1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics

Students can Download Maths Chapter 15 Statistics Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Maths Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics

Question 1.
Find the mean deviation about the mean for the following data
(i) 6, 7, 10, 12, 13, 4, 8, 12
(ii) 4, 7, 8, 9, 10, 12,13,17
(iii) 38, 70, 48, 40, 42, 55, 63, 46, 54, 44
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 1
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 2

Question 2.
Find the mean deviation about the mean for the data.
12, 3, 18, 17, 4, 9, 17, 19, 20, 15, 8, 17, 2, 3, 16, 11, 3, 1, 0, 5.
Answer:
Try your self.
\(N=20, \bar{x}=10, \Sigma\left|x_{i}-\bar{x}\right|=124, \mathrm{M} \cdot \mathrm{D} \cdot(\bar{x})=6 \cdot 2\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Find the mean deviation about the median for the data:
(i) 13, 17, 16, 14, 11, 13, 10, 16, 11, 18, 12, 17
(ii) 36, 72, 46, 60, 45, 53, 46, 51, 49, 42
(iii) 3, 9, 5, 3, 12, 10, 18, 4, 7, 19, 21
Answer:
(i) Arrange the data in ascending order as
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 3
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 4

Question 4.
Find the mean deviation about the mean for the following data.
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 5
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 6
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 7

1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 8
KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Find the mean deviation about the median for the data,
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 9
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 10
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 11
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 12
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 13
Question 6.
Find the mean deviation about the mean for the following data.
(i)

Income per day Number of persons
0 – 100 4
100 – 200 8
200 – 300 9
300 – 400 10
400 – 500 7
500 – 600 5
600 – 700 4
700 – 800 3

(ii)

Height (cms) Number of boys
95 – 105 9
105 – 115 13
115 – 125 26
125 – 135 30
135 – 145 12
145 – 155 10

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(iii)

Marks obtained Number of students
0 – 10 12
10 – 20 18
20 – 30 27
30 – 40 20
40 – 50 17
50 – 60 6

(iv)

Marks obtained Number of students
10 – 20 2
20 – 30 3
30 – 40 8
40 – 50 14
50 – 60 8
60 – 70 3
70 – 80 2

Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 14

Method (II)
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 15

Method (I)
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 16

Method (ii)
Here a = 130, h = 10
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 17

(iii) Method (I)
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 18

Question 7.
Find the mean deviation about the median for the data:
(i)

Class Frequency
0 – 10 6
10 – 20 7
20 – 30 15
30 – 40 16
40 – 50 4
50 – 60 2

(ii)

Marks Number of Girls
0 – 10 6
10 – 20 8
20 – 30 14
30 – 40 16
40 – 50 4
50 – 60 2

Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 19
(ii)
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 20
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 21
KSEEB Solutions

Question 8.
Calculate the mean deviation about median age for the age distribution of 100 persons given below.

Age Number
16 – 20 5
21 – 25 6
26 – 30 12
31 – 35 14
36 – 40 26
41- 45 12
46 – 50 16
51 – 55 9

Answer:
First, modify the classes to make the data. continuous by subtracting 0.5 from the lower limit and adding 0.5 to the upper limit.
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 22
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 23

Question 9.
Find Mean and variance for each data:
(i) 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 22, 24.
(ii) 6, 7, 10, 12, 13, 4, 8, 12
(iii) First n natural numbers.
(iv) First 10 multiples of 3.
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 24
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 25
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 26
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 27
Question 10.
Find mean and variance.
(i)

xi 6 10 14 18 24 28 30
fi 2 4 7 12 8 4 3

(ii)

xi 92 93 97 98 102 104 109
fi 3 2 3 2 6 3 3

Answer:
(i)
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 28
(ii)
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 29

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
Find the mean and standard deviation using short-cut method.

xi 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
fi 2 1 12 29 25 12 10 4 5

Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 30
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 31

Question 12.
Find the mean and variance
(i)

Class Frequency
0 – 30 2
30 – 60 3
60 – 90 5
90 – 120 10
120 – 150 3
150 – 180 5
180 – 210 2

(ii)

Class Frequency
0 – 10 5
10 – 20 8
20 – 30 15
30 – 40 16
40 – 50 6

Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 32
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 33

Question 13.
Find the mean, variance and standard deviation using short-cut method.

Height (cms) No of Children
70 – 75 3
75 – 80 4
80 – 85 7
85 – 90 7
90 – 95 15
95 – 100 9
100 – 105 6
105 – 110 6
110 – 115 3

Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 34
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 35

Question 14.
The diameters of circles (in mm ) drawn in a design are given below calculate S.D and mean diameter.

Diameter Circles
70 – 75 15
75 – 80 17
80 – 85 21
85 – 90 22
90 – 95 25

Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 36
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 37

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
From the data given below state which group is more variable, A or B?

Marks Group A Group B
10 – 20 9 10
20 – 30 17 20
30 – 40 32 30
40 – 50 33 25
50 – 60 40 143
60 – 70 10 15
70 – 80 9 7

Answer:
We know that, the group having greater C.V.(co-efficient of variation) is said w be more variable than other. So, we compute mean and S.D. for groups A and B.
First we compute mean and S.D. for A.
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 38
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 39
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 40
Clearly, B having greater C. V. than A. Therefore B is more variable.

Note:
For two frequency distributions with equal means, the series with greater S.D. is more variable than the other.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 16.
From the prices of shares X and Y below, find out which is more stable in value.
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 41
Answer:
Here, number of items for both = 10.
First we compute mean and S.D. for x, taking a = 56, N = 10.
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 42
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 43
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 44
Question 17.
An analysis of monthly wages paid to workers in two firms A and B, belonging to the same industry, gives the following results.

A B
No. of wage earners 586 648
Mean of monthly wages (Rs ) 5253 5253
Variance of the distribution of wages 100 121

(i) Which firm A or B pays larger amount as monthly wages?
(ii) Which firm A or B shows greater variability in individual wages?
Answer:
(i) Amount of monthly wages paid by firm A.
= 586 x mean wages
= 586 x 5253 = Rs.3078258
And amount of monthly wages paid by form B
= 648 x mean wages
= 648 x 5253 = Rs. 3403944.
Clearly, firm B pays more wages.
Alternatively,
The variance of wages in A is 100.
∴ S.D. of distribution of wage in A = 10
Also the variance of distribution of wages in firm B is 121.
∴ S.D. of distribution of wages in B = 11.
since the average monthly wages in both firms is same i.e., Rs. 5253, therefore the firm with greater S.D. will have more variability.
‍∴ Firm B pays more wages.

(ii) Firm B with greater S.D. shows greater variability in individual wages.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 18.
Two plants A and B of a factory show following results about the number of workers and the wages paid to them.

A B
No – of workers 5000 6000
Average monthly wages 2500 2500
Variance distribution of wages 81 100

In which plant A or B is there greater variability in individual wages?
Answer:
B. (Try yourself) (Ex. 13 Text book)

Question 19.
The following is the record of goals scored by team A in a football session:
For the team B, mean number of goals scored per match was 2 with a standard deviation 1.25 goals. Find which team may be considered more consistent?
Answer:
First, compute mean number of goals and S.D. for team A.
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 45
Given : Mean number of goals for the team B is 2 and S.D. is 1.25
Since S.D. For A is less than S.D for B.
∴ A is more consistent.

Question 20.
The sum and sum of squares corresponding to length x (in cm) and weight y (in gm) of 50 plant products are given below:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 46
Which is more varying, the length or weight?
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 47

KSEEB Solutions

Question 21.
Co-efficient of variation of two distributions are 60 and 70, and the standard deviations are 21 and 16, respectively. What are their arithmetic means.
Answer:
Let \(\bar{x}_{1} \text { and } \bar{x}_{2} \) be arithmetic means of first and second distribution respectively. Then
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 48

Question 22.
The following values are calculated in respect of heights and weight of the students of a section of class XI.

Height Weight
Mean 162 – 6 cm 52-36 kg
Variance 127 – 69 cm2 23. 1361kg2

Can we say that the weight show greater variation than the height.
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 49
Clearly C.V. (weights) is greater than C.V. (heights). Weights show more variability than heights.

Miscellaneous Examples

Question 1.
The mean and variance of eight observations are 9 and 9.25 respectively. If six of the observations are 6, 7, 10, 12, 12 and 13. Find the remaining two observations.
Answer:
Let the remaining two observation be x and y.
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 50

1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 51

Question 2.
The mean of 5 observations is 4.4 and their variance is 8.24. If three observations are 1, 2 and 6, find the remaining two observations.
Answer:
Let the remaining two observations be x and
∴ Five observations are 1, 2, 6, x, y.
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 52
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 53

Question 3.
The mean and variance of 7 observations are 8 and 16 respectively. If five of the observations are 2, 4, 10, 12, 14. Find the remaining two observations.
Answer:
6 and 8 (Try yourself)
Here, x + y = 14, x2 + y2 = 100

Question 4.
The mean and standard deviation of six observations are 8 and 4, respectively. If each observation is multiplied by 3, find the new mean and new standard deviation.
Answer:
Let six observations be
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 54

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Given that \(\bar{x} \)is the mean and σ2 is the variance of n observations x1 , x2,……….. ,xn . Prove that the mean and variance of the observations ax1,ax2,………………,axn are \(a \bar{x} \) and a2a1 respectively (a ≠ 0)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 55

Question 6.
If each of the observation x1,x2,………. ,xn is increased by ‘a’, where a is positive or negative number, show that the variance remains unchanged.
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 56
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 57

Question 7.
The mean and standard deviation 20 observations are found to be 10 and 2 respectively. On rechecking, it was fond that an observation 8 was incorrect. Calculate the correct mean and standard deviation in each of the following cases :
(i) If wrong item is omitted,
(ii) If it is replaced by 12.
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 58
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 59
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 60

Question 8.
The mean and standard deviation of 100 observations were calculated as 40 and 5.1 respectively by a student who took by mistake 50 instead of 40 for one observation. What are the correct mean and standard deviation?
Answer:
Given: N = 100
Incorrect mean = 40 = \(a \bar{x} \)
Incorrect S.D. = 5.1
We have, \(\bar{x}=\frac{1}{N} \Sigma x_{i}\)
⇒\(\Sigma x_{i}=N \bar{x}=100 \times 40=4000\)
∴ Incorrect sum of observations = 4000.
∴ Correct sum of observations = 4000 – 50 + 40 = 3990.
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 61

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
The mean and standard deviation of a group of 100 observations were found to be 20 and 3 respectively. Later on it was found that three observations were incorrect, which were recorded as 21, 21 and 18. Find and standard deviation if the incorrect observations are omitted.
Answer:
Given N = 100,New N = 97
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 62
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 63
Question 10.
The mean and standard deviation of marks obtained by 50 students of a class in three subjects, Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry are given below.

Subject Mathematics Physics Chemistry
Mean 42 32 40 – 9
S D 12 15 20

Which of three subjects shows the highest variability in marks and which shows the lowest?
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 15 Statistics 64
Chemistry shows high variability and Mathematics shows lowest variability.

1st PUC History Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South)

Students can Download 1st PUC History Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South) with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC History Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC History Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South)

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 100

Note :

  1. Write SI. No’s of questions correctly
  2. Visually challenged students need to answer questions No. 31 ‘B’ instead of Map question No. 31 ‘A ’ in Part – D
  3. Answer the questions according to the instructions given for the questions.

Part – A

I. Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence each. ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
From which language is the term History derived?
Answer:
The term ‘History’ has been derived from the Greek word ‘Historia’, which means ‘Enquiry’ or ‘Investigation’.

Question 2.
Who built The Hanging Garden?
Answer:
King Nebuchadnezzar got the The Hanging Garden built at Babylon.

Question 3.
What is the modern name for Constantinople?
Answer:
Istanbul.

Question 4.
Where was Jesus born?
Answer:
Jesus was born at Bethlehem in Judea.

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Question 5.
Who wrote the book ‘Divine Comedy’?
Answer:
Dante wrote the book ‘Divine Comedy’.

Question 6.
Who founded the society of Jesus?
Answer:
Ignatius Loyola founded the society of Jesus in 1534.

Question 7.
In which year was the Battle of Waterloo fought?
Answer:
Battle of Waterloo fought in 1815.

Question 8.
Where is the headquarters of UNO?
Answer:
The headquarters of UNO is located in New York (U.S.A).

Question 9.
Expand NATO?
Answer:
NATO North American Treaty Organization.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
Who was the first to use the word ‘Non-Aligned’?
Answer:
V.K. Krishna Menon, India’s External Affairs Minister was the first to use the word ‘Non- Aligned’.

Part – B

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in two words or two sentences each. ( 10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 11.
Which were the two chemicals responsible for the begin of life.
Answer:
Hydrogen and Carbon which were present in the atmosphere were responsible for that.

Question 12.
Where is Parthenon temple? And who built it?
Answer:
Parthenon temple is in Athens. It was built by Pericles.

Question 13.
Who were the parents of Mohammad?
Answer:
Abdullah and Ameena were Mohammed’s parents.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
Write two features of Romanesque style?
Answer:
The main features of the Romanesque style were the rounded arches, small windows, massive walls of stone and the predominance of horizontal lines.

Question 15.
Name the groups of French Revolutionaries?
Answer:
Girondists (Moderates) and Jacobins (Extremists).

Question 16.
Where and in which year was Napoleon Bonaparte born?
Answer:
Napoleon Bonaparte was born at Ajaccio in the island of Corsica on August 15th 1769.

Question 17.
Name the Allied powers of Second World War?
Answer:
England, France, U.S.S.R and U.S.A

Question 18.
Name any two official languages of the U.N.O?
Answer:
English and French are two of the official languages of U.N.O.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 19.
What is Veto Power?
Answer:
Any permanent member can ‘Veto’ any decision of the Security Council. ‘Veto’ is a special power given to the five permanent members to negate any resolution of the United Nations.

Question 20.
Name the the Presidents of America and Russia who ended the cold War.
Answer:
George Bush (Sr.) and Boris Yeltsin were the Presidents of America and Russia respectively who ended the cold war.

Question 21.
Name of the two leaders of Bandung Conference.
Answer:
Nehru and Josip Broz Tito were two of the World leaders at the Bandung Conference.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 22.
Where and when was the 7th summit of Non-Aligned countries held?
Answer:
The 7th summit of the Non-Aligned countries was held at Delhi, India’s Prime Minister Smt. Indira Gandhi president over the conference.

Part – C

III. Answer any six of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each. ( 6 × 5 = 30 )

Question 23.
Explain the importance of study of History.
Answer:
(a) History is the memory of the past events: The study of history gives us information about the biographies of great men and a record of major events of the world. According to Will Durant, “A country’s past is like an individual’s memory. If memory goes, sanity goes with it”. Hayes and Moon wrote “As memory is to man, History is to mankind”.

(b) History helps to broaden our outlook: The study of history helps us to get knowledge about the people of different countries, traditions, customs, cultures and civilizations. Thus it broadens the outlook of mankind. The details recorded in history relating to Art, Architecture, Literature and Religion expands one’s horizon of knowledge.

(c) History promotes international peace: The world has already witnessed the misgivings of the two World Wars. If another war takes place in the future, it would destroy the whole world. History has pointed out that unawareness of the culture of other countries and narrow nationalism has lead to such wars. Today, there is a great deal of competition among different countries in possessing nuclear weapons and war equipments. For the development of cordial relations between nations, the study of world history is the need of the hour.

(d) History has Professional uses: It is a competitive world. History is the main core subject for the competitive examinations like IAS, IPS, IFS, KAS, etc. Historical knowledge is a matter of necessity for Students, Teachers, Lawyers, Journalists, Administrators and Statesmen. Thousands of historians are working in the Department of Archaeological Survey of India under Central and State Governments. New job opportunities have opened up for the students of history at Museums, Archives, Tourism development and related fields. Thus, history has professional uses.

Question 24.
What was the role of domestication of animals and agriculture Human Evolution?
Answer:
Domestication of animals was followed by the commencement of agriculture. Humans who were food gatherers and hunters till then, now became food growers or food producers. They were prepared to overcome the effects of the climate changes like the ice age by adapting to domestication of animals and agriculture. Dogs are believed to be the first animals to be domesticated as they were continuously hanging around the hunters’ camps to pick up bones and scrapes of meat.

They developed a bond and dogs were domesticated. This was followed by sheep, goat, cow, cat, camel, and horse. Dogs helped humans in hunting and guarding their shelters. The rearing of animals made humans, nomads. Commencement of agriculture is considered as a revolutionary change in the history of human evolution. This was an important aspect of the Neolithic age. Humans began to grow various crops like wheat, rice, millets etc.

The practice of agriculture is not more than 13,000 years old. It made them lead a settled life. This resulted in the formation of human settlements termed villages and later towns. Villages and towns were the foundations of civilizations.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 25.
What are the contributions of Romans to languages and literature?
Answer:
Latin was the language of the ancient Roman Empire. It belongs to the family of Indo-European languages. The native sons of Latium saw the superiority of the Greek languages and proceeded to use its style, formulating their own. Before the fall of Rome, Latin became the accepted language of much of the civilized world. Latin remained the language of the Church, science, medicine, law and education. It was used for most of the written transactions in Europe, throughout the middle ages.

In the field of literature, the Romans tried to imitate the Greeks. The ‘Golden Age’ of Latin literature was heralded in the Prose works of Cicero and the Poetry of Catullus and Lucretius. Julius Caesar wrote ‘Gallic Wars’ and ‘Civil wars’. The dawn of Augustinian age, saw writings of Virgil, Horace, Livy and Ovid, Virgil has been given the title, the most splendid ‘Voice of Rome’. He wrote ‘Aeneid’. Augustinian age saw the Lyrics of Horace and the ‘Natural History’ of Livy.

Livy’s another great work was ‘History ”of Rome’. The ‘Silver Age’ (198 BCE- 138 CE) saw the Tragedies of Seneca, the Satire of Juvenal and the sceptical Histories of Tacitus. Tacitus also wrote ‘Annals’ and,‘Histories’. Pliny, the Elder wrote ‘Natural History’. The other well known Historians were Sallust and Plutarch. Marcus Aurelius wrote ‘Meditation’ and was a great orator on philosophy.

Question 26.
Explain the Teachings of Prophet Mohammad.
Answer:
Prophet Mohammad declared “There is no God but Allah and Mohammad is his Prophet”. He criticized the meaningless ceremonials like Idol worship, polytheism and superstitions among Arabs. He preached purity of life, truth and faith in Allah. He preached that Allah would reward the just and punish the wicked. He said “Allah is all merciful, all wise and all powerful”.

The new faith that Mohammad preached was called ‘Islam’ which means “Submission to God Allah’. Islam preaches to be truthful, be faithful and to have good conduct. It preaches equality and condemns slavery. Mohammad advocated the following five pillars or Principles of Islam to be followed by all Muslims.

Kalima: It means faith. Every Muslim should profess his faith in Allah and Mohammad. Namaz, It means prayer. Every Muslim has to pray five times a day. Prayer is the best method to please God and get one’s sins pardoned.

Zaqqat: It means alms giving. Muslims should be honest and sincere. They should give 2.5 % of what they earn in charity. The purpose is to bring economic equality between the rich and the poor.

Roza: It means fasting. Every Muslim should fast in the month of Ramzan, from morning to dusk. Fasting brings purity of heart. It balances the desires, controls one’s habits and creates confidence towards deliverance. It is a proper training to acquire good character.

Hajj: It is the holy pilgrimage to Mecca. True Muslims should undertake Hajj at least once in their life time.

There were other moral codes advocated by the prophet.
He prohibited gambling, drinking, adultery and use of pork. He preached the democratic principles of equality and universal brotherhood. He also advocated important moral values like respect for women, parents, and kindness to slaves and animals.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 27.
What were the causes for the decline of feudalism?
Answer:
There were several reasons for the decline of feudalism. The major ones are given here under.
1. Rise of strong Monarchies: Europe saw the growth of many strong monarchies, where the Kings suppressed the feudal Lords which led to the decline of feudalism.

2. Shifting of loyalty: Common people and serfs were unhappy as they were heavily taxed and felt neglected. They shifted their faith and loyalty to the Kings, which further weakened the hold of the feudal Lords.

3. Growth of commerce and industry: With the growth in commerce arid industry, people found new ways for livelihood and left their lands. The rise of the independent middle class took place, which was a lethal blow to the feudal Lords.

4. Dominance of money economy: Payment in the form of services was replaced by money. Commoners and serfs stopped giving military services to Lords, which further depleted their power and dominance.

5. Building of strong armies by the Kings: The use of gun powder and well organised armies resulted in the weakening of feudalism. Commoners and serfs under the protection of Kings felt more secure.

6. Scarcity of labourers: The growth of industries and commerce provided alternate employment and depleted the labour strength. Spread of epidemics like plague reduced the number of workers. Demand for workers and their increased wages brought down the importance of the feudal Lords.

7. Struggle between the feudal Lords: The feudal Lords were troublesome to the serfs and commoners and fighting among themselves for control. These internal wars further decreased their number and the Church also put many restrictions on their functioning.

Question 28.
Write about counter reformation.
Answer:
The religious upheaval in the 16th century gave rise to Lutheranism, Calvinism, Anglicanism and the radical sects. The rapid spread of Protestantism alarmed the Catholics and they felt the urgency to check further damage to the Catholic Church. They demanded Reformation from within and the movement came to be known as Counter Reformation.

The attitude of the Popes changed. They took firm steps to check the spread of Protestantism. The Roman Catholic Church made efforts to win back the Protestant dominated countries, to the Roman obedience.

A concerted Counter Reformation Movement was launched with the four-fold purpose of punishing, reforming, converting and rendering social service. The inquisition was to punish, the Council of Trent was to introduce reforms and the Society of Jesus was to render service to God and Society.

The inquisition was a Roman Catholic Court formed for conducting inquiry into cases of heresy and meting out punishments to those who were found guilty. The guilty were excommunicated and given over to the civil arm for punishment, which included torturing and execution by burning. They issued a strict code of conduct to be followed by the Church officials. The inquisition was first established in Spain and they were set up to deal with the , non-Catholics and to put down heresy.

The Council of Trent: (1545 – 1563 A.D). The Catholic Church held a General Council at Trent in north Italy, convened by Charles V in 1545 A.D. Its main purpose as clearly defined by the doctrines of the Church, was to remove some of the abuses and to restore unity in the Catholic Church. The Council condemned the sale of Church offices and bade the clergy to strictly adhere to clerical duties. It also banned the sale of indulgences.

Society of Jesus in 1540: The Counter Reformation Movement was bolstered by the formation of several new religious orders. The most popular of these was the Society of Jesus, founded by Ignatius Loyola, a Spanish knight of Noble descent. He inspired a large team of selfless, educated and disciplined priests to serve God and Christianity. They were known as Jesuits. They took the vows of simplicity, chastity, obedience, service and spreading Catholicism.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 29.
What were the effects of cold war?
Answer:
The effects of the Cold War are:

  • Both the United States of America and the Soviet Union built up huge arsenals of atomic weapons and ballistic missiles.
  • The military blocs NATO and the Warsaw Pact were formed.
  • It led to destructive conflicts like the Vietnam War and the Korean War.
  • Soviet Union collapsed due to economic weaknesses.
  • The Warsaw Pact was dissolved.
  • The Baltic States and some former Soviet Republics achieved independence.
  • America became the sole super power of the world.
  • Communism received a setback worldwide.

Question 30.
Describe the achievements of non-Aligned movement.
Answer:
Achievements of NAM are manifold. Along with the United Nations Organization, NAM is trying to solve international problems peacefully. It has its role in the achievements of U.N.O. The major Achievements of Non-Aligned Movement are as follows.

  • It has helped to decrease the intensity of Cold War.
  • Helped U.N.O. in resolving the issues pertaining to Korea, Vietnam, Cuba and Kuwait.
  • Worked hard to end Apartheid in South Africa.
  • Inspired treaties to reduce Atomic weapons.
  • Worked to resist the dominance of power blocs.
  • Popularized democratic principles.
  • It is working hard to establish international peace.
  • It is trying to find solutions to the problems faced by member nations.
  • It is fighting for the self reliance of member countries.

Part – D

IV. Answer the following questions as indicated. ( 5 + 5 = 10 )

Question 31.
(A) Mark any five of the following Historical places on the outline map of the world provided to you and add an explanatory note on each marked place in two sentences.
(a) Rome
(b) Paris
(c) Nagasaki
(d) Babylonia
(e) Alexandria
(f) Cape of Good Hope
(g) Geneva
(h) Mascow
Answer:
(a) Rome: It is the capital of Italy. It was also the capital of the Roman Empire. Vatican City in Rome is the centre of Pope, who is the religious head of the Catholics. According to a Roman legend, Rome was founded by the twins Romulus and Remus in 8th century B.C.E. According to another version the name is derived from the Greek word Rome which means ‘strength’.

(b) Paris: It is the capital of France. The Bourbon family ruled over France from here, till the French Revolution of 1789. In modern times, many historical treaties have been signed here. The name Paris is derived from that of its earliest inhabitants, known as the ‘Parissi’ meaning ‘The working People’ or ‘The Craftsmen’. Paris is also known as ‘The City of Light’, due to its fame as a centre of education and ‘Paradise of Traveller’s. The famous Eiffel Tower is here.

(c) Nagasaki: It is in Japan. Nagasaki means ‘Long Cape’. On 9th August 1945, US Air force dropped the second Atomic bomb called ‘Fat Man’ on Nagasaki. As a result of this, more than 70,000 people died. Nagasaki was founded by the Portuguese in 16th Century.

KSEEB Solutions

(d) Babylonia: It is in present Iraq. It was the capital of Mesopotamian Civilization. The famous law-giver Hammurabi ruled from here. Nebuchadnezzar built the ‘Hanging Gardens’. which was one of the Wonders of the Ancient World.

(e) Alexandria: It is in northern Egypt. It was founded by Alexander the Great. It was intended to be the link between Greece and the rich Nile Valley. An Egyptian City, Rhakotis already existed on the shores and was later given the name Alexandria. In Egyptian, it means “That which is built up”. In the ancient times it had a Light house which was one of the Wonders of the World.

(f) Cape of Good Hope: It is at the southern tip of South Africa. Bartholomew Diaz called it ‘Cape of Storms’. Later, Vasco-da-Gama renamed it as ‘Cape of Good Hope’ under the direction of King John of Portugal, since it gave hope for further explorations to reach India.

(g) Geneva: It is in Switzerland. It was one of the centres of Protestant movement. International organizations like ILO, WHO, WTO and GATT are located here.

(h) Moscow: It is the capital city of Russia, located on the banks of river Moskva and named after the river. It was one of the centres of Russian Revolution of 1917 and was made the capital of USSR.

B. (For Visually Challenged Students only) ( 1 × 10 = 10 )

Question 31.
Describe the contributions of Chinese civilization.
Answer:
Art of painting:- Chinese had developed wonderful painting. They painted on silk cloth, tomb walls, pots and papers. They believed that tomb painting were means to protect the dead and help their souls to go to heaven.

Sculpture:- Chinese developed the art of casting bronze statues of animals and monsters. This art developed during Shangs and Chous. Buddhism influenced their sculpture and the statues of Bodhisatwa carved in stone are found in large numbers. The Terracotta army assembled in the tomb of the first Kin Emperor consists of life size images of more than 8000 – warriors and horses.

Chinese were massive builders. The Great Wall of China is one of their most impressive and everlasting architectural accomplishment. It was purely built for the ’ utilitarian purpose of protecting the country from Mongolian invasions. They also built Buddhist temples called Pagodas, important among them are the ‘Giant Wild Goose Pagoda’, ‘Jade Pagoda’, ‘Flask Pagoda’ and the ‘Temple of Sleeping Buddha’ outside Peking, the present Beijing.

KSEEB Solutions

Writing and Literature:- Chinese had developed the art of writing during Shang period. Chinese script was standardized during Chin Rulers. They have no alphabets and parts of speech. It consists of only characters which are more than 40,000. It started as pictograph and later they developed Characters or Logograms. Chinese characters constitute the oldest continuously used systems of writing in the world. Their writing played an important role in cultural unification. Chinese script also influenced Japanese, Korean and Vietnamese scripts.

It is written from top to bottom.
The invention of paper, silk and ink for writing helped the growth of writing and literature. The practice of writing history was also popular in China. The Chinese literature comprised of prose, poetry, philosophy and history. During Han and Tong dynasties, Chinese poetry reached great heights. Chinese had developed Geography, Geometry, Arithmetic, Calendars, Astronomy and they could predict eclipses accurately.

The important inventions of the Chinese are the following. Silk, Tea, Ink, Brushes for painting and writing, Abacus, Acupuncture, Rudder, Gun powder, Glass, Pottery, Porcelain, Rockets, Umbrella, Seismograph and Mariner Compass.

Philosophy and Religion:- Lao tse, Confucius and Mencius were three great Philosophers who influenced the religious ideas of Chinese to a great extent. Lao tse’s philosophy is known . as Taoism. He preached non violence, not to be conservative, to respect the wise, do one’s duty with sincerity and honesty etc., The philosophy of Confucius is known as ‘Confucianism’. The principles of Confucius had basis in common Chinese traditions and beliefs. He taught loyalty towards family, worship of ancestors, respect to elders and unity among the people of China.

OR

Describe the administration of Napoleon Bonaparte.
Answer:
Administrative reforms of Napoleon Bonaparte:
Napoleon centralized the entire system of local Government in France. The entire country was divided into Provinces, Arrondisments and Communes. The powers were vested in Prefects and Sub-Prefects who were responsible to only Napoleon. It assured that the decrees of the Central Government should promptly and uniformly be carried out. He developed and empowered the office of the ‘Secretariat of the State’.

His major reforms were as follows.
1. Code Napoleon: The most durable of Napoleon’s work was the introduction of the legal code which is the base for the French Law. This was known as‘Code Napoleon’ and came into effect in 1804 A.D. He appointed two committees to draft the legal codes and the committees were presided over by Napoleon. He had a good commonsense and a legislative vision.

The 5 codes were:

  1. French Civil Code
  2. Code of Civil Procedure
  3. Code of Criminal Procedure
  4. Penal Code
  5. Commercial Code

The basic demands of the Revolution like Civil equality, religious toleration, emancipation of land etc., were taken care of with these codes. He was hailed as the second Justinian.

2. Education: He introduced a national scheme of education managed by the State which was organized into four types- Elementary, Secondary, Higher and Special Schools. This was to maintain uniformity of standard in Schools and Colleges. He also established the University of France.

3. Religious reforms or the Concordat: He made a code of laws for the Clergy also and to heal up the mistrust with the Papacy, entered into a religious understanding with Pope Pius-VII in 1802 known as the Concordat. He regained the sympathy of the Catholics by improving his relations with the Pope and with this treaty, Catholicism became the State religion.

KSEEB Solutions

4. Public works: He built new highways connecting Paris with the other major cities and improved the means of communication. Bridges and Canals were constructed. These helped in sofving the unemployment problem also to a great extent. He. encouraged trade and commerce and Paris and other cities were beautified and transformed to modem cities.

5. Economy: Bank of France was established. It supervised the entire financial setup and stimulated trade and industry. Careful collection of taxes and rigid economic measures were carried out. Revenue boards were set up. The national loan was reduced and the Stock Exchanges were regulated. He took stern-measures to root out corruption and gambling.

6. Legion of honour: To honour those who had rendered meritorious Military and Civil services to the State, Napoleon started an award called ‘Legion of Honour’. It was based on principles of equality, without distinction of class and religion.

Part – E

V. Answer any two of the following questions in 30-40 sentences each. ( 2 x 10 = 20 )

Question 32.
Explain the life and achievement of Augusts Caesar.
Answer:
He was a great Ruler and a wise Statesman. After several years of political turmoil, Rome enjoyed more than three decades of peace. He not only built an Empire but also was a great patron of Art and Literature. His reign is called as the ‘Golden Age’ in the history of Rome. Julius Caesar’s assassination by the Brutus led Liberators, caused great political and social turmoil in Rome. The power passed into the hands of Mark Antony, Lepidus and Octavian who formed the ‘Second Triumvirate’.

The conspirators were defeated in the battle of Philippi and Brutus and Cassius were killed. The Triumvirate divided the Empire amongst themselves- Lepidus was in charge of Africa, Antony ruled in the Eastern Province and Octavian remained in Italy and controlled Gaul (France and Belgium). However, the relationship between Octavian and Antony deteriorated. Lepidus was forced to retire (after betraying Octavian in Sicily). Antony was living in Egypt and in the battle of ‘Actium’ was defeated by Octavian.

With the conquest of Egypt, a new Era began for Romans. By 27 BCE, Octavian was the sole Roman leader. His leadership brought the Zenith to Roman civilization that lasted for two centuries. He ruled the Roman Empire for 44 years with the titles ‘Augustus’, ‘Imperator’ and ‘Princeps’. The Government established by him was known as the ‘Principate’- ‘Government by the Princeps – The first citizen.

Augustus introduced many reforms which had far reaching consequences in Rome. He gave, ‘A centre to the System, a Chief to the Civil service, a Head to the Army, a Sovereign to the Subjects, a Protector to the Provinces and Peace to the Empire’.

He recognized the Governments of the conquered territories, stopped plunder and corruption and strengthened law and order. New Courts, and Postal Services were established. Augustus continued the calendar promoted by Julius Caesar and the month ‘August’ is named after him. The Emperor kept the poor people happy by supplying food grains.

He spent money lavishly on the construction of public buildings, roads, bridges, amphitheatres and fountains. The most important Amphitheatre was the Coliseum built at Rome. This could accommodate about 50000 people. Due to the construction of well paved inter linking system of roads, Rome became the nerve centre of trade and commerce in the Mediterranean world.

He maintained diplomatic and commercial contacts with a number of countries including India and China. There were the Generals Agrippa and Maecenas, and Writers, Poets and Historians like Livy, Horace, Virgil, Ovid, Pliny and Tacitus in his time. Jesus Christ was born during his reign..

Augustan age is popularly called as ‘Golden Age’ in the history of Rome. It was known for peace and prosperity. This period is known as ‘Pax Romana’ or Roman peace. He gave the idea of the ‘World State’. His imperial system lasted for nearly 500 years and saved the great treasures of Greco-Roman civilization.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 33.
Describe the causes and results of Geographical Explorations.
Answer:
The causes of geographical exploration are as follows:
1. Fall of Constantinople: The trade route between the East and the West was through Constantinople and when in 1453 A.D. the Ottoman Turks captured it, they closed the land route to the East and also indulged in looting the merchants. As the Europeans depended entirely upon the East for the supply of spices and other luxury goods, it necessitated them to discover a new trade route, possibly through the Sea.

2. The traveller’s accounts or romantic writings: The accounts of travellers, who ventured into the East, aroused the curiosity of the Europeans. Italian travellers like Nicola Polo and Marco Polo (1254-1324 A.D) were successful in reaching China. Marco Polo wrote a vivid account of his travels to Mongolia, India and China. Friar John of Plano Carpini, a Fransiscan Monk reached Mongolia and had written about the Mongols in the Thirteenth century. William Bubruquis and others in their accounts have narrated their thrilling experiences. Since then, the curiosity and spirit of adventure enabled the Europeans to reach far off lands not only by land but also by sea.

3. Demand for commodities: There was a great demand in Europe for Asian commodities like spices pepper, ginger, clove, cardamom, etc. Muslin, Silk,.Pearls, Ivory and Precious stones were also in demand. It was a lucrative trade. Europeans were eager to improve their standard of living by earning more. This was possible by enlarging commercial contacts with the Eastern countries. The discovery of new lands and sea routes opened them avenues for earning huge profits. Many adventurous sailors and traders too risked their lives to fulfill their ambitions.

4. Geographical knowledge: This also led to the discovery of new sea routes and lands. In the 14th century, travellers and sailors had the advantage of access to several books on travel, like ‘A Merchant’s Hand book’ by Francesco Balducci, and ‘Secrets of the Faithful Crusader’ by Marino Sanudo. Myths like earth being flat, seas filled with terrible monsters, the tropical portion of Africa being blazing hot and surrounded by boiling water etc., were proved false with the new knowledge on Geography. This made people less wary of travelling to these new places.

5. Spread of Christianity: Kings, Nobles and Missionaries were very enthusiastic to spread Christianity in the new lands. Hence the Kings of Spain and Portugal encouraged explorations and the Missionaries took up the cause to spread Christianity.

6. Efforts of Prince Henry: The training school of Navigation started by Prince Henry of Portugal gave the necessary training to sailors, geographers, map makers, and ship builders.

7. Other causes: The invention of printing press, mariner’s compass, new maps, and Establishment of Banks and Joint Stock Companies also encouraged the navigators. Patronage by Kings also went far in the field of geographical discoveries.

Results of the Geographical discoveries:
The geographical discoveries had a great impact on the political, economic, social, religious and cultural history of the world. The circumnavigation of the earth by Magellan proved that, the earth is round.

Venice, Genoa, Florence, etc were important trading centres of Europe. But now, they lost their importance because of the emergence of new cities like London, Lisbon, Amsterdam etc., This was mainly due to the discovery of new trade routes.

The Kings sent missionaries into the explored territories to spread Christianity. Hence newly Christianity entered into Asia, Africa and America and became a world religion. The Geographical discoveries gave a large scope for the spread of Christian religion by converting the natives.

KSEEB Solutions

The explorations brought the support of the rich merchants and the middle classes to monarchy. This support enabled stable monarchies at England, Spain, France etc.

The Geographical discoveries ensured competition among the European nations. The competition was mainly to have trade contacts with the newly discovered lands and subsequently have trade Monopoly. They became aggressive and ruthless to realize these goals. Commercial revolution took place by promoting trade and industry. Commerce underwent a remarkable

change as regards to quality, quantity and kind of goods carried, routes, newer markets and methods. Joint Stock Companies and Banks were established and insurance of ships and goods was introduced, to safeguard against losses.

Discovery of new lands encouraged Slave trading, Ship building, Banking and Commerce. It also helped Renaissance and Reformation. The discoveries increased men’s knowledge about the world and this in turn led to the expansion of their mind. Exposure to the new worlds, interaction with new people and new modes of life, dispelled the funny and blind notions of medieval ignorance. This gave a tremendous impact to the intellectual revolution introduced by Renaissance. .

As a result of these discoveries, Europe came in touch with the rest of the world and European culture spread to those lands. This contact helped them to enrich their knowledge. The discovery of new worlds offered good opportunity for the freedom loving people of different countries to migrate and improve their social, economic and political status. It encouraged scientific exploration and research and overall the living standards of people rose.

One of the ugliest effects of geographical discoveries was the birth of imperialism by the European powers. Europeans reached the coasts of the countries of Asia, Africa, America and Australia for establishing trade links. Eventually, they stayed there as masters and these countries were turned into colonies.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 34.
Explain causes for the American war of Independence.
Answer:
The punitive and oppressive laws passed by the British Parliament and the heavy taxes were disapproved by the Colonists. Alarmed by the repressive policy of the British, all the Colonies united together in their opposition. On 5th September 1774, delegates of 12 Colonies except Georgia met at Philadelphia to decide the future plan of action. This is known as the First Continental (Philadelphia) Congress.

The Congress drew up a ‘Declaration of rights’ and sent a petition to George III requesting him to intervene and redress their grievances. But George- III turned a deaf ear to their plea and branded the members of the Congress as revolutionaries. Moreover, he ordered his troops to crush them.

This action of the King was not tolerated by the Colonists. The Congress appointed George Washington as the Commander in Chief of the Colonial army to fight the British troops and on 4*h July 1776 proclaimed their Independence from the control of England. A Declaration of Independence drafted by Thomas Jefferson was unanimously adopted by the Colonies. Infuriated with the colonist’s attitude, Britain declared war on America. In the early stages of the war, the British had an upper hand. Americans lost the Bunker Hill battle but won at Trenton and Prinistine.

Washington crushed the British in the battle of Saratoga and on 17th October 1777 the British Commander-in-Chief surrendered to him. This was the turning point in the war. The war continued and Lord Cornwallis and the British army under him were routed at York Town in 1781. The war came to an end with the. Treaty of Paris in 1783. England recognized the Independence of the 13 Colonies. 4th of July was a great day of Americans and is their Independence day.

Question 35.
Explain the causes and results of the First World War.
Answer:
Introduction: World War I was one of the greatest, largest and most destructive events in the history of the modern world. It was the first time when such a large number of countries from Europe and other parts of the world were involved in conflict and affected either directly or indirectly. It destroyed more human lives and material than ever before. It broke out in 1914 and came to an end in 1918. Nearly 30 countries participated in this conflict between highly organised and well armed countries with modem weaponry.

Causes of world war:
1. Aggressive Nationalism: Nationalistic aspirations have always led to political rivalries. The narrow nationalism which always meant love of their own people, their own nation and culture became a predominant feature. As a result, there began to develop among the Europeans a kind of negligence towards other countries e.g., William-II the King of Germany declared that “Germany should either rule the world or perish”. Even England was not free from this self- exaltation. This competitive patriotism forced them to jump into military and naval competitions.

2. Economic and Military imperialism: The European powers competed with each other for commercial and colonial expansion in the non-European world. The launching of industrial schemes on a large scale needed raw material and also a ready market for their finished goods. This led to colonial competition among the European countries, which was carried on to other fields as well. Commercial competition led to mutual jealousy and tension.

3. Triple Alliance and the Triple Entente: Bismarck achieved the unification of Germany in 1871 A.D. He fought many wars with the neighbouring countries. He sought to give the Empire stability and security and to achieve that end, formed a Triple Alliance with Austria and Italy. In 1907 A.D, alarmed by the formation of this Triple Alliance, Russia, France and England came together and formed an alliance called the Triple Entente. Thus Europe came to be divided into two hostile blocks.

4. The Arms Race: Triple Alliance and Triple Entente led to a keen competition of manufacturing war materials. Germany had made tremendous progress in the military to produce tanks, machine guns, and submarines etc., Greater number of soldiers Were recruited and equipped with modern weapons. Kaiser William-II of Germany glorified war. He wished to make Germany a world power. His belief that “The German race alone should rule the world” greatly alarmed England.

5. England also began to invest more on Navy and greater effort was undertaken to preserve the title “Queen of Seas” and that “Sun never sets on British Empire”. The militaristic attitude of Germany roused the fear in France which began to strengthen her military. Many European nations introduced compulsory military training. Further, the arms race created fear, suspicion tension and distrust between each other. All the nations of Europe were preparing for war.

6. Attitude of France: France had never forgotten her defeat at the hands of Bismarck in the Franco-Prussian war in 1871. After the war, she had also ceded the Alsace and Lorraine provinces to Germany. France was eagerly waiting for an opportunity to take revenge against Germany besides getting back those provinces.

KSEEB Solutions

7. Immediate cause: The Austrian Crown Prince, Archduke Francis Ferdinand and his wife were assassinated in the streets of Sarajevo, capital of Bosnia on 28th June 1914. So Austria felt that the Serbian Government was responsible for that and sent an ultimatum
to Serbia demanding to handover the perpetrators within 48 hours. Serbia rejected the ultimatum. Austria backed by Germany, declared war on Serbia on 28th July 1914. Russia coming to the help of Serbia, entered the fray and other countries followed suit.

Results of the First World War:
1. Loss of life: The horrors and miseries of the war were plentiful. The total loss of life of all nations put together was some 10 million killed in action, more than lcrore people wounded and millions permanently disabled. As they were incapable of self support, they remained a burden on their family and their nations.

2. Economic dislocation: A large number of people lost their property (186 billion dollars), millions of civilians died of diseases and starvation. The national loan of the participants in the war was enormous. This financial disorder and widespread suffering led to violent social and political changes.

3. The First World War ended with the Treaty of Versailles in 1919. The prominent delegates who represented the different nations in the Peace Conference were Woodrow Wilson, the President of U.S.A., Lloyd George, the Prime Minister of England, Clemenceau, the Prime Minister of France and Orlando, the Prime Minister of Italy.

4. The victors sought to brand Germany as responsible for the war and all the consequences of the war. It had to give up a lot of its territories and colonies. It was imposed a huge war indemnity and its military strength was reduced.

5. The war created a demand for an international organization to protect world peace. As a result, the League of Nations came into existence on 1st of January 1929.

6. France reoccupied Alsace and Lorraine, the two provisions from Germany. Besides, France gained the Saar coal basin.

7. The great Empires of Austria, Hungary, Russia, Germany and Ottoman Turkey came to an end. These were replaced by republics. Poland, Belgium and Czechoslovakia became independent.

8. The great depression of 1929 was a result of First World War.

VI. 36. Match the following : ( 05 )

1st PUC History Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South) 1
Answers:
1st PUC History Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South) 2

KSEEB Solutions

37. Arrange the following events in Chronological Order. ( 05 )

  1. The Russian Revolution
  2. Roman republic established
  3. Treaty of Versailles
  4. Milan Edict
  5. Discovery of sea route to India

Answers:

  1. Discovery of sea route to India
  2. Origin of Earth
  3. Roman republic established
  4. The Russian Revolution
  5. Treaty of Versailles

1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Students can Download 1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

PART – A

I. Answer all the following questions. Each question carries one mark. (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Who is called as the “Father of Computer”?
Answer:
Charles Babbage is called as the “Father of Computer”.

Question 2.
Expand OMR?
Answer:
Optical Mark reader/recognition.

Question 3.
Define debugging?
Answer:
Bug is a problem in a program and debug means finding a solution to that problem.

Question 4.
Define a token?
Answer:
The smallest individual units in a program are known as tokens.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Which is the insertion operator?
Answer:
cout is used in conjuction with << operator, known as insertion or put to operator.

Question 6.
What is a selection statement?
Answer:
Selection statements are used to execute certain block of statements for evaluating the conditions.

Question 7.
What is the data type of the array subscript?
Answer:
The data type of the array subscript is integer or int.

Question 8.
What does the keyword ‘void’ represent?
Answer:
The data type ‘void’ has no values and no operations means it is empty. It plays a role of generic data type and can represent any of the other standard types.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Which are the standard alignments used in a word processor?
Answer:
The standard alignments used in a word processor are left, right, center and justify.

Question 10.
How many rows and columns are present in ESS?
Answer:
There are 256 rows and 65536 columns in an electronic spread sheet.

PART – B

II. Answer any Five of the following questions. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
Mention any two features of ENIAC.
Answer:
In one second, the ENIAC could perform 5,000 additions, 357 multiplications or 38 divisions.

Question 12.
List the different types of ROM?
Answer:
The different types of ROM are Programmable ROM(PROM), Erasable Programmable ROM(EPROM) and Electrically Erasable Programmable ROM (EEPROM).

KSEEB Solutions

Question 13.
What is an Operating system? Give an example.
Answer:
An operating system or OS is a software program that enables the computer hardware to communicate and operate with the computer software. Windows 8 is an example of a latest operating system.

Question 14.
Write the advantages of structured programming?
Answer:

  1. Programs are easy to write because the programming logic is well organized.
  2. Programs can be functionally divided into smaller logical working units (modularity).
  3. Easy to maintain because of single entry and single exit.

Question 15.
Briefly explain any two characteristics of OOP?
Answer:
Encapsulation and polymorphism are two characteristics of OOP.

1. Encapsulation:
The method of combining data, attributes, and methods in the same entity is called encapsulation.

2. Polymorphism:
Polymorphism is a Greek word which means many shapes. In OOP, Polymorphism means the ability to take on many forms. The term is applied both to objects and to operations.

Question 16.
Which are the different data types in C++?
Answer:
The different data types in C++ are int, float, double and char.

Question 17.
What are the different types of values strcmp() can return?
Answer:
The different values that a strcmp() function can return are zero, a positive number or a negative number.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 18.
Give the commands for copy and paste?
Answer:
The commands for copy and paste are Ctrl + c and Ctrl + v respectively.

PART – C

III. Answer any Five of the following questions. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 19.
Explain impact and non-impact printers with examples?
Answer:
1. Impact printers:
Impact printers forms characters or images by striking a mechanism such as a print hammer or wheel against an inked ribbon, leaving an image on the paper. For example dot matrix printer is an impact printer.

2. Non-impact printers:
Non-impact printers form characters and images without direct physical contact between the printing mechanism and the paper. For example ink jet printers is an non impact printer.

Question 20.
Subtract 36(10) from 83(10) using 2’s complement.
Answer:
83(10) – 36(10)
Binary equivalent of 83(10) is 1010011(2)

Divisor Dividend Remainder
2 83 1
2 41 1
2 20 0
2 10 0
2 5 1
2 2 0
2 1 1

Binary equivalent of 36(10) is 100100(2)

Divisor Dividend Remainder
2 36 0
2 18 0
2 9 1
2 4 0
2 2 0
2 1 1

1 ’s complement of 0100100 is
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 1

2’s complement of 1011011 is
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 2

Now, 83(10) 2’s complement of 36(10)
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 3

A carry is generated and discarding it. The final answer is 101111(2)=47(10)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 21.
What is meant by the terms multiprogramming and multitasking?
Answer:
1. Multiprogramming:
Multiprogramming is the technique of running several programs at the same time using timesharing. It allows a computer to do several things simultaneously.

2. Multitasking:
Running two or more programs at the same time on the same single-processor (single CPU) computer is called multitasking.

Question 22.
Write a flowchart to find the greater of two numbers?
Answer:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 4

Question 23.
Explain logical operators with example?
Answer:
The operators which perform combine or negate the expressions that contain relational operators, are called logical operators.

Logical operators are used to combine one or more relational expressions. The logical operators are:

  1. ! (NOT),
  2. || (OR),
  3. && (AND).

For example, if (age>18 && citizen =”Indian”)

Question 24.
Explain the cascading of input and output operators?
Answer:
Cascading is a way to extract/insert multiple values from/into more than one variable using one cin/cout statement.
Cascading of output operator (>>):
cout << “Value of B=” << b; Cascading of input operator (>>):
int n1, n2, n3;

KSEEB Solutions

Question 25.
How do you initialize one dimensional array?
Answer:
Initialization of one dimensional array:
int marks[6] = {91, 96, 90, 94 ,99, 93};

Question 26.
Declare a structure that contains the data of a student?
Answer:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 5

PART – D

IV. Answer any Seven of the following questions. (7 × 5 = 35)

Question 27.
Explain the Generations of Computers in detail?
Answer:
1. First-generation computers:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 6
The first computers used vacuum tubes for electronic circuitry and magnetic drums for memory. They were very expensive to operate and the power consumption was high, generated a lot of heat, which was often the cause of malfunctions.

2. Second-generation computers:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 7
In the second generation computers, symbolic or assembly languages were used. High-level programming languages were also in use at this time, such as early versions of COBOL and FORTRAN. Their memory consisted of magnetic core technology.

3. Third-generation computers:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 8
The development of the integrated circuit was made use of the third generation computers. Transistors were miniaturized and were placed on silicon chips, called semiconductors.

  • The processing speed and efficiency of computers increased.
  • Keyboards and monitors were used as input and output devices.
  • Computer system had an operating system and helped to run multiple applications simultaneously.

4. Fourth-generation computers:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 9
The microprocessor was used in the fourth generation computers, as thousands of integrated _ circuits were built onto a single silicon chip. The Intel 4004 chip, developed in 1971, located all the components of the computer – from the central processing unit and memory to input/output controls – on a single chip.

Question 28.
Find FADE(16) = (?)(8)=(?)(10)
Answer:
FADE(16) = (7 5 3 3 6)(8)=(31454)(10)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 29.
Explain ‘while’ structure with an example?
Answer:
A ‘while’ loop statement repeatedly executes a statement or sequence of statements written in the flower brackets as long as a given condition returns the value ‘true’.
Syntax:
The syntax of a while loop in C++ is:
while(condition)
{
statement(s);
}
Here the condition may be any expression, and true for any non zero value. The loop iterates while the condition is true.
When the condition becomes false, program control passes to the line immediately following the loop.

During the first attempt, when the condition is tested and the result is false, the loop body will be skipped and the first statement after the while loop will be executed.

Example:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 10
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 11

When the above code is executed, it produces the following results:
value of a: 10
value of a: 11
value of a: 12
value of a: 13
value of a: 14

Question 30.
Explain the structure of C++ program. Give example?
Answer:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 12

The various parts of the above program:

  • Headers, which contain information that is either necessary or useful to program. For this program, the header is needed.
  • The next line // main() is where program execution begins, is a single-line comment available in C++. Single-line comments begin with // and stop at the end of the line.
  • The line int main() is the main function where program execution begins.
  • The pair of { } indicate the body of the main function.
  • The next line cout << “Hello world.”; causes the message “Hello world” to be displayed on the screen.
  • The next line return 0; terminates the main () function and causes it to return the value 0 to the calling process.

Question 31.
Explain the working of ‘for’ loop with an example
Answer:
A ‘for’ loop is a repetition control structure that allows you to efficiently write a loop that needs to execute a specific number of times.
The syntax of a for loop in C++ is:
for (initialization; condition; increment/decrement)
{
statement(s);
}

The working of a ‘for’ loop:

1. The initialization step is executed first, and only once in the beginning. It is used to declare and initialize any loop control variables.

2. Next, the condition is evaluated. If it is true, the body of the loop is executed. If it is false, the body of the loop does not execute and flow of control jumps to the next statement just after the for loop.

3. After the body of the ‘for’ loop executes, the flow of control jumps back up to the increment/ decrement statement and updates any loop control variables.

4. Then condition is evaluated again. If it is true, the loop executes and the process repeats itself (body of loop, then increment step, and then again condition). After the condition becomes false, the for loop terminates.

Example:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 13
When the above code is compiled and executed, it produces the following result:
value of a: 10
value of a: 11
value of a: 12
value of a: 13
value of a: 14
value of a: 15

KSEEB Solutions

Question 32.
Write a C++ program to find the factorial of a given number?
Answer:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 14

Question 33.
Write a C++ program to read and print the elements of a two dimensional array.
Answer:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 15
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 16

Question 34.
Explain the working of “function with arguments and with no return value”? With an example.
Answer:
Function with argument and no return value with an example:
The calling function main() gives the function call to the called function by passing arguments or values. Then the called function takes the values and performs the calculations and it self gives the output but no value sent back to the calling function.
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 17

In the above example, sum() is a user defined function. main() is a calling function which gives a function call sum (a, b); with actual arguments and The copy of values of a and b are sent to formal arguments x and y in the called function sum().

The function sum() performs addition and gives the result on the screen it can be deserved that. Here no value is sent back to the calling function main(). These kinds of functions are called “Function with arguments but no return values”.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 35.
Explain any five built-in functions of ESS?
Answer:
1. The sum():
It is used to find the addition for a range of cells. For example = sum(A1 : A20)

2. The product() :
It calculates the multiplication of values in the specified cells. For example, = product(B1:B5).

3. The max():
It finds the maximum element in the range of cells or sequence of values. For example, = max( 10, 20, 11, 45, 30) gives 45 as the output.

4. The min():
It finds the minimum element in the range of cells or sequence of values. For example, = min(10, 20, 11x, 45, 5, 30) gives 5 as the output.

5. The count():
It counts the number of elements present in the range of cells and sequence of values. For example, The Max (): It finds the maximum element in the range of cells or sequence of values.

Question 36.
Using ESS, analyze the result for the following data and represent it with the help of a Bar graph.
Answer:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers part B img 18

From the above data and chart, it can be noted that in the year 2010 and 2012 percentage was higher compared to the years 2011 and 2013.

The year 2010 recorded the highest percentage about 92%, year 2012 recorded the second highest at 87% the third highest percentage was 76 for the year 2011 and year 2013 recorded the least percentage with 70%. To conclude, the performance is declining year by year which is alarming.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 37.
Design a Web page to display your details on a website.
Answer:
<HTML>
<HEAD> <TITLE> my details < /TITLE> < /HEAD>
<BODY BGCOLOR=”Yellow”>
<CENTER> <H1> MY DETAILS
<IMG SRC = “C:\mydocuments\Pictures\cute%ganesha.jpg”>
</CENTER>
<FONT FACE =”algerian” size = “2” color = “blue”>
<OL>
<LI> NAME: GANESHA </LI>
<LI> FATHER’S NAME: SHIVA </LI>
<LI> MOTHER’S NAME: PARVATHI </LI>
<LI> ADDRESS: “ManasaGangothri,” 1st Cross, 1st Main, Himalayas. </LI>
<LI> HOBBIES: Reading, Painting, Dance </LI>
<LI> COLLEGE: Karnataka Pre-university Board </LI>
</OL>
</FONT>
<MARQUEE> Thanks for visiting my web page </MARQUEE>
</BODY>
</HTML>

1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

Students can Download 1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

Time: 3 Hours 15 Minutes
Max. Marks: 70

PART – A

I. Answer the following questions. (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1
What is the function of ALU?
Answer:
ALU unit performs all the arithmetic calculations and logical operations involved in a program.

Question 2.
What are ergonomic keyboards?
Answer:
It is a special type of keyboard that allows typing without much strain and bending at the wrists. It reduces muscle and finger pain while typing.

Question 3.
What is the important aspect of the design of a solution?
Answer:
The most important aspect of developing a solution is, developing the logic to solve the specific problem.

Question 4.
Give the syntax of cin statement.
Answer:
Syntax:
cin >> variable.

Question 5.
What is meant by stream extraction?
Answer:
cin is used in conjuction with >> operator, known as extraction or get from operator.

Question 6.
What is meant by a compound statement?
Answer:
A compound statement is a grouping of statements enclosed between the pair of braces ({}) in which, each individual statement ends with a semi-colon.

Question 7.
What is zero based indexing?
Answer:
If ‘i’ is the element, given its index number would be i-1 and it is called zero based indexing.

Question 8.
What is meant by calling a function?
Answer:
To use a function, user will have to call or invoke that function. It helps to execute the function and perform the process of a function.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Define formatting in wordprocessor.
Answer:
Formatting is the process of changing the attribute of a text document.

Question 10.
What is a value c Ml in spreadsheet?
Answer:
A cell that contains numbers with or without a + or – symbol is called a value cell.

PART – B

II. Answer any Five of the following questions. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
Expand the term ENIAC and EDVAC.
Answer:

  • Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator.
  • Electronic Discrete Variab’e Automatic Computer.

Question 12.
Give one example each for hard copy and soft copy devices.
Answer:
Printer is a hardcopy device and Visual Display Unit is a soft copy device.

Question 13.
What is meant by machine dependent language and machine independent language?
Answer:

  • Set of programs that run only on specific types of CPU are called machine dependent.
  • Programs that can be run on a variety of different types of computers are called machine independent.

Question 14.
What is testing and debugging?
Answer:

  1. Testing is the process of checking the program logic, by providing selected sample data and observing the output for correctness.
  2. The process of detecting the errors and correcting them in a program is called debugging.

Question 15.
Write one advantage and one disadvantage of OOP.
Answer:
Advantage:
The object-oriented programming provides improved software development productivity over traditional procedure based programming techniques, because of the factors like modularity, extensibility and reusability.

Disadvantage:
Larger program size:
Object-oriented programs typically involve more lines of code than procedural programs.

Question 16.
What are linear and non-linear data structures?
Answer:

  • When data elements are arranged in a sequential manner, it is called as linear data structure.
  • When the data elements are arranged non-sequentially, it is called as non linear data structure.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 17.
Write the names of any two C++ header files.
Answer:
Two C++ header files are

  • iostream.h
  • iomanip.h

Question 18.
Write the structure definition to store name of the student, register number, class and Show how is the structure initialized? Give an example.

Answer:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 1

PART – C

III. Answer any Five of the following questions. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 19.
What is OMR and where is it used?
Answer:
Optical Mark Reader: It is an input device that can detect marks made in predetermined positions on a pre-printed paper called OMR sheet. An optical mark reader shines a light beam onto the input document and is able to detect the marks because less light is reflected back from them, than from the unmarked area. It is used in grading test papers.

Question 20.
What is radix or base of a number system? Give the radix of different number systems.
Answer:
The radix or base is the number of unique digits, including zero that a positional numeral system uses to represent numbers.
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 2

Question 21.
What is a multitasking operating system? Give an example.
Answer:
In a multitasking operating system several applications may be simultaneously loaded and used in the memory. While the processor handles only one application at a particular time, it switches between the applications and simultaneously executes each application. For example, Windows operating system.

Question 22.
What are sequential constructs, selective construct an iterative construct?
Answer:
1. Sequential construct:
The ability to execute the program statements one after another in sequence is called sequential construct.

2. Selective construct:
It is the process of selecting certain set of statements based on a requirement for execution.

3. Iterative construct:
It is the process of the execution of certain set of statements repeatedly until a requirement is satisfied.

Question 23.
Define character set, integer constant, and floating-point constants.
Answer:
Character set is a set of symbols that a programming language identifies and uses in writing data and instructions in a programming language. Integer constants are whole numbers without any fractional part. Floating-point constants are numeric values that contain a decimal point and can contain exponents also.

Question 24.
Explain manipulators.
Answer:
1. A manipulator in C++ is used to control the formatting of output and/or input values.

2. Manipulators can only be present in Input/Output statements. The ‘end!’ manipulator causes a newline character to be output.

3. ‘end1’ is defined in the header file and can be used as long as the header file has been included.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 25.
How can we input the values into a one-dimensional array?
Answer:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 3

Question 26.
What is array of structures? Give an example.
Answer:
The array of structures is a collection of array elements, in which each element is a structure ‘ in an array.
Example:
struct student st[ 100];

PART-D

IV. Answer any Seven of the following questions. (7 × 5 = 35)

Question 27.
Briefly explain the characteristics of a computer.
Answer:
1. Speed:
Computers are fast in doing calculations. The speed of the computer is measured in terms of millions of instructions per second (MIPS).

2. Storage Capacity:
Computers come with a large amount of memory. They can hold lot an of data. Computers can select and display a particular piece of information from a very large amount of data within a short time.

3. Diligence:
After doing work for some time, humans become tired but computers do not become tired. They work continuously. In fact, some computers which control telephone exchanges are never shut down. This is called diligence.

4. Accuracy:
The results that the computers produce are accurate provided data and programs are reliable.

Question 28.
Explain binary subtraction using 1’s complement in brief.
Answer:
Subtraction with one’s complement:
A 5-bit binary number 011012 (910) is subtracted from another 5-bit binary number 010012 (1310) by converting 010012 to its negative equivalent in 1 ’s complement and adding this value to 011012.

1. First, 010012 is converted to its negative equivalent in 1’s complement.
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 4
2. To do this all the 1’s to 0’s are changed and 0’s to 1’s. The most-significant digit is now 1 since the number is negative.
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 4a
3. Next, the negative value computed is added to 0110.12. This gives a result of 1000112.
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 5
4. This addition has caused an overflow bit. Whenever there is an overflow bit in 1 ’s complement, this bit is added to the sum to get the correct answer. This gives the final answer as 001002 (or 410).
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 5a

Question 29.
Give the list of statements which can be used and which cannot be used in structured programming.
Answer:
List of statements that can be used:

  • sequence of sequentially executed statements.
  • conditional execution of statements
  • iteration execution statements.

List of statements that cannot be used:

  • goto statement
  • break or continue statement
  • multiple exit points.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 30.
What are unary operators, binary operators, relational operators, logical operators, and bitwise operators?
Answer:
1. An operator that takes only one operand to perform some operation is called a unary operator.

2. The operator which takes two operands to perform some operation is called a binary operator.

3. The operators which perform operation of relation between two operands are called relational operators.

4. The operators which perform combine or negate the expressions that contain relational operators are called logical operators.

5. Bit manipulation operators manipulate individual bits within a variable. Bitwise operators modify variables considering the bit patterns that represent the values they store.

Question 31.
What are selection statements? Write the syntax for different types of selection statements.
Answer:
Selection statements are used to execute certain blocks of statements by evaluating the condition.
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 5b
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 6
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 8
Question 32.
Explain while loop structure with an example.
Answer:
A while loop statement repeatedly executes a statement or sequence of statements written within the flower brackets as long as a given condition returns the value ‘true’.
Syntax:
The syntax of a while loop in C++ is: while(condition)
{
statement(s);
}
Here the condition may be any expression, and true for any non zero value. The loop iterates while the condition is true. When the condition becomes false, program control passes to the line immediately following the loop. During the first attempt, when the condition is tested and the result is false, the loop body will be skipped and the first statement after the while loop will be executed.
Example:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 9

KSEEB Solutions

Question 33.
Write a program to count the number of vowels and consonants in a string.
Answer:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 10
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 11

Question 34.
Explain function with argument and no return value with an example.
Answer:
The calling function main() gives the function call to the called function by passing arguments or values. Then the called function takes the values and performs the calculations and itself gives the output but no value is sent back to the calling function.
For example:
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 12
1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers 13
In the above example, sum() is a user defined function. main() is a calling function which gives a function call sum (a, b) with actual arguments a, b. The copy of values of a and b are sent to formal arguments x and y in the called function sum(). The function sum() performs addition and gives the result on the screen. Here it can be observed that no value is sent back to the calling function main(). These kinds of functions are called “Function with argument but no return values”.

Question 35.
Explain the uses of spreadsheets.
Answer:
The different uses of spreadsheet are as follows:

  • Performing basic mathematical operations such as adding columns and rows of figures.
  • Finding values such as profit or loss.
  • Calculating repayment plans for loans or mortgages.
  • Finding the average, maximum or minimum values in a specified range of data.
  • Graphing or charting data to assist users in identifying data trends.
  • Sorting and filtering lata to find specific information.
  • Creation of simple lists and tables of alphabetic or numerical data
  • Creation and manipulation of simple (flat-file) databases

Question 36.
Define the following

  1. workbook
  2. cell
  3. cell address
  4. active cell
  5. cell pointer

Answer:
1. workbook:
A workbook is a set of electronic spreadsheets.

2. cell:
The intersection of a row and a column in a spreadsheet is called a cell.

3. cell address:
A cell address is a unique ID given to a cell, represented by column name and row name.

4. active cell:
The cell that is currently open and ready for editing is called the active cell.

5. cell pointer:
Cell pointer is a rectangular box that appears in the worksheet and is used to make an entry in a cell.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 37.
Explain different services of internet.
Answer:
The different services of internet are email, chat, newsgroup, FTP, WWW, etc.,
Email:
It is a system for exchanging written, voice and video messages through a computer network. Some users of email are as follows:

  • Messages can be sent 24×7 at any convenient time that suits the user.
  • Messages reach recipient’s mailbox within minutes.
  • Delivery of messages can be confirmed.

1. Chat:
It is an online communication between two users through computer on internet. Once a chat has been initiated, either user can enter text by typing on the keyboard and the entered text will appear on the other user’s monitor. Most networks and online services offer a chat facility.

2. Bulletin Board:
It is an electronic message center where people can post public messages. Messages can be placed on the computer so people can leave them for other people to read and see and later erase them when not required. For example, it is used to advertise things to buy or sell, announce events, or provide information.

3. FTP:
It is a standard network protocol used to exchange and manipulate files over a TCP/IP based network, such as the Internet. FTP is most commonly used to download a file from a server using the Internet or to upload a file to a server.

4. Telnet:
Telnet stands for ‘telecommunications network’, and was built to be a form of remote control to manage mainframe computers from distant terminals. Telnet is a text-only protocol and the user cannot see graphics or fancy images while working with Telnet, nor will they be able to transfer files with Telnet. Telnet is used to communicate with other computers and machines in a text-based manner.

1st PUC Geography Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

Students can Download 1st PUC Geography Model Question Paper 4 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Geography Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Geography Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs
Max. Marks: 100

Note:

  1. Answer all questions.
  2. Draw maps and diagrams wherever necessary
  3. Questions No.V is on Cartography.

I. Answer the following in a word or a sentence each. ( 1 × 10 = 10 )

Question 1.
What is the shape of the Earth?
Answer:
Spherical shape

Question 2.
Mention the equatorial diameter of the Earth?
Answer:
The equatorial diameter of the Earth is 12,756km.

Question 3.
Give an example for Metamorphic Rock.
Answer:
Granite, Marble, Quartzite.

Question 4.
Define Mineral.
Answer:
Mineral is a natural inorganic substance which has certain chemical and physical properties.

Question 5.
What is denudation?
Answer:
The wearing or tearing away of the land surface is referred as “Denudation”.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
What are Isotherms?
Answer:
Lines drawn on the map or globe joining the places having the same temperature.

Question 7.
One fathom is equal to how many feet?
Answer:
One fathom is equal to 6 feets.

Question 8.
Define the term Biosphere.
Answer:
Biosphere means sphere of life or sphere of living organisms.

Question 9.
Name the important latitude that passes through the middle of India.
Answer:
The Tropic of Caner 23 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)° N latitude.

Question 10.
Define “Tsunami”.
Answer:
It is a series of waves generated in an ocean water in the form of high waves.

II. Answer any ten of the following in two or three sentence each. ( 2 × 10 = 20 )

Question 11.
Name any two types of Volcanoes.
Answer:
Active volcano and Dormant Volcanoes.

Question 12.
What are exogenic and endogenic forces?
Answer:
The internal fopces are also known as endogenic forces. There are mainly the land building forces.
The external forces are also known as Exogenic forces. These forces are found on the surface of the Earth.

Question 13.
What is air pressure? Name the instrument used to measure atmosphere pressure.
Answer:
Air pressure is the force exerted by air on the Earth. The atmospheric pressure is measured by an instrument called Barometer.

Question 14.
Give two examples for local winds.
Answer:
Loo (India) Foehn (Northern Alps) Brickfielder (Austrialia).

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
What is convectional rainfall?
Answer:
The rain caused by the process of convection is called convectional rainfall. The rain is accompanied by thunder and lighting

Question 16.
Mention the difference between weather and climate.
Answer:
Weather refers to frequent changes or average condition in the atmosphere of a place at a given time.
The average weather condition of palace for a long period like 30-33 years in known as climate.

Question 17.
Name any two important salts present in the ocean water.
Answer:
Important salts resent in the ocean water are Sodium Chloride, Magnesium chloride, Calcium sulphate.

Question 18.
What is the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India?
Answer:
India extends between 8°4’ N to 37°6’ N Latitude and 68° 7’ E to 97°23 E longitude.

Question 19.
Name then international boundaries of India with China and Pakistan.
Answer:
The Me Mahon line-India and China (3488Km) by Henry Me Mahon.
The Radcliff line-India and Pakistan (2910 Km) by Sir Cyril Radcliff.

Question 20.
Name any four tributaries of river Cauvery.
Answer:
Arkavathi, Hemavathi, Harangai, Lokapavani, Shimsha, Kabini, Survarnavathi, Bhavani and Amaravathi.

Question 21.
What are natural hazards and disasters?
Answer:
Natural Hazard is a threat of a naturally occurring event that will have a negative effect on . people or the environment.
Natural Disaster is a major adverse event resulting from natural processes of the Earth.eg. Earthquakes, floods.

Question 22.
State the difference between flood and famine.
Answer:
Floods refer to excess flow of water in the rivers. Floods are natural hazards related to the Monsoons, which are uncertain and uneven in the country.
Drought or famine is temporary reduction I water or rainfall availability below the normal for the specific period.

III. Answer any eight of the following in 25 to 30 sentences each. ( 5 × 8 = 40 )

Question 23.
What is Geography? Explain how Geography is an integrating discipline.
Answer:
The scientific study of the earth surface and its various climates, natural resources and human activities. Geography is a discipline of synthesis. It is considered to be a liaison subject. It recognizes the fact that the world is system of interdependency. Geography as an integrating discipline stands midway between Natural Science and Social Science, Modern Geography focuses attention on man’s physical, biological and cultural environments and thereby point out the inter-relationship between human activities and the environment.

Physical geography has interface with Natural sciences. The traditional physical Geography is linked with Geology, Meteorology, Hydrology and pedology which have vey close link with Natural Sciences. Bio Geography is closely related to Botany and Zoology, Astronomical Geography is related to heavenly bodies such as Galaxy, solar system, stars, planets, satellites and mathematical Geography helps to represent latitudes, Longitudes shape of the Earth, size, Cartographic and Quantitative Techniques.

Geography also has interface with Social Sciences like History, Sociology, Economics, Political Science, commerce etc. These subjects have close links with other disciples as each one of them ahs spatial attributes.

Question 24.
Explain the revolution of the Earth with its effects.
Answer:
The earth while rotating on it axis also revolves around the sun. This movement of the earth round the sun called earth’s Revolution. The path of the movement is called orbit.
July 4th the earth is far from the sun and is said to be in Aphelion position. Aph means away and hellion means Sun. At this point the distance between the sun and the earth is 152 million km. Jan 3rd the earth is nearest to the sun and is said to be in Perihelion position. Peri means near, hellion means sun. At this point the distance between the.sun and the earth is 147 million km. Effects of Revolution: The major effects of revolution are

  • In equality of day and night.
  • Occurrence of seasons.
  • Distribution of important lines of latitude.
  • Different climatic zones

In equality of day and night: The duration of day and night are not uniform, along all . degrees of latitudes through out the year. The variation in the length of day and night is caused by the inclination of the earth’s axis and revolution of the earth.

The angle of inclination of the earth is 23\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) away from the perpendicular to the plane of the ecliptic and its direction is constant through out orbit. So the vertical rays of the sun moves form 23 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) N to 23\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) S latitudes. From September 23 to march 21 the North Pole of the earth is tilted away from the sun and experiences darkness. At the same period the South Pole experiences day. At the equator the duration of day and night are almost equal though out the year.

Occurrence of Seasons: It is the most important effect caused by the revolution of the earth. The variations of temperature when the earth is at different location on its orbit are called the seasons. The difference of temperature in a duration of one year is caused as a result of Inclination of the earth’s axis and its parallelism.

There are four seasons in a year. They are:

  1. Summer
  2. Autumn
  3. Winter
  4. Spring.

As per the international Calendar, the four seasons have a period of three months.
From the point of view of the earth’s indication, there are four positions of solstices and equinoxes. So, there are four seasons according to the positions of the earth in one complete revolution around the sun. Those four seasons are:

Summer Solstice: On June 21st the northern hemisphere is tiled towards the sun while the southern hemisphere is tilted away from the sun. The rays of the sun fall vertically on the Tropic Cancer and he areas within the Artistic circle remain in sun light for all 24 hours. The northern hemisphere has longer days and shorter night. At this time the northern hemisphere has longer days and shorter night. At this time the northern hemisphere enjoys summer season and this potion is called “ summer solstice”. Solstice means sun stops.

Autumnal Equinox: On the 23rd September the northern hemisphere and the southern hemisphere are equally inclined or tilted towards the sun. The sun rays are vertical at the equator. As a result, the days and night are equal all over the world. At this time, in the northern hemisphere the season is neither hot nor cold. It is a situation between summer and winter seasons. It is called autumn season. At this time in the southern hemisphere, there is spring season. This position of the earth on 23rd September is known as autumnal equinox.

Winter Solstice: On 22nd December the southern hemisphere is inclined or tilted towards the sun, and northern hemisphere is inclined or tilted away from the sun. The sun is vertical at the Tropic of Capricorn, i.e. at 23 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) os. At this time there is winter season in the northern hemisphere, and summer season in the southern hemisphere. This position is known as winter solstice.

Spring or Vernal Equinox: On 21st March the northern and southern hemisphere are equally inclined towards the sun. The conditions are similar to those of autumnal equinox. From 21st March to 21st June, the earth is moving on its northern limits. During this period, there is spring season in the northern hemisphere and autumn season in the southern hemisphere.

Distribution of important lines of latitude. Based on the revolution important latitudes such as equator, Tropic of cancer, Tropic of Capricorn, arctic and Antarctic circles are recognized.

Different climatic zones: The different climatic zone is the result of the revolution of the earth. Climatic zones depend on the important lines of latitude.
Between the equator and the tropic of cancer, we have the North Torrid Zone. Between the Equator and the Tropic of Capricorn, we have the South Torrid Zone Between the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle, we have the North Temperate Zone. Between the topic of Capricorn and the Antarctic Circle, we have the south temperature Zone, between the Arctic Circle and the North Pole we have the North rigid zone, and between the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole, we have the South Frigid Zone.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 25.
Write a detail note on Earthquakes.
Answer:
An Earthquake is a sudden vibration or oscillation in the Crust of the Earth. It is a form of energy of wave motion transmitted through the surface layer of the Earth. The place of origin of an Earthquake in the Earth’s crust is called ‘Focus’. The point on the Earth surface which is perpendicular to the focus, receiving seismic waves is called ‘Epicentre’.

Causes of Earthquake: On the basis of occurrence earthquakes can be classified into three types. They occur due to several causes such as tectonic forces, folding, faulting, volcanic eruptions landslides, avalanches, man-made factor.

a. Tectonic Earthquakes: These are caused due to folding, faulting and displacement of blocks of rocks in the Earth’s crust. They are highly intensive and destructive seismic activities.

b. Volcanic Earthquakes: These are associated with the volcanic activities and are usually caused at great depths. They are with low intensity and magnitude. The destruction and damage are slightly lesser than earthquakes caused by Tectonic forces.

c. Earthquakes caused by man-made factors: Over interaction of man underground nuclear explosion etc. are causing great change in the crustal formation leading to seismic activity. E.g. Koynadam (India)-1967, Hoover dam(U.S.A)-1935, Mangla dam (Pakistan).

Effects of Earthquakes: Earthquakes cause violent disturbances and widespread damage and destruction, especially on the epicentre region.

  • Earthquakes cause changes in the earth’s surface. Cracks and fissures develop in the earth’s crust.
  • Vibrations, caused by earthquakes, lead to landslides in mountainous regions, damming the rivers.
  • Vertical or horizontal cracks are formed, and the land is elevated or lowered, forming lakes.
  • Deep cracks may be developed in dams after the earthquake. For instance, deep cracks were developed in the Koyna dam after the earthquake.
  • The beds of rivers may be raised by the earthquakes. For example, the bed of the river Brahmaputra was raised during the Assam earthquakes.
  • There is the greatest danger of falling of houses, roads railway lines factories, bridges, dams, aerodromes, and other man-made structures, resulting in loss of life and property.
  • The underground water system is disturbed.

Question 26.
Name the major types of rocks and describe Sedimentary rocks.
Answer:
The rocks which are formed due to aggregation and compactness of sediments are known as “sedimentary rocks.” According to their origin and composition, sedimentary rocks can be divided into two main categories. They are:

1. Inorganic rocks: Inorganic rocks are rocks formed from mineral matter which has been obtained by disintegration or decomposition of rocks. Inorganic rocks can be divided into two types. They are

a. Mechanically-formed rocks: The rock which have been formed form the accumulation of rock materials, derived form other rocks and have been cemented together are known as “ Mechanically formed rocks.” The mechanically formed rocks consist of sediments which have been carried and deposited by rivers, glaciers, winds or waves and cemented together with clay or line. On the basis of rock materials, these rocks can be divided into three main categories. They are:

  1. 1.Rudaceous rocks
  2. Aremaceous rocks
  3. Argilious rocks

1.  Rudaceous rocks: Rudaceous rocks are formed due to cementation and consolidation of pebbles and boulders. Rudaceous rocks consist of rock pieces and grave, cemented together, by clay or line. They are porous and can hold water. If the rock pieces are angular in shape and cemented together, they are called breccias. If the rock pieces are rounded and cemented tighter, they are called conglomerate.

2. Arenaceous rocks: These are formed mainly due to deposition, commentating and consolidation of sane grains e.g. Sand stone.

3. argillaceous rocks: These rocks are formed largely by fine clay particles e..g. Shale or mudstone these are impermeable.

b. Chemically formed rocks: The chemical often settle down and hardened to form rocks known as chemically formed rocks. For example: Gypsum and rock salt, running water dissolves and carries chemicals and where evaporation takes place, these chemicals are deposited at the mouth of springs, caves or caverns or in lakes. Rock salt and gypsum are formed form deposit of salt in strata on the beds of lakes.

2. Organic Rocks: Organic rocks are formed form the remains of organisms, i.e. of animals and plants. Examples: coal, limestone etc. On the basis of lime and carbon content, organically formed rocks can be divided into two kinds, namely

  • Calcareous rocks: Calcareous rocks are formed mostly from the remains of living organisms. These rocks contain calcium carbonate or lime. They include limestone and chalk. They are porous and soluble.
  • Carbonaceous rocks: These are formed due to the transformation of vegetative matter. Under the impact of heat and pressure the remains of plants are turned into hard layers. E.g. coal.

Question 27.
Give a detail account of the geomorphic processes.
Answer:
A land form is any natural formation of rock and dirt, found on the earth. A landform can be as large as a mountain range or as small as a hill. Landforms are natural features of the landscape, natural physical features of the earth’s surface eg. Valleys, plateaus, Mountains, plains, hills loess plains. The minor landforms include hills, ridges, valleys, basin etc. According to Geo-scientist the landforms are formed by the forces acting from the interior and on the surface of the Earth.

The processes carried out by Endogenic and Exogenic forces are called geomorphic processes. Endogenic forces: The internal forces are also known as endogenic forces. These are mainly the land building forces. Diastrophism includes all these processes tat move, elevate or build portions of the earth’s crust. The internal forces are also known as endogenic forces.

Exogenic Forces: The external forces are also known as Exogenic forces. These forces are found on the surface of the Earth, Which bring changes through degradation and aggradations process. River, glacier, w’ind, sea waves are the major sources of external forces.

Question 28.
What is weathering? Explain the types of weathering.
Answer:
The process of disintegration and decomposition of rocks is known as “Weathering”.
There are three types of weathering

  1. Mechanical weathering
  2. Chemical weathering
  3. Biological weathering
  4. Mechanical weathering: The disintegration of rocks by mechanical way and without any chemical changes is called “Mechanical weathering”. It is also called “physical weathering”.

The process of Mechanical w eathering is in various forms, depending the types of rock. They are:

  • Block disintegration: Due to temperature variation, there is continuous expansion and contraction in the rocks causing tension and stress. Later these rocks disintegrate into blocks known as “Block Disintegration”.
  • Granular disintegration: Rocks consist of several types of minerals and these minerals react differently to heat. As a result, the rocks break into different mineral grain known as “Granular Disintegration”.
  • Exfoliation: Due to the heat of the Sun, outer surfaced of rocks gets heated up, but inside it remains almost cool. This makes the rock to expand and crack. The thin layer of rocks peels off, like the peeling of an onion. This process is Galled “Exfoliation”.

2. Chemical weathering: Disintegration and Decomposition of rocks by chemical processes is called “Chemical weathering”.

In this process secondary or new minerals are developed from the original minerals of
the rocks. The rain w’ater and atmospheric gases are the main agents of chemical weathering. It is vey common in humid regions.
There are four types of chemical weathering process. They are;

  • Oxidation: The rain water with oxygen reacts on rocks containing iron and produce oxides. This chemical reaction is known as “oxidation”. The common process of rusting of iron is an example of oxidation.
  • Carbonation: The rain water with carbon-di-oxide becomes a weak carbonic acid andit reacts with calcium carbonate or limestone to form calcium bicarbonate, which dissolves easily. This process is called “Carbonation”. It is very active in limestone regions. .
  • Hydration: The rock minerals take up water the increased volume creates physical stress within the rock. As a result certain minerals like feldspar and gypsum are reduced into powder. This process is called “Hydration”.
  • Solution: The rain water is able to dissolve some of the soluble minerals, such as rock-salt, gypsum, potash. This process is called “Solution”.

c. Biological weathering: The disintegration of rocks caused by plants, animals and human beings is called “Biological Weathering”.

1. Plants: The roots of the plant grow through soil and in the cracks of rocks to find water and minerals. As the roots grow deep in the rock they widen and disintegrate the rocks. This process is most prominent in thick forests and vegetative regions.

2. Animals: The burrowing animals like rats, rabbits, ants, earthworms and termites influence in the breaking up of rocks and make passages below the ground. The seepage of air and water through these passage results in rapid weathering of rocks.

3. Human beings: Human beings play an important role weathering of rocks, through activities like agriculture, mining quarrying, oil drilling, deforestation etc.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 29.
Describe the pressure belts of the globe with a neat diagram.
Answer:
The distribution of pressure is not equal on the earth’s surface. It changes from palace to place and time to time on the basis of air temperature and rotation of the earth. Any area in the atmosphere where air pressure is higher than in the surrounding areas is called “ High pressure”/ Thee are 4 high pressure belts and 3 low pressure belts on the earth’s surface.
1st PUC Geography Model Question Paper 4 with Answers - 1

Equatorial Low pressure belt: This belt lies between latitudes 5°N and 5° S. The Sun’s rays are almost vertical on the equator throughout the year. As a result, the . temperature is uniformly high and pressure is low throughout the year. It is also known as “Doldrums”. The air gets warm and rises upward. Horizontal movement of air is absent and convectional currents occur. This is the zone of convergence of the trade winds.

Sub tropical high pressure belts: The air ascended in the form of convectional currents from the equatorial region partly descends in the between 30 to 40’ latitudes in both the hemispheres. The descending air has thus formed two high pressure zones known as subtropics high pressure belts. It is the zone from which trade and anti-trade winds originate. This belt is also known as “ horse altitudes’. It is dry and quite stable. The name horse latitude is given by the ancient sailors who used to transport horses on ships. Due to absence of strong winds, some times the ship could not move with horses. Hence sailors used to dump horses to make the ship move forward.

Sub Polar low pressure belts: In between polar high pressure and sub-tropical high pressure belt, the sum-tropical low pressure belts are situated. They lies in between 60’ to 70’ latitudes in both the hemispheres. They are formed with spinning action of rotation of the earth and also uprising air as an effect of incoming cold polar winds.

P-olar high pressure belts: The Polar Regions are characterized with low temperature. The air raised at the equator descends around the poles causing high pressure belts. The cold polar winds blow outward from this zone.

Question 30.
Give an account of topography of the ocean floor.
Answer:
On the basis of the depth, the ocean floor can be divided into four zones, parts or relief features. They are, .
1. The continental Shelf: The gently sloping portion of the continent or land that lies submerged below other sea is called the continental shelf. The continental shelf has a very gentle slope. It extends form the shore line to depths between 180 and 200 meters. Average width of the continental shelves is about 48km. The extent of the continental shelf depends on the relief of the broadening land masses. If the coastal area is a plateau area, the continental shelf will be very broad. On the other hand, if the coastal region is hilly or mountainous, the continental shelf will be very narrow or even absent for example the Atlantic Ocean has 2.3%, the Pacific Ocean has 5.7% and the India Ocean has 4.2%.
1st PUC Geography Model Question Paper 4 with Answers - 2

2. The continental slope: The zone of steep slope that descends from the edge of the continental shelf to the deep sea plains is called “continental slope”. It is the transitional zone lying between the continental shelf and the deep sea plains. The continental slope is very steep. It extends from 182 meters to 3,600 meters. The angle of the continental slope is 2 to 5 degre3es or even more. It occupies only 8.5% of the total area of the ocean floor. But it varies from ocean to ocean. The Atlantic Ocean has broader continental slopes and accounts for 12.4%. But it is 7% of the Pacific Ocean and 6.5% of the Indian Ocean.

3. The deep sea plains: The level and rolling areas of the ocean floor are generally called deep sea plains or abyssal plains or the ocean plains. They lie between 3,000 and 6,000 meters below other surface of the ocean. They occupy vast area of the ocean floor and account for about 82.7% of the total sea floor. They cover about 90% in the Indian Ocean. Their depth ranges from 5,000 to 6,000 meters. They are covered by oozes, which are the remains of deep sea creatures and plants, and of red volcanic dust.

4. The Ocean Deeps: The long narrow and deep troughs on the ocean floor are known as ‘ocean deep” or ‘trough’. They cover only 1% of the ocean floor. They are most common neat the coasts where young fold mountains, volcanoes and earthquakes abound. Some they are tectonic in origin. They are the deepest portions of the ocean. Deeps may be caused due to tectonic forces, i.e. faulting earthquakes etc.’There are 57known deeps. Of these 32 are found in Pacific Ocean, 19in the Atlantic Ocean and 6 in the Indian Ocean. The deepest trench in the world is Challenger deep located in Mariana Trench to the west of Philippines in the North Pacific Ocean.

Question 31.
Name the physical divisions of India and explain the coastal plains.
Answer:
This is the region all along the Indian coastline, lying between the coast and the mountain ranges of the peninsular plateau. India has 6100 km from Gujarat inn the west to West Bengal in the east. The average width is 10-25 kms. The coastal plain of India is divided into two parts.

The West Coastal plains: It is extends between the Arabian Sea and the Western Ghats. It is narrower than the east coastal plains, stretching to a length of about 1400km and width of 10 to 80km from the Rann of katchchh to kanyakumari. The west coastal plains have Gujarat, Konkan, Karnataka and Malabar Coasts.

The Gujarat Coast comprises of Rann of Kachchh and Cambay coasts. It is formed by the alluvial deposits of Sabarmati, Mahi, Luni and other small streams. Gujarat has the longest coast line in India.Kandla and okha are famous sea ports and alang is the biggest ship breaking centre. It produces highest salt in the country.

Konkan Coast lies to the south of Gujarat coast and extends line which provides suitable site foniatural seaports. Eg: Mumbai, Navasheva, Marmagoa, Karwar, New Mangalore etc., this coast records highest coastal erosion. It is very rich in Petroleum and natural gas. Karnataka coast: it is a part of Konkan coast. It extends from karwar in the north to Mangalore in the south. It is the narrowest part of west coastal plains. Karwar and New Mangalore are important ports in this belt. Sea Bird, the naval base near Karvvar is the largest naval base in India.

The Malabar Coast extends from Mangalore to Kanvakumari, Sand dunes, lagoons and backwaters are the important features of this coast. Cochin or Kochi is the biggest seaport in this coast. Backwaters of Kerala facilitate navigation and tourists enjoy travelling though small country boats. The first south west monsoon rainfall is received in this coast.

East coastal Plains: It lies between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal stretching from the delta of Hooghly in the North to Kanvakumari in the south. Compared to the west coastal plains the east coastal plains are broader.

The Utkal Coast: It is the coastal plain of Orissa state. It extend for about 400kmms, north from Subarnarekha river to south of the Rushikulya river. It has a chilka lake, which is the largest salt water lake in India, Para deep is the important horbour located here.

Coromandel Coast: The southern part of east coast is known as the Coromandel Coast. It gets more rainfall from the north east monsoons and it is highly affected by cyclones. The oldest harbor Chennai located here.

Question 32.
Explain the North Indian Rivers of India.
Answer:
The Himalayan Rivers or North Indian Rivers: These rivers take birth in Himalayan Mountains by glaciers and flow’s throughout the year (perennial). There are three main river systems in the Himalayan rivers. They are the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
1. The Indus river system: The Indus is one of the most important river systems of India. It rises near Mt. Kailash (6714m), has a length of2880km, of which 709 km lies in India. It flows through narrow gorges between Ladakh and Zaskar ranges in the North West direction in Jammu & Kashmir. It is one of the oldest river systems of the world. Major part of its course and catchment area are in Pakistan. The main tributaries are Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutluj.

2. The Ganga: The Ganga is the longest (2500Km) and the largest river system of the country. It is generally called, the ‘National river’ of India. The Ganga has two head streams-the Bhagirathi and the Alakananda. The Bhagirathi takes it is birth in Gangothri and Alakananda rises near Badrinath in Garhwal Himalayas. These two meet at Devaprayag, and continue to flow as the Ganga, after flowing across the Himalayas; the Ganga enters the Great. Plains at haridwar.

From Haridwar it flows towards south an south east up to Mirzapur. It continues to flow’ eastwards in the Gangetic plains of Bihar and West Bengal and enters Bangladesh, where it joins the Brahmaputra and become padma, and finally flow’s into Bay of Bengal. The important tributaries of Ganga are Ramganga, Ghagra, Gandak, Gomati, Bagmati, Kosi, Yamuna, Chambal, Betwa, sone, ken, damodar etc.

3. The Brahmaputra river system: It rises at Manasarovar lake (chanmyandung). In Tibet it is known as Tsangpo. It enters Aruncal Pradesh and is known as Brahmaputra. It joins. Ganga at Golunde (Bangladesh). The total length it flows is 2900km. and only 885km. in India. In Bangladesh it is called Meghana.

Question 33.
Write briefly about the types of soils found in India.
Answer:
Soil is the minute or finer rock particles found on the su rface of the Earth. It is formed naturally, due to the weathering of rocks, under the influence of climate.
The main types of soil in India are:

1. Alluvial soil: This soil is formed by depositional work of rivers and they are mainly found in the flood plains and deltas. Alluvial soil covers largest geographical are in the country. They are mainly distributed in the river plains of the Ganga, Brahmaputra and the Indus. Uttar Pradesh has the largest area under alluvial soil. It is also found in the deltas of east flowing rivers. Alluvial soils are classified into two types.

(a) Bhangar: Older alluvium, coarse and pebble like in nature, found at the lower depths of the plain.
(b) Khadar: New alluvium, finer in nature, found in the low lying flood plains and rich in fertility

2. Black soil: The black soils covered more area in peninsular plateau. This soil is also called ‘Cotton soil’ or “Regur soil”. It is derived from the weathered basalt rocks. This soil holds water from long period and become hard whenever it is dry. It is light-black to dark-black in colour. Maharashtra and Gujarat Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamilnadu. Black soils are good for Cotton, Sugarcane, Tobacco, Pulses, Millets, Citrus fruits, etc.

3. Red soil: This soil is formed by the weathered granite rocks. It is red in colour and rich in ferrous content. Red soil covers the second largest area in the country. Largest parts of peninsular region are covered with red soil. TamilNadu has the largest distribution of this soil in the country. Rice, Ragi, Jowar, Groundnut, Tobacco, Millets are the major crops cultivated in this soil.

4. Laterite soil: The hot and humid tropical regions of India are rich in laterite soil. This soil is derived from the fragmentation and disintegration of rocks in the mountain ranges. It is mainly found in the Western Ghats, parts of Eastern Ghats and Northeastern hills of India. Plantation crops like Tea, coffee, Rubber, Cashew nut are cultivated in this soil.

5. Desert soil: This soil is also called arid soil. They are mainly found in the desert and semi-desert regions of Western and North western parts of India. This soil has the least water holding capacity and humus content. Generally it is not suitable for cultivation of crops. This soil is mainly found in Rajasthan, parts of Gujarat and Haryana. With water facility crops like Bajra, Pulses and Guar are cultivated in this soil.

6. Mountain Soil: The Himalayan mountain valleys and hill slopes are covered with Mountain or Forest soil. It is found in the mountain slopes of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Utarkhand regions, Crops like Tea, Almond, saffron are cultivated in this soil.

Question 34.
Explain the major types of forests of India.
Answer:
The peninsular region of India has the largest forest cover with around 57% of the total forest area. According to geo-climatic conditions, forests are classified into:

a. Evergreen Forests: These forests are found in the regions of heavy rainfall and high, temperature. Tail umbrella shaped trees with dense assemblage is a prominent feature of this forest. The eve4rgree forest always looks green because various.species of trees are found here and they shed leaves in different seasons. The hardwood trees, rose wood, white cedar, toon, gurjan, chaplash, ebony, Mahogany, canes, bamboo, shisham etc.
These are found in North-east India, Western Ghats, Andaman and Nicobar islands, parts of Assam and some areas of Himalayan foot hills.

b. The Deciduous forests: The deciduous forest covers a wide range of rainfall regimes. The trees of these forests seasonally shed their leaves. The Indian deciduous forest is found in a range of landscapes from the plains to the hills. These forests provide shelter to most endangered wild life in the country, such as the Tiger, Asian Elephant, Bison, Gaur etc. The deciduous forest are two types ‘

(i) Moist Deciduous forests: The moist deciduous forests are found in wet regions, receiving annual rainfall between 100cm to 200cam and temperature of 25° C to 30°C. The trees of these forests shed their leaves during spring and early summer, They are found on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, ChotaNagpur Plateau, the siwaliksetc.

(ii) The Dry Deciduous Forests: The dry deciduous forest are found I the areas where annual rainfall is between 50cm to 150 cm and temperature of 25° C to 30° C. Sal is the most significant tree found in this forest. Varieties of acacia and bamboo are also fund here. These forests are found in areas of central Deccan plateau, South-east of Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana and parts of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

(iii) The mountain forests: As the name indicates these forests are confined to the Himalayan region, where the temperature is less compared to other parts of the country. The trees in this forest are cone shape with needle like leaves. The important trees are oak, fir, pin e spruce, silver fir, deodhar, devdar, juniper, picea chestnut etc. They provide softwood for making country boats, packing materials and sport articles.

c. The Desert forests: These forests are found in the areas of very low rainfall. Thorny bushes, shrubs, dry grass, acacia, cacti and babul are the important vegetation found in these forests. The Indian wild date known as ‘Khejurs”, is common in the deserts. They have spine leaves, long roots and thick fleshy stems in which they store water to survive during the long drought. These vegetations are found in Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana.

d. The Mangrove Forests: These forests occur along the river deltas (Ganga, Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna) of eastern coast and also concentrated in the coastal areas of Katchch, Kathiawar, and Gulf of Khambar. The mangrove forests in the Ganga delta are called Sunder bans because, they have extensive growth of Sundari trees. The trees in these forests are hard, durable and are used in boat making and as fuel. In the recent years mangrove vegetation is being grown in the coastal areas to control effects of tidal waves and coastal erosion.

IV. Answer any one of the following. ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 35.
Explain the important types of Rocks with suitable examples.
Answer:
Rock refers to the hard and resistant materials of the earth’s crust. But scientifically rock includes even soft and loose materials like chalk, clay, etc. So, rock refers to any solid materials, hard or soft of which the crust of the earth is formed. All rocks do not have the same chemical composition. But minerals have their own chemical compost in and physical prosperities. The earth’s crust is made up of various types of rocks
Types of Rocks: Rocks can be classified into three major groups on the basis of their origin or mode of formation. They are:

A. Igneous rocks: The term Igneous is derived from the Latin word “Ignis”, means fire. Thus the igneous rocks are formed by the cooling and solidification of molten material which is called magma. Igneous rocks are also called primary rocks, because they were the firs to be formed. As they are the rocks from which all other types of rocks are derived, they are also called parent rocks.

Igneous rocks are commonly classified on the basis of mode of formation into two major types.

  1. Intrusive rocks
  2. Extrusive rocks.

1. Intrusive rocks: The magma cannot escape out to the earth’s surface, it cols slowly inside the earth’s crust and hardens into rock. This type of rock is known as Intrusive Igneous rock. E.g. Granite and dolerite. These rocks can be divided into two type’s a. Plutonic rocks and b. Hybabyssal rocks.

  • Plutonic rocks: The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at great depth inside the earth are called Plutonic igneous rocks.
  • Hybabyssal rocks: These are intermediate rocks between the extruded volcanic rocks and the deep plutonic rocks. They are formed due to cooling and solidification of magma in cracks, pores, crevices etc.

II. Extrusive rocks: Rocks formed by cooling and solidification of lava on the surface of the Earth is called extrusive igneous rocks. E.g. Basalt.

B. Sedimentary Rocks: These rocks which are formed due to aggregation and compactness of sediments are known as sedimentary. In other words, sedimentary rocks are formed bye day the deposition of sediments derived form older rocks, planets and animals remains by river, winds, glaciers etc and these sediments are hardened into rocks by pressure. As they are formed by the consolidation of sediments. They are called sedimentary rocks. They are also called stratified rocks,

a. Mechanically-formed rocks: The rock which have been formed form the accumulation of rock materials, derived form other rocks and have been cemented together are known as “ Mechanically formed rocks.” The mechanically formed rocks consist of sediments which have been carried and deposited by rivers, glaciers, winds or waves and cemented together with clay or line. On the basis of rock materials. These rocks can be divided into three main categories. They are: Rudaceous rocks, Arernaceous rocks and Argilious rocks.

b. Chemically formed rocks: The chemical often settle down and hardened to form rocks known as chemically formed rocks. For example: Gypsum and rock salt, running water dissolves and carries chemicals and where evaporation takes place, these chemicals are deposited at the mouth of springs, caves or caverns or in lakes. Rock salt and gypsum are formed form deposit of salt in strata on the beds of lakes.

c. Organically formed rocks: Organic rocks are formed form the remains of organisms, i.e. of animals and plants. Examples: coal, limestone etc. On the basis of lime and carbon content, organically formed rocks can be divided into two kinds, namely

  • Calcareous rocks: Calcareous rocks are formed mostly from the remains of living organisms. These rocks contain calcium carbonate or lime. They include limestone and chalk. They are porous and soluble.
  • Carbonaceous rocks: These are formed due to the transformation of vegetative matter. Under the impact of heat and pressure the remains of plants are turned into hard layers. E.g. coal.

C. Metamorphic rocks: Rock which has been changes either in form or in composition without disintegration is called metamorphic rocks. These rocks are metamorphosed form igneous sedimentary rocks. Igneous and sedimentary rocks may undergo chemical and physical changes because of pressure and heat and form metamorphic rocks. The intense heat and pressure in the earth’s curst alters the composition and appearance of rocks completely or partially to produce a new type of rocks.In this manner metamorphic rocks are formed. Marble, Diamond, Quartzite, Ruby, Emerald are the examples of metamorphic rock.

Question 36.
Describe the work of river with suitable diagrams.
Answer:
River is an important external agent of denudation on the ever-changing face of the Earth.
The work of river is more or less common in all the drainage systems of the world.
The work of river consists of three closely interrelated activities.

1. Erosional work: The process of wearing and taking away the part of rock is known as ‘Erosion’. It depends upon the volume and velocity of water, nature of slope and the nature of rocks. The erosional work of the river is performed in two ways.

a. The Mechanical and
b. The Chemical erosion.

There are various landforms associated to erosional work of river.

a. ’V’ Shaped valley: In the mountain course the speed of the river is greater and volume is less. As the water rushes down the steep slopes there is maximum vertical or later erosion. The rapid down cutting or vertical erosion results in the formation of ‘V’ shaped valley.

b. Gorge: A deep and narrow valley with steep rocky sides in the river course is known as ‘Gorge’. They are formed by the regular vertical cutting by the rivers in the valleys eg. Narmada gorge.

c. I shape valley: A vey steep, deep river valley formed by the river, looking like ‘I’, is called T Shaped valley. These are very deep compared to gorges.

d. Canyon: It is a wide, deep and steep valley almost with vertical walls like feature found in the arid or semi arid regions is called ‘Canyon’ eg. Grand Canyon of River Colorado in USA.

e. Potholes: These are the small depressions in the rocky beds of other river valley.
They are formed by corrosion. Pebbles, sand and small rocks carried by the river swirled around on the river bed. This action erodes the rock on the river bed forming potholes.

f. Waterfalls: Huge volume of water falling from a great height along the course of a river is called “Waterfalls’. They are formed when the hard and soft rocks come in the way of flowing river. The soft rock gets eroded faster and hard rock does not erode easily. Therefore huge amount of water falls from great height and creates waterfalls. Eg. The Jog falls, The Angel falls, The Victoria falls.

g. River Capture: It is formed mainly due to head-ward erosion by the river near its source. When the source of a river is captured by another major and strong river it is called‘River Capture’.

2. Transportational work: The process of carrying away the eroded materials is known as ‘Transportation’. The rock materials and eroded particles carried by a river is called its Load. The transportation capacity of a river is based on velocity of water, volume of water, load, slope, smooth valley floor etc.

The major landforms associated with the transportational work of the river are,

a. Alluvial fans: The term alluvium refers to the debris transported and deposited by rivers. When the fast flowing river enters the plateau or plain region, it experience sudden decline in gradient and obstruction in its path. Due to obstruction of the river spreads and deposits many of its light materials in fan shape known as ‘alluvial fans’.

b. Alluvial cones: In the plateau and foot hill region when the river spreads out, the eroded materials carried by the river is deposited in conical shape called ‘Alluvial cones’.

3. Depositional work: The process of carrying and accumulating the eroded materials by the river at the lower course is called ‘deposition’. In the lower course due to gentle slope the river slows down and deposits most of its materials on the banks, course and the mouth.

The important landforms resulting from depositional work of the river are,

a. Meanders: In the lower course, river flows slowly in zig zag or curved manner due to smaller obstruction in its path. A curve or loop formed by the river in its path is called ‘Meander’. When the river course formed by such crescent shaped loops due to continuous lateral deposition it is called meandering course.

b. Ox-bow Lakes: The ox-bow lakes are formed by depositional and erosional actions taking place simultaneously and they are a result of excessive meandering. The River which flows through the shorter route leaving the curve of the meander cut off and crescent shaped lake is formed known as ‘Ox-bow lakes’.

c. Flood Plains: When the river is in floods the water over flows on its bank and spreads in the surrounding regions. The silt carried by the water gets deposited in these areas and creates flat plains on both the banks of the rive known as ‘Flood Plains’.

d. Delta: A triangular shaped alluvial deposition forced at the mouth of the river is called ‘Delta’. Important types of deltas are
a. Arcuate or Common delta b. Bird-foot delta

e. Distributaries: As the river approaches the sea or Ocean, due to reduction in gradient, joining of tributaries, its volume increases, speed decreases hence, the river begins to break up into a number of branches from the main river called ‘Distributaries’.

f. Estuary: Estuaries are the tidal mouth of a riverhaving a narrow, gradually widening lay at the mouth. In Estuary River water is mixed with sea water. Eg. The Narmada estuary, The Kali estuary.

KSEEB Solutions

V. (A) Answer the following in a sentence each. ( 1 × 5 = 5 )

Question 37.
What is Cartography?
Answer:
The science and art of making maps, charts, globes and rile models is known as Cartography.

Question 38.
Define Map.
Answer:
A map is defined as a symbolical and conventional representation of the earth or a portion fit drawn to scale on a flat surface and bounded by the geographical co-ordinates as viewed from above.

Question 39.
What is Scale?
Answer:
A scale is the ratio of the distance between two points on the map and their corresponding distance on the ground.

Question 40.
What is Index?
Answer:
The features show on a map is indicated by a guide called map index.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 41.
Give an example for small scale map.
Answer:
Small Scale maps: The Maps drawn on the scale below 1 cm: 15Km or 1:15, 00,000 eg. Atlas and Wall Maps. These maps show broad physical and cultural features.

(B) Identify the latitudes and longitudes for the given places. ( 1 × 5 = 5 )

Question 42.
Mysore

Question 43.
Tumkur

Question 44.
Mangalore

Question 45.
Haveri

Question 46.
Bidar
Answers:
1st PUC Geography Model Question Paper 4 with Answers - 3

KSEEB Solutions

(C) Draw diagrams to the following. ( 2 × 2 = 4 )

Question 47.
Pressure belts of the globe.
Answer:
Pressure belts of the globe.
1st PUC Geography Model Question Paper 4 with Answers - 4

Question 48.
Orographic rainfall
Answer:
Orographic rainfall
1st PUC Geography Model Question Paper 4 with Answers - 5

(D) Draw the outline map of India, mark and name the following

Question 49.
Map drawing (2)
Answer:

Physical divisions of India
1st PUC Geography Model Question Paper 4 with Answers - 6

KSEEB Solutions

Question 50.
Southwest and Northeast monsoon winds (2)

Question 51.
Nokrek and Agasthyamalai biosphere reserves (2)

1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives

Students can Download Maths Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Maths Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of x → a .
Answer:
Let x be a variable and ‘a’ be a constant. Since ‘x’ is a variable we can change its value at pleasure. It can be changed so that its value comes nearer and nearer to a. Then we say that x approaches ‘a’ and it is denoted by x → a .

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Investigate the behaviour of \(f(x)=\frac{x^{2}-4}{x-2}\) at the point the point x = 2 and near the point x = 2.
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 1
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 2
It is clear from the table that as gets nearer and nearer to 2 from either side, f(x) gets closer and closer 4 from either side.
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 2^{-}} f(x)=\lim _{x \rightarrow 2^{+}} f(x)=4\)

Question 3.
Define limit of a function.
Answer:
Let f(x) be a function defined on an interval that contains x = a, except possible at x = a. Then we say that, \(\lim _{x \rightarrow a} f(x)=L\)
If for every number ∈ > 0 there is some number δ > 0 such that
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 3

Remark: We say  \(\lim _{x \rightarrow a^{-}} f(x)\)is expected value of f at
x = a given the values of f near x to the left to a.The values is called left hand limit.
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 4
\(\text { We say } \lim _{x \rightarrow a^{+}} f(x)\) is expected value of f at x = a given the values of f near x to the right to a. The value is called right hand limit.
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 5

Question 4.
Discuss the limits of the function
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}{-1,} & {\text { if } x<0} \\{1,} & {\text { if } x>0}\end{array} \text { at } x=0\right.\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 6
∴ LHL ≠ RHL
Limit does not exist

Question 5.
Discuss the limit of the function f(x) = x +10 at x = 5.
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 7

Question 6.
Discuss the limit of f(x) = x3 at x = 1.
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 8

Question 7.
Find \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 2} f(x), \text { where } f(x)=3x\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 9

Question 8.
Find \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 2} f(x)\),where f(x) = 3 a constant function
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 10

Question 9.
Find \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1}\left(x^{2}+x\right)\)
Answer:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1}\left(x^{2}+x\right)=1^{2}+1=2\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
Find
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{aligned}x-2, & x<0 \\0, & x=0 \\x+2, & x>0\end{aligned}\right.\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 11
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 12

Question 11.
Find \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1}\left(x^{3}-x^{2}+1\right)\)
Answer:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1}\left(x^{3}-x^{2}+1\right)=1^{3}-1^{2}+1=1\)

Question 12.
Find \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 3} x(x+1)\)
Answer:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 3} x(x+1)=3(3+1)=12\)

Question 13.
Find \(\lim _{x \rightarrow-1}\left(1+x+x^{2}+\ldots+x^{10}\right)\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 13

Question 14.
Find \(\begin{aligned} &\lim (x+3)\&x \rightarrow 3\end{aligned}\)
Answer:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 3}(x+3)=3+3=6\)

Question 15.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow \pi}\left(x-\cfrac{22}{7}\right)\)
Answer:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow \pi}\left(x-\cfrac{22}{7}\right)=\pi-\cfrac{22}{7}\)

Question 16.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} \pi r^{2}\)
Answer:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} \pi r^{2}=\pi(1)^{2}=\pi\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 17.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 4} \cfrac{4 x+3}{x-2}\)
Answer:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 4} \cfrac{4 x+3}{x-2}=\cfrac{4(4)+3}{4-2}=\cfrac{19}{2}\)

Question 18.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow-1} \cfrac{x^{10}+x^{5}+1}{x-1}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 14

Question 19.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{(x+1)^{2}-1}{x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 15

Question 20.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 2} \cfrac{3 x^{2}-x-10}{x^{2}-4}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 16

Question 21.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 3} \cfrac{x^{4}-81}{2 x^{2}-5 x-3}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 17

Question 22.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{a x+b}{c x+1}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 18

Question 23.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} \cfrac{a x^{2}+b x+c}{c x^{2}+b x+a}, a+b+c \neq 0\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 19

Question 24.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 2} \cfrac{\cfrac{1}{x}+\cfrac{1}{2}}{x+2}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 20

KSEEB Solutions

Question 25.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} \cfrac{x^{2}+1}{x+100}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 21

Question 26.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 2} \cfrac{x^{3}-4 x^{2}+4 x}{x^{2}-4}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 22
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 23

Question 27.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 2} \cfrac{x^{2}-4}{x^{3}-4 x^{2}+4 x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 24

Question 28.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 2} \cfrac{x^{3}-2 x^{2}}{x^{2}-5 x+6}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 25

Question 29.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1}\left[\cfrac{x-2}{x^{2}-x}-\cfrac{1}{x^{3}-3 x^{2}+2 x}\right]\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 26

Question 30.
Prove that,for any positive integer n,
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow a} \cfrac{x^{n}-a^{n}}{x-a}=n\left(a^{n-1}\right)\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 27

Question 31.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow a} \cfrac{x^{3}-a^{3}}{x-a}\)
Answer:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow a} \cfrac{x^{3}-a^{3}}{x-a}=3 a^{2}\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 32.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 2} \cfrac{x^{7}-128}{x-2}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 28

Question 33.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} \cfrac{x^{3}-1}{x-1}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 29

Question 34.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow a} \cfrac{x^{2 / 7}-a^{2 / 7}}{x-a}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 30

Question 35.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow-a} \cfrac{x^{5}+a^{5}}{x+a}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 31

Question 36.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow-1} \cfrac{x^{3}+1}{x+1}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 61

Question 37.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow a} \cfrac{x \sqrt{x}-a \sqrt{a}}{x-a}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 32

Question 38.
Find
\(\lim _{2 x \rightarrow-1} \cfrac{8 x^{3}+1}{2 x+1}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 33

Question 39.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} \cfrac{x^{15}-1}{x^{10}-1}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 34

Question 40.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 2} \cfrac{x^{3}-8}{x^{2}-4}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 35

KSEEB Solutions

Question 41.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 4} \cfrac{x^{3}-64}{x^{2}-16}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 36

Question 42.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 2} \cfrac{x^{10}-1024}{x^{5}-32}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 37

Question 43.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 9} \cfrac{x^{\cfrac{3}{2}}-27}{x-9}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 38

Question 44.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow a} \cfrac{x^{\cfrac{2}{3}}-a^{\cfrac{2}{3}}}{x^{\cfrac{3}{4}}-a^{\cfrac{3}{4}}}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 39

Question 45.
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{\sqrt{1+x}-1}{x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 40

KSEEB Solutions

Question 46.
Find
\(\lim _{z \rightarrow 1} \cfrac{z^{\cfrac{1}{3}}-1}{z^{\cfrac{1}{6}}-1}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 41

Question 47.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{(1-x)^{n}-1}{x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 42

Question 48.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} \cfrac{\left(x+x^{2}+x^{3}+\ldots+x^{n}\right)-n}{x-1}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 43

Result 1:
Let f and g be two real valued functions with the same domain such that f(x) ≤ g(x), for all x in the domain of definition. For some a, if both
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow a} f(x)\)and \(\lim _{x \rightarrow a} g(x)\) exists them. \(\lim _{x \rightarrow a} f(x) \leq \lim _{x \rightarrow a} g(x)\)

KSEEB Solutions

Result 2 : (Sandwich theorem):
Let f, g and h be real functions such that f(x)≤g(x)≤h(x),∀x, in common domain of definition. For some real number a
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow a} f(x)=l=\lim _{x \rightarrow a} h(x) \text { then } \lim _{x \rightarrow a} g(x)=1\)

Question 49.
Prove that
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{\sin x}{x}=1\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 44
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 45
Question 50.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{\sin a x}{b x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 46

KSEEB Solutions

Question 51.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{\sin a x}{\sin b x}, a, b \neq 0\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 47

Question 52.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{\sin 4 x}{\sin 6 x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 48

Question 53.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{\tan x}{x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 49

Question 54.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{\tan 3 x}{\sin 2 x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 50

Question 55.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{\tan 8 x}{\sin 2 x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 51

Question 56.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{\sin 5 x}{\tan 3 x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 52

KSEEB Solutions

Question 57.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow \pi} \cfrac{\sin (\pi-x)}{\pi(\pi-x)}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 53

1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 62

Question 58.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{\cos x}{\pi-x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 54

Question 59.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{1-\cos 4 \theta}{1-\cos 6 \theta}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 55

Question 60.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{1-\cos 5 x}{1-\cos 6 x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 56

KSEEB Solutions

Question 61.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{1-\cos 3 x}{x^{2}}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 57

Question 62.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{1-\cos \theta}{2 \theta^{2}}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 58

Question 63.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{1-\cos x}{x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 59

Question 64.
Evaluate:
\(\begin{aligned}&\lim x \cdot \sec x\\&x \rightarrow 0\end{aligned}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 60

KSEEB Solutions

Question 65.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{a x+x \cos x}{b \sin x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 62

Question 66.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{\sin a x+b x}{a x+\sin b x}, a, b, a+b \neq 0\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 66

Question 67.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{1-\cos x}{\sin ^{2} x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 67
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 68

Question 68.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{1-\cos 2 x}{3 \tan ^{2} x}\)
Answer:

1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 69

Question 69.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{\tan 2 x+\sin 2 x}{x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 70

Question 70.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0}[\csc x-\cot x]\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 71

Question 71.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow \cfrac{\pi}{2}} \cfrac{\tan 2 x}{x-\cfrac{\pi}{2}}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 72

KSEEB Solutions

Question 72.
\(\begin{aligned} &\text { Find } \lim _{x \rightarrow 0} f(x) \text { and } \lim _{x \rightarrow 1} f(x) \text { if }\\&f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}{2 x+3,} & {x \leq 0} \\{3(x+1),} & {x>0}\end{array}\right.\end{aligned}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 73

Question 73.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} f(x), \text { where } f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}{x^{2}-1,} & {x \leq 1} \\{-x^{2}-1,} & {x>1}\end{array}\right.\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 74

Question 74.
Evaluate
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} f(x), \text { where } f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}{\frac{|x|}{x},} & {x \neq 0} \\{0,} & {x=0}\end{array}\right.\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 75

Question 75.
Find
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 5} f(x), \text { where } f(x)=|x|-5\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 76

Question 76.
Suppose
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cl}{a+b x,} & {x<1} \\{4,} & {x=1 \text { and }} \\{b-a x,} &{x>1}\end{array}\right.\)
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} f(x)=f(1)\).what are possible value of a and b?
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 77

Question 77.
Let a1, a2,…, an be fixed real numbers and define a function
f(x) = (x – a1)(x – a2)…(x – an).
\(\text { What is } \lim _{x \rightarrow a_{1}} f(x) ? \text { For some } a \neq a_{1}, a_{2}, \dots, a_{n}\) \(\text { 1) }\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 78

KSEEB Solutions

Question 78.
\(\begin{aligned}&\text { If } f(x)=\left\{\begin{aligned}|x|+1, & x<0 \\0, & x=0 \text { for what value(s) of } \\|x|-1, & x>0\end{aligned}\right.\\&^{t} a^{\prime} \text { does } \lim _{x \rightarrow a} f(x) \text { exists? }\end{aligned}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 79

Question 79.
If the function f(x) satisfies \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} \frac{f(x)-2}{x^{2}-1}=\pi, \text { evaluate } \lim _{x \rightarrow 1} f(x)\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 80

Question 80.
If \(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}{m x^{2}+n,} & {x<0} \\{n x+m,} & {0 \leq x \leq 1} \\{n x^{3}+m,} & {x>1}\end{array}\right.\)for what integers m and n does both
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} f(x)\)\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} f(x) \text { exist? }\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 81

Derivaties:

Question 81.
Define a derivative of f(x) at a point.
Ans :
Suppose f is a real valued function and ‘a’ is a point in its domain of definition. The derivative of f at ‘a’ is defined by
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 82

Question 82.
Find the derivative at x = 2 of the function f(x) = 3x.
Answer:
We have
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 83
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 84

Question 83.
Find the derivative of f(x) = x2 – 2 at x = 10.
Answer:
We have,
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 85

Question 84.
Find the derivative of 99x at x = 100.
Answer:
We have,
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 86

Question 85.
Find the derivative of x at x = 1.
Answer:
We have,
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 87

Question 86.
Find the derivative of the function f(x) = 2x2 + 3x – 5 at x = -1. Also prove that
f'(0) + 3f'(l) = 0.
Answer:
We have,
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 88
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 89

KSEEB Solutions

Question 87.
Find the derivative of sinx at x = 0.
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 90

Question 88.
Find the derivative of f(x) = 3 at x = 3
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 91

Question 89.
Define derivative of f(x) at x.
Answer:
Suppose f is a real valued function, the function defined by\(\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}\),wherever the limit exists is defined to be derivative of f at x and is denoted by f'(x). Thus \(f^{\prime}(x)=\lim _{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}\)

Question 90.
Find the derivative of f(x) = 10x
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 92

Question 91.
Find the derivative of the following : (by first principles)
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 93
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 94
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 95
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 96
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 97
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 98
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 99
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 100
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 101
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 102
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 103
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 104

KSEEB Solutions

Algebra of derivative of functions

Theorem

Let f and g be two functions such that their derivatives are defined in a common domain. Then

(i) Derivative of sum of two functions is sum of the derivatives of the functions.
\(\cfrac{d}{d x}[f(x)+g(x)]=\cfrac{d}{d x} f(x)+\cfrac{d}{d x} g(x)\)

(ii) Derivative of difference of two functions is difference of the derivatives of the functions
\(\cfrac{d}{d x}[f(x)-g(x)]=\cfrac{d}{d x} f(x)-\cfrac{d}{d x} g(x)\)

(iii) Derivative of product of two functions is given by the following product rule:
\(\begin{aligned}\cfrac{d}{d x}[f(x) \cdot g(x)] & \\&=f(x)\left[\cfrac{d}{d x}g(x)\right]+g(x)\left[\cfrac{d}{d x} f(x)\right]\end{aligned}\)

(iv) Derivative of the quotient of two functions is given by the following quotient rule:
\(\cfrac{d}{d x} \cfrac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\cfrac{g(x) \cfrac{d}{d x} f(x)-f(x) \cfrac{d}{d x} g(x)}{[g(x)]^{2}}\)
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 105

1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 106

I. Differentiate the following with respect to x

Question 1.
y = 25
Answer:
\(\cfrac{d y}{d x}=0\)

Question 2.
\(y=\cfrac{\pi}{4}\)
Answer:
\(\cfrac{d y}{d x}=0\)

Question 3.
y = 5 cos α, α is a constant.
Answer:
\(\cfrac{d y}{d x}=0\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
\(y=x^{6}\)
Answer:
\(\cfrac{d y}{d x}=6 x^{5}\)

Question 5.
\(y=x^{-5}\)
Answer:
\(\cfrac{d y}{d x}=-5 x^{-6}\)

Question 6.
\(y=5 x^{\frac{7}{2}}\)
Answer:
\(\cfrac{d y}{d x}=5 \cdot \cfrac{7}{2} x^{\cfrac{7}{2}-1}=\cfrac{35}{2} x^{\cfrac{5}{2}}\)

Question 7.
\(y=8 \cdot x^{\cfrac{5}{2}} x^{-\cfrac{5}{3}}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 107

Question 8.
y = ( 2 + x)2
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 108

Question 9.
\(y=\frac{3}{x^{5}}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 109

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
\(y=\left(x+\cfrac{1}{x}\right)^{2}, x \neq 0\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 110

Question 11.
\(y=\left(\sqrt{x}+\cfrac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\right)^{2}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 111

Question 12.
y = (ax)m +bm
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 112

Question 13.
y = x3+ 4x2 +7x + 2
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 113

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
\(y=3+4 x-7 x^{2}-\sqrt{2} x^{3}+\pi x^{4}-\cfrac{2}{5} x^{5}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 114

Question 15.
\(y=2 x^{\cfrac{1}{2}}+6 x^{\cfrac{1}{3}}+2 x^{\cfrac{3}{2}}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 115

Question 16.
\(y=x^{n}+a x^{n-1}+a^{2} x^{n-2}+\ldots+a^{n-1} x+a^{n}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 116

Question 17.
\(y=(x-2)^{2}(2 x-3)\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 117

Question 18.
\(y=\cfrac{(x+5)\left(2 x^{2}-1\right)}{x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 118

Question 19.
\(y=\left(2 x^{2}+3\right)\left(x^{2}-x+2\right)\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 119

Question 20.
\(y=\cfrac{3 x^{7}+x^{5}-2 x^{4}+x-3}{x^{4}}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 120

Question 21.
\(y=\cfrac{(2 x-1)\left(5 x^{\cfrac{1}{2}}+7\right)}{x^{\cfrac{1}{2}}}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 121

KSEEB Solutions

Question 22.
\(y=\left(x-\cfrac{1}{x}\right)\left(x^{2}-\cfrac{1}{x^{2}}\right)\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 122

Question 23.
\(y=\cfrac{2 x^{2}-3 x+1}{\sqrt{x}}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 123

Question 24.
\(y=x^{4}+7 x^{3}+8 x^{2}+3 x+2+\sqrt{x}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 124

Question 25.
y = a(x -2)(x – 3) + b
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 125

Question 26.
y = a(x – 2) (x – b)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 126

Question 27.
y = (ax2+b)2
Answer:
y = (ax2 + b)2
= a2x4 + 2abx2 + b2
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 127

Question 28.
y = x + a
Answer:
\(\cfrac{d y}{d x}=1+0=1\)

Question 29.
\(y=4 \sqrt{x}-2\)
Answer:
\( \cfrac{d y}{d x}=4\left(\cfrac{1}{2} x^{-\cfrac{1}{2}}\right)-0=2 x^{-\cfrac{1}{2}}\)

Question 30.
\(y=(p x+q)\left(\frac{r}{x}+s\right)\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 128

Question 31.
\(y=\cfrac{a}{x^{4}}-\cfrac{b}{x^{2}}+\cos x\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 129

Question 32.
\(y=\cfrac{a}{x^{4}}-\cfrac{b}{x^{2}}+\cos x\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 130

Question 33.
y = sin (x  + a)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 131

KSEEB Solutions

Question 34.
For the function
\(\begin{aligned}&f(x)=\cfrac{x^{100}}{100}+\cfrac{x^{99}}{99}+\ldots+\cfrac{x^{2}}{2}+x+1 . \text { Prove that }\\&f^{\prime}(1)=100 f^{\prime}(0)\end{aligned}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 132
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 133

II. Using product rule,differentiate the following with respect to x:

Question 1.
y =x sin x
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 134

Question 2.
y = x cos x
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 135

Question 3.
y = x3 sin x
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 136

Question 4.
y = (x – 2)(x + 3)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 137

Question 5.
y = sinx cosx
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 138

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
y = sec x tan x
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 139

Question 7.
y = cosec x cot x
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 140

Question 8.
y = x5 cot x
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 141

Question 9.
y = xn tan x
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 142

Question 10.
y = (x3 + x2 + 1)sin x
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 143

Question 11.
y = (x2 -5x + 6)sec x
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 144

Question 12.
y = (x2 +1)cosx
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 145

Question 13.
x = sin 2x
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 146

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
y = (5x3 4- 3x -1)(x -1)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 147

Question 15.
y = x-3(5 + 3x)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 148

Question 16.
y = x5(3-6x-9)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 149

Question 17.
y = x-4(3 – 4-5)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 150

Question 18.
y = (x2 – 5x + 6)(x3 + 2)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 151

Question 19.
y = x4(5 sin x -3 cos x)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 152

Question 20.
y = (x+ sec x)(x – tanx)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 153

Question 21.
y = (5 – 4 cosx)(1 – 2tanx)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 154

Question 22.
y = (1 + 2 tan x)(5 + 4 cos x)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 155

Question 23.
y = (x + cos x)(x – tanx)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 156

Question 24.
y = (x + sec x)(x -tan x)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 157

KSEEB Solutions

Question 25.
y= (ax2 + sinx)(p + q cos x)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 158

III. Using quotient rule, differentiable with respect to x

Question 1.
y = cot x
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 159
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 160

Question 2.
\(y=\cfrac{x^{n}-a^{n}}{x-a}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 161

Question 3.
\(y=\cfrac{1+x^{2}}{1-x^{2}}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 162

Question 4.
\(y=\cfrac{7 x+4}{4 x-7}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 163

Question 5.
\(y=\cfrac{x}{x+5}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 164

Question 6.
\(y=\cfrac{x-a}{x-b}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 165

Question 7.
\(y=\cfrac{2 x+3}{x-2}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 167

Question 8.
\(y=\cfrac{a x+b}{c x+d}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 168

Question 9.
\(y=\cfrac{1+\cfrac{1}{x}}{1-\cfrac{1}{x}}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 169

Question 10.
\(y=\cfrac{x^{2}+5 x-6}{4 x^{2}-x+3}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 170

Question 11.
\(y=\cfrac{x^{2}-1}{x^{2}+7 x+1}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 171

KSEEB Solutions

Question 12.
\(y=\cfrac{(x-1)(x-2)}{(x-3)(x-4)}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 172

Question 13.
\(y=\cfrac{\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{a}-\sqrt{x}}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 173
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 174

Question 14.
\(y=\cfrac{a x^{2}+b x+c}{p x^{2}+q x+r}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 175

Question 15.
\(y=\cfrac{a x+b}{p x^{2}+q x+r}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 176

Question 16.
\(y=\cfrac{p x^{2}+q x+r}{a x+b}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 177

Question 17.
\(y=\cfrac{1}{p x^{2}+q x+r}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 178

Question 18.
\(y=\cfrac{1}{a x^{2}+b x+c}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 179

Question 19.
\(y=\cfrac{\sec x+1}{\sec x-1}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 180

Question 20.
\(y=\cfrac{1-\tan x}{1+\tan x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 181

Question 21.
\(y=\cfrac{\sec x-1}{\sec x+1}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 182

Question 22.
\(y=\cfrac{a+b \sin x}{c+d \cos x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 183

KSEEB Solutions

Question 23.
\(y=\cfrac{4 x+5 \sin x}{3 x+7 \cos x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 184

Question 24.
\(y=\cfrac{a+\sin x}{1+a \sin x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 185

Question 25.
\(y=\cfrac{x^{5}-\cos x}{\sin x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 186

Question 26.
\(y=\cfrac{x+\cos x}{\tan x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 187

Question 27.
\(y=\cfrac{\cos x}{1+\sin x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 188

Question 28.
\(y=\cfrac{\sin x+\cos x}{\sin x-\cos x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 189
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 190

Question 29.
\(y=\frac{x^{2} \cos \frac{\pi}{4}}{\sin x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 191

Question 30.
\(y=\cfrac{x^{2} \cos \cfrac{\pi}{4}}{\sin x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 192

Limits involving exponential and Logarithmic functions:

Question 1.
Define a logarithmic function.
Answer:
The logarithmic function expressed as loge: R+ → R is given by loge x = y, if and only if ey = x

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Prove that \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{e^{x}-1}{x}=1\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 193

Question 3.
Prove that
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{\log _{e}(1+x)}{x}=1\)
Answer:
\(\text { Let } \frac{\log _{e}(1+x)}{x}=y . \text { Then }\)
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 194

Question 4.
Compute
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{e^{3 x}-1}{x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 195
Question 5.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{e^{4 x}-1}{x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 196

Question 6.
Compute
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{e^{2+x}-e^{2}}{x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 197

Question 7.
Compute
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{e^{\sin x}-1}{x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 198

Question 8.
Compute
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{e^{x}-\sin x-1}{x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 199

Question 9.
Evalute
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 5} \cfrac{e^{x}-e^{5}}{x-5}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 200

Question 10.
Compute:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 3} \frac{e^{x}-e^{3}}{x-3}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 201

Question 11.
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{x\left(e^{x}-1\right)}{1-\cos x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 202

Question 12.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{\log _{e}(1+2 x)}{x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 203

Question 13.
Evaluate:
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\log \left(1+x^{3}\right)}{\sin ^{3} x}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 204

Question 14.
Evaluate
\(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} \cfrac{\log _{e} x}{x-1}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives 205

1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (South)

Students can Download 1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (South), Karnataka 1st PUC Geography Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (South)

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

  1. Answer All the questions.
  2. Draw map and diagrams wherever necessary.
  3. Question No. V is on cartography
  4. Blind students attempt only VA, 52, 53 and 54 instead of V – B, C and D.

I. Answer the following questions in a sentences each: (1 × 10 = 10)

Question 1.
What is modern Geography?
Answer:
It deals with ‘Earth and its inhabitants’.

Question 2.
What is the shape of the Earth?
Answer:
The shape of the earth is ‘Oblate spheriod’ or ‘Geoid’.

Question 3.
Name any two factors of Mechanical weathering.
Answer:
Temperature, Rainfall, Wind, Ice.

Question 4.
What is Atmoshpere
Answer:
The thin layer of gaseous matter encircling the earth in the form of blanket is known as Atmosphere.

Question 5.
Which instrument is used to measure depth of the ocean?
Answer:
Fathamometer.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Mention the types of currents.
Answer:

  • Warm Current
  • Cold Current

Question 7.
What is Environment?
Answer:
The study of surrounding of man lives and works.

Question 8.
What is the total geographical area of India?
Answer:
The total geographical area of India is 32,87,263 sq. km.

Question 9.
Name the longest coastal plains of India.
Answer:
The Gujarat coastline.

Question 10.
What type of climate is found in India?
Answer:
India has tropical monsoon type of climate.

II. Answer any Ten of the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences each: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 11.
Expand SIAL and SIMA.
Answer:
SIAL-Silica Aluminum SIMA-Silica Magnesium

Question 12.
Mention any two types of chemical weathering.
Answer:

  1. Oxidation
  2. Carbonation

Question 13.
State the difference between Endogenic and Exogenic forces.
Answer:
The internal forces are called endogenic forces. These are mainly the land building forces. The external forces are called exogenic forces. These are found on the surface of the earth.

Question 14.
Mention any two components of Atmosphere.
Answer:

  1. Various gases
  2. Water vapour.

Question 15.
Name the two important trade winds.
Answer:

  1. North east trade winds
  2. South east trade winds

Question 16.
What is weather and climate?
Answer:
Weather: Frequent variation in the atmospheric condition can be called weather force. For Example: Changes taking place in a day.
Climate: Long term variation in the atmospheric condition can be called climate. For example: Seasons.

Question 17.
Mention any four dissolved minerals in the ocean water.
Answer:

  1. Sodium chloride
  2. Magnesium chloride
  3. Magnesium Sulphate
  4. Calcium Sulphate

KSEEB Solutions

Question 18.
Mention any four uses of tides.
Answer:

  1. Tides helps fishing and other aquaculture activities.
  2. Tides promote salt production in the coastal areas.
  3. Tides promote the generation of tidal energy
  4. Tidal clean the entrance points, harbours and river mouths.

Question 19.
Write the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
8°4′ North to 37°6′ North latitude.
68°7′ East to 97°25! east longitude.

Question 20.
State the Neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:

  • Pakistan and Afghanistan in the Northwest.
  • China, Nepal and Bhutan in the North.
  • Myanmar in the west, Bangladesh in the Northeast.
  • Srilanka and Maldives are in the South Oceanic Zone.

Question 21.
Name any two hill stations of the Himalayas.
Answer:

  • Shimla
  • Mussorie
  • Darjeling
  • Nainital

Question 22.
Mention any four west flowing rivers of peninsular India.
Answer:

  1. The Luni
  2. The Sabarmati
  3. The Narmada
  4. The Sharavathi

III. Answer any Eight of the following questions in 25 to 30 sentences each: (5 × 8 = 40)

Question 23.
Explain the important branches of Geography.
Answer:
1. Physical Geography.
The field of physical geography is wide as it includes the study of the entire surface of the earth and also its physical and biological process as well as their morphology. Modern geography has witnessed the development of many branches and some of them even grown into separate disciplines.

Some of the important branches of physical geography are as follows:

  • Geomorphology: It is a systematic study of landforms, such as mountains, plateaus, plains, valleys, etc.
  • Climatology: Climatology encompasses the study of structure of atmosphere and elements of climates and climatic types and regions.
  • Meteorology: The scientific study of atmosphere condition is called meteorology.
  • Pedology: It is the scientific study of soil formation, structure, texture, chemical composition and their influence on plant growth.
  • Hydrology: Hydrology studies the realm of water over the surface of the earth including oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies and its effect on different life.
  • Seismology: It is the study of Earthquakes, their effects and distribution.
  • Astronomical Geography: It is the study of heavenly bodies of the space like planets, satellites, stars etc in relation to the earth.
  • Volcanology: It is the scientific study of tectonic process of volcanoes.
  • Astronomical geography: It is the study of heavenly bodies of the space like planets, satellites, stars etc in relation to the earth.
  • Bio-geography: It is the systematic study of the distribution of plants and animals.
  • Hydrology: The study of water on the earth’s land is known as hydrology.
  • Oceanography: The study of waves, tides and currents and the other characteristics of oceans, known as oceanography.

2. Human geography: It deals with man and his activities particularly cultural environment factors on man made factors, Important among them are culture, Society, agriculture, mining, industry, transport forming trade population etc.
Some of the important grander of Human geography are as fallows:

1. Political geography: It deals with spatial unit, people distribution, political behavior, political divisions etc.

2. Economic geography: It refers to basic attributes of the economy such as production, distribution exchange of goods and consumption. It deals with the spatial aspects of production, distribution and consumption and also helps on understanding the most proper location for establishing different human activities.

3. Commercial Geography: It deals with the spatial distribution of trade and commercial practices etc.

4. Population Geography: It helps to understand the distribution, growth density, migration and various other components of population.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 24.
Name and explain the proofs in support of the spherical shape of the Earth.
Answer:
There are several proofs to regard the earth as a spherical shape of the Earth.
a. Heavenly bodies appear to be spherical: The Sun, the Moon and other heavenly bodies appear to be spherical when viewed from different position. The earth is one of them and hence it must also be spherical in shape.

b. The Lunar Eclipse: The lunar eclipse proves that the Earth is in spherical shape. During lunar eclipse when the Earth is between the Sun and the Moon, the shadow of the Earth falls on the Moon. Aristotle was the first scholar to show this by looking at the shadow of the Earth on the lunar surface. Later, this was ascertained by Ptolemy. This is considered to be the oldest proof in respect of the shape of the Earth.

c. Sunrise and Sunset: The time of Sunrise and Sunset is not the same everywhere in the world. This is due to spherical shape of the Earth. If the Earth were to be flat all places on the Earth would have had sunrise and sunset at the same time everywhere in the world.

d. Circumnavigation: Circumnavigation of the world can only be possible when the Earth is in spherical shape. If one start on a sea voyage towards the east, by moving constantly in the same direction, he would be able to complete a circle of the world and reach the original point form where he had started.

e. The Bed Ford level experiment: Dr.Alfred Russel Wallace conducted an experiment in 1956, along the Bed Ford level canal area in Britain. It is the most convincing proof of the curvature of the Earth. He fixed three poles of same height at an interval of about mile apart and observed through a telescope. It was found that the pole in the middle was higher than other two poles. It is due to the curvature of the Earth. If the Earth were to be flat all the poles would have the same horizontal level.

f. Sighting a ship: A ship on the sea approaching the coast, when seen from the short does not come into view all at once. The observer first sees the mast and then the hull and finally the whole ship. A ship moving away from the coast disappears gradually and finally out of view. If the Earth were to be flat the whole ship would have come into view.

g. Aerial and Satellite Photographs: The photographs taken by the cosmonauts in the recent decades and satellites have provided ample proof to show that the earth is spherical in shape.

Question 25.
Explain the effects of the rotation of the Earth.
Answer:
Rotation of the Earth causes various effects. They are:
a. Day and night caused by the rotation of the earth on its axis. This is because parts of the earth which face the sun have day and the parts which do not face the sun have night. This happen with precision and progression and not suddenly – The time when the sun beings to cast its light in the sky is known as dawn. At noon. The sun is overhead. At dusk, it is twilight and the sun is seen disappearing in the sky. At night, it is completely dark.

b. The duration of the day and night is not equal at all places on the earth because of the inclined axis. The length of days varies with respect to the seasons as well as latitude

c. The sun, the moon and the stars seem to move from east to west. This is because the earth spins from west to east. This effect is similar to what one experiences while looking at trees from a moving train.

d. The speed of rotation has created a centrifugal force resulting in a bulge in the middle portion of the earth and flattened top at the poles.

e. The earth’s rotation affects the movement of water in the oceans. The tides are deflected because of the rotation of the earth.

f. Rotation causes difference in time over various places on the earth.

g. The Earth acts as huge magnet: The one end of the needle of the compass always points towards the north magnetic pole. That means, the earth acts as a magnet. The rotation . of the earth causes the earth to act as a magnet.

h. Rotation of the Earth influences the movement of ocean water, particularly ocean currents.

i. The rise and fall in the sea level is called tides. Rotation of the Earth causes the lacing of water bodies to the Moon. The gravitational attraction of the Moon and position of the water bodies cause tides. This is a regular phenomenon due to Earth’s rotation.

Question 26.
Explain the structure of the Atmosphere.
Answer:
The distribution of temperature is not uniform at different height of the atmosphere. Along with the variation of temperature there are unique features at different heights. Based on these characteristics atmosphere is divided into four parallel zones.
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (South) - 1

1. Troposphere: It is the lowest layer of the atmosphere and less closer to the earth. The word ‘Tropos’ means ‘turn’ It extends up to 18km at the equator and 8km at poles. Thus the average height is about 10-12km. The important feature of the troposphere are:

Hydrological cycle: It is confined to troposphere. The water evaporates and raised up, formation of clouds takes place. Later it is precipitated in various forms like rain, snow and hailstone. These processes are known as evaporation, condensation and precipitation.

Lapse rate: In this layer the temperature decreases at the rate of 6,5’ Celsius per every 1000 meters of height which is known as ‘lapse rate’.

Clouds: It is characterized with formation of clouds, thunder storms and lighting.

Gaseous Mass: The troposphere has about 75 percent of the total gaseous mass, The upper part of troposphere is known ‘Tropopause’.

2. Stratosphere: It lies above the troposphere and extends up to 50km from the earth. The temperature is also most uniformly distributed. Hence it also known as isothermal zone. At a height of 22kms. There is a thin layer of ozone which absorbs ultraviolet rays of the sun. So it is called as ozonosphere. The name staratopause is given to the upper part of the stratosphere.

3. Mesosphere: It extends from 50 to 80kms. It is an intermediary zone between the lower and upper layers of the atmosphere. A thin layer of air separating mesosphere from the other upper layers in named as‘Mesopause’.

4. Ionosphere: It extends from 90 to 500km. It consists of atoms of air ionized due to intensive temperature. So it is also known as ionosphere or Thermosphere. The radio waves of different length are reflected back from this layer.

5. Exosphere: The region beyond the Thermosphere is called Exosphere. It extends to about 1,000 km and the gravity of the Earth’s too weak in this layer. Magnetosphere is found above this layer. Atmospheric layer in between 500-700kms is known as Exosphere and the atmosphere lying beyond is called‘Magnetosphere’.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 27.
What is Rainfall? Explain the types of rainfall.
Answer:
Rainfall is the natural process of condensation through which gaseous form of water is converted into liquid water droplets. It occurs due to cooling of saturated air mass, warm and moist air mass rising upward, warm air rising over cold air, sufficient humidity in the air and condensation. Rain fall is classified on the basis of condition and mechanism of upward rise of air and its cooling. Therefore, there are three types rainfall. They are explained as follows:

1. Convectional Rainfall: Earth surface is heated by the solar radiation. Due to this the warm moisture-laden air becomes light and ascends upwards vertically and quickly. The warm and moist air cools below dew point and condensation takes place rapidly, and dense clouds are formed. This led to the heavy rain fall with thunder and lighting. For convectional rainfall, there is need for local heating which leads to excessive evaporation.

There should not be any strong winds to lesser the heat such a condition of great heat, excessive evaporation and stagnant air is found in the equatorial regions through out the year As such, the convectional rainfall occurs in the daily afternoon in the equatorial region. In other topical countries this type of rainfall occurs only during summer, if sufficient moisture for local evaporation is available.

1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (South) - 2

2. Orographic rainfall: When the moisture laden air from the sea is obstructed by a mountain, it is forced to move up the slope. As it moves up, it expands. Expansions lead to fall in temperature and the air cools. When the cooling takes places below the dew. point, condensation results and clouds are formed. When there is heavy condensation, the droplets of water in the clouds join to find bigger drops and there is rainfall.

Orographic rains are caused by the relief of the land. This type of rainfall is common in region where the mountain ranges are parallel and close to the sea and winds blow on shore. Behind the leeward side of the mountain, there is an area which receives very little rainfall and is called the rain shadow. Orographic rain is important in the monsoon land in summer, when the wind blows from the sea to the land. Thunderstorms also accompany this type of rainfall. It may be noted that the bulk of rainfall received by most parts of the world is of this type.

3. Cyclonic rainfall: The cyclonic rainfall is most common in the temperate region. The rainfall caused with a cyclone or depression is known as cyclonic rainfall. The winds take a circular movement in the regions where warm and cold air masses meet.

Question 28.
Explain the topography of the ocean floor.
Answer:
On the basis of the depth, the ocean floor can be divided into four zones, parts or relief features. They are.

1. The continental Shelf: The gently sloping portion of the continent or land that lies submerged below other sea is called the continental shelf. The continental shelf has a very gentle slope. It extends form the shore line to depths between 180 and 200 meters. Average width of the continental shelves is about 48km. The extent of the continental shelf depends on the relief of the broadening land masses.

If the coastal area is a plateau area, the continental shelf will be very broad. On the other hand, if the coastal region is hilly or mountainous, the continental shelf will be very narrow or even absent for example the Atlantic Ocean has 2.3%, the Pacific Ocean has 5.7% and the India Ocean has 4.2%.
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (South) - 3

2. The continental slope: The zone of steep slope that descends from the edge of the continental shelf to the deep sea plains is called “continental slope”. It is the transitional zone lying between the continental shelf and the deep sea plains. The continental slope is very steep. It extends from 182 meters to 3.600 meters. The angle of the continental slope is 2 to 5 degre3es or even more. It occupies only 8.5% of the total area of the ocean floor. But it varies from ocean to ocean. The Atlantic Ocean has broader continental slopes and accounts for 12.4%. But it is 7% of the Pacific Ocean and 6.5% of the Indian Ocean.

3. The deep sea plains: The level and rolling areas of the ocean floor are generally called deep sea plains or abyssal plains or the ocean plains. They lie between 3,000 and 6,000 meters below other surface of the ocean. They occupy vast area of the ocean floor and account for about 82.7% of the total sea floor. They cover about 90% in the Indian Ocean. Their depth ranges from 5,000 to 6,000 meters. They are covered by ozones, which are the remains of deep sea creatures and plants, and of red volcanic dust.

4. The Ocean Deeps: The long narrow and deep troughs on the ocean floor are known as ‘ocean deep’ or ‘trough’. They cover only 1% of the ocean floor. They are most common neat the coasts where young fold mountains, volcanoes and earthquakes abound. Some they are tectonic in origin. They are the deepest portions of the ocean. Deeps may be caused due to tectonic forces, i.e. faulting earthquakes etc. There are 57known deeps. of these 32 are found in Pacific Ocean, 19 in the Atlantic Ocean and 6 in the Indian Ocean. The deepest trench in the world is Challenger deep located in Mariana Trench to the west of Philippines in the North Pacific Ocean.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 29.
Briefly explain the Biomes.
Answer:
A distinct group of life forms and the environment in which they are found is called ‘Biomes’. In other words, Biome is a plant and animal community that covers a large geographical area. On the basis of the dominant life form, six major biomes are identified.

a. Forest biomes: Trees are the dominant life form of forest biome. High temperature, humid climate and soil moisture help for thick tree cover. Equatorial region is dominant with forest biome.

b. Savanna biome: It is the transitional biome between the forest biome and grassland biome. Savanna biome comprises of trees with grasses and herbs. It occupies areas of low and seasonal rainfall.

c. Grassland biome: in this biome grasses constitute the dominant vegetation. It is dominant in the moderate soil water deficit regions, semi-arid areas of dry tropical, sub-tropical and mid-latitude regions.

d. Desert biome: It includes organisms capable of surviving in moderate to severe water deficit for most of the year. In this region temperature may range from hot to cool. Most common plants found in this belt are xerophytes.

e. Tundra biome: It includes small plants that can grow quickly during a short warm to cool summer season, in the low temperature and high latitudinal areas.

f. Aquatic biome: Aquatic regions house numerous species of plants and animals, both large and small. This is where life began billions of years ago. Without water, most life forms would be unable to sustain themselves and the Earth would be a barren, desert-like place. Ponds, lakes, rivers, wetlands and oceans are sources of aquatic biomes.

Question 30.
Briefly explain the coastal plains of India.
Answer:
This is the region all along the Indian coastline, lying between the coast and the mountain ranges of the peninsular plateau. India has 6100 km from Gujarat in the west to West Bengal in the east. The average width is 10-25 kms. The coastal plain of India is divided into two parts.

The West Coastal plains: It is extends between the Arabian Sea and the Western Ghats. It is narrower than the east coastal plains, stretching to a length of about 1400km and width of 10 to 80km from the Rann of katchchh to Kanyakumari. The west coastal plains have Gujarat, Konkan, Karnataka and Malabar Coasts.

The Gujarat Coast comprises of Rann of Kachchh and Cambay coasts. It is formed by the alluvial deposits of Sabarmati, Mahi, Luni and other small streams. Gujarat has the longest coastline in India Kandla and okha are famous sea ports and along is the biggest ship breaking center. It produces highest salt in the country.

Konkan Coast lies to the south of Gujarat coast and extends line which provides suitable site for natural seaports. Eg: Mumbai, Navasheva, Marmagoa, Karwar, New Mangalore etc., this coast records highest coastal erosion. It is very rich in Petroleum and natural gas. Karnataka coast: it is a part of Konkan coast.

It extends from karwar in the north to Mangalore in the south. It is the narrowest part of west coastal plains. Karwar and New Mangalore are important ports in this belt. Sea Bird, the naval base near Karwar is the largest naval base in India.

The Malabar Coast extends from Mangalore to Kanyakumari, Sand dunes, lagoons and backwaters are the important features of this coast. Cochin or Kochi is the biggest seaport in this coast. Backwaters of Kerala facilitate navigation and tourists enjoy traveling though small country boats. The first south west monsoon rainfall is received in this coast.

East coastal Plains: It lies between the Ea’stern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal stretching from the delta of Hooghly in the North to Kanyakumari in the south. Compared to the west coastal plains the east coastal plains are broader.

The Tatkal Coast: It is the coastal plain of Orissa state. It extend for about 400kmms, north from Subarnarekha river to south of the Rushikulya river. It has a chilka lake, which is the largest salt water lake in India, Para deep is the important horbour located here.

Coromandel Coast: The southern part of east coast is known as the Coromandel Coast. It gets more rainfall from the north east monsoons and it is highly affected by cyclones. The oldest harbor Chennai located here.

Question 31.
Compare the North Indian rivers with South Indian rivers.
Answer:
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (South) - 4

KSEEB Solutions

Question 32.
What is soil? Explain the major types of soil.
Answer:
Soil is the minute or finer rock particles found on the surface of the Earth. It is formed naturally, due to the weathering of rocks, under the influence of climate.

The main types of soil in India are:

1. Alluvial soil: This soil is formed by depositional work of rivers and they are mainly found in the flood plains and deltas. Alluvial soil covers largest geographical are in the country. They are mainly distributed in the river plains of the Ganga, Brahmaputra and the Indus. Uttar Pradesh has the largest area under alluvial soil. It is also found in the deltas of east flowing rivers. Alluvial soils are classified into two types.

  • Bhangar: Older alluvium, coarse and pebble like in nature, found at the lower depths of the plain.
  • Khadar: New alluvium, finer in nature, found in the low lying flood plains and rich in fertility

2. Black soil: The black soils covered more area in peninsular plateau. This soil is also called ‘Cotton soil’ or “Regur soil”. It is derived from the weathered basalt rocks. This soil holds water from long period and become hard whenever it is dry. It is light-black to dark-black in colour. Maharashtra and Gujarat Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamilnadu. Black soils are good for Cotton, Sugarcane, Tobacco, Pulses, Millets, Citrus fruits, etc.

3. Red soil: This soil is formed by the weathered granite rocks. It is red in colour and rich in ferrous content. Red soil covers the second largest area in the country. Largest parts of peninsular region are covered with red soil. TamilNadu has the largest distribution of this soil in the country. Rice, Ragi, Jowar, Groundnut, Tobacco, Millets are the major crops cultivated in this soil.

4. Laterite soil: The hot and humid tropical regions of India are rich in laterite soil. This soil is derived from the fragmentation and disintegration of rocks in the mountain ranges. It is mainly found in the Western Ghats, parts of Eastern Ghats and Northeastern hills of India. Plantation crops like Tea, coffee, Rubber, Cashew nut are cultivated in this soil.

5. Desert soil: This soil is also called arid soil. They are mainly found in the desert and semi-desert regions of Western and North western parts of India. This soil has the least water holding capacity and humus content. Generally it is not suitable for cultivation of crops. This soil is mainly found in Rajasthan, parts of Gujarat and Haryana. With water facility crops like Bajra, Pulses and Guar ar cultivated in this soil.

6. Mountain Soil: The Himalayan mountain valleys and hill slopes are covered with Mountain or Forest soil. It is found in the mountain slopes of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand regions, Crops like Tea, Almond, saffron are cultivated in this soil.

Question 33.
Briefly explain the importance of forests.
Answer:
Forests are the one of the important natural resources. They provide various benefits to mankind and environment.

The important benefits are:

  1. Forests supply fresh air, food and fodder.
  2. Forests are the rain bearers, help in causing good rainfall.
  3. They control soil erosion and desertification.
  4. Forest provides various products like bamboo, timber, resin, lac, gum cane, fuel, wood etc.
  5. They provide medicinal trees and plants used in ayurvedic medicines Eg.Neem tree. Basil, Brahmi etc.
  6. They provide shelter to various birds and animals.
  7. They absorb much of the rainwater and control floods and safeguards against drought.
  8. They act as wind breakers and protect the agricultural crops.
  9. The forest soils are rich in humus and thereby maintain the fertility of the soil.
  10. They provide raw materials to paper, match box, plywood and sports articles industries and they provide pastures for grazing animals.

Question 34.
Explain the Major seismic zones of India.
Answer:
Zone V: This is the most severe seismic (intensity above 7 in Richter scale) seismic zone and is referred as Very High Damage risk zone. The areas are. Northeastern states, parts of Jammu Kashmir, Uttarakhand, and Bihar and Kutch region.

Zone IV: This zone is second in severity (intensity between 5 and 7 in R.S) to zone VG. This is referred to as High Damage Risk zone. Northern regions of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Parts of Bihar, UP, Gujarat, West Bengal lie in this region zone. Northern regions of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, parts of Bihar, UP, Gujarat, West Bengal.

Zone III: This is termed as Moderate Damage (very strong) Risk zone (intensity between 3 and 5 in R.S). The areas are Gujarat, Madya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Maharashtra, Northern Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, West coastal region etc.

Zone II: This zone is referred to as low Damage (strong) Risk Zone (intensity 2 to 3 R.S). The areas are Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha etc.

Zone I: This zone is termed as Very Low Damage (Slight-tremor) Risk Zone. The left out parts of India and Deccan Plateau region.

KSEEB Solutions

IV. Answer any One of the following: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 35.
What is rock? Describe the different types of rocks.
Answer:
Rock refers to the hard and resistant materials of the earth’s crust. But scientifically rock includes even soft and loose materials like chalk, clay, etc. So, rock refers to any solid materials, hard or soft of which the crust of the earth is formed. All rocks do not have the same chemical composition. But minerals have their own chemical compost in and physical prosperities. .The earth’s crust is made up of various types of rocks

Types of Rocks: Rocks can be classified into three major groups on the basis of their origin or mode of formation. They are:

A. Igneous rocks: The term Igneous is derived from the Latin word “Ignis”, means lire. Thus the igneous rocks are formed by the cooling and solidification of molten material which is called magma. Igneous rocks are also called primary rocks, because they were the firs to be formed. As they are the rocks from which all other types of rocks are derived, they are also called parent rocks.
Igneous rocks are commonly classified on the basis of mode of formation into two major types.

1. Intrusive rocks
2. Extrusive rocks.

1. Intrusive rocks: The magma cannot escape out to the earth’s surface, it cols slowly inside the earth’s crust and hardens into rock. This type of rock is known as Intrusive Igneous rock. E.g. Granite and dolerite. These rocks can be divided into two type’s a. Plutonic rocks and b. Hybabyssal rocks.

a. Plutonic rocks: The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at great depth inside the earth are called Plutonic igneous rocks.
b. Hybabyssal rocks: These are intermediate rocks between the extruded volcanic rocks and the deep plutonic rocks. They are formed due to cooling and solidification of magma in cracks, pores, crevices etc.

2. Extrusive rocks: Rocks formed by cooling and solidification of lava on the surface of the Earth is called extrusive igneous rocks. E.g. Basalt.

B. Sedimentary Rocks: These rocks which are formed due to aggregation and compactness
of sediments are known as sedimentary. In other words, sedimentary rocks are formed bye day the deposition of sediments derived form older rocks, planets and animals remains by river, winds, glaciers etc and these sediments are hardened into rocks by pressure. As they are formed by the consolidation of sediments. They are called sedimentary rocks. They are also called stratified rocks,

a. Mechanically-formed rocks: The rock which have been formed form the accumulation of rock materials, derived form other rocks and have been cemented together are known as “ Mechanically formed rocks.” The mechanically formed rocks consist of sediments which have been carried and deposited by rivers, glaciers, winds or waves and cemented together with clay or line. On the basis of rock materials. These rocks can be divided into three main categories. They are: Rudaceous rocks, Arernaceous rocks and Argilious rocks.

b. Chemically formed rocks: The chemical often settle down and hardened to form rocks known as chemically formed rocks. For example: Gypsum and rock salt, running water dissolves and carries chemicals and where evaporation takes place, these chemicals are deposited at the mouth of springs, caves or caverns or in lakes. Rock salt and gypsum are formed form deposit of salt in strata on the beds of lakes.

c. Organically formed rocks: Organic rocks are formed form the remains of organisms, i.e. of animals and plants. Examples: coal, limestone etc. On the basis of lime and carbon content, organically formed rocks can be divided into two kinds, namely.

(i) Calcareous rocks: Calcareous rocks are formed mostly from the remains of living organisms. These rocks contain calcium carbonate or lime. They include limestoneand chalk. They are porous and soluble.

(ii) Carbonaceous rocks: These are formed due to the transformation of vegetative matter. Under the impact of heat and pressure the remains of plants are turned into hard layers. E.g. coal.

C. Metamorphic rocks: Rock which has been changes either in form or in composition without disintegration is called metamorphic rocks. These rocks are metamorphosed from igneous sedimentary rocks. Igneous and sedimentary rocks may undergo chemical and physical changes because of pressure and heat and form metamorphic rocks. The intense heat and pressure in the earth’s curst alters the composition and appearance of rocks completely or partially to produce a new type of rocks. In this manner metamorphic. rocks are formed. Marble, Diamond, Quartzite, Ruby, Emerald are the examples of metamorphic rock.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 36.
Describe the land forms associated to work of river.
Answer:

River is an important external agent of denudation on the ever-changing face of the Earth. The work of river is more or less common in all the drainage systems of the world.
The work of river consists of three closely interrelated activities.

1. Erosional work: The process of wearing and taking away the part of rock is known as ‘Erosion’. It depends upon the volume and velocity of water, nature of slope and the nature of rocks. The erosional work of the river is performed in two ways.
a. The Mechanical and b. The Chemical erosion.
There are various Iandforms associated to erosional work of river.

a. ’V’ Shaped valley: In the mountain course the speed of the river is greater and volume is less. As the water rushes down the steep slopes there is maximum vertical , or later erosion. The rapid down cutting or vertical erosion results in the formation of ‘V’shaped valley.

b. Gorge: A deep and narrow valley with steep rocky, sides in the river course is known as ‘Gorge’. They are formed by the regular vertical cutting by the rivers in the valleys eg. Narmada gorge.

c. I shape valley: Avey steep, deep river valley formed by the river, lookinglike T, is called ‘I’ Shaped valley. These are very deep compared to gorges.

d. Canyon: It is a wide, deep and steep valley almost with vertical walls like feature found in the arid or semi arid regions is called ‘Canyon’ eg. Grand Canyon of River Colorado in USA.

e. Potholes: These are the small depressions in the rocky beds of other river valley. They are formed by corrosion. Pebbles, sand and small rocks carried by the river swirled around on the river bed. This action erodes the rock on the river bed forming potholes.

f. Waterfalls: Huge volume of water falling from a great height along the course of a river is called “Waterfalls’. They are formed when the hard and soft rocks come in the way of flowing river. The soft rock gets eroded faster and hard rock does not erode easily. Therefore huge amount of water falls from great height and creates waterfalls. Eg. The Jog falls, The Angel falls, The Victoria falls.

g. River Capture: It is formed mainly due to head-ward erosion by the river near its source. When the source of a river is captured by another major and strong river it is called‘River Capture’.

2. Transportational work: The process of carrying away the eroded materials is known as ‘Transportation’. The rock materials and eroded particles carried by a river is called its Load. The transportation capacity of a river is based on velocity of water, volume of water, load, slope, smooth valley floor etc.

The major landforms associated with the transportational work of the river are:

a. Alluvial fans: The term alluvium refers to the debris transported and deposited by rivers. When the fast flowing river enters the plateau or plain region, it experience sudden decline in gradient and obstruction in its path. Due to obstruction of the river spreads and deposits many of its light materials in fan shape known as ‘alluvial fans’.

b. Alluvial cones: In the plateau and foot hill region when the river spreads out, the eroded materials carried by the river is deposited in conical shape called ‘Alluvial cones’.

3. Depositional work: The process of carrying and accumulating the eroded materials by the river at the lower course is called ‘deposition’. In the lower course due to gentle slope the river slows down and deposits most of its materials on the banks, course and the mouth.

The important landforms resulting from depositional work of the river are:

a. Meanders: In the lower course, river flows slowly in zig zag or curved manner due . to smaller obstruction in its path. A curve or loop formed by the river in its path is called ‘Meander’. When the river course formed by such crescent shaped loops due to continuous lateral deposition it is called meandering course.

b. Ox-bow Lakes: The ox-bow lakes are formed by depositional and erosional actions taking place simultaneously and they are a result of excessive meandering. The River which flows through the shorter route leaving the curve of the meander cut off and crescent shaped lake is formed known as‘Ox-bow lakes’.

c. Flood Plains: When the river is in floods the water overflows on its bank and spreads in the surrounding regions. The silt carried by the water gets deposited in these areas and creates flat plains on both the banks of the rive known as ‘Flood Plains’.

d. Delta: A triangular shaped alluvial deposition forced at the mouth of the river is called ‘Delta’. Important types of deltas are

a. Arcuate or Common delta
b. Bird-foot delta

e. Distributaries: As the river approaches the sea or Ocean, due to reduction in gradient, joining of tributaries, its volume increases, speed decreases hence, the rivet begins to break up into a number of branches from the main river called ‘Distributaries’.

f. Estuary: Estuaries are the tidal mouth of a river having a narrow, gradually widening lay at the mouth. In Estuary River water is mixed with seawater. Eg. The Narmada estuary, The Kali estuary.

V. A. Answer the following questions in a sentence each: (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 37.
What is Cartography?
Answer:
The science and art of making maps, charts, globes is known as Cartography.

Question 38.
What is Scale?
Answer:
A scale is the ratio of the distance between two points on the map and their corresponding distance on the ground.

Question 39.
What is Index?
Answer:
The features shown on the map is indicated by a symbol which is called index.

Question 40.
Give an example for small scale map.
Answer:
Atlas and Wall maps.

Question 41.
What is latitudes?
Answer:
The imaginary lines drawn from east to west are called latitudes.

Question 42.
Mention any two uses of maps.
Answer:

  1. Maps are very useful to the government for planning and administrative purposes.
  2. They are very much helpful at the time of war and defence.

KSEEB Solutions

B. Identified the Latitudes and Longitudes for the given places in supplying Karnataka (1 × 5 = 5)

1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (South) - 5

Question 43.
Bengaluru
Answer:
13° North (Latitudes)

Question 44.
Mysore
Answer:
12° 18′ North (Latitudes)

Question 45.
Mangalore
Answer:
12°51′ North (Latitudes)

Question 46.
Bellary
Answer:
15°09′ North (Latitudes)

Question 47.
Bidar
Answer:
17°54′ North (Latitudes)

C. Draw a diagram to the following: (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 48.
Layers of the Earth’s Interior.
Answer:
Layers of the Earth’s interior
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (South) - 6

Question 49.
Temperature of Heat Zones
Answer:
The Temperate zone: In between the Torrid and the frigid zones i.e., between 23 1/2°N and South and 66 1/2°N and S lies the Temperate Zone. In this zone the sun’s rays fall obliquely and hence the region experiences a moderate climate.

Question 50.
Orographic rainfall.
Answer:
Orographic rainfall
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Questi

KSEEB Solutions

D. Draw the outline map of India, mark and name the following: (2 × 3= 6)

Question 51.
Map Drawing.
Physical divisions of India
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (South) - 8

Question 52.
South west and North east monsoon winds.
Answer:
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (South) - 9

Question 53.
Nligiri and cold desert biosphere reserves.
Answer:
Biosphere Reserves
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (South) - 10

  1. Nanda Devi Saikhawa
  2. Nokrek
  3. Manas
  4. Dibru
  5. Dehang Debang
  6. Sunderbans
  7. Gulf of Mannar
  8. Nilgiri
  9. Great Nicobar
  10. Similipal
  11. Khanghendzonga
  12. Panchamarhi
  13. Agasthymalai
  14. Achanakmari – Amar Kantak

KSEEB Solutions

Blind Candidates only

Answer any three of the following: (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 54.
Explain the types of maps. 5
Answer:
Maps may be broadly divided into two types.
A. On the basis of Scale Maps are classified into three types.

(a) Large Scale Maps: The Maps drawn on the scale of 1 cm= 1 km or 1:1, 00,000 and 1 inch=1 mile or 1:63,360 eg. Cadastral maps (Village, Town and City maps).

(b) Medium Scale Maps: the Maps drawn on the scale of 1 cnm=1 Km to 1 cm=10 km or 1:1,00,000 and 1:10,00,000 eg. Topographical Maps (Mountains, Plateaus, plains).

(c) Small Scale maps: The Maps drawn on the scale below 1 cm: 15Km or 1:15,00,000 eg. Atlas and Wall Maps. These maps show broad physical and cultural features.

B. On the basis of purpose various types of Maps are prepared.

(i) Topographical maps: To show relief features, forests, land use, river system, roads, railways, pipelines, distribution of rural and urban settlements etc.

(ii) Cadastral maps: The Cadastral maps are drawn to register the ownership of field, farm, building, firm etc.

(iii) Economic Maps: These maps provide information about human economic activities eg. Agriculture, mining, industry, marketing, trade etc.

(iv) Population Maps: These maps show the information about distribution, growth, density, migration, age and sex composition of population. These maps are also drawn to show the distribution of occupational structure, language, social groups of people etc.

(v) Weather Maps: These are useful to analyzed weather condition and distribution of temperature, pressure, humidity, winds, rainfall etc.

Question 55.
Describe the size of the Earth. 5
Answer:
The ancient people made attempts to determine the size of the Earth. About 2,000 years ago a Greek astronomer, Eratosthenes, who lived In Alexandria in Egypt succeeded in calculating the size of the earth almost accurately, according to him, the earth’s circumference at the equator was 41,140kms. It was very close to the actual circumference of the earth, as known today.

The actual equatorial circumference of the earth is 40,076km, where as the polar circumference is 40,006km. The difference between the two is 70km. The earth’s equatorial diameter is 12,757km and the polar diameter is 12,714km. The difference is 43km. The geoids shape of the earth makes the circumference through the poles little less than that along the equator. The total surface area of the earth is 510. 9 million sq kms of the surface area, 71 % is covered by water mass and 29% is covered by landmass. The water mass is 361 million sq.kms and the land area is 149 million sq.kms. The land area is divided into seven continents and many island. The continents are Asia, Africa, and North America, South America, Antarctica, Europe and Australia.

The water area consist of five ocean, namely, the pacific Ocean, the Atlantic Ocean, the Indian Ocean, the Antarctic ocean and the Arctic Ocean and many gulfs, bays and seas. The globe is divided into two hemispheres, namely the northern hemisphere and the southern hemisphere, by the equator. The northern hemisphere contains 2/3 of the land and the southern hemisphere contains 1/3 of the land. The zero degree meridians decide the globe into two hemispheres, namely, the eastern hemisphere and the western hemisphere.

56.
Explain the temperature zones. 5
Answer:
Due to the Earth’s inclination at 66 1/2°and revolution, we recognize a few special latitudes on the globe. The vertical rays of the Sun strike the Earth at different points at different times of the year. On March 21st and September 23rd it falls on the middle of the Earth i.e., Equator. On June 21st the vertical rays fall on 23 1/2° North – Tropic of Cancer and on December 22nd it falls on 23 1/2° South- Tropic of Capricorn. On June 21st the Sun’s rays reach 66 1/2° South Antarctic circle. The North Pole (90° south) is the two ends of the Earth’s axis.

On the basis of special latitudes the globe may be divided into ‘Temperature zones’ or ‘ Heat zones’. Direct rays of the sun produce more heat than the slanting rays. The region near the equator receives more direct rays of the Sun. These rays are intense over smaller areas and so it heats up the Earth more. As we go away from the equator, the sun’s rays strike the Earth’s surface with slanting rays, spreading over a larger area so, they do not heat as intensely as the direct rays. Therefore, when we go from the equator to the poles, we come across zones with varying temperatures.

1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (South) - 11

The Torrid Zone The zone stretches between 231/2°N and south latitudes and more or less receives the vertical rays of the sun. As a result, this region experiences moderately warm climate throughout the year.

The Temperate zone: In between the Torrid and the frigid zones i.e., between 23 1/2°N and South and 66 1/2°N and S lies the Temperate Zone. In this zone the sun’s rays fall obliquely and hence the region experiences a moderate climate.

The Frigid Zone: This zone extends from Arctic Circle to North Pole (66 1/2°N to 90°N) in the Northern Hemisphere and the Antarctic circle to South Pole (66 1/2° S to 90° S) is known as ‘Frigid Zone’. Since the sun’s rays fall extremely obliquely in this region, the region experience extremely cold climate.

KSEEB Solutions

57.
What is a mineral? Explain the types of minerals. 5
Answer:
Mineral is a natural inorganic substance which has certain chemical and physical properties. The scientific study of minerals is called Mineralogy. Minerals are used by man for various human activities. Understanding them minerals their types and uses is very important as natural resources of the earth.

Types: Minerals are classified into different types on the basis of nature, texture, and sues. Important among them are,

  1. Metallic Minerals: These minerals are not in metallic form and they do not contain metal. A few non-metallic minerals are Mica, Asbestos, Sulphur, lead, Zinc, Phosphate etc.
  2. Non-Metallic Minerals: These minerals are not in metallic form and they do not contain metal. A few non-metallic minerals are Mica, Asbestos, Sulphur, Lead, Zinc, Phosphate etc.

Minerals are also classified into other types.
Ferrous minerals which contain Iron e.g. Iron Ore. Non-ferrous minerals – these minerals do not contain ferrous e.g. Bauxite, Mica. – A few minerals are used for making decorative, commercial and precious ornaments are called Precious minerals. E.g. Platinum, Diamond, Gold and Silver. Some minerals are use for the generation of energy. They are Nuclear or atomic minerals e.g. Uranium, Thorium etc.

1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 14 Mathematical Reasoning

Students can Download Maths Chapter 14 Mathematical Reasoning Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Maths Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 14 Mathematical Reasoning

Question 1.
What is the basic unit involved in mathematical reasoning?
Answer:
The basic unit involved in mathematical statement.

Question 2.
Define mathematical statement.
Answer:
Mathematical statement is a sentence which, in a given context is either true or false but not both.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Define mathematically acceptable statements.
Answer:
A sentence is called mathematically acceptable statement if it either true or false but not both.

  • Note: In this chapter, statement means it is mathematically acceptable statement.
  • Note: If a sentence, which is vague or ambiguous then that sentence is not a statement.
  • Note: Open sentences are not statements.
  • Note: A sentence which contains where, why, what, he, she, other pronouns is not a statement.

Question 4.
Which of the following sentences are statements? Give reasons for your answers.
(i) Two plus two equals four.
(ii) The sum of two equals four
(iii) All prime numbers are add numbers
(iv) The sum of x and y is greater than zero
(v) How beautiful?
(vi) Open the door.
(vii) Where are you going?
(viii) Tomorrow is Friday
(ix) She is mathematic graduate.
(x) There are 40 days in a month.
(xi) 8 is less than 6.
(xii) Every set is a finite set.
(xiii) The sun is a star
(xiv) Mathematics is fun.
(xv) There is no rain without clouds.
(xvi) There are 35 days in a month.
(xvii) Mathematics is difficult.
(xviii) The sum of 5 and 7 is greater than 10
(xix) The square of a number is an even number.
(xx) The sides of a quadrilateral have equal length.
(xxi) Answer this question
(xxii) The product of (-1) and 8 is 8
(xxiii) Today is windy day.
(xxiv) All real numbers are complex numbers
(xxv) The sum of all interior angles of a triangle is 180°
Answer:
(i) It is a statement because it is always true.
(ii) It is a statement because it is always true.
(iii) It is a statement because it is false.
(vi) It is not a statement because it is open sentence.
(v) It is not a statement because it is an exclamation.
(vi) It is not a statement ∵ It is an order.
(vii) It is not a statement ∵ It is a question.
(viii) Not a statement, ∵ It is true on Thursday but not on other days.
(ix) Not a statement ∵ Sentence with variable pronoun like‘she’.
(x) A statement ∵ It is false (statement) sentence.
(xi) A statement ∵ It is a false sentence.
(xii) Not a statement ∵ It may be true or false
(xiii) A statement ∵ It is true
(xiv) Not a statement ∵ This sentence is not always true
(xv) A statement ∵ This sentence is always true, as is natural phenomenon.
(xvi) Not a statement ∵ It is false sentence maximum number of days in a month can never exceed.
(xvii) Not a statement ∵ It may be true or false for some people mathematics can be easy and some people mathematics can be difficult.
(xviii) A statement∵ It is true sentence. Since 5 + 7 = 12 >10
(xix) Not a statement, ∵ It is sometimes true and sometimes false. Since (2)2 = 4, even and (3)2 = 9, odd.
(xx) Not a statement ∵ It may be true or false.
Since square has equal length sides, rectangle has unequal length sides.
(xxi) Not a statement, ∵ It is an order.
(xxii) A statement ∵ It is false sentence.
(xxiii) Not a statement ∵ which day is not mentioned
(xxiv) A statement ∵ It is true sentence.
(xxv) A statement ∵ It is always true.

Question 5.
Define negation of a statement.
Answer:
If p is a statement, then the negation of p is also a statement and is denoted ~p and read as ‘not p’.
Note: While forming the negation of a statement, phrases like ‘It is not the case’ or ‘It is false that’ are also used.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Define compound statement.
Answer:
Compound statement is a statement which is made up of two or more statements using some connecting words like ‘and’ ‘or’, ‘if, then’, ‘if and only if etc.
Note: Connecting words like ‘And’ ‘Or’, ‘If, then’, ‘If and only if are called connectives and each statement is called a component statement.

Question 7.
Write the negation of the following statements:
(i) New Delhi is a city
(ii) Everyone in Germany speaks German
(iii) \(\sqrt{7}\) is rational
(iv) Chennai is the capital of Tamil Nadu
(v) \(\sqrt{2}\) is not a complex number
(vi) All triangles are not equilateral triangle
(vii) The number 2 is greater than 7.
(viii) Every natural number is an integer.
Answer:
(i) New Delhi is not a city.
(ii) It is false that everyone in Germany speaks German.
(iii) \(\sqrt{7}\) is not rational
(iv) Chennai is not the capital of Tamil Nadu
(v) \(\sqrt{2}\) is a complex number
(vi) The number 2 is not greater than 7
(vii) Every natural number is not an integer.

Question 8.
Are the following pairs of statements negations of each other,
(i) The number x is not a rational number The number x is not an irrational number,
(ii) The number x is a rational number. The number x is an irrational number
Answer:
(i) Let p : the number x is not a rational number
q : the number x is not an irrational number
Now ~ p : The number x is a rational number
q : The number x is a rational number (∵ when a number is not irrational, it is a rational)
~p = q and ~q = p
⇒ given pairs of statements are negations of each other.

(ii) Let p : the number x is a rational number
q : the number x is an irrational number. Now, ~p: the number x is an irrational number (∵When a number is not rational, it is irrational)
∴ ~p = q and ~q=p
⇒The pairs are negations of each other.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Find the component statements of the following compound statements and check whether they are true or false.
(i) Numbers 3 is prime or it is odd
(ii) All integers are positive or negative
(iii) 100 is divisible by 3,11 and 5
(iv) A square is a quadrilateral and its four sides equal
(v) All prime numbers are either even or odd
(vi) Chandigarh is the capital of Haryana and P.
(vii) 24 is a multiple of 2, 4 and 8
Answer:
(i) The component statements are
p : number 3 is prime
q : number 3 is odd
Both p and q are true

(ii) The component statements are
p : all integers are positive
q : all integers are negative
Both p and q are false

(iii) The component statements are
p : 100 is divisible by 3 (false)
q : 100 is divisible by 11 (false)
r : 100 is divisible by 5 (true)

(iv) The component statements are
p : a square is a quadrilateral
q : a square has all its sides equal
Both p and q are true

(v) The component statements are
p : all prime numbers are even
q : all prime numbers are odd
Both p and q are false

(vi) The component statements are
p : Chandigarh is the capital of Haryana (True)
q : Chandigarh is the capital of U.P. (False)

(vii) The component statements are
p : 24 is a multiple of 2 (True)
q : 24 is a multiple of 4 (True)
r : 24 is a multiple of 8 (True)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
Write the rules for
(i) ‘And’ (conjunction) (∧)
(ii) ‘Or’ (disjunction) (∨)
(iii) ‘If-Then’ (implication) (⇒)
(iv) ‘If and only if (double implication) (⇔)
Answer:
Let p and q be the statements of the compound statement. Then

(i) The compound statement p and q is the conjunction of p and q and is denoted by
p ∧ q . (read: p and q)
Rule for compound statement with ‘And’ (conjunction)
This can be shown by the truth table

∴ Truth table for p ∧ q as follows

p q p ∧ q
T T T
T F F
F T F
F F F

(ii) The compound statement p or q is the disjunction of p and q, and is denoted by p v q (read: p ∨ q)
Rule: The disjunction p ∨ q is false if both p and q are false, otherwise it is true.

This can be shown by truth table

P q p ∧ q
T T T
T F T
F T T
F F F

(iii) The compound statement ‘if p then q’ is implication of p and It is denoted by p → q or p ⇒ q. (read : p implication q)

KSEEB Solutions

Rule:

P q p → q
T T T
T F F
F T T
F F T

Note:
If ‘p’ and then ‘q’ is small following:

  • p ⇒ q (i.e., p implies q)
  • p is sufficient condition for q
  • p only if q
  • q is necessary condition for p
  • ~q implies ~p (i.e., ~q ⇒ ~p)
  • The compound statement ‘p if and only if q’ is double implication of p and It is denoted by p ⇔ q (read: p double implication q)

Rule:

p q P ⇔ q
T T T
T F F
F T F
F F T

Note: ‘p if and only if q’ is same as the following.

  • p ⇔ q
  • p if and only if q
  • q if and only if p
  • p is necessary and sufficient condition for q and vice-versa

Question 11.
Define quantifiers (quantifiers)
Answer:
‘Quantifiers’ are the phrases like ‘there exists’ and ‘for all’ (or for all).

Question 12.
Define converse and contrapositive.
Answer:
Converse and contra positive are certain other statements which can be formed from a given statement with ‘if-then’.

  • Converse: The converse of the statement if p, then q is defined as ‘if q then p’.
    i.e., the converse of a implication p ⇒ q is q ⇒ q
  • Contrapositive: The contrapositive of the statement if p, then q is defined as ‘if ~q, then ~p’ i.e., the contrapositive of a implication p ⇒ q is ~q ⇒ ~p

Note:
Inverse of a implication p ⇒ q is ~p ⇒ ~q

Question 13.
For each of the following compounds statements first identify the connecting words and then break it into component statements.
(i) All rational numbers are real and all real numbers are not complex.
(ii) Square of an integer is positive or negative
(iii) The sand heats up quickly in the sun and doesnot cool down fast at night.
(iv) x = 2 and x = 3 are the roots of the equation 3x2 – x -10 = 0
Answer:
(i) ‘and’ is the connecting word.
∴ component statements are
p : all rational numbers are real
q : all real numbers are not complex.

(ii) Connecting word is ‘or’ component statements are
p : square of an integer is positive
q : square of an integer is negative

(iii) Connecting word is ‘and’ component statements are
p : sand heats up quickly in the sun
q : sand does not cool down fast at night

(iv) Connecting word is ‘and’Component statements are
p : x – 2 is a root of 3x2 – x – 10 = 0
q : x = 3 is a root of 3x2 – x – 10 = 0

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
Identify the quantifier in the following statements and write the negation of the statement.
(i) There exists a number which is equal to its square
(ii) For every real number x, x is less than x + 1
(iii) There exists a capital for every state in India
Answer:
(i) Quantifier is‘there exists’
The negation is,
There doesn’t exist a number which is equal to its square.

(ii) Quantifier is ‘For every’
The negation is, there exist a real number x such that x is not less than x + 1

(iii) Quantifier is ‘there exists’
The negation state in India which doesn’t have a capital

Question 15.
Check whether the following pair of statements are negation of each other. Give reasons for your answer.
(i) x + y = y + x is true for every real numbers x and y
(ii) There exists real numbers x and y for which x + y = y + x
Answer:
No
Negation of (i) is ‘there exists real number x and y for which x + y & y + x’, which is not same as (ii).

Question 16.
State whether ‘or’ used in the following statements is exclusive or inclusive. Give reason for your answer.
(i) Sun rises or moon sets
(ii) To apply for a driving license, you should have a ration card or a pass port
(iii) All integers are positive or negative
Answer:
(i) Here ‘or’ is exclusive
∵ ‘sun rises’ and ‘moon sets’ cannot be true simultaneously

(ii) Here ‘or’ is inclusive
∵ For license, one can have both ration card and a passport.

(iii) Here ‘or’ is exclusive
∵ Integer cannot be both positive as well as negative.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 17.
Rewrite the following statements with ‘if-then’ in five different ways conveying the same meaning.
(i) ‘If a natural number is odd, then its square is also odd’
(ii) If a number is a multiple of 9, then it is a multiple of 3
Answer:
(i) Given: ‘If a natural number is odd, then its square is also odd.
Let p : a natural number is odd
q : a natural number square is also odd. Then, if p then q is same as

  • p ⇒q (p implies q)
    i.e., A natural number is odd implies that its square is also odd.
  • p is sufficient condition for q e., for the square of a natural number to be odd it is sufficient that the number itself is odd.
  • p only if q e., A natural number is odd only if its square is odd.
  • q is a necessary condition for p e., for a natural number to be odd it is necessary that its square must be odd.
  • ~q implies ~p
  • If the square of a natural number is not odd, then the number itself is also not odd.

(ii) Try yourself

Question 18.
Write the contrapositive and converse of the following statements.
(i) If a number is divisible by 9, then it is divisible by 3
(ii) If you are born in India, then you are a citizen of India.
(iii) If a triangle is equilateral, then it is isosceles
(iv) If a number n is even, then n2 is even
(v) If you do all the exercises in the book you get an A grade in the class.
(vi) If x is a prime number, then x is odd
(vii) If the two lines are parallel, then they donot intersect in the same plane
(viii) Something is cold implies that it has low temperature
(ix) x is even number implies that x is divisible by 4
Answer:
(i) Let p : A number is divisible by 9
q : A number is divisible by 3
Its converse is q ⇒ p and its contrapositive is ~q ⇒~P
∴ contrapositive: ‘If a number is not divisible by 3, then it is not divisible by 9’.
Converse: ‘If a number is divisible by 3 then it is divisible by 9.

(ii) Contrapositive: ‘If you are not a citizen of India then you were not born in India’. Converse: ‘If you are a citizen of India then you are born in India’.

(iii) Contrapositive: ‘If a triangle is not isosceles, then it is not equilateral’.
Converse: ‘If a triangle is isosceles, then it is equilateral’.

(iv) Try

(v) Try

(vi) Contrapositive: ‘If x is not odd, then x is not a prime number’.
Converse: If x is odd then x is a prime number

(vii) Try

(viii) and (ix) yourself

KSEEB Solutions

Question 19.
Write each of the following statements in the form ‘if-then’
(i) You get a job implies that your credentials are good.
(ii) The Banana trees will bloom if it stays warm for a month
(iii) A quadrilateral is a parallelogram if its diagonals bisect each other
(iv) To get an A+ in the class, it is necessary that you do all the exercise of the book
Answer:
(i) ‘If you get a job, then your credentials are good’.
(ii) ‘If the banana tree stays warm for a month, then it will bloom’
(iii) ‘If the diagonals of a quadrilateral bisect each other, then it is a parallelogram’.
(iv) ‘If you get an A+ in the class then you have done all exercises of the book’.

Question 20.
Verify by the method of contradiction that \(\sqrt{7}\) is irrational
Answer :
Let  p : \(\sqrt{7}\) is irrational
Let us assume p is not true i.e.., \(\sqrt{7}\) is rational .
⇒ \(\sqrt{7}=\frac{a}{b}\),where a and b are integers having no common
factor.
⇒ \(7=\frac{a^{2}}{b^{2}}\)
⇒ a2 =7b2
⇒ 7 divides a2
⇒ 7 divides a
⇒ a = 7c, for some integer c.
⇒ a2 = 49c2
⇒ 7b2 = 49c2
⇒ b2 = 7c2
⇒ 7 divides b2
⇒ 7 divides b
Thus, 7 is common factor of both a and b. This contradicts that a and b have no common factor. So, our assumption is wrong. Hence, \(\sqrt{7}\) is irrational is true.

1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North)

Students can Download 1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North), Karnataka 1st PUC Geography Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North)

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

  1. Answer All the questions.
  2. Draw map and diagrams wherever necessary.
  3. Question No. V is on cartography
  4. Blind students attempt only VA, 52, 53 and 54 instead of V – B, C and D.

I. Answer the following questions in a word, or a sentence each: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
What is Geography?
Answer:
The scientific study of the Earth surface and its various climates, natural resources and human activities.

Question 2.
What amount of time does the Earth take to complete one Rotation?
Answer:
The period of rotation is 23 hours, 56 minutes and 4.09 seconds or roughly 24 hours.

Question 3.
What is an Earthquake?
Answer:
It means vibration of Earth crust, The series of vibrations that result from the sudden movements of earth’s crust is known as earthquake.

Question 4.
What is Weathering?
Answer:
The process of disintegration and decomposition of rocks by natural agents can be called as weathering.

Question 5.
What is Salinity?
Answer:
The amount of salt which is present in a water body is called as salinity.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
What is Environment?
Answer:
The study of the surroundings of humans where they live and work is known as environment.

Question 7.
What is Geographical area of India?
Answer:
The total geographical area of India is 32, 87, 263 sq km.

Question 8.
What is the other name to the Himalaya?
Answer:
The other name of Himalaya is ‘Abode of Snow’ (or) Young Fold Mountains.

Question 9.
What type of climate is found in India?
Answer:
India has a ‘Tropical Monsoon type of climate’.

Question 10.
What is Drought?
Answer:
The term drought is applied to an extended period when there is a shortage of water availability due to inadequate rainfall, over utilization of water etc.

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in each 2 or 3 sentences: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
Name the waves of Earthquakes.
Answer:

  • Primary (P) Waves
  • Secondary (S) Waves
  • Surface Waves

Question 12.
Define Insolation.
Answer:
Out of the energy radiated by the sun, the radiant energy received by the earth is called as the incoming solar radiation or Insolation.

Question 13.
What are Tides?
Answer:
The regular rise and fall of water level in the sea and oceans is called tides.

Question 14.
What is Conservation of Ocean?
Answer:
The protection and preservation of ocean resources for the future generations is known as conservation of ocean.

Question 15.
What is Biomes?
Answer:
Biome is the plant and animal community that covers a specific geographical area.

Question 16.
Name the types of Environment.
Answer:

  • Physical Environment
  • Cultural Environment

Question 17.
Write Latitudianal and Longitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
India extends between 8°4’North to 37°6’North latitude and 68°7′ East to 97°25′ East longitudes.

Question 18.
Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:

  • Pakistan and Afghanistan are in the Northwest.
  • China, Nepal and Bhutan are in the North.
  • Myanmar is in the East and Bangladesh is in the Northeast.
  • Srilanka and Maldives are in the South Oceanic Zone.

Question 19.
What are the tributaries of River Krishna?
Answer:
The Bhima, Ghataprabha, Malaprabha, Tungabhadra and Musi are the main-tributaries of the river Krishna.

Question 20.
What are the importance of Black soil?
Answer:
It is derived from the weathered basalt rocks. This soil holds water for a long period and is high moisture retentive. This is most suitable for the cultivation of cotton, sugarcane, tobacco, pulses etc.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 21.
What is Conservation of Forest?
Answer:
Protection and preservation of forest for the utilisation of future generations is called as ‘Conservation of Forest’.

Question 22.
Name the Flood prone areas of India.
Answer:

  • The Ganga basin
  • The Brahmaputra basin
  • The Central India and Peninsular River Basin.

III. Answer any Eight of the following questions in 25 to 30 sentences each: (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 23.
Explain the important branches of Geography.
Answer:
1. Physical Geography.
The field of physical geography is wide as it includes the study of the entire surface of the earth and also its physical and biological process as well as their morphology. Modern geography has witnessed the development of many branches and some of them even grown into separate disciplines.

Some of the important branches of physical geography are as follows:

  • Geomorphology: It is a systematic study of landforms, such as mountains, plateaus, plains, valleys, etc.
  • Climatology: Climatology encompasses the study of structure of atmosphere and elements of climates and climatic types and regions.
  • Meteorology: The scientific study of atmosphere condition is called meteorology.
  • Pedology: It is the scientific study of soil formation, structure, texture, chemical composition and their influence on plant growth.
  • Hydrology: Hydrology studies the realm of water over the surface of the earth including oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies and its effect on different life.
  • Seismology: It is the study of Earthquakes, their effects and distribution.
  • Astronomical Geography: It is the study of heavenly bodies of the space like planets, satellites, stars etc in relation to the earth.
  • Volcanology: It is the scientific study of tectonic process of volcanoes.
  • Astronomical geography: It is the study of heavenly bodies of the space like planets, satellites, stars etc in relation to the earth.
  • Bio-geography: It is the systematic study of the distribution of plants and animals.
  • Hydrology: The study of water on the earth’s land is known as hydrology.
  • Oceanography: The study of waves, tides and currents and the other characteristics of oceans, known as oceanography.

2. Human geography: It deals with man and his activities particularly cultural environment factors on man made factors, Important among them are culture, Society, agriculture, mining, industry, transport forming trade population etc.
Some of the important grander of Human geography are as fallows:

1. Political geography: It deals with spatial unit, people distribution, political behavior, political divisions etc.

2. Economic geography: It refers to basic attributes of the economy such as production, distribution exchange of goods and consumption. It deals with the spatial aspects of production, distribution and consumption and also helps on understanding the most proper location for establishing different human activities.

3. Commercial Geography: It deals with the spatial distribution of trade and commercial practices etc.

4. Population Geography: It helps to understand the distribution, growth density, migration and various other components of population.

Question 24.
Explain the proofs in support of the spherical shape of the Earth.
Answer:
There are several proofs to regard the earth as a spherical shape of the Earth.
a. Heavenly bodies appear to be spherical: The Sun, the Moon and other heavenly bodies appear to be spherical when viewed from different position. The earth is one of them and hence it must also be spherical in shape.

b. The Lunar Eclipse: The lunar eclipse proves that the Earth is in spherical shape. During lunar eclipse when the Earth is between the Sun and the Moon, the shadow of the Earth falls on the Moon. Aristotle was the first scholar to show this by looking at the shadow of the Earth on the lunar surface. Later, this was ascertained by Ptolemy. This is considered to be the oldest proof in respect of the shape of the Earth.

c. Sunrise and Sunset: The time of Sunrise and Sunset is not the same everywhere in the world. This is due to spherical shape of the Earth. If the Earth were to be flat all places on the Earth would have had sunrise and sunset at the same time everywhere in the world.

d. Circumnavigation: Circumnavigation of the world can only be possible when the Earth is in spherical shape. If one start on a sea voyage towards the east, by moving constantly in the same direction, he would be able to complete a circle of the world and reach the original point form where he had started.

e. The Bed Ford level experiment: Dr.Alfred Russel Wallace conducted an experiment in 1956, along the Bed Ford level canal area in Britain. It is the most convincing proof of the curvature of the Earth. He fixed three poles of same height at an interval of about mile apart and observed through a telescope. It was found that the pole in the middle was higher than other two poles. It is due to the curvature of the Earth. If the Earth were to be flat all the poles would have the same horizontal level.

f. Sighting a ship: A ship on the sea approaching the coast, when seen from the short does not come into view all at once. The observer first sees the mast and then the hull and finally the whole ship. A ship moving away from the coast disappears gradually and finally out of view. If the Earth were to be flat the whole ship would have come into view.

g. Aerial and Satellite Photographs: The photographs taken by the cosmonauts in the recent decades and satellites have provided ample proof to show that the earth is spherical in shape.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 25.
Describe the physical weathering.
Answer:
The disintegration of rocks without any chemical change in their compost in is known as mechanical or physical weathering. The disintegration of rocks occurs mainly due to the influence of temperature variation, frost action, wind action, rainwater, etc.

A. Surface are heated and expand. During the nights the rock surfaces are cooled due to, fall in temperature, rocks contact. The repetition of exemptions and contraction causes tension and stress which leads to cracks in the rocks. Then the rocks disintegrate into i blocks. This process is known as Block disintegration, Rocks are made of different types of minerals.

So the different parts of the same rock mass react differently to temperature. This leads to differential expansion and contraction inside the rocks. The rocks break up into smaller grains. This process of weathering is, called “Granular disintegration”. Due to variat Temperature in the upper and lower layers, the outer layers of rocks peel out into the uric shells. This process of weathering is known as “Exfoliation”.

B. Frost: Rocks are disintegrated due to freezing and thawing of water in the cracks or joints in the rocks. This frost action is more important in the temperate and cold regions. The water present in the cracks of rocks freezes during the night due to fall in temperature below freezing point. When water freezes it expands by 1/10 its volume. It thaws (melts) during the day, due to increase of temperature and it contracts in volume. This alternative freezing and melting of water widens other cracks in the rocks, splits and breaks then into blocks. This is known as frost shattering.

C. Rain: Sometimes, when rain falls suddenly on highly heated rocks in hot desert numerous cracks are developed. This is just like a heated chimney of a lamp, when a drop of water falls on it. The repetition of this mechanism causes disintegration of rocks. In humid region, when torrential rain occurs, the drops strike the rock surface and loosen the particles.

D. Wind: In the deserts the wind blows with greater speed carrying with it sand and rock materials, they collide with each other or strike against the loose rock and cause weathering. In deserts the wind cause this type of weathering on a large scale.

E. Sea waves: Sea waves strike the costal rocks. Repeated striking enlarges the incipient joints. Fractures and cause breaking of rocks into small blocks. Weathering also takes place due to hydraulic pressure, abrasion and attrition caused.

F. Slope: A steep slope helps in weathering. In mountainous and hilly area, sometimes, on account of gravity, blocks of rocks move down the slope while rolling down the slope, they strike against other block and break up into pieces.

G Gravitation: the gravity of Earth makes the huge rocks to roll towards the slope. Rolling rocks strike against each other and break up into pieces.

Question 26.
Explain the structure of the Atmosphere.
Answer:
The distribution of temperature is not uniform at different height of the atmosphere. Along with the variation of temperature there are unique features at different heights. Based on these characteristics atmosphere is divided into four parallel zones.
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North) - 1

1. Troposphere: It is the lowest layer of the atmosphere and less closer to the earth. The word ‘Tropos’ means ‘turn’ It extends up to 18km at the equator and 8km at poles. Thus the average height is about 10-12km. The important feature of the troposphere are:

Hydrological cycle: It is confined to troposphere. The water evaporates and raised up, formation of clouds takes place. Later it is precipitated in various forms like rain, snow and hailstone. These processes are known as evaporation, condensation and precipitation.

Lapse rate: In this layer the temperature decreases at the rate of 6,5’ Celsius per every 1000 meters of height which is known as ‘lapse rate’.

Clouds: It is characterized with formation of clouds, thunder storms and lighting.
Gaseous Mass: The troposphere has about 75 percent of the total gaseous mass, The upper part of troposphere is known ‘Tropopause’.

2. Stratosphere: It lies above the tropo-sphere and extends up to 50km from the earth. The temperature is also most uniformly distributed. Hence it also known as isothermal zone. At a height of 22kms. There is a thin layer of ozone which absorbs ultraviolet rays of the sun. So it is called as ozonosphere. The name stratopause is given to the upper part of the stratosphere.

3. Mesosphere: It extends from 50 to 80kms. It is an intermediary zone between the lower and upper layers of the atmosphere. A thin layer of air separating mesosphere from the other upper layers in named as‘Mesopause’.

4. Ionosphere: It extends from 90 to 500km. It consists of atoms of air ionized due to intensive temperature. So it is also known as‘Ionosphere’or Thermosphere. The radio waves of different length are reflected back from this layer.

5. Exosphere: The region beyond the Thermosphere is called Exosphere. It extends to about 1,000 km and the gravity of the Earth s too weak in this layer. Magnetosphere is found above this layer. Atmospheric layer in between 500-700kms is known as Exosphere and the atmosphere lying beyond is called‘Magnetosphere’.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 27.
Describe the major pressure Belts of the world with a neat diagram.
Answer:
The distribution of pressure is not equal on the earth’s surface. It changes from palace to place and time to time on the basis of air temperature and rotation of the earth. Any area in the atmosphere where air pressure is higher than in the surrounding areas is called “ High pressure” Thee are 4 high pressure belts and 3 low pressure belts on the earth’s surface.

1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North) - 2

Equatorial Low pressure belt: This belt lies between latitudes 5° N and 5° S. The Sun’s rays are almost vertical on the equator throughout the year. As a result, the temperature is uniformly high and pressure is low throughout the year. It is also known as “Doldrums”. The air gets warm and rises upward. Horizontal movement of air is absent and convectional currents occur. This is the zone of convergence of the trade winds.

Sub tropical high pressure belts: The air ascended in the form of convectional currents from the equatorial region partly descends in the between 30 to 40’ latitudes in both the hemispheres. The descending air has thus formed two high pressure zones known as subtropics high pressure belts. It is the zone from which trade and anti-trade winds originate. This belt is also known as “ horse altitudes’. It is dry and quite stable. The name horse latitude is given by the ancient sailors who used to transport horses on ships. Due to absence of strong winds, some times the ship could not move with horses. Hence sailors used to dump horses to make the ship move forward.

Sub Polar low pressure belts: In between polar high pressure knd sub-tropical high pressure belt, the sum-tropical low pressure belts are situated. They lies in between 60’ to 70’ latitudes in both the hemispheres. They are formed with spinning action of rotation of the earth and also uprising air as an effect of incoming cold polar winds.

Polar high pressure belts: The Polar Regions are characterized with low temperature. The air raised at the equator descends around the poles causing high pressure belts. The cold polar winds blow outward from this zone.

Question 28.
Explain the ocean bottom Relief.
Answer:
On the basis of the depth, the ocean floor can be divided into four zones, parts or relief features. They are.

1. The continental Shelf: The gently sloping portion of the continent or land that lies submerged below other sea is called the continental shelf. The continental shelf has a very gentle slope. It extends form the shore line to depths between 180 and 200 meters. Average width of the continental shelves is about 48km. The extent of the continental shelf depends on the relief of the broadening land masses.

If the coastal area is a plateau area, the continental shelf will be very broad. On the other hand, if the coastal region is hilly or mountainous, the continental shelf will be very narrow or even absent for example the Atlantic Ocean has 2.3%, the Pacific Ocean has 5.7% and the India Ocean has 4.2%.
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North) - 3

2. The continental slope: The zone of steep slope that descends from the edge of the continental shelf to the deep sea plains is called “continental slope”. It is the transitional zone lying between the continental shelf and the deep sea plains. The continental slope is very steep. It extends from 182 meters to 3.600 meters. The angle of the continental slope is 2 to 5 degre3es or even more. It occupies only 8.5% of the total area of the ocean floor. But it varies from ocean to ocean. The Atlantic Ocean has broader continental slopes and accounts for 12.4%. But it is 7% of the Pacific Ocean and 6.5% of the Indian Ocean.

3. The deep sea plains: The level and rolling areas of the ocean floor are generally called deep sea plains or abyssal plains or the ocean plains. They lie between 3,000 and 6,000 meters below other surface of the ocean. They occupy vast area of the ocean floor and account for about 82.7% of the total sea floor. They cover about 90% in the Indian Ocean. Their depth ranges from 5,000 to 6,000 meters. They are covered by oozes, which are the remains of deep sea creatures and plants, and of red volcanic dust.

4. The Ocean Deeps: The long narrow and deep troughs on the ocean floor are known as ‘ocean deep’ or ‘trough’. They cover only 1% of the ocean floor. They are most common neat the coasts where young fold mountains, volcanoes and earthquakes abound. Some they are tectonic in origin. They are the deepest portions of the ocean. Deeps may be caused due to tectonic forces, i.e. faulting earthquakes etc. There are 57known deeps. Of these 32 are found in Pacific Ocean, 19in the Atlantic Ocean and 6 in the Indian Ocean. The deepest trench in the world is Challenger deep located in Mariana Trench to the west of Philippines in the North Pacific Ocean.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 29.
Explain the ocean currents of Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Indian Ocean is different from other ocean in the pattern of its current. This is due to the size of the Indian Ocean, the position of land masses and the seasonal change in the direction of monsoon winds. This is true of the North Indian Ocean. But in the south Indian Ocean, the currents flow as in the Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean.

a. North Indian Ocean currents: The north Indian Ocean currents change their direction. twice a year as result of the alternating monsoon winds greatly influence the ocean currents in summer. The current flows off from the coast of Somali as the Somali current and drifts across the Arabian Sea as the south-west monsoon drift. Finally it joins the North Equatorial current and completes a clockwise circulation.

In winter, the North east winds influence the currents. Hence the currents starting form the stair of Malacca flows along the eastern and western coasts of India as “North East Monsoon Drift” and west ward. Then it turns near the Gulf of Aden to the west flows towards the south and turns east wards near the equator, finally it joins the North Equatorial Current and completes an antilock wise circulation.
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North) - 2

b. South Indian Ocean currents: The currents of the south Indian Ocean are not affected by the monsoon winds. So the current of the south Indian Ocean are similar to those in the southern part of the Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean. In the south Indian Ocean, the South-East trade winds blow towards the west and give rise to the equatorial current, i.e. the south equatorial current.

On reaching the eastern coast of Africa, it flow southwards and is divided in two to branches, as it is obstructed by Madagascar Island. One branch enters the Mozambique current. The other branch flows eastwards of Madagascar Island and is known as ‘Madagascar current’. These two currents join again. And flow southwards as the Agulhas current. At 40 S latitude under the influence of the westerlies, it flows eastwards as West wind drift. It is also known as Indian Ocean current.

On reaching Australia, it divides into two branches, One branch turns northwards along the west coast of Australia as the west Australian current. Again turns west and North West, and finally joins the south equatorial current. The other branch moves to the southern coast of Australia and enters the Pacific Ocean.

Question 30.
Explain the Northern Himalayan mountains.
Answer:
India is characterized by great diversity in its physical features. On the basis of physiography, the country is divided in to four major physical divisions. They are:

  1. The Northern Mountains
  2. The Northern Plains
  3. The Peninsular Plateau
  4. The Coastal Plains and Islands

The Himalayas: This is loftiest and snow covered mountains in the world. The area occupied by the Himalayas was earlier a part of ‘Tethys Sea’. The formation of this mountain is by tectonic forces of Gondawana land Angara land masses. It is situated to the north of the Indus and Ganga and the Brahmaputra plains. The slopes of the Himalayas are gentle towards the north and steep towards south.

The Himalayas have distinct characteristics of high relief, snow covered peaks, complex geographical structures, parallel separated by deep valleys and rich temperate vegetation.The Himalayas are classified into three parallel ranges based on altitude and latitude.

The Great Himalayas or Himadri The lesser Himalayas or Himachal The Outer Himalayas or Siwaliks.

a. The Great Himalayas or Himadri: These are the inner most loftiest and continuous ranges of mountains. The average height of the Great Himalayas is 6200 m and the width varies between 120 and 190 km. The important peaks of great Himalayas in India are, Kanchenjunga-8598m in Sikkim, Nanga Prabat-8126m, Nandadevi, Badrinath, Karmet, Trishuletc.

b. The lesser Himalayas or Himachal: These ranges are also known as Inner Himalayas or Himachal ranges. It is situated between great Himalayas inn the north and Outer Himalayas or Siwaliks in the south. Its average height is around 1500-4500m and the width is about 60 to 80 km. These are very rugged and complex ranges due to erosion by rivers. The important ranges in Lesser Himalayas are Pirpanjal, Dhaul Dhar and nag – tiba etc. The important Hill stations are Shimla, Musooire, Ranikeht, Nainital, Almora, Chakrata, Darjeeling etc. Kulu valley, Kangra valley, Spiti valley are the famous valleys of Himachal.

c. The Outer Himalayas or Siwaliks: These are the outer most ranges situated to the south of Lesser Himalayas, known as Siwaliks. The Siwaliks extend from Jammu & Kashmir in the North West to Arunachal Pradesh in east. The average height of this range is around 600-1500m and its width varies between 15-5Qklm. The siwaliks are formed from the sediments brought down by the rivers of lesser, and Greater Himalayas.

There are flat floored structure valleys between Siwaliks and Lesser Himalayas, Known as Siwaliks. The Siwaliks extend from Jammu&Kashmir in the North West to Arunchal Pradesh in east.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 31.
Differencate between the North Indian rivers and South Indian rivers.
Answer:
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North) - 5

Question 32.
Explain the South-West Monsoon season.
Answer:
The south-west monsoon winds as starts in June and ends in mid-September. It is also known as advancing monsoon season or rainy season. During this season, India gets more than 75% of its annual rainfall and more than 90% of the country’s area receives downpour. It is the prime season for Kharif crops.

In the middle of June the direct rays of the Sun fall on tropic of caner due to shift in the position of the Sun from Equator towards northern hemisphere. Therefore, there is an increase in temperature from south to north. The temperature in the main land of India and nearby land masses is high compared to water bodies of the Indian Ocean.

a. The Arabian Sea branch: The Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon strikes the western coast of India in Kerala on the 1st June. Arabian sea winds by carrying more moisture blow along the western coast of India and cause heavy rainfall in the western part of Western Ghats due to obstruction. These winds behave like sea breeze and cause continuous rainfall I the wind ward side of the Western Ghats tHl they lose their moisture.

Agumbe of Karnataka receives the highest rainfall during this season. This regions coming under southeast monsoon winds receive good rainfall wherever they get obstruction by hills and plateaus.

b. The Bay of Bengal branch blow from water bodies towards the Indian mainland due to variation in pressure. These winds carry moisture form the Bay of Bengl and blow along eastern coast and finally reach north eastern hills. In its path, whenever this wind receives obstruction, they cause good rainfall. The eastern part of Eastern Ghats and north astern hills receive heavy rainfall. These winds after crossing eastern coast merge the Arabian sea winds.

The Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal winds, after merging, blow towards north eastern regions of India. The shape of the Himalayan Mountains and northeastern hills greatly obstruct these winds. Therefore the Meghalaya plateau region, particularly Nokrek areas of Mawsynram and cheerapunji, receive very high rainfall. This place is popularly called Rainiest or wettest place on the Earth.

The southwest monsoon after crossing northeastern region blow towards east. Since the Himalayas obstruct these winds they have to take westerly direction and blow along the foothills of Himalayas. The shift in the direct6 sun rays from Tropic of Cancer towards Equator results in the gradual disappearance of southwest monsoons. Indian economy depends on the Monsoons to a large extent.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 33.
Explain the types of soils in India.
Answer:
Soil is the minute or finer rock particles found on the surface of the Earth. It is formed naturally, due to the weathering of rocks, under the influence of climate.

The main types of soil in India are:

1. Alluvial soil: This soil is formed by depositional work of rivers and they are mainly found in the flood plains and deltas. Alluvial soil covers largest geographical are in the country. They are mainly distributed in the river plains of the Ganga, Brahmaputra and the Indus. Uttar Pradesh has the largest area under alluvial soil. It is also found in the deltas of east flowing rivers. Alluvial soils are classified into two types.

  • Bhangar: Older alluvium, coarse and pebble like in nature, found at the lower depths of the plain.
  • Khadar: New alluvium, finer in nature, found in the low lying flood plains and rich in fertility

2. Black soil: The black soils covered more area in peninsular plateau. This soil is also called ‘Cotton soil’ or “Regur soil”. It is derived from the weathered basalt rocks. This soil holds water from long period and become hard whenever it is dry. It is light-black to dark-black in colour. Maharashtra and Gujarat Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamilnadu. Black soils are good for Cotton, Sugarcane, Tobacco, Pulses, Millets, Citrus fruits, etc.

3. Red soil: This soil is formed by the weathered granite rocks. It is red in colour and rich in ferrous content. Red soil covers the second largest area in the country. Largest parts of peninsular region are covered with red soil. TamilNadu has the largest distribution of this soil in the country. Rice, Ragi, Jowar, Groundnut, Tobacco, Millets are the major crops cultivated in this soil.

4. Laterite soil: The hot and humid tropical regions of India are rich in laterite soil. This soil is derived from the fragmentation and disintegration of rocks in the mountain ranges. It is mainly found in the Western Ghats, parts of Eastern Ghats and Northeastern hills of India. Plantation crops like Tea, coffee, Rubber, Cashew nut are cultivated in this soil.

5. Desert soil: This soil is also called arid soil. They are mainly found in the desert and semi-desert regions of Western and North western parts of India. This soil has the least water holding capacity and humus content. Generally it is not suitable for cultivation of crops. This soil is mainly found in Rajasthan, parts of Gujarat and Haryana. With water facility crops like Bajra, Pulses and Guar are cultivated in this soil.

6. Mountain Soil: The Himalayan mountain valleys and hill slopes are covered with Mountain or Forest soil. It is found in the mountain slopes of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Utarkhand regions, Crops like Tea, Almond, saffron are cultivated in this soil.

Question 34.
Explain the major Seismic zones of India.
Answer:
Zone V: This is the most severe seismic (intensity above 7 in Richter scale) seismic zone and is referred as Very High Damage risk zone. The areas are. Northeastern states, parts of Jammu Kashmir, Uttarkhand, and Bihar and Kutch region.

Zone IV: This zone is second in severity (intensity between 5 and 7 in R.S) to zone VG. This is referred to as High Damage Risk zone. Northern regions of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Parts of Bihar, UP, Gujarat, West Bengal lie in this region zone. Northern regions of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, parts of Bihar, UP, Gujarat, West Bengal.

Zone III: This is termed as Moderate Damage (very strong) Risk zone (intensity between 3 and 5 in R.S). The areas are Gujarat, Madya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Maharashtra, Northern Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, West coastal region etc.

Zone II: This zone is referred to as low Damage (strong) Risk Zone (intensity 2 to 3 R.S). The areas are Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha etc.

Zone I: This zone is termed as Very Low Damage (Slight-tremor) Risk Zone. The left out parts of India and Deccan Plateau region.

KSEEB Solutions

IV. Answer any One of the following: (1 × 10 = 10)

Question 35.
Explain the structure of the Interior Earth with a neat diagram.
Answer:
On the basis of the physical and chemical properties of the earth’s surface, behavioral patterns of seismic waves of earthquakes and the lava erupted form volcanoes, it is generally held that the earth is composed of three layers or parts.

1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North) - 6

1. The crust: The outer or upper most layer of the earth is the crust. It is solid and is the thinnest and lightest part. It is 6to 60 kms thick. It has two layers.
a. Continental crust or sial: The upper part consist of sedimentary and granite rocks’ and forms the continents. Its major constituent elements are silica and aluminum. So, it is termed as sial. Its average thickness ranges between 10-12 km.

b. Oceanic crust or Sima: The lower part of other Crust is known as oceanic crust. Its thickness is around 5 km. This layer is rich in silica and Magnesium. Therefore, it is called Sima. The lower continuous layer is mostly composing of silica and magnesium and so it is termed as sima. The mean density of this layer is 2.95gm. Conrad discontinuity between Sial and Sima and Mohorovicic discontinuity between Crust and Mantle are the major discontinues in the crust.

2. The Mantle: The portion of the earth’s interior, lying beneath the crust and above the core is known as mantle. It is largely made up of basic silicates, rich in iron and magnesium. It extends from 60 to 2,900km. The density of this layer from 3.3 to 5.7gm. The mantle has two parts.

a. Upper Mantle: This is the outer layer of the Mantle known as Asthenosphre. Most of the earthquakes and volcanoes take birth due to disorder in this layer.

b. Lower Mantle: This is the lower layer of the Mantle known as Mesosphere and it is in solid form. Repetti discontinuity between Asthenosphere and Mesosphere and Gutenberg discontinuity between Mantle and Core are the major discontinues in the mantle

3. The core: The core is the central part of the earth’s interior. It extends from the lower boundary of the mantle to the centre of the earth for about 6,400 kms. The most important materials of core are nickel and ferrous (Nife). The core consists of two layers, namely.

a. Outer core: It is the outer layer of the Core consisting hard molten rocks. Most of the materials are in molten form. It extends from 2900km to 4980km.

b. Inner core: It is the lower layer of the Core with very high temperature and pressure. Most of the materials are in solid form therefore, it is called solid core. The average temperature of this layer is around 2900° C. Transition discontinuity is found between Outer. Core and Inner Core.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 36.
Explain the Role of the river with a neat diagram.
Answer:
River is an important external agent of denudation on the ever-changing face of the Earth. The work of river is more or less common in all the drainage systems of the world.
The work of river consists of three closely interrelated activities.

1. Erosional work: The process of wearing and taking away the part of rock is known as ‘Erosion’. It depends upon the volume and velocity of water, nature of slope and the nature of rocks. The erosional work of the river is performed in two ways.
a. The Mechanical and b. The Chemical erosion.
There are various Iandforms associated to erosional work of river.

a. ’V’ Shaped valley: In the mountain course the speed of the river is greater and volume is less. As the water rushes down the steep slopes there is maximum vertical , or later erosion. The rapid down cutting or vertical erosion results in the formation of ‘V’shaped valley.

b. Gorge: A deep and narrow valley with steep rocky, sides in the river course is known as ‘Gorge’. They are formed by the regular vertical cutting by the rivers in the valleys eg. Narmada gorge.

c. I shape valley: Avey steep, deep river valley formed by the river, lookinglike T, is called ‘I’ Shaped valley. These are very deep compared to gorges.

d. Canyon: It is a wide, deep and steep valley almost with vertical walls like feature found in the arid or semi arid regions is called ‘Canyon’ eg. Grand Canyon of River Colorado in USA.

e. Potholes: These are the small depressions in the rocky beds of other river valley. They are formed by corrosion. Pebbles, sand and small rocks carried by the river swirled around on the river bed. This action erodes the rock on the river bed forming potholes.

f. Waterfalls: Huge volume of water falling from a great height along the course of a river is called “Waterfalls’. They are formed when the hard and soft rocks come in the way of flowing river. The soft rock gets eroded faster and hard rock does not erode easily. Therefore huge amount of water falls from great height and creates waterfalls. Eg. The Jog falls, The Angel falls, The Victoria falls.

g. River Capture: It is formed mainly due to head-ward erosion by the river near its source. When the source of a river is captured by another major and strong river it is called‘River Capture’.

2. Transportational work: The process of carrying away the eroded materials is known as ‘Transportation’. The rock materials and eroded particles carried by a river is called its Load. The transportation capacity of a river is based on velocity of water, volume of water, load, slope, smooth valley floor etc.

The major landforms associated with the transportational work of the river are:

a. Alluvial fans: The term alluvium refers to the debris transported and deposited by rivers. When the fast flowing river enters the plateau or plain region, it experience sudden decline in gradient and obstruction in its path. Due to obstruction of the river spreads and deposits many of its light materials in fan shape known as ‘alluvial fans’.

b. Alluvial cones: In the plateau and foot hill region when the river spreads out, the eroded materials carried by the river is deposited in conical shape called ‘Alluvial cones’.

3. Depositional work: The process of carrying and accumulating the eroded materials by the river at the lower course is called ‘deposition’. In the lower course due to gentle slope the river slows down and deposits most of its materials on the banks, course and the mouth.

1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North) - 7

The important landforms resulting from depositional work of the river are:

a. Meanders: In the lower course, river flows slowly in zig zag or curved manner due . to smaller obstruction in its path. A curve or loop formed by the river in its path is called ‘Meander’. When the river course formed by such crescent shaped loops due to continuous lateral deposition it is called meandering course.

b. Ox-bow Lakes: The ox-bow lakes are formed by depositional and erosional actions taking place simultaneously and they are a result of excessive meandering. The River which flows through the shorter route leaving the curve of the meander cut off and crescent shaped lake is formed known as‘Ox-bow lakes’.

c. Flood Plains: When the river is in floods the water overflows on its bank and spreads in the surrounding regions. The silt carried by the water gets deposited in these areas and creates flat plains on both the banks of the rive known as ‘Flood Plains’.

d. Delta: A triangular shaped alluvial deposition forced at the mouth of the river is called ‘Delta’. Important types of deltas are

a. Arcuate or Common delta
b. Bird-foot delta

e. Distributaries: As the river approaches the sea or Ocean, due to reduction in gradient, joining of tributaries, its volume increases, speed decreases hence, the rivet begins to break up into a number of branches from the main river called ‘Distributaries’.

f. Estuary: Estuaries are the tidal mouth of a river having a narrow, gradually widening lay at the mouth. In Estuary River water is mixed with seawater. Eg. The Narmada estuary, The Kali estuary.

KSEEB Solutions

V. A. Answer the following questions in a sentence each: (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 37.
What is a Map?
Answer:
A map is defined as a symbolical and convenient representation of the earth.

Question 38.
What is Scale?
Answer:
A scale is the ratio of the distance between two points on a map and the actual distance

Question 39.
What is Index?
Answer:
The conventions used for signs and symbols that are shown on a map are known as Index.

Question 40.
Name any two essential features of a Map.
Answer:

  1. Title
  2. Scale

Question 41.
Mention the two o uses of Maps.
Answer:

  1. Maps are very useful to the Government for Planning and Administrative Purpose.
  2. They are very much helpful at the time of War and Defence.

B. Identify the Latitudes and Longitudes for the given places from the given Karnataka map: (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 42.
Belgaum
Answer:
15°52′ North (Latitude) 74°30’East (Longitude)

Question 43.
Bidar
Answer:
17°54’North (Latitude) 77°35′ East (Longitude)

Question 44.
Mangalore
Answer:
12°5T North (Latitude) 74°50’East (Longitude)

Question 45.
Haveri
Answer:
12°25’North (Latitude) 75°44′ East (Longitude)

Question 46.
Madikeri
Answer:
12°25’North (Latitude)

KSEEB Solutions

C. Draw a diagram of the following: (2 × 2 =4)

Question 47.
Temperate zones
Answer:
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North) - 8

Question 48.
Delta river
Answer:
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North) - 9

D. Draw the outline map of India, mark and name the following: (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 49.
Map Drawing.
Answer:
Physical divisions of India
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North) - 6

Question 50.
Western Coast and Eastern Coast.
Answer:
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North) - 11

KSEEB Solutions

Question 51.
Krishna river and Cauvery river.
Answer:
Rivers and Lakes
1st PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2015 (North) - 10

Blind Candidates only

Write the following questions: (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 52.
Explain the essential features of Maps.
Answer:
The essential features of a map.
1. Title – A Map should have a title eg. India Physical, Karnataka Political, World Cultural, District Roads etc.

2. Scale – A Map must have a scale and Maps have to be drawn according to scale. It denotes the relationship between the length on the map and the actual distance on the ground. Scales may be Verbal or R.F (Representative Fraction) or Graphical eg. 1 cm = 10km, 1 inch= 100 miles, 1: 1000,1: 100000 etc.

3. Direction – A Map should have a direction symbol which helps the reader to understand the direction of a Place or Area or City or Country etc.

4. Index – It is a key or legend to the map. The conventional signs and symbols are shown in the index of a map. It helps the reader to find the required information from the map.

5. Latitudes and Longitudes – A Map must have a network of horizontal and vertical lines known as latitudes and longitudes. These are the Geographic co-ordinates through which location of a place or city or country is identified. In addition to this, they help to understand the direction and to calculate distance between places.

Question 53.
Explain the types of Maps.
Answer:
Maps may be broadly divided into two types.
A. On the basis of Scale Maps are classified into three types.

(a) Large Scale Maps: The Maps drawn on the scale of 1 cm= 1 km or 1:1, 00,000 and 1 inch=1 mile or 1:63,360 eg. Cadastral maps (Village, Town and City maps).

(b) Medium Scale Maps: the Maps drawn on the scale of 1 cnm=1 Km to 1 cm=10 km or 1:1,00,000 and 1:10,00,000 eg. Topographical Maps (Mountains, Plateaus, plains).

(c) Small Scale maps: The Maps drawn on the scale below 1 cm: 15Km or 1:15,00,000 eg. Atlas and Wall Maps. These maps show broad physical and cultural features.

B. On the basis of purpose various types of Maps are prepared.

(i) Topographical maps: To show relief features, forests, land use, river system, roads, railways, pipelines, distribution of rural and urban settlements etc.

(ii) Cadastral maps: The Cadastral maps are drawn to register the ownership of field, farm, building, firm etc.

(iii) Economic Maps: These maps provide information about human economic activities eg. Agriculture, mining, industry, marketing, trade etc.

(iv) Population Maps: These maps show the information about distribution, growth, density, migration, age and sex composition of population. These maps are also drawn to show the distribution of occupational structure, language, social groups of people etc.

(v) Weather Maps: These are useful to analyzed weather condition and distribution of temperature, pressure, humidity, winds, rainfall etc.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 54.
Mention the uses of Maps.
Answer:

  • Maps are very useful to the government for planning and administrative purposes.
  • Maps are essential to a geographer, to present spatial information systematically.
  • They are useful to locate lakes, rivers, vegetation, coastal features and also to understand the distribution of soils, minerals, crops, population, tourist places.
  • They are very much helpful at the time of war and defence.
  • Maps are very important for the army. Military maps are very useful for the overall planning of the strategy of war and for coordinating military action during war.
  • Maps are very useful tools for a geographer. Geography cannot be understood and made interesting without maps.
  • Maps are also immensely useful to other sciences, like physical and social sciences. For example Geology, climatology, Meteorology etc.
  • Maps serve as a permanent record to locate features like rivers, lakes vegetation etc.
  • Maps enable us to know details of the landforms and other ground features. Mountains, plateaus, plains, coastal plains etc.
  • Maps serve as a permanent record to locate features like rivers, lakes, vegetations etc.
  • Maps showing the distribution of objects become very useful to understand the location and distribution of different objects such as minerals, soils, vegetation, agricultural crops, industries, population, etc.
  • Maps help to mark political boundary, administrative areas to formulate legislation and legal jurisdiction.

1st PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2014 (North)

Students can Download 1st PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2014 (North), Karnataka 1st PUC Computer Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2014 (North)

Time: 3:15 Hours
Max. Marks: 100

PART – A

I. Answer all the following questions. Each question carries one mark. (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Which is the earliest computing machine?
Answer:
The earliest computing machine was Abacus.

Question 2.
Give anyone example of non-impact printer?
Answer:
One example of non-impact printer is Ink jet printer.

Question 3.
What is syntax error?
Answer:
It refers to an error in the syntax of a sequence of characters or tokens that is intended to be written in a particular programming language.

Question 4.
Define keyword.
Answer:
All keywords (reserved words) are basically the sequences of characters that have one or more fixed meanings.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
What is the extraction operator in C++?
Answer:
cin is used in conjuction with >> operator, known as extraction or get from operator in C++.

Question 6.
What is the purpose of break statement?
Answer:
The break statement can be used to terminate a repeated structure (loops) such as while, do while and for and multi branching statements like switch.

Question 7.
Name the data type of the array subscript.
Answer:
The data type of array subscript is integer or int.

Question 8.
Define actual arguments.
Answer:
The data that is passed by the calling function as arguments/parameters is known as actual arguments, i.e., the arguments which are present at the time of function call.

Question 9.
Name any two word processors.
Answer:
The two word processors are MS word, Word perfect.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
What is a worksheet?
Answer:
It is a sheet that contains rows and columns, to store data like student marks, salary of employees, etc.,.

PART – B

II. Answer any Five of the following questions. Each question carries two marks: (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
How are computers important in communication?
Answer:
The World Wide Web, Internet, Social Networking and email are very useful in communication. They work very fast and available 24/7.

Question 12.
Compare static RAM and dynamic RAM.
Answer:

  1. In a Static RAM, each bit that stores data is made up of four or six transistors that make up a flip-flop.
  2. In a dynamic RAM, uses separate capacitors to store each bit. Capacitors when not charged represent the value 0 of a bit and when charged represent the value 1.

Question 13.
Define the terms Multiprogramming and multitasking.
Answer:
In multiprogramming, several programs are run at the same time on one processor. The operating system executes part of one program, then part of another, and so on.

Running two or more programs at the same time on the same single-processor (single CPU) computer is called multitasking. Multitasking is the logical extension of multiprogramming.

Question 14.
Mention any two advantages of the flowchart.
Answer:

  1. It is a means of communication and easy to understand.
  2. Easy to convert into a program code.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
Write any two characteristics of OOPs.
Answer:
Data encapsulation and inheritance are the two important characteristics of OOP.

Question 16.
What are variables? Give its declaration syntax.
Answer:

  1. It is a location in the computer memory which can store data and is given a symbolic name for easy reference.
  2. The declaration syntax is datatype variablename;

Question 17.
Explain any two character based functions.
Answer:
tolower(): It converts the capital alphabet character to lower case.
For example, tolower(‘A’) output: a

toupper ( ): It converts the lower case alphabet character to upper case.
For example, toupper(‘a’) output: A

KSEEB Solutions

Question 18.
What are headers in footers in word processor?
Answer:
A header is a special area at the top of every page normally allocated in the top margin area. Footer is a special area at the bottom of every page normally allocated in the bottom margin area.

PART – C

III. Answer any Five of the following Questions. Each question carries three marks: (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 19.
Give the application of OCR, OMR, MICR devices.
Answer:
Optical Character Recognition (OCR) is a input device that is used to scan the printed/handwritten text materials into computer readable text makes it easily edited and stored.

Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is the technology of electronically taking out data from marked fields, such as oval shades and fill-in fields, on printed forms.

Magnetic Ink Character Reader enables special characters printed in magnetic ink to be read and input rapidly to a computer.

Question 20.
Explain the features of UNIX operating system.
Answer:
The features of UNIX operating system are
1. multi-tasking:
more than one program can be run at a time.

2. Machine-independence:
The System hides the machine architecture from the user, making it easier to write applications that can run on micros, mini and mainframe computers.

3. Multi-User Operations:
UNIX is a multi-user system designed to support a group of users simultaneously. The system allows for the sharing of processing power and peripheral resources, white at the same time providing excellent security features.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 21.
Define

  1. Testing
  2. Debugging
  3. Top-down analysis.

Answer:
1. Testing:
It is the process of checking the program logic by providing selected sample data and observing the output for correctness.

2. Debugging:
The process of detecting the errors and correcting the errors in a program is called as debugging.

3. Top down analysis:
It is the process of dividing a problem into sub problems and further dividing the sub problems into smaller sub problems and finally implemented as program statements.

Question 22.
Write an algorithm to find largest of three numbers.
Answer:

  • Step 1: start
  • Step 2: input a, b, c
  • Step 3: let max = a
  • Step 4: is b > max? then max = b
  • Step 5: is c > max? then max = c
  • Step 6: print max
  • Step 7: stop

Question 23.
Explain the different relational operators with examples.
Answer:
The operators which perform operation of relation between two operands called relational operators.
The > (greater than) operator: if (10 > 5)? Output: True. If ( 5 > 10)? Output: False
The < (lesser than) operator: if (15 < 25)? Output: True. If(56<26)? Output: False
The >= (greater than or equal to): if (10 >= 10)? Output: True. If ( 5 >= 10)? Output: False

KSEEB Solutions

Question 24.
What is cascading of input and output operators? Explain with suitable examples.
Answer:
The cascading is a way to extract/insert multiple values from/into more than one variable using one cin/cout statement. The multiple use of << or >> in one statement is known of cascading.

1. Cascading of output operator (>>):
cout << ” Hello ” << ” ISC “;
cout << “Value of B=” << b;

2. Cascading of input operator (>>):
int n1, n2, n3;
cin >> n1 » n2 >> n3;
cin >> n1 >> n2;

Question 25.
Write the syntax and examples of initialization of two-dimensional array?
Answer:
Syntax of initialization of two dimensional array:
Datatype arrayname [rowsize] [column size] = { value 1, value2, …., value n };
Example of array initialization with declaration:
int matrix [3] [3] = { 91, 96, 90, 94, 99, 95, 87, 92, 98};

Question 26.
How is structure defined? Write syntax and example.
Answer:
A structure is a collection of variable which can be same or different types.
1st PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2014 (North) 1
Example,
struct student
{
int, regno;
char name[50];
char class [ 6];
};

PART – D

IV. Answer any Seven of the following questions. Each question carries Five marks: (7 × 5 = 35)

Question 27.
Explain the characteristics of computers in detail.
Answer:
The characteristics of computers are
1. Speed:
Computers are fast in doing calculations. The speed of the computer is measured in terms of million instruction per second (MIPS).

2. Storage Capacity:
Computers come with large amount of memory. They can hold lot of data. Computers can show a particular piece of information from large amount of data in a short time.

3. Diligence:
After doing work for sometime, humans become tired but computers do not become tired. They work continuously. In fact, some computers which control telephone exchanges are never stopped. This is called diligence.

4. Accuracy:
The results that the computers produce are accurate provided data and programs are reliable.

5. Versatility:
We can use computer to perform completely different type of work at the same time.

6. Reliability:
Computers work for many years without any problem. Few computers in the world are never switched off.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 28.
Solve: FEAD(16) = (?)(10) = (?)(2) = (?) (8)
Answer:
FEAD(16)= (?)(10)= 15 × 163 + 14 × 162 + 10 × 161 + 13 × 160
= 61440 + 3584+ 160 + 13
= 65197(10)
In hexdecimal system F=15, E=14, A=10 and D= 33
15 = 1111(2) 14 = 1110(2) 10 = 1010(2) 13 = 1101(2)
FEAD(16) = (?)(2)= 1111 1110 1010 1101(2)
1st PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2014 (North) 2>

Question 29.
What is structured programming? Mention its advantages.
Answer:
Structured Programming deals only with logic and code and suggests making use of programming structures such as sequence, selection, iteration and modularity in programs.

  1. Programs are easy to write because the programming logic is well organized.
  2. Programs can be functionally decomposed into logical working units (modularity).
  3. Modularity leads to easily understand the program, test and debug.
  4. Easy to maintain because of single entry and single exit.
  5. Eliminates the use of undisciplined controls (GOTO, BREAK, etc.,) in the program.

Question 30.
Draw a flowchart to find the factorial of a number.
Answer:
1st PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2014 (North) 3

Question 31.
Explain the structure of C++program with an example.
Answer:
1st PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2014 (North) 4
The various parts of the above program:
1. headers, which contain information that is either necessary or useful to program. For this program, the header <iostream> is needed.

2. The line int main() is the main function where program execution begins.

3. The pair of { } indicates the body of the main function.

4. The next line cout << “This is my first C++ program. causes the message “This is my first C++ program” to be displayed on the screen.

5. The next line return 0; terminates main( )function and causes it to return the value 0 to the calling process.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 32.
Write a C++ program to find the position of a given number in an array.
Answer:
1st PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2014 (North) 5

Question 33.
Explain the working of switch statement with an example.
Answer:
Switch statement compares the value of an expression against a list of integers or character constants. The list of constants are listed using the “case” statement along with a “break” statement to end the execution.

1st PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2014 (North) 6
Result:
Enter the day of the week between 1 – 7 :: 7
Sunday

In the above Control Structure example the “switch” statement is used to find the day of the week from the integer input got from the user. The value present in the day is compared for equality with constants written in the word case. Since no equality is achieved in the above example (from 1 to 6) as they entered value is 7, default is selected and gives “Sunday” as a result.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 34.
Explain the working of for statement with a programming example.
Answer:
A for loop is a repetition control structure that allows you to efficiently write a loop that needs , to execute a specific number of times.
Syntax:
The syntax of a for loop in C++ is:
for ( initialization; condition; increment/decrement )
{
statement(s);
}

The working of a for loop:
1. The initialization step is executed first, and only once in the beginning. It is used to declare and initialize any loop control variables.

2. Next, the condition is evaluated. If it is true, the body of the loop is executed. If it is false, the body of the loop does not execute and flow of control jumps to the next statement just after the for loop.

3. After the body of the for loop executes, the flow of control jumps back up to the increment/decrement statement and update any loop control variables.

4. Then condition is evaluated again. If it is true, the loop executes and the process repeats itself (body of loop, then increment step, and then again condition). After the condition becomes false, the for loop terminates.

Example:

1st PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2014 (North) 7<

When the above code is compiled and executed, it produces following result:
value of a: 10
value of a: 11
value of a: 12
value of a: 13
value of a: 14
value of a: 15

Question 35.
What is recursive function? Explain with a programming example.
Answer:
A function that calls itself directly or indirectly again and again is called recursive functions and the process is termed as recursion. The most common example of a recursive function is the calculation of the factorial of a number. i.e., n! = (n) * (n – 1)
Program:
1st PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2014 (North) 8

In the above example, the calling function main () gives the function call to fact () and control jumps from main () function to called function fact().

The argument ‘n’ value is compared with the base class ‘if (n == 1)’ if ‘true’ control will return back to calling function main() with the value 1.

If ‘False’, control will execute the statement which is after ‘else’ x = n * fact ( n – 1);. here a function call is given to fact (n-1) with the parameter (n-1).

Now the calling function is fact () and called function is also fact(). The recursion ends when value of ‘n’ is 1 then the statement return (1) is initiated.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 36.
Mention the features of spreadsheets.
Answer:
Spreadsheets are mainly used for making calculations and mathematical works. Microsoft excel is a spread sheet application. In a single sheet, it consists of rows and columns and cells. Every cell has different address.
Features of spreadsheet:

1. Tables:
Tables are created with different fields eg – name, age, address, roll no so we add a table to fill these values;

2. Clip art:
In this we can add images and also audio, video clips can be added here.

3. Charts:
With charts, we can clearly shown products evaluation to the clients. For example which product sale is more or less in this month.

4. Functions:
MATHEMATICAL: Add, subtract, div, multiply.
LOGICAL: average, sum, mod, product.

5. Images and Backgrounds:
In this we add images and backgrounds in sheet.

6. Sorting and Filter:
In sorting we can sort our data and also filter our data so that repetitions will be removed.

7. Page layout:
In this themes, colors, sheets, margins, size, backgrounds, breaks, print, titles, sheets height, width, scaling, gridness, headings, views, bring to front of font or back alignment, etc will be used.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 37.
Explain the basic tags in HTML with examples (any five tags).
Answer:
1. Bold Text:
You can bold text to emphasize information on your web page. Bold text is useful for introducing new terms and highlighting important phrases on a Web page.
Tag:
<B> SOME TEXT </B>
EXAMPLE:
<BODY> <B> THIS IS A Bold TEXT </B> </BODY>

2. Underline Text:
Tag:
<U> Some text </U>
Example:
<BODY> <U> You can underline this text </U> </BODY>

3. Italicise Text:
Tag:
<I> SOME TEXT </I>
EXAMPLE:
<BODY> <I> THIS IS A Itilicize TEXT </I> </BODY>

4. Big Text:
Tag:
<Big> SOME TEXT </Big>
EXAMPLE:
<BODY> <Big> THIS IS A Big TEXT</Big> </BODY>

5. Marquee Text:
To scroll text horizontally.
Tag:
<Marquee> some text </marquee>
Example:
<marquee> The text is moving < /marquee>

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