम हैं, दुनिया देखै नांहि ॥५॥

कस्तूरी नामक सुगंधित वस्तु मृग की नाभि में ही होती है, परन्तु वह उसे जंगल में खोजता फिरता है। उसी प्रकार ईश्वर सबके हृदय में निवास करता है, परन्तु लोग उसे देख नहीं पाते।

In this couplet, Kabir explains about the omnipresence of God. He says that musk is located in the navel of a deer. However, the deer searches for musk in the forest, due to its ignorance. Similarly, Kabir says that God resides in each one of us. God is present everywhere, but the whole world is blind to this fact. Kabir uses the example of the deer to tell us that people all over the world search for God, without realizing the fact that God is everywhere.

शब्दार्थ :

• कुंडली – नाभी;
• मृग – हिरन;
• बन – जंगल;
• घटि घटि – कण कण में

6) बहुत दिनन की जोवती, बाट तुम्हारी राम।
जिव तरसै तुझ मिलन कूँ, मनि नाहीं विश्राम ||೯||

मैं तुम्हारा नाम रटती हुई बहुत दिनों से अर्थात् न जाने कब से तुम्हारे आने का मार्ग देख रही हूँ। मन तुमसे मिलने के लिए व्याकुल हो रहा हैं और मन में उसके बिना शांति नहीं है।

Here, Kabir talks about a woman’s devotion and love for Lord Rama. She says that it has been many days since she has been reciting and chanting Lord Rama’s name and that she is looking forward to His arrival. She is impatient to meet with the Lord and until then, her mind is not at peace.

शब्दार्थ :

• दिनन की – दिनों की;
• जोवती – प्रतीक्षा करना, राह देखना, इंतज़ार करना;
• जिव – प्राण;
• कूँ – के लिए;
• मनि – मन;
• तरसै – तरसना;
• बाट – इंतजार, प्रतीक्षा।

7) जहाँ दया तहँ धर्म है, जहाँ लोभ तहँ पाप।
जहाँ क्रोध तहँ काल है, जहाँ छिमा तहँ आप ॥७॥

जहाँ दया है, वहाँ धर्म है और जहाँ लोभ है, वहाँ सदा पाप है। इसी प्रकार जहाँ क्रोध है, वहाँ काल का निवास है और जहाँ क्षमाशील प्राणी है, वहाँ ईश्वर निवास करता है।

Kabir says where there is kindness, there is righteousness and where there is avarice there is sin. Where there is anger, there is calamity, but where there is kindness, there is no vice. There is only God in His perceptible form (kindness and forgiveness, both are great).

शब्दार्थ :

• काल – मृत्यु;
• छिमा – क्षमागुण;
• आप – भगवान।

8) काल करै सो आज कर, आज करै सो अब्ब।
पल में परलै होयगा, बहुरि करैगा कब्ब ॥८॥
कबीर का कहना है कि हमें जो काम कल करना है, उसे आज ही कर लें और जो आज करना है, उसे तुरन्त अभी कर लें क्योंकि इस क्षण-भंगुर संसार का तो कुछ भी निश्चय नहीं है और क्षण भर में प्रलय होने की आशंका है। इस प्रकार प्रलय होने पर तो किसी भी कार्य को करने का अवसर ही न मिलेगा। अतः आज का काम आज ही करना अच्छा है।

Here, Kabir puts forth his most well-known lines. He says that whatever work we have for tomorrow, we must do today and whatever work we have for the present day, we must do it right now, because in this fickle universe nothing is certain except that destruction can happen at any time. In case the world is destroyed, there will be no opportunity to do any of the work that we wished to do. Hence, any work that we intend to do must be done at once.

शब्दार्थ :

• काल – कल;
• परलय – प्रलय, सर्वनाश;
• बहुरि – फिर।

9) दुःख में सुमिरन सब करे, सुख में करै न कोय।
जो सुख में सुमिरन करे, तो दुःख काहे होय ॥९॥

कबीरदास कहते हैं कि मनुष्य जब दुखी होता है तो भगवान का स्मरण करता है और जब सुखी होता है तो भगवान को भूल जाता है। यदि सुख में भी हम भगवान को स्मरण करेंगे, तो दुःख होगा ही क्यों? अर्थात् ईश्वर का हमेशा स्मरण करते रहना चाहिए।

This world is full of selfishness. Everyone in this world remembers God when in distress, but forgets Him when he is happy. Everyone, leading a comfortable life, under the effect of delusions and attachments, forgets Him. If one remembers Him when he is leading a comfortable life, there is no reason why he should be struck by distress. And so, one should remember God under all circumstances, whether he is living a comfortable life or a sorrowful life.

शब्दार्थ :

• सुमिरन – स्मरण;
• काहे – क्यो।

10) जाति न पूछो साधु की, पूछ लीजिये ज्ञान ।
मोल करो तलवार का, पड़ा रहन दो म्यान ॥ १०॥

कबीरदास कहते हैं कि संतजन (साधु) की जाति मत पूछो, यदि पूछना ही है तो उनके ज्ञान के बारे में पूछ लो। तलवार को खरीदते समय सिर्फ तलवार का ही मोल-भाव करो, उस समय . तलवार रखने के कोष को पड़ा रहने दो। उसका मूल्य नहीं किया जाता।

In this couplet, Kabir explains the importance of knowledge. He says that we must not ask an ascetic about his religion or caste; we must, rather, enquire about his knowledge. Similarly, we must give importance to the sharpness of a sword, and not its sheath. Kabir tells us that caste and creed, like the sheath of a sword, are quite unimportant, while knowledge which is akin to the sharpness of the sword, is only of the utmost importance.

शब्दार्थ :

• ग्यान – ज्ञान;
• म्यान – तलवार रखने का कोष