2nd PUC

You can Download Chapter 13 Nuclei Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Physics Question Bank with Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei

2nd PUC Physics Nuclei NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
(a) Two stable isotopes of lithium \(_{ 3 }^{ 6 }{ Li\quad }and\quad _{ 3 }^{ 7 }{ Li }\) have respective abundances of 7.5% and 92.5%. These isotopes have masses of 6.01512 u and 7.01600 u, respectively. Find the atomic mass of lithium.

(b) Boron has two stable isotopes, \(_{ 5 }^{ 10 }{ B\quad }and\quad _{ 5 }^{ 7 }{ B }\). Their respective masses are 10.01294 u and 11.00931 u, and the atomic mass of boron is 10.811 u. Find the abundances of \(_{ 5 }^{ 11 }{ B\quad }and\quad _{ 5 }^{ 11 }{ B }\).
Answer:

Question 2.
The three stable isotopes of neon: \(_{ 10 }^{ 20 }Ne,\quad _{ 10 }^{ 21 }{ Ne }\quad and\quad _{ 10 }^{ 22 }{ Ne }\) have respective abundances of 90.51%, 0.27% and 9.22%. The atomic masses of the three isotopes are 19.99 u, 20.99 u, and 21.99 u, respectively. Obtain the average atomic mass of neon.
Answer:

Question 3.
Obtain the binding energy (in MeV) of a nitrogen nucleus \(\left( _{ 7 }^{ 14 }{ N } \right) \) given \(m\left( _{ 7 }^{ 14 }{ N } \right) =14.00307u\)
Answer:

Question 4.
Obtain the binding energy of the nuclei \(_{ 26 }^{ 56 }{ Fe\quad and\quad _{ 83 }^{ 209 }{ Bi } }\) in units of MeV from the following data:
\(m\left( _{ 26 }^{ 56 }{ Fe } \right) =55.934939u\)
\(m\left( _{ 83 }^{ 209 }{ Bi } \right) =208.980388u\)
Answer:

Question 5.
A given coin has a mass of 3.0 g. Calculate the nuclear energy that would be required to separate all the neutrons and protons from each other. For simplicity assume that the coin is entirely made of \(_{ 29 }^{ 63 }{ Cu }\)atoms (of mass 62.92960 u).
Answer:
m_p = 1.007825 amu
m_n = 1.008665 amu
m (Cu) = 62.92960 amu
The energy required to separate all the neutrons and protons, from each other in the coin is equal to the binding energy of all the atoms in the coin. Number of atoms in the copper coin of mass 3g,

The atomic number of copper is 29. Therefore, one atom of copper contains 29 protons and 63-29 i.e. 34 neutrons.
∴ Mass of the constituent nucleons of a copper atom
= 29m_p + 34m_n
= 29 x 1.007825 + 34 ×1.008665
= 63.521535 amu
∴ Mass defect in a copper atom
= 63.521535-62.92960
= 0.591935 amu
Mass defect of all the atom in the coin,
Δm = 0.591935 x 2.868 x 10²² = 1.698 x 10²² amu
The energy required to separate all the neutrons and protons in the coin,
E = a m x 931.5 = 1.698 x 10²² x 931.5 = 1.582 x 10²⁵ MeV.

Question 6.
Write nuclear reaction equations for

Answer:

Question 7.
A radioactive isotope has a half-life of T years. How long will it take the activity to reduce to
(a) 3.125%
(b) 1% of its original value?
Answer:

Question 8.
The normal activity of living carbon-containing matter is found to be about 15 decays per minute for every gram of carbon. This activity arises from the small proportion of radioactive \(_{ 6 }^{ 14 }C\) present with the stable carbon isotope \(_{ 6 }^{ 12 }C\). When the organism is dead, its interaction with the atmosphere (which maintains the above equilibrium activity) ceases and its activity begins to drop. From the known half-life (5730 years) of \(_{ 6 }^{ 14 }C\) and the measured activity, the age of the specimen can be approximately estimated. This is the principle of \(_{ 6 }^{ 14 }C\) dating used in archaeo­logy. Suppose a specimen from Mohenjodaro gives an activity of 9 decays per minute per gram of carbon. Estimate the approximate age of the Indus-Valley civilisation.
Answer:
Suppose that the number of C-14 atoms per gram was N_o at t = 0 (initially) when its activity was 15 decays per minute per gram. Today, i.e. after time t (age of once-living organism), the number of C-14 atom per gram left is N and it shows an activity of 9 decays per minute per gram. Now, the activity of a radioactive substance is given by,

Question 9.
Obtain the amount of \(_{ 27 }^{ 60 }Co\) necessary to provide a radioactive source of 8.0 mCi strength. The half-life of \(_{ 27 }^{ 60 }Co\) is 5.3 years.
Answer:

Question 10.
The half-life of \(_{ 38 }^{ 90 }Sr\) is 28 years. What is the disintegration rate of 15 mg of this isotope?
Answer:

Question 11.
Obtain approximately the ratio of the nuclear radii of the gold isotope \(_{ 79 }^{ 197 }{ Au }\) and the silver \(_{ 49 }^{ 107 }{ Ag }\)
Answer:

Question 12.
Find the Q-value and the kinetic energy of the emitted α -particle in the α -decay

Answer:

Question 13
The radionuclide ¹¹C decays according to \(_{ 6 }^{ 11 }{ C }\rightarrow _{ 5 }^{ 11 }{ B }+{ e }^{ + }+v:{ T }_{ 1/2 }=20.3min\)
Answer:

The maximum energy of the emitted positron is practically equal to the Q-value of the reaction. It is because the mass of the neutrino is negligibly small as compared to the mass of the positron. Therefore, when they share the energy, the whole of the energy is carried by the positron.

Question 14.
The nucleus \(_{ 10 }^{ 23 }{ Ne }\) decays by β emission. Write down the β -decay equation and determine the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons emitted. Given that: \(_{ 10 }^{ 23 }{ Ne }=22.994466u\)
Answer:

The energy released is shared by the Na nucleus and the electron-neutrino pair released. As the electron-neutrino pair is much lighter than the ²³ Na nucleus, practically the Whole of the energy released is carried by electron-neutron will carry the maximum energy. Therefore, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron is 4.374 MeV.

Question 15.
The Q value of a nuclear reaction A+b→C+d is defined by Q=[m_A+m_B-m_c-m_d] where the masses refer to the respective nuclei. Determine from the given data the Q-value of the following reactions and state whether the reactions are exothermic or endothermic.

Answer:

Question 16.
Suppose, we think of fission of a \(_{ 26 }^{ 56 }{ Fe }\) nucleus into two equal fragments, \(_{ 13 }^{ 28 }{ Al }\). Is fission energetically possible? Argue by working out Q of the process.
Given m(_{ 26 }^{ 56 }{ Fe })=55.93494u and
\(m(_{ 26 }^{ 56 }{ Al })=27.98191u\)
Answer:
m(_{ 26 }^{ 56 }{ Fe })=55.93494u

Question 17.
The fission properties of \(_{ 94 }^{ 219 }{ Pu }\) are very similar to those of  \(_{ 92 }^{ 235 }{ U }\) . The average energy released per fission is 180 MeV. How much energy, in MeV, is released if all the atoms in 1 kg of pure \(_{ 94 }^{ 239 }{ U }\) undergo fission?
Answer:

Question 18.
A 1000 MW fission reactor consumes half of its fuel in 5.00 y. How much \(_{ 92 }^{ 235 }{ U }\) did it contain initially? Assume that the reactor operates 80% of the time, that all the energy generated arises from the fission of \(_{ 92 }^{ 235 }{ U }\) and that this nuclide is consumed only by the fission process.
Answer:
Power of the reaction, P = 1000 MW = 10⁹W
The reactor operates for 80% of the total time.

Question 19.
How long can an electric lamp of 100W be kept glowing by fusion of 2.0 kg of deuterium? Take the fusion reaction as

Answer:
Mass of the deuterium, 2 kg = 2000g
Number of deuterium nuclei in 2 kg,

Question 20.
Calculate the height of the potential barrier for a head-on collision of two deuterons. (Hint: The height of the potential barrier is given by the Coulomb repulsion between the two deuterons when they just touch each other. Assume that they can be taken as hard spheres of radius 2.0 fm.)
Answer:
In the head-on collision of two deuterons, the two nuclei come to close up to a distance equal to the sum of their radii
∴r = 2 + 2=4fm = 4×10^-15m
The charge on a deuteron
e = charge on a proton = 1.6x 10^-19c
∴ The potential energy of the deuterons during a head-on collision,

∴ A deuteron will require a Kinetic energy of 360 keV to surmount the potential barrier.

Question 21.
From the relation \(R={ R }_{ 0 }{ A }^{ 1/2 }\) where R₀ is a constant and A is the mass number of a nucleus, show that the nuclear matter density is nearly constant. (i.e. independent of A).
Answer:
Let us find the density of the nucleus of an atom, whose mass number is A.
The mass of the nucleus of the atom of mass number A

Question 22.
For the β⁺ (positron) emission from a nucleus, there is another competing process known as electron capture (electron from an inner orbit, say, the K- shell, is captured by the nucleus and a neutrino is emitted).
\({ e }^{ + }+_{ z }^{ A }{ X }\rightarrow _{ Z-1 }^{ A }{ Y+v }\)
Show that if β⁺ emission is energetically allowed, electron capture is necessarily allowed but not vice-versa.
Answer:

From equations (1) and (2), it follows that if E₁> 0, then E₂ > 0
i.e if β⁺emission is energetically allowed, then the electron capture is necessarily allowed. On the other hand, if E₂ > 0, then it does not necessarily mean that E₂> 0, Thus if the electron capture is allowed, then β⁺emission is not necessarily allowed.

2nd PUC Physics Nuclei Additional Exercises

Question 23.
In a periodic table the average atomic. mass of magnesium is given as 24.312 u. The average value is based on their relative natural abundance on earth. The three isotopes and their masses are \(_{ 12 }^{ 24 }{ Mg }(23.98504u)\), \(_{ 12 }^{ 24 }{ Mg }(24.98584u)\) and \(_{ 12 }^{ 24 }{ Mg }(25.98259u)\). The natural abundance of \(_{ 12 }^{ 24 }{ Mg }\quad is\quad 78.99%\) by mass. Calculate the abundances of other two isotopes.
Answer:

Question 24.
The neutron separation energy is defined as the energy required to remove a neutron from the nucleus. Obtain the neutron separation energies of the nuclei \(_{ 20 }^{ 41 }{ Ca }_{ 13 }^{ 27 }{ Al }\) from the following data:
\(m\left( _{ 20 }^{ 40 }{ Ca } \right) =39.962591u\)
\(m\left( _{ 20 }^{ 41 }{ Ca } \right) =40.962278u\)
\(m\left( _{ 13 }^{ 26 }Al \right) =25.986895u\)
\(m\left( _{ 13 }^{ 27 }Al \right) =26.981541u\)
Answer:

Question 25.
A source contains two phosphorous radio nuclides \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P({ T }_{ 1/2 }=14.3d) }\quad and\quad _{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }{ ({ T }_{ 1/2 }=25.3d) }\)Initially, 10% of the decays come from \({ { T }_{ 1/2 } }\). How long one must wait until 90% do so?
Answer:
Initially 10% of the decays come from \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) the number of nuclei of \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) left behind will be 90% and that of \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) will be 10%. Let N, and N₂ be the number of the nuclei of \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) and \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) present initially. It follows that  if N, = 9N₁, then N₂ = N
suppose that 90% of \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) nuclei decay in time t. Let N’₁ and N’₂ be the numbers of the nuclei of \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) and \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) present after the time t. It follows that

Question 26.
Under certain circumstances, a nucleus can decay by emitting a -particle more massive than an a-particle. Consider the following decay processes:

Calculate the Q-values for these decays and determine that both are energetically allowed.
Answer:

Question 27.
Consider the fission of \({ _{ 92 }^{ 238 }{ U } }\) by fast neutrons. In one fission event, no neutrons are emitted and the final end products, after the beta decay of the primary fragments, are \({ _{ 58 }^{ 140 }{ Ce } }\quad and\quad _{ 44 }^{ 99 }{ Ru }\). Calculate Q for this fission process. The relevant atomic and particle masses are

Answer:

Question 28.
Consider the D-T reaction (deuterium-tritium fusion)
\({ _{ 1 }^{ 2 }{ Ce } }\quad +\quad _{ 1 }^{ 3 }{ Ru\rightarrow _{ 2 }^{ 4 }{ He }+n }\)
(a) Calculate the energy released in MeV in this reaction from the data:
\(m(_{ 1 }^{ 2 }{ H })=2.014102u\)
\(m(_{ 1 }^{ 3 }{ H })=3.016049u\)
(b) Consider the radius of both deuterium and tritium to be approximately 2.0 fm. What is the kinetic energy needed to overcome the coulomb repulsion between the two nuclei? To what temperature must the gas be heated to initiate the reaction? (Hint: Kinetic energy required for one fusion event =average thermal kinetic energy available with the interacting particles = 2(3kT/2); k = Boltzman’s constant!, T = absolute temperature.)
Answer:

the two nuclei almost come in contact with other is given by,

Question 29.
Obtain the maximum kinetic energy of β-particles, and the radiation frequencies of γ decays in the decay scheme shown in Fig. 13.6. You are given that

Answer:
E₁=0

Question 30.
Calculate and compare the energy released by a) fusion of 1.0 kg of hydrogen deep within Sun and b) the fission of 1.0 kg of ²³⁵U in a fission reactor.
Answer:

Question 31.
Suppose India had a target of producing by 2020 AD, 200,000 MW of electric power, ten percent of which was to be obtained from nuclear power plants. Suppose we are given that, on average, the efficiency of utilization (i.e. conversion to electric energy) of thermal energy produced in a reactor was 25%. How much amount of fissionable uranium would our country need per year by 2020? Take the heat energy per fission of ²³⁵U to be about 200MeV,
Answers
Energy released per fission = 200 MeV
Efficiency of utilization = 25%
∴ Electrical energy produced per fission

2nd PUC Physics Nuclei Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 1:2, what is the ratio of the nuclear densities?
Answer:
Nuclear density is independent of the mass number of a nucleus. Since all nuclei have same nuclear density (approximately), their ratio of nuclear densities is 1:1

Question 2.
Calculate the density of hydrogen nucleus in SI units R₀ = 1.1 x10^-15 m and  a.m.u = 66 x 10²⁷ kg.
Answer:

Question 3.
The half-life period of a radioactive substance is 30 days. What is the time taken for \(\frac { { 3 }^{ th } }{ 4 } \) of its original mass to
disintegrate?
Answer:

Question 4.
Half-life, T = 138 days
Half-life of a certain radioactive material is 138 days. After what lapse of time, the undecayed- fraction of the material will be 12.5%?
Answer:

Question 5.
The half life of \(_{ 92 }^{ 238 }{ U }\) against decay is 4.5 x 10⁹ years. How many disintegrations per second occur in 1 kg of \(_{ 92 }^{ 238 }{ U }\)
Answer:

Question 6.
Which of the following cannot be emitted by radioactive substance during their decay?
(A) Protons
(B) Neutrinos
(C) Helium nuclei
(D) Electrons
Answer:
(A) Protons

Question 7.
Starting with a sample of pure \(^{ 66 }{ Cu,\frac { 7 }{ 8 } }\) of it decays into Zn in 15 minutes. The corresponding half life is
(A) 10 minutes
(B) 15 minutes
(C) 5 minutes
(D) 7.5 minutes
Answer:
The undecayed mass left after time t is given by,

Question 8.
In r-ray emission from a nucleus:
(A) Both neutron number and proton number change
(B) There is no change in neutron and proton number
(C) Only the neutron number changes
(D) only the proton number changes
Answer:
(B) There is no change in neutron and proton number

Question 9.
If the binding energy per nucleon in  \(_{ 3 }^{ 4 }{ Li }\quad and\quad _{ 3 }^{ 4 }{ He }\) nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively, then in reaction \(_{ 1 }^{ 1 }{ Li }+_{ 3 }^{ 4 }{ He }\rightarrow 2\quad _{ 2 }^{ 4 }{ He }\) energy of proton must be
(A) 28.24 MeV
(B) 17.28 MeV
(C) 1.46 MeV
(D) 39.2 MeV
Answer:

Question 10.
Nuclear fission can be explained by:
(A) proton-proton cycle
(B) shell model of nucleus
(C) liquid drop model of nucleus
(D) independent of nuclear model of nucleus.
Answer:
(C) liquid drop model of nucleus

You can Download Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 2 Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation

You can Download Chapter 6 Cash Flow Statement Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 6 Cash Flow Statement

2nd PUC Accountancy Cash Flow Statement NCERT Textbook Questions and Answers

2nd PUC Cash Flow Statement Short Answer Questions With Answers

Question 1.
What is a Cash Flow Statement?
Answer:
A Cash Flow Statement is a statement showing inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents from operating, investing and financing activities of a company during a particular period. It explains the reasons of receipts and payments in cash and change in cash balances during an accounting year in a company.

Question 2.
How are the various activities classified (as per AS-3 revised) while preparing cash flow statement?
Answer:
As per the Revised Accounting Standard 3 (AS-3), preparation of Cash Flow
Statement for each period is mandatory. AS-3 also specifies the classification of all inflows and outflows basically under the following heads:

• Cash Flow from Operating Activities
• Cash Flow from Investing Activities
• Cash Flow from Financing Activities

Question 3.
State the uses of cash flow statement?
Answer:
The uses of cash flow statement are as follows:

• It is useful for short term financial planning about inflows and outflow of cash
• It helps in analysing the reason for the change in cash and cash equivalent balances of a company
• It assists in determining and assessing liquidity and solvency positions of a company.
• It enables to analyse and study the trends of receipts and payments of cash from various activities of a company and thereby helps in drafting various policy measures and short term planning.
• It enables the segregation of cash flows from operating, investing and financing activities of the business separately.
• It assists in making decision about distribution of profit with reference to the availability of cash.

Question 4.
What are the objfectives of preparing cash flow statement?
Answer:
The important objectives for preparing Cash Flow Statement are as follows:
The most important objective that is fulfilled by preparing Cash Flow Statement is to ascertain the gross inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents from various activities.
Secondly, Cash Flow Statement helps in analysing various reasons responsible for change in the cash balances during an accounting year.

Cash Flow Statement also helps in ascertaining the requirement and availability of cash in near future.
This statement helps in analysing and understanding the liquidity and solvency of a company, thereby, depicting the true liquidity position to the Creditors and the investors.

Question 5.
Explain the terms Cash Equivalents and Cash flows.
Answer:
Cash equivalents: Cash equivalents are short term, highly liquid investments that are easily convertible into cash and which are subject to an insignificant risk of change in value. In other words, cash equivalents are held for the purpose of meeting short term cash commitments rather than for investment or any other purpose. An investment held for short-term maturity, say three months can be regarded as cash equivalent. Some examples of cash equivalents are treasury bills, commercial papers, etc.

Cash flows: cash flows are inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents.
A cash inflow results in increase in the total cash balance and a cash outflow results in decrease in the total cash balance.
Prepare a format of cash flow from operating activities under direct method and indirect method.

Question 6.
Now that you know the meaning of operating activities, state clearly what would constitute the operating activities for the following types of enterprises?
(a) Hotel
(b) Film production house
(c) Financial enterprise
(d) Media enterprise
(e) Steel manufacturing unit
(f) Software business unit
Answer:
(a) Hotels

1. Receipts from sale of goods to customer
2. Payment pf wages and salaries, electricity, food items and other items used in accommodation

(b) Film production house

1. Receipts from selling film rights of a film to the distributors
2. Payment to the staff, actors, actresses, directors, etc.

(c) Financial enterprise

1. Receipts from repayment of loans, interest incomes from investments; etc
2. Repayments of loans, recovery expenditure for recover of loans etc, salaries of employees

(d) Media enterprise

1. Receipts from advertisements
2. Payments to staff, reporters, photographers, etc

(e) Steel manufacturing unit

1. Receipts from sale of steel sheets, steel castings, steel rods, etc
2. Payment for iron, coal, salaries to staff, etc

(f) Software business unit

1. Receipts from sale of software and renewal of licenses
2. Payment of salaries to their employees, etc

Question 7.
The nature/type of enterprise can change altogether the category into which a particular activity may be classified. Do you agree? Illustrate your answer.
Answer:
Yes, the nature or type of an enterprise can change altogether the category into which a particular activity may be classified. This can be better understood with the help of an example of two firms. One engaged in real estate and the other engaged in general business.

For the firm that is engaged in real estate business purchase and sales of building will be part of the operating activity on the other hand firm that is engaged in general business purchase and sales of building will be part of the investing activity. Hence it can be said that the classification of activities depends on the nature and type of enterprise.

2nd PUC Cash Flow Statement Long Answer Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Describe the procedure to prepare Cash Flow Statement.
Answer:
The procedure to prepare Cash Flow Statement is described in the following steps in their chronological order. ‘
Step 1: Ascertain the cash flows from operating activities
Step 2: Ascertain the cash flows from investing activities
Step 3: Ascertain the cash flows from financing activities
Step 4: Ascertain net increase or decrease by summing up the amounts of Steps 1, 2, and 3.
Step 5: Write the opening balance of cash and cash equivalents and deduct it from the amount ascertained in Step 4. The resulting figure arrived is the Closing Balance of Cash and Cash Equivalents.
Describe ‘Direct’ and ‘Indirect’ methods of ascertaining Cash Flow from Operating Activities.
As per the Accounting Standard 3 issued by the Institute of Chartered
Accountant of India, an enterprise should report cash flows from operating activities Using either of the following methods:

Direct Method: It represents the cash receipts from debtors (customers) and customers and cash payments to creditors (sellers) and employees. It
assists in estimating future cash flows. The excess of cash payments over cash.receipts is known as Net Cash Flow of Operating Activities.

Indirect Method: This method starts with the Net Profit before tax and extraordinary items. For this purpose, the Net Profit as revealed by the Profit and Loss Account cannot be taken into consideration as there exists some items which do not leads to outflow of cash. The following are those items that need to be added back to the Net Profit of the Profit and Loss Account.

Question 2.
Explain the major Cash Inflow and outflows from investing activities.
Answer:
Investing activities are those activities that are related to sales and purchases of long-term fixed assets like, land and building, plant and machinery, furniture, etc. These fixed assets are not held for resale. The activities like sale and purchase of investments that are not included in the cash equivalents are also included in investing activities. Any income arising from such investments (assets) are regarded a part of investing activities.

As per the AS3, the major cash inflows and outflows from investing activities are as follows:
(a) Cash payments to acquire fixed assets (including intangibles like, goodwill). These payments include capitalised cost of research and development and self-constructed fixed assets.

(b) Cash receipts from disposal of fixed assets (including intangible assets).

(c) Cash payments to acquire shares, warrants, or debt instruments of other enterprises and interest in joint venture (other than payments of those instruments consider as cash equivalents and are held for the trading purposes).

(d) Cash receipts from disposal of shares, warrants or debt instruments of other enterprises and interest from joint ventures (other than receipts from those held for trading purposes).

(e) Cash advances and loans made to third parties (other than advances, and loans made by financial enterprises). These will be treated as cash flows from the operating activities.

(f) Cash receipts from repayment of advances and loans made to third parties (other than advances and loans of financial enterprises). These will be treated as cash flows from operating activities.

(g) Cash receipts from insurance company for any property involved in accident.

(h) Any income arising from fixed assets or investments like interest, dividend, rent etc. In case of financial enterprises interest and dividend is treated as operating activities.

Question 3.
Explain the major Cash Inflows and outflows from financing activities.
Answer:
Financing activities are those activities that are related to capital or long term funds of an enterprise. These activities results in the change in the capital and borrowed funds.
As per the AS3, the major cash inflows from financing activities are as follows:
Cash proceeds from issue of shares and other similar instruments.
Cash proceeds from issue of debentures, loans, notes, bonds, and other short and long-term borrowings.

As per the AS3, the major cash outflows from financing activities are as follows: Cash repayments of the amount borrowed in form of debentures, loans, notes bonds, and other short and long-term borrowings.
Buy-back of shares and debentures.
Interest paid on debentures, loans, and advances.
Dividend paid to the preference shareholders and equity shareholders.

An important point that must be noted is that the purchase and sale of securities, interest paid or received and dividend received is treated as cash flow from operating activities for an investment company. But dividend paid is treated as cash flow from financing activities.

2nd PUC Cash Flow Statement Numerical Questions

Question 1.
Anand Ltd., arrived at a net income of ₹ 5,00,000 for the year ended March 31, 2014. Depreciation for the year was ₹ 2,00,000. There was a profit of ₹ 50,000 on assets sold which was transferred to Statement of Profit and Loss account. Trade Receivables. increased during the year ₹ 40,000 and Trade Payables also increased by ₹ 60,000. Compute the cash flow from operation activities by the indirect approach.
Answer:

Question 2.
From the information given below you are required to calculate the cash paid for the inventory:

Answer:

Question 3.
For each of the following transactions, calculate the resulting cash flow and state the nature of cash flow, viz., operating, investing and financing.
(a) Acquired machinery for ₹ 2,50,000 paying 20% by cheque and executing a bond for the balance payable.
(b) Paid ₹ 2,50,000 to acquire shares in Informa Tech, and recti da dividend of ₹ 50,000 after acquisition;
(c) Sold machinery of original cost ₹ 2,00,000 with an accumulated depreciation of ₹ 1.60.0 for ₹ 60,000.
Answer:
(a) Part payment ₹ 50,000 for acquiring machinery ₹ 2,50,000 is related with Investing Activities
(b)

Amount paid to acquire assets and dividend received is a part of Investing Activities.
(c) Inflow of cash of ₹ 60.000 on sale of machinery is a part Investing Activities.

Question 4.
The following is the Profit and Loss Account of Yamuna Limited:
Statement of Profit and Loss of Yamuna Ltd., for the year ended March 31, 2015

Additional information:

1. Trade receivables decrease by ₹ 30,000 during the year.
2. Prepared expenses increase by ₹ 5,000 during the year.
3. Trade payables increase by ₹ 15,000 during the year.
4. Outstanding Expenses payable increased by ₹ 3,000 during the year.
5. Other expenses included depreciation of ₹ 25,000.
   Compute net cash from operations for the year ended March 31, 2014 by the indirect method.

Answer:

Question 5.
Compute cash from operations from the following figures:

• Profit for the year 2014-15 is a sum of ₹ 10,000 after providing for depreciation of ₹ 2,000
• “The current assets of the business for the year ended March 31, 2014 and 2015 are as follows:

Answer:

Question 6.
From the following particulars of Bharat Gas Limited, calculate cash flows from Investing Activities. Also show the workings clearly Preparing the ledger accounts:

Balance Sheet of Bharat Gas Ltd., as on
Notes:

• Tangible assets Machinery
• Intangible assets = Patents

Additional Information:
(a) Patents were written-off to the extent of ₹ 40,000.and some a profit of ₹ 20,000.
(b) A Machine costing ₹ 1,40,000 (Depreciation provided there on ₹ 60,000) was sold for ₹ 50,000. Depreciation charged during the year was ₹ 1,40,000.
(c) On March 31, 2014, 10% Investments were purchased for ₹ 1,80,000 and sonic Investments were sold at profit of ₹ 20,000. Interest on Investment was received on March 31, 2015.
(d) Amartax Ltd. paid Dividend @ 10% on its shares.
(e) A plot of land had been purchased for investment purposes and let out for commercial use and rent received ₹ 30,000.
Answer:

Question 7.
From the following Balance Sheet of Mohan Ltd., prepare cash Balance Sheet of Mohan Ltd., as at 31st March 2014 and 31st March 2015 flow Statement:

Additional Information:
Machine Costing ₹ 80,000 on which accumulated depreciation was Rs. 50,000 was sold for ₹ 20,000.
Answer:

Question 8.
From the following Balance Sheets of Tiger Super Steel Ltd., prepare Cash Flow Statement:

Notes to accounts:


Additional Information: Depreciation Charge on Land & Building ₹ 20,000, and Plant ₹ 10,000 due the year.
Answer:

Question 9.
From the following information, prepare cash flow statement:

Answer:

Question 10.
From the following Balance Sheet of Yogeta Ltd., prepare cash flow statement:

Notes of accounts:

Additional Information: Net Profit for the year after charging ₹ 50,000 as Depreciation was ₹ Dividend paid on Share was ₹ 50,000, Tax Provision created during the year amounted to Rs 60,000.
Answer:

Question 11.
Following is the Financial Statement of Garima Ltd., Prepare cash flow statement.

Notes to accounts:


Additional Information:
1. Interest paid on Debenture ₹ 600
2. Dividend paid during the year ₹ 4,000
3. Depreciation charged during the year ₹ 32,000
Answer:

Question 12.
From the following Balance Sheet of Computer India Ltd., prepare cash flow statement.

Notes to accounts:

Additional Information:
Interest paid on Debenture ₹ 600
Answer:

You can Download Chapter 15 Communication Systems Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Physics Question Bank with Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 15 Communication Systems

2nd PUC Physics Chapter 15 Communication Systems NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following frequencies will be suitable for beyond the horizon communication using sky waves?
(a) 10 kHz
(b) 10 MHz
(c) 1 GHz
(d) 1000 GHz
Answer:
At frequencies above 40 MHz, the communication is limited to line of sight paths. Hence, options (a) and (b) are correct.

Question 2.
Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of:
(a) Ground waves.
(b) Skywaves.
(c) Surface waves.
(d) Space waves.
Answer:
In the UHF range, the transmission is done by means of space waves. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 3.
Digital signals
(i) do not provide a continuous set of values,
(ii) represent values as discrete steps,
(iii) can utilize a binary system, and
(iv) can utilize decimal as well as binary systems.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) but not (iv)
(d) All of (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Answer:
For digital signals, all four options are true. Hence the option (d) is correct.

Question 4.
Is it necessary for a transmitting antenna to be at the same height as that of the receiving antenna for line-of-sight communication? A TV transmitting antenna is 81m tall. How much service area can it cover if the receiving antenna is at the ground level?
Answer:
For the line of sight communication, the receiving antenna must intercept the transmitted signal. If the signal is to be received. beyond the horizon, the receiving antenna must be high enough to intercept the transmitted signal. Therefore, it is not necessary for a transmitting antenna to be at the same high as that of the receiving antenna.
Here, h = 81m; R = 6.4 x 10⁶ m If d is the radius of the circle within which the transmission can be observed, then

Question 5.
A carrier wave of peak voltage 12V is used to transmit a message signal. What should be the peak voltage of the modulating signal in order to have a modulation index of 75%?
Answer:
Here, E_c = 12V, m_a = 75% = 0.75
Now, modulation factor,

Question 6.
A modulating signal is a square wave, as shown in Fin. 15.14.

The carrier wave is given by c (t) = 2sin (8 π t) volts.
(i) Sketch – the amplitude modulated waveform
Answer:
(i) Here, c (t) = 2 sin 8 n t
It follows that the carrier is a sine wave having a period of T = 2π/8π = 0.25 s and amplitude of E_C = ±2V
On the other hand, the modulating signal is a square wave of period 1s and amplitude of E = ±1V.
Therefore, the maximum and minimum amplitude of the modulated waveform will be

Hence the amplitude modulated waveform will be as

Question 7.
For an amplitude modulated wave, the maximum amplitude is found to be 10V while the minimum amplitude is found to be 2V. Determine the modulation index μ. What would be the value of p if the minimum amplitude is zero volts?
Answer:

Question 8.
Due to economic reasons, only the upper sideband of an AM wave is transmitted, but at the receiving station, there is a facility for generating the carrier. Show that if a device is available which can multiply two signals, then it is possible to recover the modulating signal at the receiver station.
Answer:
When only the upper sideband (w_e + w_m) is transmitted, the transmitted signal may be represented as
e = E_t cos (w_e + w_m )t   ………………(1)
where is the amplitude of the transmitted signal Let the carrier wave available at the receiving station be
e =E_c cos w_ct  ……………(2)
where,
E_c is the amplitude of the carrier wave Multiplying the respective sides of equations (1) and (2).

If this signal is passed through a filter circuit, which acts as a block for the higher frequency (2w_e + w_m) and allows the low frequency to pass through it, then the modulating signal given by,

can be recovered at the receiving station

2nd PUC Physics Chapter 15 Communication Systems Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The audio signal can not be transmitted directly into space. Why?
Answer:

• The length of the antenna required is so large (500m) that is practically impossible to set up it.
• The energy radiated from the antenna in ‘ audio frequency range is practically zero
• The audio signals transmitted from the different broadcasting stations get inseparably mixed up.

Question 2.
600 Hz modulating voltage fed into FM generator produces a frequency deviation of 3.36 kHz. Find the modulation index.
Answer:
Modulating frequency, FM = 600 Hz Frequency deviation,

Question 3.
Why is an FM signal less susceptible to noise than an AM signal?
Answer:
In FM transmission, the message signal is in the form of frequency variations of carrier waves. During the modulation process, the noise gets amplitude modulated. Since it brings about variations only in the amplitude of carrier waves, it does no harm to the message signal. For this reason, an FM signal is less susceptible to noise than an AM signal.

Question 4.
The ozone layer is present in
(A) Troposphere
(B) stratosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Mesosphere
Answer:
(B) stratosphere

Question 5.
What is the cause of the greenhouse effect?
(A) IR rays
(B) UV rays
(C) x-rays
(D) Radio waves
Answer:
(A) IR rays

Question 6.
Communication on the ground is through electromagnetic waves of wavelength
(A) Larger than 600m
(b) Between 200 and 600m
(C) Between 1 and 5m
(D) Between 10^-13 and 0.1m
Answer:
(D) Between 10^-13 and 0.1m

Question 7.
The maximum distance upto which TV transmission from a TV tower of height h can be received is proportional to
(A) h^1/2
(B) h^3/2
(C) h
(D) h²
Answer:
(D) h²

Question 8.
The output from a LASER is monochromatic. It means that it is
(A) Directional
(B) Polarised
(C) Narrow beam
(D) Single-frequency
Answer:
(D) Single-frequency

Question 9.
Losses in optical fiber are caused by
(A) Impurities in glass
(B) Imperfect transparency of the glass
(C) Its extremely small area of cross-section
(D) Stepped index structure
Answer:
(A) Impurities in glass

Question 10.
The number of geostationary satellites needed for uninterrupted global coverage is
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer:
(A) 3

You can Download Chapter 12 Open Economy Macroeconomics Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 12 Open Economy Macroeconomics

2nd PUC Economics Open Economy One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is closed economy?
Answer:
A closed economy is that which does not have any trade links with other countries of the world. It completely prohibits the import and export trade.

Question 2.
Give the meaning a foriegn trade.
Answer:
Foriegn trade refers to trade between 2 or more countries.

Question 3.
Write the meaning of open economy?
Answer:
An open economy is that economy which has all kinds of economic relations with other countries of the world. It allows exports and import trade.

Question 4.
What is Balance of Trade?
Answer:
Balance of Trade refers to the difference between the value of visible items of exports and imports, during a particular period of time.

Question 5.
Give the meaning of exchange rate.
Answer:
The exchange rate refers to the rate at which the currency of one country is exchanged for currency of another country.

Question 6.
What is Flexible Exchange Rate?
Answer:
The Flexible Exchange Rate is that exchange rate which keeps on changing. This type of exchange is determined by market forces of demand and supply.

2nd PUC Economics Open Economy Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State the differences between Closed and Open Economies.
Answer:

Closed Economy	Open Economy
(i) A closed economy is that which does not have any trade links with other countries of the world.	(i) An open economy is that economy which has all kinds of economic relations with other countries of the world.
(ii) It completely prohibits import and export trade.	(ii) It allows for export and import trade.
(iii) It is policy of protection which between domestic and foreign goods.	(iii) It is free trade policy and allows the inflow and outflow of foreign direct investment. (FDI)

Question 2.
What is meant by multilateral trade?
Answer:
Multilateral trade refers to that type of trade in which three or more groups of countries are involved in trade. Trade activities take place among the nations without any discrimination. Here all countries are treated equally.

Question 3.
Differentiate between Balance of Trade and Balance of Payments.
Answer:

Balance of Trade	Balance of Payments
(i) It refers to the difference between the value of exports and imports of only visible items, during a particular period of time.	(i) It refers to difference between the value of exports and imports of both visible and invisible items, during a particular of time.
(ii) It is a narrow concept.	(ii) It is a broader concept.
(iii) It may not show the international economic position of an economy.	(iii) It shows the international economic position of the country.
(iv) It gives partial picture of international transactions.	(iv) It gives a complete picture of international transactions.

Question 4.
Distinguish between Nominal and Real Exchange rates.
Answer:

Nominal Exchange rate	Real Exchange rate
(i) It is expressed in terms of money.	(i) It is the ratio of foreign prices to domestic prices.
(ii) It is the amount of domestic currency paid to purchase one unit of foreign currency.	(ii) It is expressed in terms of purchasing power of both the currencies.

Question 5.
What do you mean by fixed exchange rate?
Answer:
The fixed exchange rate is that exchange rate which is fixed by the monetary authority. Any deviation from the predetermined level of exchange rate would be corrected by the immediate intervention of the Central Bank.

2nd PUC Economics Open Economy Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the structure of balance of payments.
Answer:
The structure of India’s balance of payments is divided in to two parts.
(1) Current account and
(2) Capital account.

(1). Current account: All transactions relating to trade in goods, services and unilateral transfers are the part of Balance of payment on current account. It refers to the statement of country’s exporting of goods and services with all other countries in the world for specific period.

(a) Visible or merchandise trade relating to imports and exports: Visible or merchandise trade relating to imports and exports is an important item in current account. All those transactions in goods only are included in this.

(b) Invisible exports and imports: Invisible exports and imports includes all those trading activities relating to services (Insurance, transport, banking, etc)

(c) Unilateral transfers: Unilateral transfers are part of current account includes donations, gifts, foreign aid, etc.

The structure of current account in Balance of Payment is as follows
Current account

Items	Items
(i) Merchandise Trade – Goods and exported to other countries.	(i) Merchandise trade – Goods imported from other countries
(ii) Invisibles – Services exported.	(ii) Invisibles- Services imported.
(iii) Unilateral receipts – gifts donations received from other countries.	(iii) Unilateral payments – gifts, donations paid to other countries.

(2). Capital Account: The capital account in the balance of payment consists of all the financial transactions in assets of lending and borrowing for both short term and long term. It relates to movement of international capital having maturity of at-least one year. It shows the flow of international loans and investments and reflects the changes in country’s foreign assets and liabilities. Private and Government transactions are two types of transactions. Direct investments, portfolio and short term investments are in private transactions. Loans to and from foreign official agencies are in Government transactions.

To sum up, the Current Account includes the following

• Short term Capital Movements and
• Long term Capital Movements

Capital account

Particulars	Particulars
(i) Loans and advances borrowed from other countries and Foreign Direct Investments Repayment of loans from foreign countries	(i) Loans and advances given to other countries and direct investment in other countries. Repayment of loans to foreign countries
(ii) Sale of gold/assets	(ii) Purchase of gold/assets

Question 2.
Explain the theories of determination of exchange rate.
Answer:
There are two important theories which explain the determination of exchange rate viz.,

1. The Purchasing Power Parity Theory (PPP)
2. The Balance of Payment Theory.

(1) The Purchasing Power Parity Theory: The purchasing power parity theory was advocated by the Swedish Economist Gustav Cassel. According to this theory, equilibrium exchange rate between two inconvertible paper currencies is determined by the equality of their purchasing power. In other words, the rate of exchange between two countries is determined by their relative price levels.

According to the theory, the exchange rate between two countries is determined at a point which expresses the equality between the respective purchasing powers of the two currencies. This is the purchasing power parity which is a moving par and not a fixed par as under the gold standard. Thus with every change in the price level, the exchange rate, also changes. To calculate the new equilibrium exchange rate, the following formula is used:

(b) Balance of payments theory: According to this theory, the foreign exchange rate, under free market conditions, is determined by the conditions of demand and supply in the foreign exchange market. Under free exchange rates, the exchange rate of the currency of a country depends upon its balance of payments. A favourable balance of payments raises the exchange rate, while an unfavourable balance of payments reduces the exchange rate. Thus the theory implies that the exchange rate is determined by the demand for and supply of foreign exchange.

When the balance of payments is in equilibrium, the supply of and demand for the currency are equal. If the exchange rate falls below the equilibrium exchange rate in a situation of adverse balance of payments, exports increase and the adverse balance of payments is eliminated and the equilibrium exchange rate is re-established.

Under a favourable balance of payment situation, the exchange rate rises above the equilibrium exchange rate, exports decline, the favourable balance of payments disappears and the equilibrium exchange rate is re-established. Thus at any point of time, the rate of exchange is determined by the demand for and supply of foreign exchange as represented by the debit and credit side of the balance of payments.

Question 3.
What are the exchange rate systems?
Answer:
The major exchange rate systems are as follows:

(a) Flexible Exchange Rate: A flexible, floating or fluctuating exchange rates are determined by market forces. The monetary authorities do not intervene for the purpose of influencing the exchange rate. Under freely fluctuating exchange rates, if there is an excess supply of a currency, the value of that currency in foreign exchange markets will fall. It will lead to depreciation of the exchange rate. Consequently equilibrium will be restored in the exchange market.

If there is shortage of currency, it will lead to the appreciation of exchange rate and . thereby leading to restoration of equilibrium in the exchange market. These market forces
operate automatically without any action on the part of monetary authorities.

(b) Fixed Exchange Rate: It is also called pegged exchange rate. Under this type of exchange rate, all exchange transactions take place at an exchange rate that is determined by the monetary authorities. The authorities may fix the exchange rate by legislation or intervention in currency markets. They buy or sell currencies according to the needs of the country or may take policy decision to appreciate or depreciate the national currency

For instance, if there is too much fluctuation in exchange rate in exchange market, the RBI may interfere and fix the rate of exchange of foreign currencies.

(c) Managed floating system: This system of exchange rate is a mixture of flexible and fixed exchange rate systems. Here, the exchange rate is fixed by the market forces viz., demand and supply. But, the statutory monetary authority (Reserve Bank of India) determines upper and lower limit of exchange rates. When the exchange changes beyond maximum and minimum limits, the central monetary authority intervenes and brings the exchange rate will within the predetermined limits.

2nd PUC Economics Open Economy Ten Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Balance of Payments? Explain the structure of Balance of Payments.
Answer:
Balance of Payments refers to difference between the value of exports and imports of both visible and invisible items, during a particular duration of time. It shows international economic position of the country. It gives complete picture of international transactions.

The structure of India’s balance of payments is divided in to two parts.
(1) Current account
(2) Capital account

1. Current account: All transactions relating to trade in goods, services and unilateral transfers are the part of Balance of payment on current account. It refers to the statement of country’s exporting of goods and services with all other countries in the world for a specific period.

(a) Visible or merchandise trade relating to imports and exports: Visible or merchandise trade relating to imports and exports is an important item in current account. All those transactions in goods only are included in this.

(b) Invisible exports and imports: Invisible exports and imports includes all those trading activities relating to services (Insurance, transport, banking, etc)

(c) Unilateral transfers: Unilateral transfers are part of current account that include donations, gifts, foreign aid, etc.
The structure of current account in Balance of Payment is as follows

Items	Items
(i) Merchandise Trade – Goods and exported to other countries.	(i) Merchandise trade – Goods imported from other countries
(ii) Invisibles – Services exported.	(ii) Invisibles- Services imported
(iii) Unilateral receipts – gifts donations received from other countries	(iii) Unilateral payments- gifts, donations paid to other countries.

(2) Capital Account: The capital account in the balance of payment consists of all the financial transactions in assets of lending and borrowing for both short term and long term. It relates to movement of international capital having maturity of at-least one year. It shows the flow of international loans and investments and reflects the changes in countries’ foreign assets and liabilities. Private and Government transactions are two types of transactions. Direct investments, portfolio and short term investments are in private transactions. Loans to and from foreign official agencies are in Government transactions.

To sum up, the Current Account includes the following

(i) Loans and advances borrowed from other countries and Foreign Direct Investments	(i) Loans and advances given to other countries and direct investment in other countries.
(ii) Repayment of loans from foreign countries	(ii) Repayment of loans to foreign countries
(iii) Sale of gold/assets	(iii) Purchase of gold/assets

You can Download Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Physics Question Bank with Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits

2nd PUC Physics Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In an n-type silicon, which of the following statement is true:
(a) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
(b) Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
(c) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
(d) Holes are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
Answer:
An n-type semiconductor is obtained by doping a semiconductor with a pentavalent impurity. The impurity so added produces free electrons. Therefore, in an n-type semiconductor, the electrons are majority carriers and holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Question 2.
Which of the statements given in Exercise 14.1 is true for p-type semiconductors.
Answer:
A p-type semiconductor is obtained by doping a semiconductor with a trivalent impurity. The impurity so added produces holes. Therefore, in a p-type semiconductor holes are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 3.
Carbon, silicon, and germanium have four valence electrons each. These are characterized by valence and conduction bands separated by energy bandgap respectively equal to (Eg)_c, (Eg)_Si, and (Eg)_Ce. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) (Eg)_Si < (Eg)_Ge < (Eg)_c
(b) (Eg)_c < (Eg)_Ge > (Eg)_Si
(c) (Eg)_c > (Eg)_Si > (Eg)_Ge
(d) (Eg)_c = (Eg)_Si = (Eg)_Ge
Answer:
Carbon is an insulator and hence the value of the energy bandgap is maximum for it. Of the other two semiconductors, the value of the energy bandgap for germanium is lesser. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Question 4.
In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the p-region to the n-region because
(a) Free electrons in the n-region attract them.
(b) They move across the junction by the potential difference.
(c) Hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to n-region.
(d) All the above.
Answer:
In an unbiased p-n junction, hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to n-region. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Question 5.
When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction, it
(a) Raises the potential barrier.
(b) Reduces the majority carrier current to zero.
(c) Lowers the potential barrier.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
When a p-n junction is forward biased, the applied voltage opposes the barrier voltage across the junction. As a result, the potential barrier gets lowered. Hence the option (c) is correct.

Question 6.
For transistor action, which of the following statements are correct:
(a) Base, emitter, and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations.
(b) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
(c) The emitter junction is forward biased and the collector junction is reverse biased.
(d) Both the emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased.
Answer:
When the emitter junction is forward biased, electron-hole recombination takes place, the base region. To ensure that only a small amount (about 50%) of electron-hole recombination may take place the base is made thin and lightly doped. Hence the option (b) is correct.

Question 7.
For a transistor amplifier, the voltage gain
(a) Remains constant for all frequencies.
(b) Is high, at high and low frequencies, and constant in the middle frequency range.
(c) Is low at high and low frequencies and constant at mid frequencies.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
In a transistor, the voltage gain is high at high and low frequencies and constant at mid frequencies. Hence the option (c) is correct.

Question 8.
In half-wave rectification, what is the output frequency if the input frequency is 50 Hz? What is the output frequency of a full-wave rectifier for the same input frequency?
Answer:
50 Hz for half wave, 100 Hz for full-wave.

Question 9.
For a CE-transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collected resistance of 2kΩ is 2 V. Suppose the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100, find the input signal voltage and base current if the base resistance is 1 kΩ.
Answer:

Question 10.
Two amplifiers are connected one after the other in series (cascaded). The first amplifier has a voltage gain of 10 and the second has a voltage gain of 20. If the input signal is 0.01 volt, calculate the output ac signal.
Answer:
When the amplifiers are connected in series, the net voltage gain (A_v) is equal to the product of the gains of the individual amplifiers i.e.

Question 11.
A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a bandgap of 2.8 eV. Can it detect a wavelength of 6000 nm?
Answer:
Here, λ = 600 nm = 600 x 10^-9m
Therefore, the energy associated with the wavelength,

As the energy associated with the wavelength is less than the bandgap energy of the semiconductor, it can’t detect this wavelength.

2nd PUC Physics Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Additional Exercises

Question 12.
The number of silicon atoms per m³ is 5 x 10²⁸. This is doped simultaneously with
5 x 10²² atoms per m³ of Arsenic and 5 x 10²⁰ per m³ atoms of Indium. Calculate the number of electrons and holes. Given that n. = 1.5 x 10¹⁶ m^-3. Is the material n-type or p-type?
Answer:
Arsenic is a donor, whereas indium is an acceptor impurity. Here, the number of donor atoms added,
N_D = 5 ×10²²m³ and number of acceptor atoms added,
N_A= 5× 10²⁰ m^-3
Therefore, a number of free electrons created, n=N_D=5_x10^22, and the number of holes created, n_h = N_A=5 x 10²⁰.
Now, n_e > n_h
Therefore, net number of free electrons created
n‘_e = n -n_h = 5 x 10²² -5 x 10²⁰
= 4.95 x 10²²m^-3
Also, net number of holes created,

As \({ n }_{ e }^{ 1 }>{ n }_{ h }^{ 1 }\) the resulting material is n-type semiconductor.

Question 13.
In an intrinsic semiconductor, the energy gap E_g is 1.2eV. Its hole mobility is much smaller than electron mobility and independent of temperature. What is the ratio between conductivity at 600K and that at 300K? Assume that the temperature dependence of intrinsic carrier concentration n. is given by
\({ n }_{ 1 }={ n }_{ 0 }exp\left( -\frac { { E }_{ g } }{ 2{ k }_{ B }\quad T } \right) \)
where n₀ is a constant.
Answer:

Question 14.
In a p-n junction diode, the current I can be expressed as
\(I={ I }_{ 0 }exp\left( -\frac { eV }{ 2{ k }_{ B }\quad T } -T \right) \)
where I₀ is called the reverse saturation current, V is the voltage across the diode and is positive for forwarding bias and negative for reverse bias, and I is the current through the diode, kB is the Boltzmann constant (8.6×10^-5 eV/K) and T is the absolute temperature. If for a given diode I₀ = 5 x 10^-12 A and T = 300 K, then
(a) What will be the forward current at a forward voltage of 0.6 V?
(b) What will be the increase in the current if the voltage across the diode is increased to 0.7 V?
(c) What is the dynamic resistance?
(d) What will be the current if reverse bias voltage changes from 1 V to 2 V?
Answer:

(d) For a change in voltage from 1 to 2V, the current will remain equal to I₀ = 5 x 10^-12 It shows that the diode possesses practically infinite resistance in reverse biasing.

Question 15.
You are given the two circuits as shown in Fig. 14.44. Show that circuit (a) acts as OR gate while the circuit (b) act as AND gate
Answer:

Answer:

The output of the NOR gate is connected to the NOT gate. Let Y¹ be the output of the NOR gate and the final output of the combination of the two – gates are Y. The output of the NOR gate is 1 only when both the inputs are zero, while in the NOT gate, the input gets inverted. Using these facts, the truth table for the given arrangement can be written as below :

It is the truth table of OR gate. Therefore, the given circuit acts as Or gate

The output of two NOT gates are connected to NOR gate Let Y₁ and Y₂ be the outputs of the two NOT gates and the final output of the combination of three gates be Y. In a NOT gate, the input gets inverted, while the output of a NOR gate is 1 only when both the inputs are zero. Using these facts, the truth table for the given arrangement can be written as below:

It is the truth table of AND gate. Therefore, ‘ the given circuit acts as AND gate.

Question 16.
Write the truth table for a NAND gate connected as given in Fig. 14.45.

Hence identify the exact logic operation carried out by this circuit.
Answer:

When the two inputs of NAND gates are joined as shown in Figure i.e. when A = B = 0 or A = B = 1, the above truth table of the NAND gate reduces to the one as given below:

It is the truth table of a NOT gate. There operation of a NOT gate.

Question 17.
You are given two circuits as shown in Fig. 14.46, which consists of NAND gates. Identify the logic operation carried out by the two circuits.

Answer:

Here, the output of the NAND gate is connected to NOT gate [obtained from NAND gate]. Let Y¹ be the output of the NAND gate and the final output of the combination of two gates be Y. The output of a NAND gate is 0 only when both the inputs are zero, while in NOT gate, the input gets inverted. Using these facts, the truth table for the given arrangement can be written as below.

It is the truth table of AND gate. Therefore the given Circuit acts as an AND gate.

Here, the outputs of the NOT gates (obtained from NAND gates) are connected to the NAND gate. Let Y_: and Y₂ be the outputs of the two NOT gates and the final output of the combination of three gates be Y. In a NOT gate, the input gates inverted. While the output of a NAND gate is 0 only when both the inputs are zero. Using these facts, the truth table for the given arrangement can be written as below:

It is the truth table of OR gate. Therefore, the given acts as an OR gate.

Question 18.
Write the truth table for the circuit given in Fig. 14.47 below consisting of NOR gates and identify the logic operation (OR, AND, NOT) which this circuit is performing.

(Hint: A = 0, B = 1 then A and B inputs of second NOR gate will be 0 and hence Y = 1. Similarly, work out the values of Y for other combinations of A and B. Compare with the truth table of OR, AND, NOT gates and find the correct one.)
Answer:

Here, the output of the NOR gate is connected to another NOR gate, whose inputs are short-circuited. Let Y¹ be the output of NOR gate and the final output of a NOR gate is 1 only when both the inputs are zero. Using this fact, the truth table for the given arrangement can be written as below:

It is the truth table of OR gate therefore, the given circuit acts as OR gate.

Question 19.
Write the truth table for the circuits given in Fig. 14.48 consisting of NOR gates only. Identify the logic operations (OR, AND, NOT) performed by the two circuits.

Answer:

When the two inputs of NOR gates are joined as shown in Fig (a) i.e.when A = B = 0or A = B = 1, the above truth table of the NOR gate reduces to the one as given below:

It is the truth table of a NOT gate. Therefore, the given circuit carries out the logic operation of a NOT gate.
Refer to Fig (b). Here the output of two NOT gates (obtained from NOR gates) are connected to NOT gate. In a NOT gate, the input gets inverted. Let \(\bar { A } and\quad \bar { B } \) be the outputs of the two NOT gates. Now, the output of a NOR gate is 1 only when both the inputs are zero. Using this fact, the truth table for the given arrangement can be written as below :

It is the truth table of AND gate. Therefore, the given circuit acts as an AND gate.

2nd PUC Physics Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a p-n-p transistor circuit, the collector current is 10mA. If 90% of the holes reach the collector, find emitter and base current.                            ‘
Answer:
Since 90% of the holes reach the collector

Question 2.
In input resistance of a transistor is 1000Ω. On changing its base current by 10μA, the collector current increases by 2mA. If a load resistance of 5 kΩ is used in the circuit, calculate
(i) current gain and
(ii) the voltage gain of the amplifier.
Answer:

The negative sign shows that output is out of phase with the input.

Question 3.
State two disadvantages of semiconductor devices.
Answer:

• The semiconductor devices are temperature sensitive. Even a small overheating may cause damage to them.
• The semiconductor devices cannot handle as much power as ordinary vacuum tubes can do.

Question 4.
Express by a truth table, the output Y for all possible inputs A and B in the logic as shown

Answer:

Question 5.
The inputs A, B as shown are fed a 2-input NAND gate

Draw the output waveform of the gate
Answer:

Question 6.
The valence electron is an alkali metal is a
(A) f-electron
(B) p-electron
(C) s-electron
(D) d-electron
Answer:
(C) s-electron

Question 7.
In which of the following figures, junction diode is forward biased?

Answer:
(B) During forwarding Bias, the p-section of the junction diode should be positive w.r.t the n-section.

Question 8.
The symbol shown in the adjoining figure is

(A) NOT gate
(B) OR gate
(C) AND gate
(D) NOR gate
Answer:
(A) NOT gate

Question 9.
In a common base amplifier, the phase difference between the input signal voltage and the output voltage across collector and base is
(A) 0
(B) \(\frac { \pi }{ 4 } \)
(C) \(\frac { \pi }{ 2 } \)
(D) π
Answer:
(A) 0

Question 10.
In a common base model of a transistor, the collector current is 5.488 mA for an emitter current of 5.60 A. The value of the base current amplification factor (P) will be
(A) 49
(B) 50
(C) 51
(D) 48
Answer:

You can Download Chapter 11 Government Budget and the Economy Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 11 Government Budget and the Economy

2nd PUC Economics Government Budget and the Economy One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the meaning of budget.
Answer:
Budget is a financial statement. It is a statement which shows the estimated future incomes and expenditures of a Government. The estimated and anticipated revenue and expenditure of the Government for a financial year is called as budget.

Question 2.
What is deficit budget?
Answer:
When the anticipated income or revenue is less than its expenditure, it is known as deficit budget (Total Revenue is less than Total Expenditure). As in most of the State Government budgets, we find that its expenditure is more than its income.

Question 3.
Name the two accounts of a Government Budget.
Answer:
The two accounts of Government budget are Revenue Account and Capital Account.

Question 4.
Give any two examples for direct tax.
Answer:
The examples for direct tax are Income tax, Wealth tax, Property tax, Corporate tax.

Question 5.
Define Fiscal Policy.
Answer:
According to Arther Smithies, “Fiscal policy is a policy under which the Government uses its expenditure and revenue programmes to produce desirable effects and to avoid undesirable effects on the national income, output and employment”.

Question 6.
Write the meaning of progressive tax.
Answer:
When the tax is imposed according to the income of people, it is called Progressive tax. A progressive tax is a tax system in which the rate of tax increases as the income increases. Higher the income higher will be the tax and vice versa.

Question 7.
Mention any two sources of non-tax revenue.
Answer:
The sources of non tax revenue are Profits of public sector industries, grants in aid from foreign countries, Profits of RBI.

Question 8.
What is deficit financing?
Answer:
Deficit financing is one of the instruments of fiscal policy of Government for raising the level of output and employment.

Question 9.
How do you calculate Primary Deficit?
Answer:
Primary deficit is calculated as follows: Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest payments.

Question 10.
Write the meaning of fiscal deficit?
Answer:
It is that deficit which includes budget deficit plus borrowing from the market, other liabilities of the Government. Fiscal Deficit = Budget Deficit + market borrowings + other liabilities. It also refers to the excess of Government’s total expenditure over its total revenue.

Question 11.
What is Revenue deficit?
Answer:
It is the difference between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure. It is that deficit where Revenue Receipts are less than Revenue Expenditure.

2nd PUC Economics Government Budget and the Economy Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State the objectives of the Government Budget.
Answer:
The major objectives of a Government Budget are as follows:

• To re-allocate the resources for better socio-economic progress.
• To redistribute the income and wealth and thereby to reduce inequalities through various social security schemes, public works, economic subsidies etc.
• To prevent economic fluctuations for maintaining economic stability.
• To manage public enterprises efficiently and to have control over monopoly firms and to attain social welfare.

Question 2.
Differentiate between surplus budget and deficit budget.
Answer:

Surplus Budget	Deficit Budget
(i) If the anticipated revenue of the Government exceeds it anticipated expenditure in a year, it is known an surplus budget.	(i) If the anticipated expenditure of the Government exceeds its anticipated revenue in a year, it is known as deficit budget.
(ii) Governments of developed countries usually plan for a surplus budget.	(ii) Governments of developed countries usually plan for a deficit budget.
(iii) It indicates the financial soundness of the economy	(iii) It indicates that the economy is not that healthy
(iv) This implies that the Government is giving preference to creating wealth from resources instead of spending for the welfare of the people	(iv) This indicates a deliberate excessive expenditure by the Government to set the economy on the path of progress and growth, keeping in mind the welfare of the people

Question 3.
State the differences between direct and indirect taxes.
Answer:

Direct Tax	Indirect Tax
(i) The Direct tax is the tax which is imposed by the Government on individuals and companies and which cannot be shifted to others.	(i) The Indirect tax is that tax which can be shifted to other persons by a person on whom it is imposed.
(ii) Here the incidence and impact of taxation falls on same person.	(ii) Here the incidence and impact of tax will be on two different parties.
(iii) Example- Income tax, Wealth tax, corporate tax etc.	(iii) Example central excise duties (tax), customs duties, service tax, value added tax etc.

Question 4.
What are the major components of non-plan revenue expenditure of the Governments in developing countries?
Answer:
The major components of non-plan revenue expenditure in developing countries are as follows:

1. Expenditure on defence services,
2. Interest payments on borrowings.
3. Subsidies on food, fertilizers, cooking gas etc.
4. and Law and order.

Question 5.
Mention the uses of tax system as an instrument of fiscal policy in India.
Answer:
The major uses of tax system as an instrument of fiscal policy are as follows:

• Helps in mobilization of revenue and checking unwanted expenditure.
• Brings favourable changes in redistribution of income and wealth.
• Helpful to control inflation and deflation.

Question 6.
State the four objectives of fiscal policy.
Answer:
The major objectives of fiscal policy are as follows:

1. To mobilize the resources for development projects.
2. To achieve equality in distribution of income and wealth.
3. To encourage saving and investment.
4. To reduce regional disparities, poverty and unemployment.
5. For optimum utilisation of resources to attain full employment.

Question 7.
Give any four suggestions to reduce market loans in India.
Answer:
The following are a few suggestions to reduce market loans in India:

1. The RBI’s accounts should be integrated with the Government accounts.
2. The gold reserves should be auctioned and used to meet Public expenditure.
3. Proper utilisation of resources generated through disinvestment.
4. Utilisation of resources generated from the sale of vast real estate.

Question 8.
How can a deficit be reduced?
Answer:
The deficit can be reduced through the following ways:

• By increasing direct tax collection more effectively.
• By reducing public expenditure through efficient administration.
• By undertaking disinvestment raising revenue through sale of shares/stocks of public sector undertakings.

Question 9.
State the difference between Balanced budget and Unbalanced Budget
Answer:
Balanced Budget: Here when the revenues from tax are equal with expenditure of the government, it is balance budget. (Total Revenue = Total Expenditure).

Unbalanced Budget: Here the Total anticipated Revenue is not equal to Total anticipated Expenditure. It could be either a Surplus or a Deficit Budget.

2nd PUC Economics Government Budget and the Economy Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write a note on the revenue account of the Government Budget.
Answer:

The revenue account of the Government consists of two categories viz., Revenue Receipts and Revenue Expenditure.

I. Revenue Receipts: The revenue receipts refer to revenue earned by the Government from both l ax and Non tax sources.
a) Tax revenue: – It is one of the main sources of revenue to the Government. Tax is a compulsory payment made by the people to the Government without expecting any direct benefits from the Government. Tax revenue can be classified as Direct tax and Indirect tax.

i) Direct tax: The direct tax is the tax levied by the Government which cannot be shifted by the person on whom it is levied. Here, the impact and incidence of tax will be on the same person. This tax is levied on the income and wealth of the people.. Personnel income tax, wealth tax, interest tax, expenditure tax are a few examples.

ii) Indirect tax: It is the tax levied on goods and services paid indirectly by the consumers. The impact and incidence of tax will be on different people. Indirect tax is a large source of revenue to the government. The various sources of indirect tax are Central excise duties, Custom duties etc.

b) Non-tax revenue: The revenue collected from sources other than the tax revenue is called non tax revenue. It consists of

• Income from Public enterprises
• Income from receipts
• Revenue from administration
• Income from railways

II. Revenue Expenditure: The revenue expenditure of Government is that expenditure incurred out of its current revenue receipts. These expenses are made by the Government on its various departments and services, interest payments on public debt, subsidies etc. The Revenue expenditure is classified as follows:

• Plan Revenue Expenditure: The plan revenue expenditure is that expenditure spent by the Government on implementation of economic schemes, financial assistance to local Governments.
• Non-Plan expenditure: This type of expenditure is related to the expenses incurred on internal and external securities like defence forces, law and order, subsidies, civil administration etc.

Question 2.
Explain the role of public expenditure as an instrument of fiscal policy.
Answer:
The public expenditure plays a vital role in developing countries like India. It has several effects on income, output and employment. Therefore, it is regarded as a very essential instrument in the determination of economic development of a country. In developing countries, the increased public expenditure is always desirable. The importance of public expenditure in any country is as follows:

• The Government needs to fill deflationary gap (excess of output over consumption) and to restore full employment.
• The Government expenditure is needed to development infrastructural facilities like roads, railways, bridges, irrigation facilities etc.
• The Government is also expected to spend on civil administration.
• The Government has to improve agricultural sector by providing subsidies.
• For both internal and external securities the Government has to incur expenditure on law and order and defence forces.

Thus the role of public expenditure in overall development of an economy is very much needed for rapid economic development of a country.

Question 3.
Does Public Debt impose a burden? Discuss.
Answer:
The loan, borrowings made by the Government from public, organizations, institutions is known as public debt. When the expenditure of the Government is more than its revenue, Government will go for public borrowings.

Classification of Public Debt:
The public debt can be divided as follows :
a. Internal debt: It is debt borrowed by the Government from the sources available within the country. It includes internal borrowings, market loans, all treasury bills issued by RBI, State Governments, Commercial banks, etc. it is also known as loan taken on negotiable securities.

b. External debt: It refers to all those borrowings of Government from sources available outside the country. It includes loans taken by Government against non-negotiable instruments, non-interest bearing securities which are issued by international institutions like IMF, World Bank, IBRD, ADB, IDA, etc. Loans taken from IMF trust fund is also a part of external debt.

c. Other outstanding liabilities: It includes short term loans, loans taken against small savings schemes, Public provident fund, State provident contributions, Income tax annuity deposit schemes, interest bearing reserve funds, etc.

Public Debt as a burden: When the Government borrows more money, the public debt increases and the burden of payment of interest falls on the Government. Then the Government has to impose more taxes on the people. When more tax is levied on people, the disposable personal income of consumers falls and this will lead to reduction in consumption, savings and also national income at the end. As a result, the growth rate of an economy will be affected. So, public debt is regarded as a burden on the Government and people.

Question 4.
Explain the types of budget deficits.
Answer:
Revenue Deficit: It is the difference between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure. It is that deficit where Revenue Receipts are less than Revenue Expenditure. It is the excess of Government’s expenditure over its revenue.
It can be expressed as follows:

Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts.

Fiscal Deficit:
It is that deficit which includes budget deficit plus borrowing from the market and other liabilities of the Government. It is the excess of Government’s total expenditure over its total revenue. It can be expressed as follows:

Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Revenue Receipts + Non-Debt receipts.

Primary Deficit:
It is that deficit which is the difference between fiscal deficit and interest paid by the Government. It is calculated by finding the difference between Government’s total income and expenditure (interest earned and interest paid is excluded). Revenue deficit and capital deficits are two types of primary deficits. The Primary deficit indicates the borrowing requirements of the Government to meet fiscal deficit excluding interest payments. It can be expressed as follows:

Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest payments.

Deficit reduction: The deficit can be reduced through the following ways:

• By increasing direct tax collection more effectively.
• By reducing public expenditure through efficient administration.
• By undertaking disinvestment (raising revenue through sale of shares/stocks of public sector undertakings).

Question 5.
What are the Causes for Increase in Public Expenditure in India?
Answer:
In 1950, public expenditure was Rs. 900 crores and in 2004 it was around Rs.5,05,000 crores. This drastic increase in public expenditure is due to following main reasons. They are:

• Rapid growth of population.
• Serious effects of urbanization.
• Increase in defence expenditure.
• Increase in subsidies, grants and aids.
• Increase in administration expenditure.
• More developmental and constructive projects undertaken.
• Inflation to a certain extent.
• Natural and manmade calamities.
• Poverty and unemployment.
• Effects of democracy.

2nd PUC Economics Government Budget and the Economy Ten Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the various components of Government Budget.
Answer:

The Government Budget can be classified as Revenue Account and Capital Account.
A) Revenue Account: The revenue account of the Government consists of two categories viz., Revenue Receipts and Revenue Expenditure.

I. Revenue Receipts: The revenue receipts refer to revenue earned by the Government from both Tax and Non tax sources.
(a)Tax revenue: – It is one of the main sources of revenue’to the Government. Tax is a compulsory payment made by the people to the Government without expecting any direct benefits from the Government. Tax revenue can be classified as Direct tax and Indirect tax.

i) Direct tax- The direct tax is the tax levied by the Government which cannot be shifted by the person on whom it is levied. Here, the impact and incidence of tax will be on the same person. This tax is levied on the income and wealth of the people. Personnel income tax, wealth tax, interest tax, expenditure tax are a few examples.

ii) Indirect tax: – It is the tax levied on goods and services paid indirectly by the consumers. The impact and incidence of tax will be on different people. Indirect tax is the largest source of revenue to the Government. Tlie various sources of indirect tax are Central excise duties, Custom duties etc.

b) Non-tax revenue: The revenue collected from sources other than the tax revenue is called non tax revenue. It consists of

• Income from Public enterprises,
• Income from receipts,
• Revenue from administration and
• Income from railways.

II. Revenue Expenditure: The revenue expenditure of Government is that expenditure incurred out of its current revenue receipts. These expenses are made by the Government on its various departments and services, interest payments on public debt, subsidies etc. The Revenue expenditure is classified as follows:

a) Plan Revenue Expenditure: The plan revenue expenditure is that expenditure spent by the Government on implementation of economic schemes, financial assistance to local Governments.
b) Non-Plan expenditure: This type of expenditure is related to the expenses incurred on internal and external securities like defence forces, law and order, subsidies, civil administration etc.

B. Capital Account: This account shows the capital requirements of Government and its way of financing various categories. The capital account of Budget of Government consists of two divisions viz., Capital Receipts and Capital expenditures.

i) Capital Receipts: The capital receipts refer to those receipts of Government which create liability or reduce financial assets. These are obtained through raising loans from the market, central Bank and foreign sources. It also includes loans raised through issuing indemnity bonds, debentures etc. The other sources of this kind are loans recovered from local Governments, small savings, public provident fund etc.

ii) Capital Expenditures: It is that expenditure of Government which is spent on acquisition of assets like land, building, tools, machines, investment on shares, stocks, loans and advances made etc. The capital expenditure is also categorized as Plan capital expenditure and non-plan capital expenditure.

• Plan capital expenditure: This expenditure is made to create permanent revenue yielding assets. For example for construction of roadways, irrigation projects, power stations, education, public health, housing, etc. This expenditure is incurred on creation of economic and social infrastructures.
• Non-plan capital expenditure: This type of expenditure is spent to provide rehabilitation facilities to the people who are affected by natural calamities, compensation paid to the victims of accidents and payment of interest on loans borrowed.

Question 2.
Discuss the various instruments of fiscal policy.
Answer:
Fiscal policy is the policy of the Government in respect of public revenue, public expenditure and public borrowings. The major instruments of fiscal policy are

(a) Public Expenditure
(b) Public Revenue
(c) Public Debt and
(d) Deficit Financing

a) Public Expenditure: Public expenditure is nothing the expenses of Government incurred to promote economic and social welfare. It plays a vital role in developing countries like India. It has several effects on income, output and employment. Therefore, it is regarded as a very essential instrument in the determination of economic development of a country. In developing countries, the increased public expenditure is always desirable.

According to Wagner’s Law, there is a tendency of increasing public expenditure in respect of the following activities:

• To undertake material production.
• Provision of social services like public health, literacy programmes etc.
• Maintenance of internal and external security law and order.

b) Public Revenue: Public revenue is the income of the Government from various sources , both tax and non-tax sources of revenue. In order to bring economic stability a suitable taxation policy is always desired.

The various sources of tax revenue are income tax, corporate tax, customs duties, wealth tax, service tax, excise duties etc. Similarly, the non-tax revenue sources are interest on loans, income from public enterprises, fees, fines, penalties, profits of RBI etc. The major uses of tax system as an instrument of fiscal policy are as follows:

• Helps in mobilization of revenue and checking unwanted expenditure.
• Brings favourable changes in redistribution of income and wealth.
• Helpful to control inflation and deflation.

c) Public Debt: The loan, borrowings made by the Government from public, organizations, institutions is known as public debt. When the expenditure of the Government is more than its revenue, Government will go for public borrowings.

Classification of Public Debt:
The public debt can be divided as follows:
i) Internal debt: It is debt borrowed by the Government from the sources available within the country. It includes internal borrowings; market loans, etc. All treasury bills issued by RBI, State govt.’s, commercial banks, etc. It is also known as loan taken on negotiable securities.

ii) External debt: It refers to all those borrowings of Government from sources available outside the country. It include loans taken by Government against non-negotiable instruments, non-interest bearing securities which are issued by international institutions like IMF, World Bank, IBRD, ADB, IDA, etc. Loans taken from IMF trust fund is also a part of external debt.

Public Debt as a burden:
When the Government borrows more money, the public debt increases and burden of payment of interest falls on the Government. Then the Government has to impose more taxes on the people. When more tax is levied on people, the disposable personal income of consumer’s falls and this will lead to reduction in consumption, savings and also national income at the end. As a result, the growth rate of an economy will be affected. So, public debt is regarded as a burden on the Government and people.

In fact, the internal debt does not create any serious problem in country as the citizens of the country owe the debt to themselves. But external debt is a serious problem. In case of external debt, we borrow from other countries. This will transfer our purchasing power to other countries through payment of interests and reduce the money value of debtor country. So it advisable to reduce market debt:

The following are few suggestions to reduce market loans in India:

• The RBI’s accounts should be integrated with the Government accounts.
• The gold reserves should be auctioned and used to meet Public expenditure.
• Proper utilisation of resources which are generated through disinvestment.
• Utilisation of resources generated from the sale of vast real estate.

d) Deficit Financing: Deficit financing is one of the instruments of fiscal policy of Government for raising the level of output and employment. It refers to higher expenditure over receipts. It is used to finance economic planning. The major methods adopted by the Government to raise funds for deficit financing are Post Office savings, Provident fund, Public borrowings and printing of new currencies etc.

The deficit financing as an instrument of Fiscal policy leads to an increase in aggregate demand, aggregate investment, production, employment and income. A moderate deficit financing is always desirable in a developing country like India as it contributes to growth of an economy.

You can Download Chapter 2 Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 2 Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation

You can Download Chapter 11 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Physics Question Bank with Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 11 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

2nd PUC Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the
(a) Maximum frequency, and
(b) Minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by 30 kV electrons.
Answer:
V=30kV = 30×10³ V
(a) The maximum frequency of X-rays produced is given by,

Question 2.
The work function of caesium metal is 2.14 eV. When light of frequency 6 x 10¹⁴Hz is incident on the metal surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. What is the
(a) Maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons,
(b) Stopping potential, and
(c) Maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons?
Answer:
υ=6×10¹⁴Hz
ω =2.14eV = 2.14 x 1.6 x 10^-19J
(a) The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is given by

Question 3.
The photoelectric cut-off voltage in a certain experiment is 1.5 V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted?
Answer:
Here, V₀ = 1.5 V
Maximum kinetic energy. (K.E.)_max
= eV₀ = 1.6 X 10-¹⁹ X 1.5
= 2.4 x 10-¹⁹ J

Question 4.
Monochromatic light of wavelength 632.8 nm is produced by a helium-neon laser. The power emitted is 9.42 raW.

(a) Find the energy and momentum of each photon in the light beam,

(b) How many photons per second, on average, arrive at a target irradiated by this beam? (Assume the beam to have a uniform cross-section which is less than the target area), and

(c) How fast does a hydrogen atom have to travel in order to have the same momentum as that of the photon?
Answer:
λ= 632.8 nm= 632 x 10^-9m
power, P = 9.42 mW = 9.42 x 10^-3 W
(a) Energy of each photon in the light beam,

Question 5.
The energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of the earth is 1.388 x 10³ W/m². How many photons (nearly) per square meter are incident on the Earth per second? Assume that the photons in the sunlight have an average wavelength of 550 nm.
Answer:
Energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of the earth,

Question 6.
In an experiment on photoelectric effect, the slope of the cut-off voltage versus frequency of incident light is found to be 4.12 x 10^-15 V s. Calculate the value of Planck’s constant.
Answer:
Slope = 4.12 x 10^-15Vs
\(\frac {h}{e} \) = 4.12 x 10^-15
h = 4.12 x 10^-15 x 1.6 x 10^-19 = 6.6 x 10^-34Js

Question 7.
A 100W sodium lamp radiates energy uniformly in all directions. The lamp is located at the centre of a large sphere that absorbs all the sodium light which is incident on it. The wavelength of the sodium light is 589 nm.
(a) What is the energy per photon associated with sodium light?
(b) At what rate are the photons delivered to the sphere?
Answer:
Power of the lamp, P = 100 W
λ =589nm=589×10^-9m
(a) Therefore, energy of a photon of sodium lamp light,

Question 8.
The threshold frequency for a certain metal is 3.3 x 10¹⁴ Hz. If light of frequency
8.2 x 10¹⁴ Hz is incident on the metal, predict the cutoff voltage for the photoelectric emission.
Answer:

Question 9.
The work function for a certain metal is 4.2 eV. Will this metal give photoelectric emission for incident radiation of wavelength 330 nm?
Answer:
X, = 330 nm = 330 x 10^-9m
∴ Energy of a photon of incident light,

Since the energy of the photon of incident light is less than the work function for the metal, photoelectric emission will not take place.

Question 10.
Light of frequency 7.21 x 10¹⁴ Hz is incident on a metal surface. Electrons with a maximum speed of 6.0 x 10⁵ m/s are ejected from the surface. What is the threshold frequency for photoemission of electrons?
Answer:

Question 11.
Light of wavelength 488 nm is produced by an argon laser which is used in the photoelectric effect. When light from this spectral line is incident on the emitter, the stopping (cut-off) potential of photoelectrons is 0.38 V. Find the work function of the material from which the emitter is made.
Answer:

Question 12.
Calculate the
(a) Momentum, and
(b) de Broglie wavelength of the electrons accelerated through a potential difference of 56 V.
Answer:
V = 56 V
(a) When an electron is accelerated through a potential difference V, it acquires kinetic energy, which is given by, \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)mV² – eV Therefore, momentum of electron.

Question 13.
What is the
(a) Momentum,
(b) Speed, and
(c) de Broglie wavelength of an electron .with kinetic energy of 120 eV.
Answer:
V = 120eV
(a) When an electron is accelerated through a potential difference V, it acquires kinetic energy which is given by

Question 14.
The wavelength of light from the spectral emission line of sodium is 589 nm. Find the kinetic energy at which
(a) An electron, and
(b) A neutron, would have the same de Broglie wavelength.
Answer:
λ = 589 nm= 589 x 10⁹ m.
The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle having energy E is given by,

Question 15.
What is the de Broglie wavelength of
(a) A  bullet of mass 0.040 kg travelling at the speed of 1.0 km/s,
(b) A ball of mass 0.060 kg moving at a speed of 1.0 m/s, and
(c) A dust particle of mass 1.0 x 10 ⁹ kg drifting with a speed of 2.2 m/s?
Answer:
The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle moving with a velocity V is given by

Question 16.
An electron and a photon each have a wavelength of 1.00 nm. Find
(a) Their momenta,
(b) The energy of the photon, and
(c) The kinetic energy of electron.
Answer:
h = 6.63 × 10^-34 Js
λ= 1 nm= 10^-9 m
(a) The electron and the photon will possess the same momentum, which is given by

Question 17.
(a) For what kinetic energy of a neutron will the associated de Broglie wavelength be 1.40 x 10^-10m?
(b) Also find the de Broglie wavelength of a neutron, in thermal equilibrium with matter, having an average kinetic energy of (3/2) k T at 300 K.
Answer:

Question 18.
Show that the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is equal to the de Broglie wavelength of its quantum (photon).
Answer:
Consider an electromagnetic radiation of wavelength λ and frequency υ. Then,

But
\(\frac { h\upsilon }{ C } =P………………(2)\quad \)
P = momentum of the electromagnetic radiation. From equations (1) and (2), we have
\(\lambda =\frac { h }{ P } \)
Hence the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is equal to the de-Broglie wavelength associated with its quantum.

Question 19.
What is the de Broglie wavelength of a nitrogen molecule in air at 300 K? Assume that the molecule is moving with the root- mean square speed of molecules at this temperature. (Atomic mass of nitrogen = 14.0076 u)
Answer:
K= 1.38 x 10^-23Jkg-¹
T = 300 K
Nitrogen is a diatomic gas
∴ Mass of the nitrogen gas molecule,
m= 2 x 14.0076 × 10²⁷amu
= 2 x 14.0076 x 10²⁷ = 4.65 ×10^-26 kg.
The root mean square speed of the nitrogen gas molecule is given by

2nd PUC Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Additional Exercises

Question 20.
(a) Estimate the speed with which electrons emitted from a heated emitter of an evacuated tube impinge on the collector maintained at a potential difference of 500 V with respect to the  emitter. Ignore the small initial speeds of, the electrons. The specific charge of the electron, i.e., its e/m is given to be 1.76 x 10¹¹ C kg^-1

(b) Use the same formula you employ in (a) to obtain electron speed for a collector potential of 10 MV. Do you see what is wrong? In what way is the formula to be modified?
Answer:
(a) V = 500 V
e/m= 1.76×10¹¹ C kg^-1
Due to the applied potential difference between the emitter and the collector, an emitted electron gains kinetic energy, which is given by

Using the same formula as in (a), the speed of electrons at 10 mV comes out to be greater than the speed of light. Since no material particle can move with the speed of light, the result is clearly wrong.

In fact, equation (1) is valid for kinetic energy of the electron, so long as V/C < < 1. At 10 mV, the electrons attain a speed comparable to the speed of light i.e. become relativistic.

In the relativistic domain:- The mass of the electron having rest mass m₍₎ is

Question 21.
(a) A monoenergetic electron beam with electron speed of 5.20 x 10⁶ m s^-1 is subject to a magnetic field of 1.30 x 10^-4 T normal to the beam velocity. What is the radius of the circle traced by the beam, given e/m for electron equals 1.76 x 10ⁿC kg^-1.

(b) Is the formula you employ in (a) valid for calculating radius of the path of a 20 MeV electron beam? If not, in what way is it modified ?

[Note: Exercises 11.20(b) and 11.21(b) take you to relativistic mechanics which is beyond the scope of this book. They have been inserted here simply to emphasise the point that the formulas you use in part (a) of the exercises are not valid at very high speeds or energies. See answers at the end to know what ‘very high speed or energy’ means.]
Answer:
(a) V = 5.2×10⁶ ms¹
B = 1.3 × 10^-4
e/m=1.76 x 10¹¹Ckg-¹

When a magnetic field is applied normally to the path of electron, the force due to the field makes the electron to move along the circular path. The radius of the circular path is given by,

The 10 MeV electron attain a speed comparable to the speed of light i.e. becomes relativistic. In the relativistic domain, the mass of an electron, having rest mass M₀ is given by

Question 22.
An electron gun with its collector at a potential of 100 V fires out electrons in a spherical bulb containing hydrogen gas at low pressure (~10^-2 mm of Hg). A magnetic field of 2.83 x 10^-4 T curves the path of the electrons in a circular orbit of radius 12.0 cm. (The path can be viewed because the gas ions in the path focus the beam by attracting electrons, and emitting light by electron capture; this method is known as the ‘fine beam tube’ method.) Determine e/m from the data.
Answer:
V = 100 V
B = 2.83 ×10^-4 T
r = 12 cm = 12 x 10^-2 m
Due to the applied potential difference between the emitter and the collector, an emitted electron gains kinetic energy which is given by,

When a magnetic field is applied normal to the path of electron, the force due to the filed makes the electron to move along the circular path. The radius of the circular path is given by,

Question 23.
(a) An X-ray tube produces a continuous spectrum of radiation with its short wavelength end at 0.45 Å. What is the maximum energy of a photon in the radiation?
(b) From your answer to (a), guess what order of accelerating voltage (for electrons) is required in such a tube?
Answer:
λ= 0.45 A = 0.45 x 10^-10 m
h = 6.62×10^-34 Js
C = 3 x 10⁸ms^-1
(a) The maximum energy of the photon is given by,
\(E=\frac { hC }{ \lambda } \)

(b) To produce electrons of energy 25.81 keV, accelerating potential of 25.81 kV i.e. order of 26 kV is required.

Question 24.
In an accelerator experiment on high- energy collisions of electrons with positrons, a certain event is interpreted as annihilation of an electron-positron pair of total energy 10.2 BeV into two γ -rays of equal energy. What is the wavelength ‘ associated with each y-ray? (IBeV – 10⁹ eV)
Answer:

Question 25.
Estimating the following two numbers should be interesting. The first number will tell you why radio engineers do not, need to worry much about photons! The second number tells you why our eye can never ‘count photons’, even in barely detectable light.

(a) The number of photons emitted per second by a Medium wave transmitter of 10 kW power, emitting radiowaves of wavelength 500 m.

(b) The number of photons entering the pupil of our eye per second corresponding to the minimum intensity of white light that we humans can perceive (~10^-10 W m^-2). Take the area of the pupil to be about 0.4 cm2, and the average frequency of white light to be about 6 x 10¹⁴Hz.
Answer:
(a) Power of energy transmitted per second,
E = 10 kW = 10⁴ W = 10⁴ Js^-1
λ = 500 m
Energy of one photon,

(b) Minimum intensity of white light = 10¹⁰ Wm²
Area of the pupil = 0.4cm² = 0.4 x 10⁴ m²
∴ Light energy falling on pupil per second
= 10^-10 x 0.4 x 10^-4= 0.4 x 10^-14W
Frequency of white light, u = 6x 10¹⁴ Hz
∴ Energy of the photon of the white light,
hV= 6.62×10^-34 x 6 x 10¹⁴J
∴ Number of photons entering the pupil of our eye per second

Question 26.
Ultraviolet light of wavelength 2271 A from a 100 W mercury source irradiates a photo-cell made of molybdenum metal. If the stopping potential is -1.3 V, estimate the work function of the metal. How would the photo-cell respond to a high intensity (~ 10^s W m^-2) red light of wavelength 6328 A produced by a He-Ne laser?
Answer:


Since wavelength 6.328 Å produced by He-Ne laser and incident on the photocell is greater than,λ_o the photo cell will not respond.

Question 27.
Monochromatic radiation of wavelength nm ( 1 nm = 10^-9 m) from a neon lamp irradiates photosensitive material made of caesium on tungsten. The stopping voltage is measured to be 0.54 V. The source is replaced by an iron source and its 427.2 nm line irradiates the same photo-cell. Predict the new stopping voltage.
Answer:

Question 28.
A mercury lamp is a convenient source for studying frequency dependence of photoelectric emission, since it gives a number of spectral lines ranging from the UV to the red end of the visible spectrum. In our experiment with rubidium photo­cell, the following lines from a mercury source were used:
λ₁= 3650 Å, λ₂= 4047 A, λ₃= 4358 A, λ₄= 5461 A,λ₅= 6907 A,
The stopping voltages, respectively, were measured to be:
V₀₁ = 1.28 V, F₀₂ = 0.95 V, V_n = 0.74 V, V₀₄ = 0.16 V, F_os = 0 V
Determine the value of Planck’s constant h, the threshold frequency and work function for the material.
[Note: You will notice that to get h from the data, you will need to know e (which you can take to be 1.6 x 10^-19 C). Experiments of this kind on Na, Li, K, etc. were performed by Millikan, who, using his own value of e (from the oil-drop experiment) confirmed Einstein’s photoelectric equation and at the same time gave an independent estimate of the value of h.
Answer:
(a) Let the respective frequencies of the five spectral lines of mercury be υ₁, υ₂, υ₃, υ₄ and υ₅. Then

It represents the equation of straight line, whose slope is hυ₀/e and makes an intercept role on negative V₀ – axis. The plot of graph between V (along x-axis) and V₀ (along y-axis) for the given data for the five spectral lines will be shown as in figure.

Question 29.
The work function for the following metals is given: Na: 2.75 eV; K: 2.30 eV; Mo: 4.17 eV; Ni: 5.15 eV. Which of these metals will not give photoelectric emission for a radiation of wavelength 3300 Å from a He-Cd laser placed 1 m away from the photocell? What happens if the laser is brought nearer and placed 50 cm away?
Answer:
λ. = 3300Å= 3300 ×10^-10m
Energy of a photon of incident light,

Since the work functions of Mo and Ni are greater than the energy of the photon of incident light, photoelectric emission will not occur for these metals.

If the laser is brought nearer, the intensity of incident radiation on the metal will increase. It will increase the photoemission in case of Na and K. However, no photo electric emission will .take place in case of Mo and N.

Question 30.
Light of intensity 10^-5 W m^-2 falls on a sodium photo-cell of surface area 2 cm². Assuming that the top 5 layers of sodium absorb the incident energy, estimate time required for photoelectric emission in the wave-picture of radiation. The work function for the metal is given to be about 2 eV. What is the implication of your answer?
Answer:
Since size of the atom is about 10^-10m, the effective area of an atom may be considered as 10^-20 m².
Area of each layer in sodium = 2cm² = 2 x 10^-4m²
Number of atoms in 5 layers of sodium
\(\frac { 2\times { 10 }^{ -4 }\times 5 }{ { 10 }^{ -20 } } \)
If we assume that sodium has one conduction electron per atom, then number of electrons in the 5 layers of sodium = \({ 10 }^{ 17 }\)
Energy incident per second on the surface of the photocell
= 10^-5 x 2 x 10^-4
= 2×10^-9
Since incident energy is observed by 5 layers of sodium, according to wave picture of radiation, the electrons present in all the 5 layers of sodium will share the incident equally.
∴ Energy received by any one electron in the 5 layers of sodium

Since work function of sodium is 2 eV, an electron will be ejected as soon as it gathers energy equal to 2 eV.
∴ Time required for photoelectric emission
= \(\frac { 2 }{ 1.25\times { 10 }^{ 7 } } \) = 1.6 x 10⁷s ≈ 0.5 year
It is contrary to the observed fact that there is no time lag between the incidence of light and the emission of photoelectrons.

Question 31.
Crystal diffraction experiments can be performed using X-rays, or electrons accelerated through appropriate voltage. Which probe has greater energy? (For quantitative comparison, take the wavelength of the probe equal to 1 A, which is of the order of inter-atomic spacing in the lattice) (m_e=9.11 ×10^-31 kg).
Answer:
For x- ray photon of wavelength of 1Å

Question 32.
(a) Obtain the de Broglie wavelength of a neutron of kinetic energy 150 eV. As you have seen in Exercise 11.31, an electron beam of this energy is suitable for crystal diffraction experiments. Would a neutron beam of the same energy be equally suitable? Explain. (m_n = 1.675 x 10^-27 kg)

(b) Obtain the de Broglie wavelength associated with thermal neutrons at room temperature (27 °C). Hence explain why a fast neutron beam needs to be thermalised with the environment before it can be used for neutron diffraction experiments.
Answer:

Since the interatomic spacing (≈10^-10m) is about
100 times greater than the de=Broglie wavelength of 150 eV neutrons, they are not suitable for crystal diffraction experiments.

(b)T=27+273=300k
Energy of the neutron at temperature, T,

Thus, thermal neutrons have wavelength of the order of interatomic spacing
(≈10^-10m) and therefore they are suitable for diffraction experiments. Fast neutrons will possess wavelength quite small as compared to interatomic spacing. Hence for neutron diffraction experiments, fast neutron beam needs to be thermalised.

Question 33.
An electron microscope uses electrons accelerated by a voltage of 50 kV. Determine the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons. If other factors (such as numerical aperture, etc.) are taken to be roughly the same, how does the resolving power of an electron microscope compare with that of an optical microscope which uses yellow light?
Answer:
Here, V = 50 kV
Therefore, energy of electrons,
E = 50keV = 50 x 10³ x 1.6 x 10¹⁹ =80 x 10^-15

The resolving power of a microscope is inversely proportional to the wave length of the radiation used. Since wavelength of the yellow light is 5,990 A i.e. 5.99 x 10^-7 m, it follows that the electron microscope will possess resolving power 10 times as large as that of the optical microscope.

Question 34.
The wavelength of a probe is roughly a measure of the size of a structure that it can probe in some detail. The quark structure of protons and neutrons appears at the minute length-scale of  10^-15m or less. This structure was first probed in early 1970’s using high energy electron beams produced by a linear accelerator at Stanford, USA. Guess what might have been the order of energy of these electron beams. (Rest mass energy of electron = 0.511 MeV.)
Answer:
As the quark structure of protons and neutrons appears a the length-scale of 10^-15m, the electron beam used should be of the wavelength of this order i.e.
λ= 10^-15m
Therefore, momentum of the electron beam,

The electron having momentum of this order possesses speed comparable to the speed of light. Therefore, its energy can be found by using the relativistic formula for die total energy of the electron i.e.

Question 35.
Find the typical de Broglie wavelength associated with a He atom in helium gas at room temperature (27 °C) and 1 atm pressure; and compare it with the mean separation between two atoms under these conditions.
Answer:
Mass of the He-atom,
\(m=\frac { atomic\quad weight\quad of\quad He }{ Avogadro\quad Number } \frac { 4 }{ 6.02\times { 10 }^{ 23 } } \)
= 6.645 × 10^-24 g = .6645 ×10^-27 kg
By proceeding as in solved problem No.2.09,
find the de-Broglie wavelength of the He-atom at 27°C.
It can be obtained that de-Broglie wavelength of the He-atom,
λ= 0.73 x 10^-10 m = 0.73 Å
If V is volume of the gas and dj the mean separation between two atoms in the gas, then V = d³ N,
Where N is Avogadro’s number
From the perfect gas equation

i.e the separation between the two He-atoms in the gas is much larger than the Broglie wavelength of the atom.

Question 36.
Compute the typical de Broglie wavelength of an electron in a metal at 27 °C and compare it with the mean separation between two electrons in a metal which is given to be about 2 x 10^-10 [Note: Exercises 11.35 and 11.36 reveal that while the wave-packets associated with gaseous molecules under ordinary conditions are non-overlapping, the electron wave-packets in a metal strongly overlap with one another. This suggests that whereas molecules in an ordinary gas can be distinguished apart, electrons in a metal cannot be distinguished apart from one another. This indistinguishability has many fundamental implications which you will explore in more advanced Physics courses.]
Answer:
It cap be obtained that de-Broglie wavelength of the electron,
λ – 62.3 x 10^-10 m = 62.3 A
Mean separation between two electrons in the metal,

i.e de-Broglie wavelength of the electron is much larger than the separtation between two electrons in the metal.

Question 37.
Answer the following questions:

(a) Quarks inside protons and neutrons are thought to carry fractional charges [(+2/3)e ; (-1/3)e]. Why do they not show up in Millikan’s oil-drop experiment?
(b) What is so special about the combination e/m? Why do we not simply talk of e and m separately?
(c) Why should gases be insulators at ordinary pressures and start conducting at very low pressures?
(d) Every metal has a definite work function. Why do all photoelectrons not come out with the same energy if incident radiation is monochromatic? Why is there an energy distribution of photoelectrons?
(e) The energy and momentum of an electron are related to the frequency and wavelength of the associated matter wave by the relations:
\(\frac { h }{ \lambda } \)
But while the value of x is physically significant, the value of v (and therefore, the value of the phase speed v X) has no physical significance. Why?
Answer:
(a) Quarks having the fractional charges are thought to be confined within a proton or a neutron only. These quarks are bound by forces, which grow stronger, if they are tried to be pulled apart. Thus, the quarks always remain together. It follows that though fractional v charges exist in nature, the observable charges are always integral multiples of e.

(b) The motion of an electron inside electric and magnetic fields is governed by
eV = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)-mv² = eV; eE = ma and B eV =\(\frac { m{ v }^{ 2 } }{ r } \) where the symbols have their usual meanings.
In all the three relations, e and m occur separately. Further, the value of a physical variable involved in any of these reations can be found by substituting the value of e/m.

(c) The gases keep on getting ionised due to energetic rays [X-rays, Cosmic rays, etc.,] passing through them.

However, at atmospheric pressure, the positive and negative ions are too close and recombine to form neutral gas atoms. Due to this, the gases behave as insulatiors at ordinary pressure.

At low pressures, the gas ions do not recombine as they are appreciably apart. Due to the presence of free ions, the gases start conducting at low pressures.

(d) Work function of a metal is the minimum energy required to knock out an electron (from the conduction band). Since electrons are present in a continuous band of levels, different electrons require different amounts of energy to get out of the atom. For this reason electrons knocked off by a monochromatic radiation posses different energies.

(e) Whereas energy E (= hv) of a particle is arbitrary to within an additive constant, its momentum p (= h/ λ) is not. So, for the matter wave associated with an electron the wavelength λ is physically significant and its frequency v, is not so likewise, the phase speed v λ, is also not physically significant.

2nd PUC Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An electron and an alpha particle have the same de-broglie wavelength associated with them. How are their kinetic energies related to each other?
Answer:

Question 2.
If the frequency of the incident radiation is equal to the threshold frequency, what will be the value of the stopping potential?
Answer:
From Einstein’s photoelectric equation,
hv = hv₀ + eV₀
v = v₀
hv₀=hv₀ + eV₀
v₀=o
∴ Stopping potential = 0

Question 3.
It is harder to remove a free electron from copper than from sodium. Which metal has greater work function? Which has higher threshed wavelength?
Answer:
As it is harder to remove an electron from copper than sodium, the work function of copper is greater

As threshold wavelength is inversely proportional to the work function, its value will be more for sodium.

Question 4.
An electromagnetic wave of wavelength X is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function. If the phot- electrons emitted from this surface have de-Broglie wavelength λ₁ prove that \(\lambda =\frac { 2mc }{ h } { \lambda }_{ 1 }^{ 2 }\)
Answer:
Since photosensitive surface of negligible work function, K.E of emitted electron = energy of incident photon

Question 5.
Find the momentum of an x-ray photon of wavelength.
Answer:
Let p be the momentum of the x-ray photon of wavelength x, then energy of x-ray photon,

Question 6.
The work function of a substance is 4eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photoelectric emission from this substance is approximately
(A) 540 nm
(B) 400 nm
(C) 310 nm
(D) 220 nm
Answer:
(C) 310 nm

Question 7.
The mass of a photon at rest is
(A) zero
(B) 1.67 x 10^-35kg
(C) 1 amu
(D) 9 x 10³¹ kg
Answer:
(A) zero

Question 8.
Which one among the following shows particle nature of light?
(A) Photoelectric effect
(B) Interference
(C) Refraction
(D) Polarisation
Answer:
(A) Photoelectric effect

Question 9.
Planck’s constant has the dimensions of
(A) linear momentum
(B) angular momentum
(C) energy
(D) power
Answer:

Question 10.
The de-Broglie wave corresponding to a particle of mass m and velocity v has a wavelength associated with it
(A) \(\frac { h }{ mv } \)
(B) hmv
(C) \(\frac { mh }{ v } \)
(D) \(\frac { m }{ hv } \)
Answer:

You can Download Chapter 10 Consumption And Investment Function Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 10 Consumption And Investment Function

2nd PUC Economics Consumption And Investment Function One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the meaning of consumption.
Answer:
Consumption refers to using of goods and services to attain desired satisfaction. It also represents the total quantity of products bought and used by consumers during a particular period of time.

Question 2.
What to do you mean by savings?
Answer:
Savings refer to the excess of income over expenditure.

Question 3.
Define investment.
Answer:
According to J.M.Keynes, investment refers to an addition to the nation’s physical stock of capital goods like roads, bridges, buildings, machines etc.

Question 4.
What is MPC?
Answer:
MPC (Marginal Propensity to Consume) refers to the ratio of change in consumption to the change in income.

where ∆c refers to change in consumption and ∆y refers to change in the income of the consumer.

Question 5.
Give the meaning of Multiplier.
Answer:
Multiplier is the ratio of the total change in income to the initial change in investment. It expresses the quantitative relationship between increase in income and increase in investment.

Question 6.
What is APC?
Answer:
APC – Average Propensity to Consume is the ratio of consumption expenditure to income in a given period of time. APC = C/Y where C is consumption and Y is income.

Question 7.
How do you calculate MPS?
Answer:
The Marginal Propensity to save (MPS) is obtained as follows:
MPS = 1 – MPC.

2nd PUC Economics Consumption And Investment Function Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define Income as per J.M. Keynes.
Answer:
According to J.M.Keynes, Income refers to total money remuneration received by four factors of production in the form of rent, wages, interest and profit. It is expressed as follows:
Y = C + I where, Y is income, C is consumption expenditure and ‘I’ investment expenditure.

Question 2.
How is saving equal to investment?
Answer:
The equality between saving and investment is through the mechanism of rate of interest. If the saving is more than investment, the rate of interest falls, investment increases and savings comes down. When the saving is less than investment, rate of interest increases and investment comes down and the savings gets increased to the level of investment.

According to Keynes, Y = C + S and Y = C + I, therefore C + S = C + I, so S = I
Y-income, C-consumption, S-savings, I-investment.

Question 3.
State the factors which influence Marginal Propensity to Consume(MPC).
Answer:
There are two main factors which affect the Marginal Propensity to Consume viz., Subjective factors and Objective factors. The subjective factors include psychological characters of human beings, social practices and institutions etc. The objective factors include, change in the wage level, changes in fiscal policy, change in expectations, change in rate of interest etc.

Question 4.
Briefly explain the relationship between multiplier and MPC.
Answer:
The effect of multiplier depends on Marginal propensity to consume as its value is determined by MPC alone. If MPC is higher, multiplier will also be higher. The multiplier can be calculated by the following formula:

Question 5.
Differentiate between autonomous and induced investments.
Answer:

Autonomous Investment	Induced Investment
(i) It is independent of the level of income.	(i) It is profit or income motivated.
(ii) It is influenced by innovations, growth of population, social and legal institutions etc.	(ii) It is made by the people as a result of change in income.
(iii) It is income inelastic	(iii) It is income elastic

Question 6.
Mention any four types of investments.
Answer:
The types of investments are as follows:

1. Private Investment and Public Investment.
2. Induced Investment and Autonomous Investment.
3. Ex-ante Investment (Planned) and Ex-post Investment (unplanned).
4. Gross Investment and Net Investment.

2nd PUC Economics Consumption And Investment Function Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is investment? Briefly explain the various types of investment.
Answer:
According to J.M.Keynes, investment refers to an addition to the nation’s physical stock of capital goods like roads, bridges, buildings, machines etc.

The types of investment are as follows:
1. Private Investment and Public Investment: Private investment is that investment which is undertaken by private individuals, enterprises, industrialists etc. Public investments are those investments which are made by Government authorities. The intention of private investment is profit and public investment is social benefits.

2. Induced Investment and Autonomous Investment: Induced investment is made by the people as a result of change in their income level. It is profit or income motivated. So, it is income elastic. The autonomous investment is public investment which is independent of the level of income. It is income inelastic. It is influenced by innovations, growth of population, social and legal institutions etc.

3. Ex-ante Investment and Ex-post Investment: Ex-ante investment is that investment which is actually planned according to objectives and investment is made. This investment is planned in advance. The ex-post investment is that investment which cannot be planned in advance. It is that investment which arises instantly during the course of production process.

4.  Gross Investment and Net Investment: Gross investment is the total value of the asset made or created. It includes buildings, dams, roads, railways, industries, etc. The net investment is obtained by deducting depreciation from Gross Investment.

Question 2.
Explain the J.M.Keynes consumption function in brief.
Answer:
The consumption function also called as propensity to consume refers to income consumption relationship. It is a functional relationship between Total consumption and Gross national income. The consumption function may be represented as follows:
C = f (Y). where C is consumption, Y is income and f is die functional relationship.

In fact, consumption function is a schedule of the various amounts of consumption expenditure corresponding to different levels of income. The following table shows the imaginary consumption schedule:

Income (Y) in crores	Consumption(C) in crores.
0	30
50	60
120	120
180	160
240	200
300	240
360	280

The above table shows that the consumption is an increasing function of income because consumption expenditure increases with increase in income. When the income is zero, people spend out of their past savings on consumption because they must eat to live. When income is 50 crores, it is still not sufficient to meet the consumption expenditure of the community as the consumption expenditure (Rs. 60) is more than the income (Rs. 50).

When the income is equal to 120 crores the consumption is also Rs. 120 crores. After this stage, income is shown to increase by 60 crores (240 – 180) and the consumption goes up by only 40 crores (160 -120). This implies that increase in consumption is less than the corresponding increase in income.

In the above diagram, income is measured horizontally and consumption is measured vertically. 45 degree is the unity line where at all levels income and consumption are equal. The C curve is a linear consumption function based on the assumption that consumption changes by the same amount. Its upward slope to the right indicates that consumption is an increasing function of income.

B is the break-even point where C = Y or OY₁ = OC₁. When income rises to OY₂, consumption also increases to OC₂, but the increase in consumption is less than the increase in income, CC₁ <  Y₁ Y₂. The portion of income not consumed is saved and represented as SS₁.

Question 3.
Explain the investment function of Keynes in brief.
Answer:
Generally, investment means buying shares, stocks, bonds, securities existing in stock market. According to J.M.Keynes, investment refers to real investment which adds to capital stock. It leads to increase in level of income and production by increasing the production and purchase of capital goods.

Investment is the production or acquisition of real capital assets during any period of time. Capital and investment are related to each other through net investment. As the income of the community increases, consumption also increases. But, it does not increase in the same proportion. There will be a gap between income and consumption. The gap must be filled by increasing employment and production. For this, investment is needed.

The decision to invest in a new capital asset depends on whether the expected rate of return on the new investment is equal to or greater or less than the rate of interest to be paid on the funds needed to purchase this asset. It is only when the expected rate of return is higher than the interest rate that investment will be made in acquiring new capital assets.

In reality, there are three factors that are taken into consideration while making any investment decision.
They are as follows:

1. The cost of capital asset.
2. The expected rate of returns during its lifetime.
3. Market rate of interest.

Question 4.
Explain the concept of Multiplier of Keynes.
Answer:
According to Keynes, Multiplier establishes a precise relationship, given the propensity to consume, between aggregate employment and income and the rate of investment. It tells us that, when there is an increment of investment, income will increase by an amount which is K times the increment of investment. It can be expressed as follows:
K = ∆Y/∆I, where ∆Y is the change in income and ∆I is the change in investment and K is the multiplier.

Problem: If the investment increases from Rs.1000 crores to Rs.1500 crores, income may increase from Rs.2000 to Rs.3000 crores, then find the multiplier.

In the multiplier theory, the important element is the multiplier coefficient, K which refers to the power by which any initial investment expenditure is multiplied to obtain a final increase in income. The value of multiplier is determined by the MPC. The higher the rate of MPC, the higher is the value of multiplier and vice versa.

The effect of multiplier depends on Marginal propensity to consume as its value is determined by MPC alone. If MPC is higher, multiplier will also be higher. The multiplier can be calculated by the following formula:
If MPC is deducted from I, we get MPS i.e., Marginal Propensity to Save. Now the above formula becomes as follows:

If MPC is deducted from I, we get MPS i.e., Marginal Propensity to Save. Now the above formula becomes as follows:

Working of Multiplier: Multiplier works both forward and backward. In forward working, an increase in investment leads to increased production which creates income and generates consumption expenditure. This process continues in dwindling series till no further increase in income and expenditure is possible.

In backward operation, the multiplier operates backward. A reduction in investment will lead to contraction of income and consumption which, in turn, will lead to cumulative decline in income and consumption till the contraction in aggregate income is the multiple of the initial decrease in investment.

The size of multiplier varies directly with the size of the MPC. The working of multiplier can be illustrated with the help of the following diagram:

In the above diagram, the original investment is I.I (OI) and the original income is OY. S…S is the saving curve. The two curves intersect at point E. If there is an increase in investment, then the I..I curve will shift to a position above the earlier level to I,…I. Now, curves I,..I, and S..S intersect at point E₁ and the new level of income OY₁ is determined. This emphasizes the fact that an initial increase in investment leads to a large increase in income.

Question 5.
What is Multiplier? What is its importance?
Answer:
According to J.M. Keynes, Multiplier establishes a precise relationship, given the propensity to consume, between aggregate employment and income and the rate of investment. It tells us that, when there is an increment of investment, income will increase by an amount which is K times the increment of investment. It can be expressed as follows:
K = ∆Y/∆I, where ∆Y is change in income and ∆I is Change in investment and K is the multiplier.

The concept of multiplier is an important contribution of Keynes to the theory of income, output and employment.
The importance of multiplier is as follows:

• The theory of multiplier highlights the importance of investment in income and employment theory.
• The multiplier throws a spotlight on the different phases of the business cycles.
• It helps in bringing equality between saving and investment.
• It is an important tool in formulating economic policies.
• It provides guidelines to achieve full employment.
• It highlights the importance of deficit financing (Public expenditure greater than public revenue).
• It points out the role of public investment in economic development.

2nd PUC Economics Consumption And Investment Function Ten Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the concepts of saving and investment. Discuss the equality between saving and investment.
Answer:
The consumption function also called as propensity to consume refers to income consumption relationship. It is functional relationship between Total consumption and Gross national income. The consumption function may be represented as follow.

C = f (Y). where C is consumption, Y is income and f is the functional relationship.

In fact, consumption function is a schedule of the various amounts of consumption expenditure corresponding to different levels of income.

(a) Investment function:
Generally, investment means buying shares, stocks, bonds, securities existing in stock market. According to J.M.Keynes, investment refers to real investment which adds to capital stock It leads to increase in level of income and production by increasing the production and purchase of capital goods.

Investment is the production or acquisition of real capital assets during any period of time. Capital and investment are related to each other through net investment. As the income of the community increases, consumption also increases. But, it does not increase in the same proportion. There will be a gap between income and consumption. This gap must be filled by increasing employment and production. For this, investment is needed.

The decision to invest in a new capital asset depends on whether the expected rate of return on the new investment is equal to or greater or less than the rate of interest to be paid on the funds needed to purchase this asset. It is only when the expected rate of return is higher than the interest rate that investment will be made in acquiring new capital assets.

In reality, there are three factors that are taken into consideration while making any investment decision. They are as follows:

1. The cost of capital asset.
2. The expected rate of returns during its lifetime.
3. Market rate of interest.

(b) Equality between saving and investment:
The equality between saving and investment is through the mechanism of rate of interest. If the saving is more than investment, the rate of interest falls, investment increases and saving comes down. When the saving is less than investment, rate of interest increases and investment comes down and the savings gets increased to the level of investment.

According to Keynes, Y = C + S and Y = C + I, therefore C + S = C + I, so S = I
Y-income, C-consumption, S-saving, I-investment.

Question 2.
Explain Keynes consumption function. Discuss the properties of consumption function.
Answer:
The consumption function also called as propensity to consume refers to income consumption relationship. It is a functional relationship between Total consumption and Gross national income. The consumption function may be represented as follows:
C = f (Y). where C is consumption, Y is income and f is the functional relationship.

In fact, consumption function is a schedule of the various amounts of consumption expenditure corresponding to different levels of income. The following table shows the imaginary consumption schedule:

Income (Y) in crores	Consumption(C) in crores
0	30
50	60
120	120
180	160
240	200
300	240
360	280

The above table shows that the consumption is an increasing function of income because consumption expenditure increases with increase in income. When the income is zero, people spend out of their past savings on consumption because they must eat to live. When income is is 50 crores, it is still not sufficient to meet the consumption expenditure of the community which at 60 crores is more than the income. When the income is equal to 120 crores which is the basic consumption level. After this stage, income is shown to increase by 60 crores and the consumption goes up by only 40 crores. This implies that increase in consumption is less than the corresponding increase in income.

In the above diagram, income is measured horizontally and consumption is measured vertically.. 45 degree is the unity line where at all levels income and consumption are equal. The C curve is a linear consumption function based on the assumption that consumption changes by the same amount. Its upward slope to the right indicates that consumption is an increasing function of income. B is the break-even point where C = Y.

When income rises to OC₂, consumption also increases to OY₂, but the increase in consumption is less than the increase in income, C₁C₂ < Y₁Y₂. The portion of income not consumed is saved and is represented as SS₁.

Question 3.
What do you mean by investment function? Discuss the types and determinants of investment.
Answer:
Generally, investment means buying shares, stocks, bonds, securities existing in stock market. According to J.M.Keynes, investment refers to real investment which adds to capital stock. It leads to increase in level of income and production by increasing the production and purchase of capital goods.

Investment is the production or acquisition of real capital assets during any period of time. Capital and investment are related to each other through net investment. As the income of the community increases, consumption also increases. But, it does not increase in the same proportion. There will be a gap between income and consumption. This gap must be filled by increasing employment and production. For this, investment is needed.

The decision to invest in a new capital asset depends on whether the expected rate of return on the new investment is equal to or greater or less than the rate of interest to be paid on the funds needed to purchase this asset. It is only when the expected rate of return is higher than the interest rate that investment will be made in acquiring new capital assets.

In reality, there are three factors that are taken into consideration while making any investment decision. They are as follows:

1. The cost of capital asset.
2. The expected rate of returns during its lifetime.
3. Market rate of interest.

The types of investment are as follows:
1. Private Investment and Public Investment: Private investment is that investment which is undertaken by private individuals, enterprises, industrialists etc. Public investments are those investments which are made by Government authorities. The intention of private investment is profit and public investment is social benefits.

2. Induced Investment and Autonomous Investment: Induced investment is made by the people as a result of change in their income level. It is profit or income motivated. So, it is income elastic. The autonomous investment is public investment which is independent of the level of income. It is income inelastic. It is influenced by innovations, growth of population, social and legal institutions etc.

3. Ex-ante Investment and Ex-post Investment: Ex-ante investment is that investment which is actually planned according to objectives and investment is made. This investment is planned in advance. The ex-post investment is that investment which cannot be planned in advance. It is that investment which arises instantly during the course of production process.

4. Gross Investment and Net Investment: Gross investment is the total value of the asset made or created. It includes buildings, dams, roads, railways, industries, etc. The net investment is obtained by deducting depreciation from Gross Investment.

Determinants of Investments:
The investment depends on two factors viz., Marginal efficiency of Capital and rate of interest.
a) Marginal Efficiency of Capital (MEC): The MEC is the highest rate of returns expected from an additional unit of a capital asset over its cost. According to Kurihara “ MEC is the ratio between the prospective yield of additional capital goods and their supply price”. The prospective yield is the aggregate net returns from an asset during its lifetime, while the supply price is the cost of producing the asset.

If the supply price of a capital asset is Rs.20;000 and its annual yield is Rs.2,000, the Marginal Efficiency of this asset is 2000/20000 x 100/1 = 10%. The MEC is the percentage of profit expected from a given investment on a capital asset.

b) Rate of Interest: The investment is also determined by the rate of interest. If the rate of interest is higher, the investment will be low as MEC becomes less. If the MEC is higher than the rate of interest, there will be a tendency to borrow funds in order to invest in new capital assets. If the MEC is lower than the rate of interest, no firm will borrow to invest in capital assets. Thus the equilibrium condition for a firm to hold the optimum capital stock is where the MEC is equal to the interest rate.