1st PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sanchalana Chapter 7 Akhanda Karnataka

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Karnataka 1st PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sanchalana Chapter 7 Akhanda Karnataka

Akhanda Karnataka Questions and Answers, Notes, Summary

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2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

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Karnataka 2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

2nd PUC Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain in brief the role of animal husbandry in human welfare.
Answer:
Animal husbandry is the practice of taking care of and breeding domestic animals by applying scientific principles. Good animal husbandry practices meet the ever-increasing demand for food from animals and animal products both in terms of quality and quantity.

Question 2.
If your family owned a dairy farm, what measures would you undertake to improve the quality and quantity of milk production?
Answer:
Milk yield is primarily dependent on the quality of breeds on the farm. Selection of good breeds having high yielding potential (under the climatic conditions of the area), combined with resistance to diseases is very important. For the yield potential to be realized the cattle have to be well looked after – they have to be housed well, should have adequate water, and be maintained disease-free.

The feeding of cattle should be carried out in a scientific manner – with special emphasis on the quality and quantity of fodder. Besides, stringent cleanliness and hygiene (both of the cattle and the handlers) are of paramount importance while milking, storage, and transport of the milk and its products. Ensuring these stringent measures would, of course, require regular inspections, with proper record keeping. It would also help to identify and rectify the problems as early as possible. Regular visits by a veterinary doctor would be mandatory.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
What is meant by the term ‘breed’? What are the objectives of animal breeding?
Answer:
Breed refers to the group of animals having the same ancestral characters, general appearance, size, etc.
Objectives of animal breeding:

  • To increase the quantity of yield.
  • To improve the desirable qualities of the produce.

Question 4.
Name the methods employed in animal breeding. According to you which of the methods is best? Why?
Answer:

  • Inbreeding
  • Outbreeding

2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 1

Question 5.
What is apiculture? How is it important in our lives?
Answer:
Apiculture is also known as beekeeping is the management of honey bees for the production of honey and wax.
Apiculture is important in our lives in many ways:

  • Honey is sweet and edible and is of high nutritional value containing sugar, water, minerals, amino acids, vitamins, enzymes, and pollen.
  • It has a great medicinal value and is used in making various medicines. It is used for the treatment of disorders related to digestion, dysentery, vomiting, stomach and liver ailments.
  • A drug, prepared from the bodies of honey bees, is used in the treatment of diphtheria and some other dangerous diseases. The venom of honey bees is used in the treatment of arthritis and snake bite.
  • The bee wax obtained from the hives is used for preparing cosmetics and polishes in many industries.

Question 6.
Discuss the role of fishery in the enhancement of food production.
Answer:
The fishery is an industry devoted to the catching, processing, or selling of fish, shellfish, or other aquatic animals. A large number of our population is dependent on fish, fish products, and other aquatic animals such as prawns, crab, lobster, edible oyster, etc., for food. Some of the freshwater fishes which are very common include Catla, Rohu, and common carp. Some of the marine fishes that are eaten include – Hilsa, Sardines, Mackerel, and Pomfrets. In order to meet the increasing demands on fisheries, different techniques have been employed to increase production. E.g., through aquaculture and pisciculture, we have been able to increase the production of aquatic plants and animals, both freshwater and marine. This has led to the development of Blue Revolution’.

Question 7.
Briefly describe various steps involved in plant breeding.
Answer:
Plant breeding is the purposeful manipulation of a plant by crossing different varieties in order to create desired plant types that are better suited for cultivation, give better yields, and are disease resistant.

Plant breeding involves the following steps:

1. Collection of germplasm – Collection and preservation of all the different wild varieties, species and relatives of the cultivated species. The entire collection (of plant/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called germplasm collection.

2. Evaluation and selection of parents – The germplasm is evaluated so as to identify plants with a desirable combination of characters.

  • Selection in self-pollinated crops- There is repeated self-pollination of selected plants till superior homozygous genotypes are obtained. The best one is used as new variety. The self-pollinated progeny of a homozygous plant constitutes a pure line.
  • Selection in cross-pollinated crops- The cross-pollinated crops are heterozygous for most of their genes and their population contains plants of several different genotypes. Superior genotype plants are selected and are allowed to cross breed (these plants are not allowed to self breed) so that heterozygosity is maintained

3. Cross hybridisation among the selected parents – Hybridization is crossing of two or more types of plants for bringing their traits together in the progeny. The procedure of hybridisation involves selection of parents with desired characters, selfing, emasculation, bagging, tagging and artificial pollination.

4. Selection and testing of superior recombinants – This is the selection of the plants, from the progeny of hybrids, which have the desired combined character. The selected plants are then self-pollinated for several generations to get a uniformity i.e. homozygosity.

5. Testing, release and commercialisation of new cultivars – The newly selected lines are evaluated for their yield and other agronomic traits of quality, disease resistance etc. These selected cultivars are then tested with local best cultivar and then are released for commercialisation.

Question 8.
Explain what is meant by biofortification.
Answer:
Biofortification is breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals, or higher protein and healthier fats to improve public health.

Question 9.
Which part of the plant is best suited for making virus-free plants and why?
Answer:
The apical or axillary meristems are best suited for making virus-free plants because they are generally free from viruses.

Question 10.
What is the major advantage of producing plants by micropropagation?
Answer:
Thousands of plantlets can be produced from a single explant.

Question 11.
Find out what the various components of the medium used for propagation of an explant in vitro are?
Answer:
The culture medium used for the propagation of an explant in vitro contains nutrients like inorganic salts, vitamins, 2-4% sucrose, amino acid glycine, and growth regulators like auxin and cytokinin with or without the use of yeast extract or coconut milk, or banana pulp. The culture medium can be kept liquid, made semisolid with gelatin, or solidified with agar. These nutrients are required by the explant for growth and development.

Question 12.
Name any five hybrid varieties of crop plants that have been developed in India.
Answer:

  • Himgiri (wheat) – Resistant to leaf and stripe rust, hill bunt
  • Pusa Gaurav (mustard) – Resistant to aphids
  • Pusa Komal (cowpea) – Resistant to bacterial blight
  • Pusa Sadabahar (chilli) – Resistant to chilli mosaic virus, TMV, and leaf curl.
  • Jay a and Ratna (rice) – High yielding semi-dwarf varieties

2nd PUC Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Additional Questions and Answers

2nd PUC Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production One Mark Questions

Question 1.
What is Hissardale?
Answer:
Hissardale is a breed of sheep.

Question 2.
Name the better yielding semidwarf varieties of wheat developed in India.
Answer:
Jay a and Ratna

Question 3.
What should be the effect on the plant when honey camp is put in the center of the farm in the time of pollination?
Answer:
Pollination should be increased in plants.

Question 4.
Some important plant diseases are given. Find out the causative organism.
a. Brown rust of wheat
b. Tobacco mosaic
c. Black rot of crucifers
d. Red rot of sugar cane
e. Turnip mosaic
f. Late blight of potato
Answer:
Fungi: Brown rust of wheat, Red rot of sugar cane, Late blight of potato
Bacteria: Black rot of crucifers.
Virus: Turnip mosaic, Tobacco mosaic.

Question 5.
What are the benefits of animal reproduction?
Answer:
Advantages of animal reproduction are good quality animals produce and production level increased it.

Question 6.
Give the name of a crop manipulated by mutation and the character induced in it.
Answer:
Mung bean – resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
Name any two plants which is genetically modified.
Answer:

  1. Golden Rice
  2. Flavr Savr.

Question 8.
Give examples of plants developed for the resistance to insect pests.
Answer:
a. Brassica – Pusa Gaurav
b. Flat bean – Pusa Sem 2
Pusa Sem 3 -Pusa Sawani Pusa A-4

Question 9.
Name the organism which is used in one of the most potent nutrient (Single-cell protein) in industrial production.
Answer:
Spirulina is used as a single protein in industries.

Question 10.
Inbreeding is necessary to produce pure line generation. Give other merits and demerits of inbreeding.
Answer:
Merits:

  • Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes, that are eliminated by selection.
  • It helps in the accumulation of superior genes and the elimination of less desirable genes.

Demerits:
Close inbreeding usually reduces fertility and even productivity. This is called inbreeding depression.

Question 11.
What do you mean by Animal husbandry?
Answer:
Animal husbandry is the branch of agriculture concerned with animals that are raised for meat, fiber, milk and egg.

Question 12.
Controlled breeding experiments in animals are carried out by artificial insemination.
a. How is this done?
b. Explain the merits of this method.
Answer:
a. The semen is collected from the male that is chosen as a parent and injected into the reproductive tract of the selected female by the breeder.
b. The merits are that the semen may be used immediately or can be frozen and used at a later date. It can also be transported in a frozen form to where the female is housed.

Question 13.
Give an example of a somatic hybrid produced.
Answer:
Pomato is a somatic hybrid of potato and tomato.

Question 14.
Name a semidwarf verities of wheat which is known for high yielding and disease resistant.
Answer:
Kalyan Sona.

Question 15.
Give the full form of SCP.
Answer:
Single Cell Protein is the full form of SCP.

Question 16.
Name 2 better yielding semi-dwarf varieties of rice developed in India.
Answer:
Jaya, Ratna, are the two varieties of rice

Question 17.
What is the economic value of Spirulina?
Answer:
Spirulina can serve as food rich in protein and decrease pollution.

Question 18.
Write the economic value of spirulina.
Answer:

  • It is used as food rich in protein, carbohydrate vitamins, and minerals.
  • Since its culturing uses waste materials like molasses, wastewater from potato processing factories, it reduces environmental pollution.

Question 19.
What is a soma clone?
Answer:
These are genetically identical plants. developed through tissue culture from one plant.

Question 20.
What is somatic hybridisation.
Answer:
It is process in which a plant is raised from the product of fusion of isolated protoplasts of two different varieties or species of plants in vitro.

Question 21.
Define biofortification.
Answer:
Biofortification refers to breeding of crops to produce varieties with higher levels of nutrients like vitamins, minerals, high protein content or healthier fats.

Question 22.
Name a microorganism which is expected to produce large quantities of proteins (is in tonnes)
Answer:
Methylophilus methylo trophus

Question 23.
List any two economically important products for humans obtained from Apis India (CBSE 2008)
Answer:
Honey and beewax.

Question 24.
What is MOET? Write its objectives.
Answer:
Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology. It used for the successful production of high yielding hybrids.

Question 25.
Write the economic value of Saccharum officinarum.
Answer:
This sugar cane has thicker stems and higher sugar content and grows well in South India. It is used for hybridisation with Saccharum barberi to improve the variety.

Question 26.
Define totipotency.
Answer:
The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell or explant is called totipotency.

2nd PUC Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Two Marks Questions

Question 1.
What is scaling? What is its importance?
Answer:
Scaling: It is a method of vegetative propagation which is applicable for growing plants having bulbs, (e.g., Onion, Garlic). In this method, all the scales of bulb are separated and planted in the field (Soil) having all the necessary conditions for their growth: Here scales develops to produced small bulblets. About 3 to 5 bulblets developing from one scale. This method is applicable for the plants belonging to the family Liliaceae. e.g., Garlic, Onion, Lilium, etc.

Question 2.
The steps in a programme are
(a) collection of germplasm
(b) crossbreeding the selected parents
(c) selecting superior recombinant progeny
(d) testing, releasing and marketing new cultivars
(i) What is programme related to?
(ii) Name two special qualities as the basis of the selection of the progeny.
(iii) What is the outcome of programme.
(iv) What is the popular term given to this outcome?
Also name the Indian scientist, Who is credited with taking out this programme.
Answer:
(i) Plant breeding
(ii) Better yield and disease resistance
(iii) Superior improved variety
(iv) Green revolution, M.S. Swaminathan.

Question 3.
Find out what are the various components of the medium used for propagation of explant in vector.
Answer:
Medium should provide carbon sources such as sucrose, inorganic salts, vitamins, amino acids, and growth regulators like auxins cytokinins etc.

Question 4.
Name any 5 hybrid varieties of Crop plants which have been developed in India.
Answer:

  • Hybrid maize
  • Hybrid wheat
  • Hybrid Jowar
  • Hybrid bajra
  • Hybrid Green pea.

Question 5.
What is commonly used to produce virus-resistant plants?
Answer:
Hybridization with disease-resistant variety, wild relative or related species.

Question 6.
Name and define the two major methods of animal breeding.
Answer:
Inbreeding and outbreeding are the two major methods of animal breeding.

  • Inbreeding:- Inbreeding refers to the mating of more closely related individuals of the same breed.
  • Outbreeding:- Outbreeding refers to the mating of the individuals of different breeds or the individuals of same breed having no common ancestors.

Question 7.
Why is beekeeping preferred?
Answer:
Beekeeping is preferred because

  • There is an increased demand for honey and also beeswax
  • It can be practiced in any area where there are sufficient bee pastures
  • Several species of honey bees can be reared

Question 8.
Write the differences between soma clones and somatic hybrids.
Answer:

Soma clones Somatic hybrids
They are clones produced through tissue culture
They are used in rapid multiplication of the desired variety
They are hybrids formed through protoplast tissue
Hybrids develop even in those cases where their development is not possible through sexual means.

2nd PUC Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Five Marks Questions

Question 1.
Enumerate the points that have to be considered for successful beekeeping.
Answer:
The following are the points for successful beekeeping

  • Knowledge of the nature and habits of the bee
  • Selection of suitable location and keeping the beehives.
  • Catching and hiving of swarms
  • Management of beehives during deficient seasons
  • Handling and collecting of honey and bee wax.

Question 2
(a) Write the scientific names of sugarcane grown in North India and South India respectively Mention their characteristic features.
(b) Mention the characteristic features of hybrid variety produced by crossing these two varieties.
Answer:
(a) Sugar cane grown in North India is Saccharum Barberi. It has poor yield and poor sugar content. Sugar cane grown in South India is Saccharum officinarum. It has thicker stems and high sugar content but cannot grow well in north Indian conditions.

(b) They were successfully crossed to yield hybrid varieties having the following desirable qualities.

  • High yield
  • Thick stem
  • High sugar content
  • Ability to grow in North Indian sugar cane growing region.

Question 3.
What is callus culture? Give its technique.
Answer:
Callus culture: Callus is the unorganised and undifferentiated mass of tissue. The plant body of higher plants is made of multicellular, well organised differentiated structures like root, stem, leaves etc. Sometimes the cells of these differentiated structures proliferate to form large mass of unorganized and undifferentiated cells which is called as callus and this process is called callus culture. In this method the isolated plant cell, tissue to organs are cultured in nutrient medium in glass culture tubes or in Petri dishes under aseptic conditions. The cultured part is called as explant. The growth responses depends upon the source of the explant, composition of the nutrient medium and the suitable growth conditions.

The technique of Callus culture: Callus culture involves the following steps:

1. First it is necessary to sterilize the plant organ from which an explant is taken. Sterilizing agents commonly used are mercuric chloride solution (0.1 w/v), sodium hypochlorite (1.6 available chlorine) and a solution of bromine in water (1 % w/v).
Explants can be taken from seedlings (cotyledon, hypocotyl or root) or mature organs or from wood stem parts.

2. Wash the explant with distilled water, cut small pieces of it and transfer it on a suitable culture medium. Agar-agar is used for making culture medium. The culture media was supplemented with amino acids, vitamins, kinetin or other growth factors. An auxin and usually a cytokinin promote high growth rate of callus.

Question 4.
Apiculture is good for agricultural crops. Justify.
Answer:
‘Apiculture’ is the bee-keeping industry. Bees are pollinators of many of our crop species, such as sunflower, brassica, apple and peas. Keeping beehives in crop fields during the flowering period increases pollination efficiency and improves yield.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Biofortification can solve the problem of hidden hunger. Explain.
Answer:
Biofortification is the breeding of crops to produce varieties with higher levels of nutrients like vitamins, minerals, high protein content and healthier fats.

  • It is the most practical means to improve public health.
  • Many hybrid varieties of crops have been produced that are enriched with specific nutrients
    e.g.: Iron – riched spinach, vitamin C riched tomato, bitter gourd, mustard etc.,
  •  By eating the normal food made from these nutrient-enriched varieties of crops there can be an end to deficiency diseases.

Question 6.
‘Sharbati sonora’ is a high-yielding variety of wheat produced by treating Sonora 64 with Gamma rays.
a. How can we make a new variety by treating it with gamma rays?
b. Name this method of plant breeding.
c. Give names of other substances that can be used for this type of treatment.
d. What are they generally called?
Answer:
a. Nowadays plant breeders change the genotype and phenotype of the plants according to their desire. This type of mutation for the production of new superior varieties is known as mutation breeding, e.g. Sharbati Sonora (Wheat) – Gama ray mutant of Sonora 64.
b. Mutation breeding
c. Chemical mutagens and physical mutagens
d. Mutagens

Question 7.
(a) Differentiate between Inbreeding and Outbreeding.
(b) What is germplasm collection?
Answer:
(a)

Inbreeding Out breedings
Inbreeding refers to the mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 generations. Outbreeding refers to the mating of unrelated animals of the same breed or different breeds of different species.

(b) Germplasm collection refers to the entire collection of plants and seeds having all different alleles of all the genes in a crop and its closed relatives.

Question 18.
What is meant by single-cell protein? Give example.
Answer:
Single-cell proteins are microbes grown on an industrial scale as a source of good protein.
e. g. Spirulina

Question 9.
Define the totipotency of a cell. List the requirements of the objective to produce soma clones of a tomato plant on a commercial scale.
Answer:
Totipotency is defined as the capacity of any plant cell to generate a whole plant. Requirements are

  • An explant, i.e. any part/tissues of a tomato plant
  • Nutrient medium containing a carbon source like sucrose, inorganic salts, amino acids, vitamins, and growth regulators like auxins and cytokinins.
  • Sterile conditions.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
Explain the term biofortification. Mention its objectives and give examples.
Answer:
The breeding of crops for higher levels of nutritional quality is called biofortification.
Objectives are for improving
a. protein content and quality
b. oil content and quality
c. vitamin content
d. micronutrient and mineral content

e. g. Vitamin A enriched carrots, spinaches, etc.
Vitamin C enriched bitter gourd
Iron and calcium-enriched spinach
Protein-enriched beans

1st PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

You can Download Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Accountancy Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

1st PUC Accountancy Introduction to Accounting One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Book-keeping?
Answer:
Book-keeping is the art and science of recording in the books of account.
The monetary aspect of commerical and financial transactions.

Question 2.
Define Accounting.
Answer:
“The art of recording classifying and summarising in a significant manner and in terms of ‘ money transactions event which are, in part atleast, of a financial character and interpreting the results there of “American certificed public accountants”.

Question 3.
Write any two features of Accounting.
Answer:
Features of accounting are :

  1. It is a process of recording business transactions.
  2. Accounting is grouping the transactions according to their nature of heads.

Question 4.
Define Accountancy.
Answer:
According to Eric Kohler “Accountancy is the theory and practices of Accounting.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Mention the branches of accounting.
Answer:
Branches of accounting are :

  1. Financial accounting.
  2. Cost accounting.
  3. Management accounting.

Question 6.
Mention the objectives of Accountancy.
Answer:

  • To maintain the record of financial transactions of a business accurately.
  • To ascertain the profit or loss made by business.
  • To present the true and fair view of financial position.
  • To know the amount due to creditors individually.

Question 7.
What are transactions?
Answer:
Business transactions means, any activity, dealing or event which has value measurable in terms of money related to business.

Question 8.
What is cash a transactions?
Answer:
Any business transaction which involves immediate payment or receipt of cash called cash transactions.

Question 9.
What is credit transactions?
Answer:
Any business transaction which involves postpone of payment or receipt to a future date called credit transactions.

Question 10.
What is capital?
Answer:
Capital represents the owner’s claim or share in the assets of the business. Amount invested by owner of business called capital.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
Write the meaning of drawings.
Answer:
The amount of cash or any asset withdrawn by the owner of the business for his personal use or domestic use we called as drawings.

Question 12.
What are Assets?
Answer:
Assets are the properties or resources which are owned by the business entity.
Ex : Machinery, stock, goodwell, etc.

Question 13.
Who is a debtor?
Answer:
Debtor is a person who owes any amount to business. In other words, who purchase goods from business on credit basis is called debtors.

Question 14.
Who is a creditor?
Answer:
Creditor is a person to whom any sum of money is owed by business, other words the person who give benefits to business and amount payable, such person called creditors.

Question 15.
What are goods?
Answer:
The term goods includes all commodities, articles or products which are purchased for the purpose of re-sale.

Question 16.
What is stock?
Answer:
The goods purchased for sale, remain unsold called goods. It is a asset for the business.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 17.
Give the meaning of profit.
Answer:
It is an excess amount of revenues over the related cost or expenses, [profit = Revenue – expenditure].

Question 18.
Write the meaning of income and gain.
Answer:
Income: It refer to an amount received for sale of goods and service or for use of any rights belonging to business.
Gain: Increase in the value of assets or resources of business called gains.

Question 19.
What is Discount?
Answer:
Discount: Reducing the value of sales called discounting. Discounts are 2 types, Trade Discount and Cash Discount.

Question 20.
What is Vocher?
Answer:
Voucher: is the document which helps in reseeding business transactions.

Question 21.
Define Book-keeping.
Answer:
“Book keeping is the art of recording business transaction in a systematic manner”-Rosen.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 22.
Write any two features of Book-keeping.
Answer:
Features of book-keeping are :

  1. It is the recording of only business transactions.
  2. It is the recording of business transactions in terms of money. .
  3. It is very systamatic and principled manner.

Question 23.
Question Write two objects of book-keeping.
Answer:
Objects of book of book-keeping are :

  1. To have a permanent record of all business transactions.
  2. To ascertain the net result of the business
  3. To know the exact reasons for net profit or loss.
  4. To know the progress of business from year to year
  5. To minimise errors and frauds.

Question 24.
Differentiate between Book-keeping and Accounting.
Answer:

Book-keeping Accounting
It is only a recording of business transaction. It is a recording of, analysing, summarising of business transactions.
Book-keeping just maintaining business information. Book-keeping is accounting, analysing and interprets the information.

Question 25.
Who is an accountant?
Answer:
An officer who is entrasted with the accounting function of the organisation called accountant.

Question 26.
Mention the two classification of Book-keeping.
Answer:
The two system of book-keeping are:

  1. Single entry system of book-keeping.
  2. Double-entry system of book-keeping.

Question 27.
Write the two advantages of single entry system.
Answer:

  1. It is a simple method of recording transactions.
  2. It is less costly when compared to double entry system.

Question 28.
Write any two disadvantages of single entry system.
Answer:

  1. This system is an incomplete system of book-keeping.
  2. This system is not supporting to prepare trial balance.

Question 29.
What is double entry system?
Answer:
The system of making two sides in the books of each contracting party for recording a transactions completely called double entry system.

Question 30.
Write the advantages of double entry system.
Answer:

  • It provides a complete or full records of all transaction .
  • It is a systematic and scientific manner of recording business transactions.

Question 31.
Write the disadvantages of double entry system.
Answer:

  • Under this method number of books of accounts have to be maintained.
  • It consumes more time and money.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 32.
Write the different types of business transactions.
Answer:
The business transactions can be classified as:

  1. Cash transactions
  2. Credit transactions
  3. Barter transactions
  4. Non-cash transactions

Question 33.
What is Entity?
Answer:
Entity means an area of economic interest of a particular industry or group of industries. Seperate books of accounts are kept for each entity.

Question 34.
What is intangible assets? Give examples.
Answer:
The assets which we cannot see and touch called intangible assets, example: Goodwell, Trade mark, patents, copy rights.

Question 35.
What is Liabilities?
Answer:
Liabilities are debts owed by the business entity to outsiders.
Example : Creditors, Bills payable, bank over draft, etc.

Question 36.
Write the meaning of solvent.
Answer:
Solvent is a person whose assets are equal or more than that of his liability.

Question 37.
Who is insolvent?
Answer:
Insolvent is a person whose assets are not sufficient to make payment of his liabilities infull.

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Question 38.
What is purchases?
Answer:
Any articles, commodities or products bought for resale called purchses.

Question 39.
Give the meaning of entry.
Answer:
Entry: It means recording of business transactions in the books of Journal or subsidiary books.

Question 40.
What is Folio?
Answer:
Folio: It means the page number of books of accounts, it helps for referring the entry.

Question 41.
Write the meaning of carried down and Brought down.
Answer:
Carried down: It is the process of taking a balance of an account to the next period at the time of its closing. The short term is c/d.
Brought down : It is the process of bringing down the closing balance of the previous period to current year in the same account. It indicates opening balance. The short term is b/d.

Question 42.
Write the meaning of carry forward and brought forward.
Answer:
Carried forward: It is the process of taking the closing amount at the foot of the page of joumal/ledger etc. The short form is c/f.
Brought forward: It is the process of bringing forward the amount of previous page at the top of next page. The short term form is b/f.

Question 43.
Give the meaning of expenses and loss.
Answer:
Expenses: These are the amount spent for purchasing assets or material which is necessary for business.
Loss: Reduction in the value of assets or resources without any benefit called losses.

Question 44.
What is expenditure?
Answer:
Expenditure means a payment of cash or incurring a liability for acquiring assets, goods or service.

Question 45.
What is-Revenue?
Answer:
Revenue is the amount that adds to the capital. It represents cash generated by sale of goods or service offered.

Question 46.
What is accounting year?
Answer:
The accounts of a year are kept in a single set of books which contains 12 months, called accounting year. Generally it starts from 1st April and ends in 31st march of every year.

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Question 47.
What is Accounting cycles?
Answer:
It refers to the flow of accounting data, in the course of accounting during the period of accounting.

Question 48.
What is accounting?
Answer:
Accounting is an art of recording, classifying, measuring and summarizing interms of money, of the business transaction.

Question 49.
Accounts is an art as well as.
Answer:
Science.

Question 50.
Mention one of the objective of accounting.
Answer:
One of the objective of accounting is
(a) Providing accounting information to its users.

Question 51.
Match the following.
(a) Internal users of accounting : Investors, govt. etc.
(b) External users of accounting : Management, share holders.
Answer:
(a) Internal users of accounting : Management, share holders.
(b) External users of accounting : Investors, govt etc.

Question 52.
Give examples for external users of accounting information.
Answer:
External accounting users are : Investors, suppliers / creditors government, customers etc.

Question 53.
Accounting information should be comparable. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes. This statement is agreeable.

Question 54.
Accounting information should be comparable. Give reasons.
Answer:
Accounting information is always comparable reasons are :
(a) It helps in planning for future.
(b) It helps to compare different business organisation.

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Question 55.
Shares is the example for…
Answer:
Revenue or income.

Question 56.
Commission received is a example for
(a) Revenue
(b) Cost
(c) Expenses
(d) Production
Answer:
(a) Revenue.

Question 57.
The primary use of accounting standards is
Answer:
Helps to maintain books in international market requirements.

Question 58.
Mention one feature of accounting.
Answer:
Feature of accounting is; Transactions are recorded in-terms of money.

Question 59.
What is profit?
Answer:
Profit is the excess of revenue over the expenses of a given period.

Question 60.
Give the meaning of gain.
Answer:
Gain refers to a revenue which not generated through regulate business activities.

Question 61.
Give examples for expenses.
Answer:
Rent, wages, salaries are examples for expenses.

Question 62.
Give one example for revenue.
Answer:
Sales, interest received, rent received are for examples.

Question 63.
Mention the different types of assets.
Answer:
The different types of assets are : Fixed assets and current assets.

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Question 64.
Mention the different types of fixed assets.
Answer:
The different types of fixed assets are:

  1. Tangible fixed assets
  2. Intangible fixed assets.

Question 65.
Give one example for fixed assets.
Answer:
Fixed assets examples are : Land and building, plants and machinery furniture, vesicles etc.

Question 66.
Give one example for tangible assets.
Answer:
Examples for tangible for tangible assets.

Question 67.
Give one example for Intangible assets.
Answer:
Examples for intangible assets are : goodwill, patents, copyrights.

Question 68.
Give examples for current assets.
Answer:
Example for current assets are : Cash, stock, debtors, short term investment etc.

Question 69.
What is Fixed Assets?
Answer:
Fixed Assets are assets held on a longterm basis. Such as land Building Machinery etc. These assets are used for the normal operations of the business.

Question 70.
What is revenue?
Answer:
These are the amount of the business earned by selling its product (or) services to customer called revenue.

Question 71.
Give the meaning for examples.
Answer:
Costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue are called as Expenses. Example:- Depreciation, Rent, Wages, Salaries etc.

Question 72.
What is Capital?
Answer:
Amount invested by the owner to the business is known as capital.
Balance sheet / Equation = Capital = Assets – Liabilities.

1st PUC Accountancy Introduction to Accounting Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define Accounting.
Answer:
According to American Institute of Certified Public Accountants “Accounting is an art of recording, classifying & summarising in a significant manner & in-terms of money, transactions & events which are, in part at least of a financial character & interpreting the results thereof’.

Question 2.
What is end product of financial accounting?
Answer:
Balance sheet is the end product of financial accounting. It show the true financial positions of a business concern, that provides required informations like assets & liabilities of a business firm.

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Question 3.
Enumerate main objectives of accounting.
Answer:
The main objectives of accounting are

  1. Maintenance of Records of Business transaction.
  2. Calculation of profit and Loss.
  3. Depiction of financial position.
  4. Providing Accounting information to its users.

Question 4.
Who are the users of Accounting information.
Answer:

  • Internal users:- Management, who needs timely information for planning, controlling & decision making.
  • External users:- Investors, Government, customers, competitors etc. obtain necessary information & rely on financial statement.

Question 5.
State the nature of accounting information required by long term lenders.
Answer:
Accounting information required by Longterm lenders are credit worthiness of the company & its ability to repay loans with Interest.

Question 6.
Who are External users of accounting information?
Answer:
External users of accounting informations are

a. Investors.
b. Suppliers & creditors
c. Customers
d. Government
e. Common man or society .
f. Lenders & financial institution.

Question 7.
Enumerate information needs to Management.
Answer:
Management needs timely information on cost of sales, profitability etc for planning, controlling & decision making.

Question 8.
Give any three Examples of revenues.
Answer:
Examples for revenues are ;
(a) Sales
(b) Commission received
(c) Interest received
(d) Dividend received.

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Question 9.
Distinguish between Debtors & Creditors
Answer:
Debtors Creditors

Debtors Creditors
(i) Debtors are persons and other entities who owe to an enterprise an amount for buying Goods & services on credit. (i) Creditors are persons and other entities who have to be paid by an Enterprise goods & services on credit.
(ii) The total amount standing against such Persons (or) Entities on closing Date, is Show in the balance sheet as sundry Debtors on Assets side. (ii) Total amount standing to the favour of such persons on closing Date, is shown in the Balance as sundry creditors on liability side.

Question 10.
Distinguish between profit & gain.
Answer:

Profit Gain
(i) Profit is the Excess of revenue over the expenses of a given period, usually a year. (i) Gain refers to a revenue which not generated through routine or regular business activities.
(ii) Profits increases the investment office owners (ii) Gain increases the profit of an enterprises

Question 11.
Accounting information should be comparable. Do you agree with this statement. Give two reasons.
Answer:
Yes this Statement is agreeable.
The reasons are as follows:-
a. It helps in planning for the future.
b. It also useful in the areas of decision making in an organization.

Question 12.
If accounting information is not clearly presented, which of the qualitative characteristics of accounting is violated?
Answer:
If accounting information is not clearly presented, then the qualitative characteristics like comparability, reliability & understandability are violated.

Question 1.3.
The Role of accounting has changed over the period of time? Do you agree? Give reasons.
Answer:
The role of accounting is over changing. While in earlier times, accounting was merely concerned with recording the financial events i.e. record keeping activity. However, now a days, accounting is done with the rationale of not only maintaining records, but also providing information to various accounting users area.

Question 14.
With Example, Explain each of the following accounting term.
(a) Fixed Assets
(b) Revenue
(c) Expenses
(d) Short term liability
(e) Capital
Answer:
(a) Fixed Assets Fixed Assets are assets held on a longterm basis. Such as land Building Machinery etc. These assets are used for the normal operations of the business.
(b) Revenue These are the amount of the business earned by selling its product (or) services to customer called revenue.
Example Sales, Commission received, Rent received etc.
(c) Expenses:- costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue are called as . Expenses.
Example:- Depreciation, Rent, Wages, Salaries etc.
(d) Short term liability:- Short term liability are obligations that are payable within a period of one year.
Examples:- Creditors, Bills payable, etc.
(e) Capital:- Amount invested by the owner to the business is known as capital.
Balance sheet / Equation = Capital = Assets – Liabilities.
Example:- if, on a given date, the total Assets of a business are ?6,000 & the total liabilities of business are ?20,000 the excess of the total assets over total liabilities of the business (60,000 -20,000) ?40,000 will be owners capital.

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Question 15.
Define revenues & expenses.
Answer:
According to American Accounting Association “Revenue is the monetary Expression of the aggregate of products (or) services transferred by the Enterprises to its customers during a period of time.”
According to Robert. N. Anthony “Expenses are the costs incurred in connection with the earnings of revenue”.

Question 16.
What is the primary reason for the business students & others to familiarize themselves with the accounting discipline?
Answer:
The reason for why business students & others should familiarize themselves with the accounting discipline are given below:-

  • It helps in learning the various aspects of accounting.
  • It helps in learning how to maintain books of accounts.
  • It helps in learning how to summarise accounting information.

Question 17.
Give the meaning of expenses and loss.
Answer:
Expenses: These are the amount spent for purchasing assets or material which is necessary for business.
Loss: Reduction in the value of assets or resources without any benefit called losses.

Question 18.
What is expenditure?
Answer:
Expenditure means a payment of cash or incurring a liability for acquiring assets, goods or service.

Question 19.
What is Revenue?
Answer:
Revenue is the amount that adds to the capital. It represents cash generated by sale of goods or service offered.

1st PUC Accountancy Introduction to Accounting Six Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1:
Explain the factors, which necessitated systematic accounting?
Answer:
The factors that necessitated systematic accounting are given below:

a. Only financial transactions are recorded: Those events that are financial in nature are only recorded in the books of accounts. For example, salary of an employee is recorded in the books but not recorded educational qualification.

b. Transactions are recorded in monetary terms: Only those transactions which can be expressed in monetaiy terms are recorded in the books. For example, if a business has two buildings and four machines, then their monetary values is recorded in the books,
i. e. two buildings costing ? 20,000, four machines costing ? 8,00,000. Thus the total value of assets is ? 8,20,000.

c. Art of recording: Transactions are recorded in the order of their occurrence (Date, wire).

d. Classification of Transaction: Business transactions of similar nature are classified and posted under their respective accounts. For example, all the transactions relating to machinery will be posted in the Machinery Account.

e. Summarising of data: All business transactions are summarized in the form of Trial Balance, Trading Account, Profit and Loss Account and Balance Sheet that provides necessary information to various users.

f. Analysing and interpreting data – Systematic accounting records enable users to analyse and interpret the accounting data in a proper and appropriate manner. These accounting data and information are presented in the form of graphs, statements, charts, that leads to easy communication and understand ability by various users. Moreover, this facilitates in decision making and future predictions.

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Question 2.
Describe the brief History of accounting.
Answer:
a. The history of accounting can be traced long back in civilization. Around 4000 B.C., in Babylonia and Egypt, payment of wages and taxes were recorded on clay tablets. As history claims that Egyptians kept the record of gold and valuables deposits and withdrawal from the treasuries. These records were reported on daily basis by the incharge of treasuries to the wazir, who used to forward the monthly reports to the king. Babylonia and Egypt used this method to rectify and remove errors, frauds and inefficiency from the records. Around 2000 B.C., China used sophisticated form of accounting.

In Greece, accounting was used to maintain total receipts and total payments and to balance government accounts.
In Rome, around 700 B.C., receipts and payments were recorded in daybook and were posted in the ledger at the end of the month.

b. In India, around twenty three centuries ago, Kautilya wrote the book Arthshastra, which describes how accounting records have to be maintained.

c. In 1494, Luca Pacioli wrote the book ‘Summa’ de Arithmetica Geometria Proportioniet Proportionality. In this, he explained the term debit and credit, which are used in accounting till date.

Question 3.
Explain the development and role of accounting.
Answer:
Development of accounting
In ancient times, around 4000 B.C., accounting was used for recording wages and salaries, deposits and withdrawals of valuable goods (such as gold and silver) from the treasures of the king. Afterwards, it was used to record the receipts and payments and balancing of government financial transactions.

During 1500 A. D., accounting was used by business firms for recording transactions related to business.
In 1800 A.D., accounting was used to record transactions and also to provide information to various users of financial data.

Role of accounting.
While in the earlier times accounting was merely concerned with recording the financial events (i.e. record-keeping activity); however, now-a-days, accounting is done with the rationale of not only maintaining records, but also providing an information system that provides important and relevant information to various accounting users. .

a. Substitute of memory : As, it is beyond human capabilities to remember each and every business transaction, so accounting plays an important role in recording these transactions in the book of accounts.
b. Assistance to management: Management uses accounting information for short term and long term planning of business activities and to control various costs and budgets.
c. Comparative study : In order to ascertain the performance of the business, accounting enables comparison of current year’s profit with that of previous years (intra-firm comparison) and also with other firms in the same business (inter-firm comparison).
d. Evidence in court: It acts as evidence that can be used or presented in the court, if any discrepancy arises in the future.

Question 4.
Define accounting and state its objectives.
Answer:
In 1970, American Institute of Certified Public Accountants changed the definition and stated, “The function of accounting is to provide quantitative information, primarily financial in nature, about economic entities, that is intended to be useful in making economic decisions.”

Objectives of Accounting:

a. Recording business transactions systematically: It is necessary to maintain systematic
records of every business transaction, as it is beyond human capacities to remember such large number of transactions. Skipping the record of any one of the transactions may lead to erroneous and faulty results. ,

b. Determining profit earned or loss incurred: In order to determine the net result at the end of an accounting period, we need to calculate profit or loss. For this purpose trading and profit and loss account are prepared. It gives information regarding how much of goods have, been purchased and sold, expenses incurred and amount earned during a year.

c. Ascertaining financial position of the firm: Ascertaining profit earned or loss incurred is not enough proprietor also interested in knowing the financial position of his/her firm, i.e. the value of the assets, amount of liabilities owed, net increase or decrease in his/her capital. This purpose is served by preparing the balance sheet that facilitates in ascertaining the true financial position of the business.

d. Assisting management: Systematic accounting helps the management in effective decision making, efficient control on cash management policies, preparing budget and forecasting, etc.

e. Assessing the progress of the business: Accounting helps in assessing the progress of business from year to year, as accounting facilitates the comparison both inter-firm as well as intra-firm.

f. Detecting and preventing frauds and errors: It is necessary to detect and prevent fraud and errors, mismanagement and wastage of the finance. Systematic recording helps in the easy detection and rectification of frauds, errors and inefficiencies, if any.

g. Communicating accounting information to various users: The important step in the accounting process is to communicate financial and accounting information to various users including both internal and external users like owners, management, government, labour, tax authorities, etc. This assists the users to understand and interpret the accounting data in a meaningful.

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Question 5.
Describe the informational needs of external users.
Answer:
There are various external users of accounting who need accounting information for decision making, investment planning and to assess the financial position of the business. The various external users are given below.

a. Banks and other financial institutions: Banks provide finance in form of loans and advances to various businesses. Thus, they need information regarding liquidity, creditworthiness, solvency and profitability to advance loans.

b. Creditors: These are those individuals and organisations to whom a business owes money on account of credit purchases of goods and receiving services; hence, the creditors require information about credit worthiness of the business.

c. Investors and potential investors: They invest or plan to invest in the business. Hence, in order to assess the viability and prospectus of their investment, creditors need information about profitability and solvency of the business.

d. Tax authorities: They need information about sales, revenues, profit and taxable income in order to determine the levy various types of tax on the business.

e. Government: It needs information to determine national income, GDP, industrial growth, etc. The accounting information assist the government in the formulation of various policies measures and to address various economic problems like employment, poverty etc.

f. Researcher: Various research institutes like NGOs and other independent research institutions like CRISIL, stock exchanges, etc. undertake various research projects and the accounting information facilitates their research work.

g. Consumer: Every business tries to build up reputation in the eyes of consumers, which can be created by the supply of better quality products and post-sale services at reasonable and affordable prices. Business that has transparent financial records, assists the customers to know the correct cost of production and accordingly assess the degree of reasonability of the price charged by the business for its products and thus helps in repo building of the business.

h. Public: Public is keenly interested to know the proportion of the profit that the business spends on various public welfare schemes; for example, charitable hospitals, funding schools, etc. This information is also revealed by the profit and loss account and balance sheet of the business.

Question 6.
What do you mean by an asset? Explain the different types of assets.
Answer:
Any valuable thing that has monetary value, which is owned by a business, is its asset. In other words, assets are the monetary values of the properties or the legal rights that are owned by the business organisations.
The different types of assets are ;

a. Fixed Assets: These are those assets that are hold for the long term and increase the profit earning capacity and productive capacity of the business. These assets are not meant for sale, for example, land, building machinery etc.
b. Current Assets : Assets that can be easily converted into cash or cash equivalents are termed as current assets. These are required to run day to day’ business activities; for example, cash, debtors, stock, etc.
c. Tangible Assets : Assets that have physical existence, i.e., which can be seen and touched, are tangible assets; for example, car, furniture, buildings, etc.
d. Intangible Assets : Assets that cannot be seen or touched, i.e. those assets that do not have physical existence, are intangible assets; for example, goodwill, patents, trade mark, etc.
e. Liquid Assets : Assets that are kept either in cash or cash equivalents are regarded as liquid assets. These can be converted into cash in a very short period of time; for example, cash, bank, bills receivable, etc.
f. Fictitious Assets : These are the heavy revenue expenditures, the benefit of whose can be derived in more than one year. They represent loss or expense that are written off over a period of time.

Question 7.
Write the meaning of gain and profit. Distinguish between gain and profit.
Answer:
Profits: Excess of revenue over expense is known as profit. It is normally categorized into ’ gross profit or net profit. It increases the owner’s capital as it is added to the capital at the end of each accounting period.
For example: Goods costing ₹ 1,000 is sold at ₹ 1,200 then the sale proceeds of ₹ 1,200 is the revenue and 1,000 is the expense to generate this revenue. Hence, accounting profit of ₹ 200 (i.e. ₹ 1,200 – ₹ 1,000) is the difference between the revenue and expense that is earned by the business.

Gain: It arises from irregular activities or non-recurring transactions. In other words, a gain is a result of transactions that are incidental to the business, other than operating transactions. For example: an old machinery of book value ₹ 2,000 is sold at ₹ 2,500. Hence, the gain is ₹ 5,00 (i.e. ₹ 25,00 – ₹ 2,000). Here, the sale of the old machinery is an irregular activity; so, the difference is termed as gain. Thus, in other words the only difference between profit and gain is that profit is the excess of revenue over expense and gain arises from other than operating transactions.

Profit

Gain

1. Profit is derived from regular business regular business activity Gain is derived from investment over on period of time not falling under regular business activity.
2. It is return on capital employed. It is return on investment
3. Profit is the summation of total income less total expenses Gain is the process received from the sale of fixed or financial assets.

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Question 8.
Explain the qualitative characteristics of accounting information.
Answer:
The following are the qualitative characteristics of accounting information:

a. Reliability: It means that the user can rely on the accounting information. All accounting information is verifiable and can be verified from the source document (voucher), viz. cash memos, bills, etc. Hence, the available information should be free from any errors and unbiased.

b. Relevance: It means that essential and appropriate information should be easily and timely available and any irrelevant information should be avoided. The users of accounting information need relevant information for decision making, planning and’ predicting the future conditions.

c. Understandability: Accounting information should be presented in such a way that
every user is able to interpret the information without any difficulty in a meaningful and appropriate manner. ,

d. Comparability- It is the most important quality of accounting information. Comparability means accounting information of a current year can be comparable with that of the previous years. Comparability enables intra-firm and inter-firm comparison. This assists in assessing the outcomes of various policies and programmes adopted indifferent time horizons by the same or different businesses.

Question 9.
Describe the role of accounting in the modern world.
Answer:
The role of accounting has been changing over the period of time. In the modem world, the role of accounting is not only limited to record financial transactions but also to provide a basic framework for various decision making, providing relevant information to various users and assists in both short run and long run planning.

The role of accounting in the modem world is given below:

Assisting management: Management uses accounting information for short term and long term planning of business activities, to predict the future conditions, prepare budgets and various control measures.

Comparative study: In the modem world, accounting information helps us to know the performance of the business by comparing current year’s profit with that of the previous years and also with other firms in the same industry. .

Substitute of memory: In the modem world, every business incurs large number of transactions and it is beyond human capability to memorise each and every transaction. Hence, it is very necessary to record transactions in the books of accounts.

Information to end user: Accounting plays an important-role in recording, summarizing and providing relevant and reliable information to its users, in form of financial data that helps in decision making.

1st PUC Accountancy Introduction to Accounting Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of book-keeping.
Answer:

Book-keeping Advantages Book-keeping Disadvantages
1. It provide full information about all expenses and loss. It gives only monetary transaction information.
2. It is return on capital employed. It is return on investment
3. It helps to know the true financial position of business. This recordings do not give exact information and timely information.
4. It helps to know the progress of business from year to year. Final accounts prepared under book-keeping do not provide timely information.
5. It helps to know from whose money due and to whom due. With the help of only book-keeping management can’t take decision and correct action cannot be possible.
6. It keep control over the properties and activities of business. Book-keeping depends on personal judgment.

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Question 2.
Explain the features of accounting.
Answer:
The features / Natures of accounting are :

  • Recording of business transaction as and when they occur in single book is the first feature of accounting.
  • Classify or grouping of entries according to their nature in to appropriate heads of account.
  • Accounting also involves summarising the transactions, classified in the ledger and financial position presentation.
  • Accounting also analyse and interpret the recorded transactions.

Question 3.
Differentiate book-keeping and accounting. .
Answer:

Book-keeping Accounting
1. It is an art of recording money transaction in a-set of books. It is a process of designing the system of records of books of a/cs.
2. It is a mechanical and routine Work. It requires specialised knowledge and creative ability.
3. Book-keeper is a clerk. Accountant is a professionalist.
4. Book-keeping creates a data base. It process the finacial data and finds results and conclusion.
5. It helps to know from whose money due and to whom due. With the help of only book-keeping management can’t take decision and correct action cannot be possible.

Question 4.
Accounting is an art as well as science. Discuss.
Answer:Accounting is an art: art means application of knowledge to produce the desired result, accounting ivolves the designing of information system, record filing system, standardisation of forms and statements etc. The working of an accounting needs creative and active skills . and involvement of all staff.

Accounting is also science: A ‘Science’ means a systematic body of knowledge relating to universal phenomenon. It consists of concept theories, rules, and techniques developed by the process of rational thinking and spirit of enquiry, accounting is a social science..
So accounting is a applied science as well as art of recording a business transactions.

Question 5.
Write the objectives or advantages of accounting.
Answer:
The objectives or advantages of accounting are:

  • To maintain the record of financial transactions of a business accurately.
  • To ascertain the profit or loss made by business.
  • To present the true and fair view of financial position.
  • To know the amount due to creditors individually.
  • To know the amount due from debtors to the business.
  • To compute the tax liability of the concern.
  • To supply the required financial information to the mangement it helps for decision making.

Question 6.
Explain the role or growth of accounting.
Answer:
The origin and growth of accounting can be summarised as follows:

  • Accounting is said to be very old, as old as money.
  • The present accounting is the result of constant innovations to the requirements of business activities.
  • Accounting has developed to meet the emerging needs and requirements of fast developing society.
  • “Arthashastra” the book written by Kautilya is the base or foundation for accounting.
  • The present system of accounting based on the double entry system founded by pacilio in 1494 at Italy.
  • Futher various publications were made and an important publications was that of edward jones in 1975 who invovated the concept of ‘Two Column journal’.

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Question 7.
State the different terms in Accounting.
Answer:
Drawings: The amount of cash or any asset withdrawn by the owner of the business for his personal use or domestic use we called as drawings.

  • Assets: are the properties or resources which are owned by the business entity.
    Ex: Machinery, stock, goodwell, etc.
    Liabilities are debts owed by the business entity to outsiders.
    Example: Creditors, Bills payable, bank over draft, etc.
  • Debtor: is a person who owes any amount to business. In other words, who purchase goods from business on credit basis is called debtors.
  • Creditor: is a person to whom any sum of money is owed by business. Other words the person who give benefits to business and amount payable, such person called creditors.
  • Goods: The term goods includes all commodities, articles or products which are purchased for the purpose of re-sale.
  • Purchases: Any articles, commodities or products bought for resale called purchases.
  • Sales: Any goods purchase by customer called sales mean sale of goods and not the assets. Stock: The goods purchased for sale, remain unsold called goods. It is a asset for the business.
  • Profit: The accounts of a year are kept in a single set of books which contains 12 months, called accounting year. Generally it starts from 1st April and ends in 31st march of every year.
    • Expenditure means a payment of cash or incurring a liability for acquiring assets, goods or service.
    • Revenue is the amount that adds to the capital. It represents cash generated by sale of goods or service offered.
  • Discount: Reducing the value of sales called discounting. Discounts are 2 types, Trade Discount and Cash Discount.
  • Voucher: is the document which, helps in reseeding business transactions.
  • Income: It refer to an amount received for sale of goods and service or for use of any rights belonging to business.
  • Gain: Increase in the value of assets or resources of business called gains.
    Capital represents the owner’s claim or share in the assets of the business. Amount invested by owner of business called capital.
  • Entity: means an area of economic interest of a particular industry or group of industries. Separate books of accounts are kept for each entity

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1st PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 13 Computerised Accounting System

You can Download Chapter 13 Computerised Accounting System Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Accountancy Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 13 Computerised Accounting System

1st PUC Accountancy Computerised Accounting System One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is computerised accounting system?
Answer:
It is an accounting information system that processes the financial transaction and events an per GAAP.

Question 2.
Expand GAAP
Answer:
Generally accepted accounting principles = GAAP.

Question 3.
Mention the elements computer system?
Answer:
Computer system elements are Hardware, Software people, procedure, data and connectivity.

Question 4.
What is Hardware?
Answer:
Hardware of computer includes – physical components like, keyboard, mouse, monitor, CPU etc. These are electronic and electromechanical components.

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Question 5.
What is software or program of computer?
Answer:
A set of program, which is used to work with hardware is called its software.

Question 6.
What is firmware?
Answer:
A coded set of instructions stored in the form of circuits is called firmware.

Question 7.
Mention the different types of software.
Answer:
The different types of software are ;

  1. Operating system
  2. Utility program
  3. Application software
  4. Language processors
  5. System software
  6. Connectivity software.

Question 8.
What is procedure as a element of computer system?
Answer:
A procedure means a series of operations in a certain order or manner to achieve desire results.

Question 9.
Mention the different types of procedure in computer system.
Answer:
The different types of computer system procedures are:

  1. HardWare – oriented
  2. SoftWare – oriented
  3. Internal procedure.

Question 10.
List out the capabilities of computer system.
Answer:
Capabilities of computer system are:

  • Speed
  • Accuracy
  • Reliability
  • Storage

Question 11.
List out any two limitations of computer system.
Answer:
The demerits or limitations of computer system are;

  • Lack of common sense
  • Lack of decision making
  • Compulsory instructor.

Question 12.
Mention two features of computerised accounting system.
Answer:
The two features of computerised accounting system are :

  1. Online input and storage of accounting data.
  2. Grouping of ledger accounts is done in the beginning itself.
  3. Quick reporting to management and various types of reports can be produce.
  4. Invoices like purchase and sales can be prepared.

Question 13.
What is accounting information system?
Answer:
Accounting information system, identifies, collects, process and communicates economic information about an entity to a wide variety of users.

Question 14.
What is accounting report?
Answer:
Information supplied to meet a particular need of management is called report. It is helpful for management decision making.

Question 15.
List out the requisite of good accounting report.
Answer:
An accounting report must fulfill;

  • Relevance
  • Timeliness
  • Accuracy
  • Summarisation

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1st PUC Accountancy Computerised Accounting System Six Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State the four basic requirements of a Database Applications.
Answer:
The following are the four basic requirements of a Database Application:
a. Front-end Interface- It acts as an interactive connecting link between the user and the database oriented software through which the user communicates or interacts to the backend database.

b. Back-end Database- It is the data storage system that is hidden from the users. It responds to the requirement of the users to the extent the user is authorised to access.

c. Data Processing- It is a sequence of actions that are taken to transform the input data into useful information for taking various decisions.

d. Reporting System- It is an integrated set of objects that includes all the relevant information that constitutes a report.

Name the various categories of Accounting Package.
The Accounting Packages are classified into the following categories:
a. Ready-to-use or Readymade Software
b. Customised Software
c. Tailored or Tailor-made Software

List the various advantages of Computerised Accounting Systems.
The mentioned below are the various advantages of Computerised Accounting Systems:
a. Speed
b. Accuracy
c. Reliability
d. Up-to-Date Information
e. Real Time User Interface
f. Automated Document Production
g. Scalability
h. Legibility

Give two examples each of the organisations where ‘ready-to-use’, ‘customised’, and ‘tailored’ accounting packages respectively suitable to perform the accounting activity.

‘Ready-to-use’ accounting packages are basically used by the small-sized enterprises. For example, grocery stores, medical stores, etc.

On the other hand, ‘Customised’ accounting packages are basically used by the medium and large business. For example, shopping malls, hospitals, etc.

Whereas, ‘Tailored’ accounting packages are basically used by the geographically scattered businesses. For example, MNC’s, Communication Industries, etc.

Question 2.
Distinguish between ‘ready-to-use’ and ‘tailored’ accounting software.
Answer:

Basis of Difference Ready-to-Use Accounting Software Tailored Accounting Software
1. Nature of Business This software is used in small and conventional businesses. This software is used in large and typical businesses.
2. Adaptability Its adaptability is very high. Its adaptability is very specific and cannot be used by every business houses.
3. Linkage to other Information System Its interface with the other information system is limited Its interface with the other information system is unlimited
4. Number of Users It has limited users. It has huge number of users.
5. Installation and Maintenance Costs The installation and maintenance cost is low. The installation and maintenance cost is comparatively higher

Question 3.
Define a Computerised Accounting System. Distinguish between a Manual and Computerised Accounting Systems.
Answer:
Computerised Accounting Systems is based on the concept of database. It is an accounting information system that processes the financial transactions and events in accordance to the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) to produce reports as per the requirements of the users.

Manual Accounting Computerised Accounting
1. As the data a recorded under manual accounting are visible. As the data stored in computers are not visible.
2. The rail of events under manual accounting can be easily established The rail of transactions (or) events cannot be established easily under computersied accounting.
3. The data recorded in manual accounting are not subjected to the risk of manipulation The data recorded in computerised ac­counting system are subject to the risk of manipulation.
4. In manual accounting, accounting data cannot be adjusted to produce various special statement and reports Under a computerised accounting system the accounting data can be easily adjusted to generate various special statement and reports.
5. The cost of preparing statement and report under manual accounting is high. The cost of preparing statements and re­ports under computerised accounting is low
6. The reports prepared under manual accounting are mostly board and general purpose reports. Under computerised accounting a number of special reports can be prepared to meet the needs of different mangers.

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Question 4.
Discuss the advantages of Computerised Accounting Systems over the Manual Accounting Systems.
Answer:
The following are the various advantages of the Computerised Accounting Systems over the Manual Accounting Systems:
a. Speed: The speed of a computer is very high and takes very less time in performing various difficult operations. The accounting data is processed comparatively faster through the Computerised Accounting Systems than it can be done through the manual efforts.

b. Accuracy: In Computerised Accounting Systems, the possibility of errors is minimised or reduced as the primary accounting data is entered only once for preparing various accounting reports and for subsequent usage and processes.

c. Reliability: As the Computerised Accounting Systems is well-equipped in performing repetitive operations, so it is comparatively more reliable to perform the operations than the manual system. Also, the Computerised Accounting Systems overcome the limitation of Manual Accounting Systems such as tiredness, boredom or fatigue, etc., thereby enhances the degree of reliability.

d. Up-to-Date Information: In the Computerised Accounting Systems, whenever the new accounting data is entered and stored, the existing accounting records automatically gets updated.

e. Real-Time User Interface- Most of the automated accounting systems are interlinked through a network of computers. The availability of information to various users at the same time on the real-time basis is facilitated under computerised system of accounting. This is very difficult to avail such facility under manual system as this call for availability of multiple copies of the accounting records that can be accessed by many users at the same time.

f. Automated Document Production: Under Computerised Accounting Systems, the accounting reports such as, Cash Book, Trial balance, Statement of Accounts, etc. is very easy to obtain. This is because most of the computerised systems have standardised and user-defined format of accounting reports that are generated automatically.

g. Scalability: The computerised systems of accounting are highly scalable as there requirement of additional manpower is mainly confined to data entry for recording and storing the additional vouchers in the computers. Thus, the additional cost of processing additional transactions is meagre as compared to the cost associated with hiring new accountants to handle additional transactions.

h. legibility: In Computerised Accounting Systems, the accounting records are typed and presented in standard fonts. The various characters especially numbers, alphabets, graphics, etc. are more clear and can be read without any difficulty and ambiguity.

Question 5.
Describe the various types of accounting software along with their advantages and limitations.
Answer:
The various types of accounting software are:
Ready-to-use Software- This type of software is readily available in the market with prescribed and standard features. This accounting software is basically used by the small size business enterprises, where the number of transactions is not so large. The cost of its installation and maintenance is also low. It has limited number of users, its adaptability is very high as it is relatively easier to learn and operate. It does not have a wide scope to link it with other information systems.

Advantages of Ready-made Accounting Software
a. This software is easily available in the market.
b. It is less expensive, as it comes with basic and standard features.
c. It involves a lesser need for training.
d. It is less sophisticated.
e. Its adaptability is very high as it is relatively easier to learn and operate.
f. It is suitable for small-size business enterprises.

Disadvantages of Ready-made Accounting Software
a. It has limited number of users.
b. It is not suitable for medium and large business organisation, where the number of transactions is very large.
c. It fails to cater the specific needs of the users, d. It suffers from the low level of data secrecy.
e. It does not have a wide scope to link it with other information systems.

Customised Software: Customised software is the software that has standardised features to meet the special requirements of the users. It provides the scope of changing the features of accounting software. The functions of this software can be programmed as per the needs and requirements of the users. This type of software best suits the needs of medium and large businesses. Its cost of installation and maintenance is comparatively higher. It can be easily linked to the other information systems.

Tailored Software: Tailored or Tailor-made accounting software is the software that is developed as per the specifications and requirements of the users. This accounting software is generally used in the large business organisations with multi-user and geographically scattered locations. It is designed to meet the specific needs of the users and form an integral part of the organisational MIS. It has infinite number of users.

Advantages of Customised and Tailor-made Accounting Software
a. This software is suitable for medium and large business organisation.
b. It caters the specific requirements and needs of the users.
c. It can be modified as per the needs of the organisation.
d. It has high level of security’ and minimises the loss and unauthorised access of data.
e. It cannot be easily imitated or duplicated in the market due to difference in the needs and requirements of different users.
f. It does not involve high cost of training as the training can be imparted within the ‘ organisation by the experienced personnel.
g. It can be easily linked to the other information systems, h. It forms an integral part of the organisational MIS.

Disadvantages of Customised and Tailor-made Accounting Software
a. It involves high cost of installation and maintenance.
b. Developing customised software is a time-consuming process and involves high cost of development.
c. Maintenance of this software is difficult as there exists limited availability of knowledge to the developers.
d. It lacks standard training module.

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Question 6.
‘Accounting software is an integral part of the Computerised Accounting Systems’ Explain. Briefly list the generic considerations before sourcing accounting software.
Answer:
The accounting software does form an integral part of the Computerised
Accounting Systems. The accounting software should be selected after considering the level of skill and proficiency of the accounting professionals. This is one of the important aspects that should be taken care of before introducing Computerised Accounting Systems, as the accounting professionals are responsible for accounting and the not computers.

The following are some of the important points that should be taken into consideration before introducing accounting software in an organisation.
1. Flexibility: This is the most important factor that should be considered before sourcing accounting software. The accounting software should be flexible in form of data entry, retrieval of data and generating design of reports. The software should be able to run on different computers having different operating systems and having different configurations. It should provide some flexibility among its users.

2. Cost of Installation and Maintenance: The selection of accounting software largely depends upon its cost to the organisation. The cost of accounting software includes cost of installing the related components and hardware, maintenance and alteration costs, cost of training the staff and cost involved in recovering data in case of data failure. An organisation needs to evaluate the benefits of the software against its costs.

3. Size of Organisation The size of an organisation also determines the selection of accounting software. The small-sized organisations, where the volume of business transactions is not so large, usually opt for simple and single user oriented software. On the other hand, large scale organisations, where the volume of business transactions is very large choose the latest and sophisticated software for meeting the multi-user requirements.

4. Training Needs- Another factor that affects the choice of software is the training needs.There is some accounting software that requires comparatively lesser training and is more user-friendly. While, there are some other complicated software that requires continuous and thorough training.

5. Level of Secrecy: The level of expected security is one of the important factors that an organisation bears in mind before sourcing accounting software. Software should be able to prevent the unauthorised access and manipulation of data. It should have in built features of security.

6. Utilities/MIS Reports- Another factor which helps in determining the software selection isthe MIS reports and the extent to which they are used in the organisation.

7. Vendor Reputation and Capability- The selection of software is also affected by the capability and competence of the vendor. It depends upon the reputation of the vendor in the market, the user-reviews of the similar software, the extent of post-sales support services from the vendors, etc.

‘Computerised Accounting Systems are best form of accounting system’. Do you agree? Comment.
Yes, we agree with this statement that ‘Computerised Accounting Systems are best form of accounting system’. It becomes very easier to work with Computerised

Accounting Systems leading to reduction in the accounting errors. Moreover, the computerised accounting reports are highly reliable, thereby enhances the overall efficiency.

Due to the following positive aspects, the Computerised Accounting Systems certainly enjoy an edge over the Manual Accounting Systems.
a. Speed: The speed of a computer is very high and takes very less time in performing various difficult operations. The accounting data is processed Comparatively faster through the Computerised Accounting Systems than it can be done through the manual efforts.

b. Accuracy: In Computerised Accounting Systems, the possibility of errors is minimised or reduced as the primary accounting data is entered only once for preparing various accounting reports and for subsequent usage and processes.

c. Reliability: As the Computerised Accounting Systems is well-equipped in performing repetitive operations, so it is comparatively more reliable to perform the operations than the manual system. Also, the Computerised Accounting Systems overcome the limitation of Manual Accounting Systems such as tiredness, boredom or fatigue, etc., thereby enhances the degree of reliability.

d. Up-to-Date Information: In the Computerised Accounting Systems, whenever the new accounting data is entered and stored, the existing accounting records automatically gets updated.

e. Real-Time User Interface- Most of the automated accounting systems are interlinked through a network of computers. The availability of information to various users at the same time on the real-time basis is facilitated under computerised system of accounting.

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f. Automated Document Production: Under Computerised Accounting Systems, the accounting reports such as, Cash Book, Trial balance, Statement of Accounts, etc. is very easy to obtain. This is because most of the computerised systems have standardised and user-defined format of accounting reports that are generated automatically.

g. Scalability: The computerised systems of accounting are highly scalable as the requirement of additional manpower is mainly confined to data entry for recording and storing the additional vouchers in the computers. Thus, the additional cost of processing additional transactions is meagre as compared to the cost associated with hiring new accountants to handle additional transactions.

h. Legibility: In Computerised Accounting Systems, the accounting records are typed and presented in standard fonts. The various characters especially numbers, alphabets, graphics, etc. are more clear and can be read without any difficulty and ambiguity.

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2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease

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2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease

2nd PUC Biology Human Health and Disease NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the various public health measures, which you would suggest as a safeguard against infectious diseases?
Answer:
The various public health measures that could provide safeguard against infectious diseases are:

  1. Disposal of garbage – There should be regular collection and transport of garbage to disposal sites.
  2. Drainage – Drains should be covered to reduce the chances of the multiplication of flies and mosquitoes. Any blockage must be immediately attended to.
  3. Isolation – A person suffering from an infectious disease should be segregated so that others do not catch an infection from him.
  4. Sanitation – Clean surroundings can prevent the spread of diseases. This includes proper disposal of waste and excreta, periodic cleaning and disinfection of water sources, and observing standard practices of hygiene in public catering.
  5. Eradication of vectors – It is necessary to eliminate the vectors and their breeding places. This can be achieved by – avoiding stagnation of water in and around residential areas.
    • regular cleaning of household coolers.
    • use of mosquito nets
    • introducing fishes like Gambusia in ponds that feed on mosquito larvae.
    • spraying of insecticides in ditches, swamps, and drainage areas.
    • doors and windows should be provided with wire mesh.
  6. Vaccination and immunization – This has enabled us to completely eradicate a deadly disease like smallpox. A large number of other infectious diseases like polio, diphtheria, pneumonia, and tetanus have been controlled to a large extent by the use of vaccines.
  7. Pollution – Anti-pollution laws should be strictly enforced.
  8. Drinking water – Drinking water should be filtered and free from any contamination, suspended, and dissolved matter.
  9. Education – People should be educated about communicable diseases so that they can protect themselves against infection.

Question 2.
In which way has the study of biology helped us to control infectious diseases?
Answer:
The study of biology helps us to diagnose the pathogen in the following ways:

  1. The life-cycle of many pathogens studied.
  2. Alternate and reservoir hosts are known.
  3. The mechanisms of transmission of the disease are known.
  4. The protective measures are suggested against disease and pathogens based on the above studies.
  5. Suitable medicines against infectious disease are suggested.
  6. The preparation of vaccines against many pathogens also entitles the use and study of biology.

Question 3.
How does the transmission of each of the following diseases take place?

  1. Amoebiasis
  2. Malaria
  3. Ascariasis
  4. Pneumonia

Answer:

  1. Amoebiasis is caused by Entamoeba – histolytica. Infection occurs by ingesting cysts with food and drinks. These cysts are carried by flies from faeces to food and drinks.
  2. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium sp. Malarial parasites are carried from the infected to the healthy person by the female Anopheles mosquito.
  3. Ascariasis in man is caused by ingesting food and water contaminated with Ascaris eggs. Children become infected by ingesting soil.
  4. Pneumonia is spread by sputum (containing Streptococcus pneumoniae) of the patient. These microbes are inhaled and get lodged in the bronchioles.

Question 4.
What measure would you take to prevent water-borne diseases?
Answer:
To prevent water-borne diseases, the following measures are required :

  • Drinking water should be clean, free from contamination. This could be achieved by filtration, boiling or sedimentation, and chemical treatment of water.
  • Water resources/ reservoirs should be periodically de-contaminated / disinfected.
  • Water should not be allowed to stand for long to become breeding pools.
  • Standards practices of hygiene should be strictly maintained in public catering.

Question 5.
Discuss with your teacher what does ‘a suitable gene’ means, in the context of DNA vaccines.
Answer:
Suitable genes refer to that gene (a specific segment of DNA), encoding a protein associated with the target infectious organism, is spliced into a plasmid, which is then copied & formulated as a vaccine.

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Question 6.
Name the primary and secondary lymphoid organs.
Answer:
Primary lymphoid organs are bone marrow and thymus. Secondary lymphoid organs are spleen, lymph nodes, tronsils, peyer’s patches of small intestine and appendix.

Question 7.
The following are some well-known abbreviations, which have been used in this chapter. Expand each one to its full form:

  1. MALT
  2. CMI
  3. AIDS
  4. NACO
  5. HIV

Answer:

  1. MALT – Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue
  2. CMI – Cell-mediated immunity
  3. AIDS – Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
  4. NACO – National AIDS control organization
  5. HIV – Human immunodeficiency virus

Question 8.
Differentiate the following and give examples of each:
(a) Innate and acquired immunity
(b) Active and passive immunity
Answer:
(a) Innate and acquired immunity

Innate Innate
Present from birth Develops during lifetime
 Remains throughout life Short or long life
Contact with antigen not necessary Contact with antigen necessary
Is inheritable Can be inherited for brief period to neonates
Prevents from disease contraction Protects from pathogen and other members of some species.

(b) Active and passive immunity

Active Passive
Due to contact with the antigen Obtain antibodies from outside
Not immediate Develops immediately
Lasts for a sufficiently long time Lasts for few days
Antibodies are produced by body
Side effects are few
Antibodies obtained from outside.

Question 9.
Draw a well-labelled diagram of an antibody molecule.
Answer:
2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease 1

Question 10.
What are the various routes by which transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus takes place?
Answer:
The various routes by which transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) takes place are –

  • Sexual contact with an infected person.
  • Use of contaminated needles and syringes to inject drugs or vaccines.
  • Use of contaminated razors.
  • By transfusion of contaminated blood.
  • From infected mother to her child through the placenta.
  • Organ transplantation.
  • Artificial insemination.

Question 11.
What is the mechanism by which the AIDS virus causes a deficiency of the immune system of the infected person?
Answer:
After the entrance of the virus into the body of the person, the virus enters into macrophages where the RNA genome of the virus reverse transcribes to form viral DNA with the help of a reverse transcriptase enzyme. This viral DNA gets incorporated into the host cell’s DNA and directs the infected cells to produce viruses. The infected macrophages produce the virus and act as an HIV factory. Simultaneously, the HIV virus enters into helper T lymphocytes where it replicates and produces other viruses.

These viruses are then released into the blood and attack other helper T-lymphocytes. In this way, there occurs a progressive decrease in the number of helper T-lymphocytes in the body of the infected person. Due to a decrease in the number of helper T-lymphocytes, the patient becomes so immunodeficient that he/she is unable to protect himself/herself against the infections of bacteria, fungi, viruses etc.

Question 12.
How is a cancerous cell different from a normal cell?
Answer:
Cancer cell is different from normal cells in the sense that it:

  • Looses the property of contact inhibition.
  • Continues to grow and divide.
  • Produces masses of cells called tumours.

Question 13.
Explain what is meant by metastasis.
Answer:
The non-regulated growth of the cells that accompanies cellular transformation produces tumours or neoplasms. Each tumour being the product of the proliferation of a single abnormal cell. Malignant tumour cells are cancer cells that spread to mid take up residence in neighbouring tissues – a condition called metastasis.

Question 14.
List the harmful effects caused by alcohol/ drug abuse.
Answer:
The adverse effects of drugs and alcohol abuse are:

  • Cirrhosis and fatty liver: The liver synthesises fat from alcohol. The extra fat lowers the production of enzymes and structural proteins. The liver becomes a storehouse of fat and the result is fatty liver. The fatty liver syndrome leads to cirrhosis where liver cells are replaced by fibrous tissues.
  • Alcoholic polyneuritis: Alcoholism reduces appetite. This leads to water-soluble vitamin deficiency (B complex) and causes polyneuritis.
  • Heart diseases: Alcoholism causes cardiovascular diseases, hypertension, etc.
  • Amnesia: Partial or total memory loss.
  • Ulcer and pancreatitis: Constant use of alcohol causes stomach ulcers and pancreatitis.
  • Male impotence: Due to the loss of sexual drive and necrospermia (defective sperms).
  • Foetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) or alcohol embryopathy: Alcohol abuse during pregnancy causes abnormal development of foetus.
  • Family problems: Alcoholism affects the family and community life. It leads to the deterioration of moral and cultural standards. It also causes traffic accidents, violence and antisocial activities.

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Question 15.
Do you think that friends can influence one to take alcohol/drugs? If yes, how may one protect himself/herself from such an influence?
Answer:
Yes, friends can influence a person to take alcohol/drugs. One can protect himself/ herself from such an influence by avoiding experimental use of alcohol/drug for curiosity, pleasure, adventure, and excitement, and avoiding the company of such friends

Question 16.
Why is it that once a person starts taking alcohol or drugs, it is difficult to get rid of this habit? Discuss it with your teacher.
Answer:
Curiosity, excitement and experimentation may sometimes drive the youngsters towards drug and alcohol abuse. Usually, the first use of drug or alcohol may be out of curiosity or experimentation. Gradually they start this habit to escape facing problems. Academic activities like examination may also sometimes compel them to take drugs or alcohol. Because of the addictive nature of drug and alcohol, and their perceived benefits like relief from stress, a person may try taking these to get rid of pressure, examination and competition-related stresses. Feeling of independence, insecurity, frustration, depression etc are also associated with drug and alcohol abuse.

Question 17.
In your view what motivates youngsters to take to alcohol or drugs and how can this be avoided?
Answer:

  • Curiosity
  • Experimentation
  • Adventure and excitement
  • Peer pressure
  • Family history, i.e., unstable or unsupported family structure
  • Frustration and depression
  • Relief from pain
  • Feeling of independence
  • Television, movies, newspapers, and the internet also help to promote this perception.

2nd PUC Biology Human Health and Disease Additional Questions and Answers

2nd PUC Biology Human Health and Disease One Mark Questions

Question 1.
In the past Indian Ayurvedic system considered that the persons having black bile would have a fever.
a. Name the person who is considered the father of medicine.
b. What made the change in the belief of having black bile during fever?
c. Who was the person behind this discovery?
Answer:
a. Hippocrates
b. Discovery of blood circulation
c. William Harvey

Question 2.
Write the full form of HIV.
Answer:
Human Immunodeficiency Virus.

Question 3.
What are pathogens?
Answer:
The organisms which cause diseases in man are called pathogens.

Question 4.
Write the full form of ELISA.
Answer:
Enzyme-linked Immunosorbent Assay.

Question 5.
An antigen-antibody reaction is a specific reaction. Justify your answer.
Answer:
The antibodies are specific to antigens i.e., a particular antibody binds only with a particular antigen. This is also known as the lock and key mechanism seen in the enzyme reaction. The antigen-binding site in the antibody is made such that the same type of antigen can attach to it. The antigen-antibody reaction makes the antigen inactive.

Question 6.
What is the source of opium?
Answer:
Poppy.

Question 7.
Prepare a poster against smoking to exhibit in your school.
Answer:
Say no to smoking

  • Burning of tobacco with paper produces more than 1000 chemicals.
  • Passive smokers also get these 1000 chemicals.
  • Causes lung cancer.
  • Causes oral cancer
  • Causes emphysema
  • Causes heart attack
  • Causes peptic ulcer

Question 8.
Name the harmful chemical component which is found in tobacco.
Answer:
Nicotine.

Question 9.
A dog bites his own master. Sometimes in the human body, this type of action takes place.
a. Name the disease.
b. Give examples for this disease.
Answer:
a. Autoimmune disease
b. Rheumatoid arthritis (affecting the joints)
Myasthenia gravis (neuromuscular disease leading to muscle weakness)
Diabetes mellitus type 1 (destruction of beta cells of the pancreas)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
Expand PMNL.
Answer:
Polymorphonuclear leucocytes.

Question 11.
Name the common fungal diseases that infect man.
Answer:
Ringworms.

Question 12.
Which disease is caused by the transmission of HIV?
Answer:
AIDS.

Question 13.
Write the role of macrophages in providing immunity to humans. (Delhi 2008)
Answer:
Macrophages are phagocytes and through phagocytes, they destroy the microbes.

Question 14.
Write the full form of LSD. (CBSE 1994)
Answer:
D-Lysergic acid diethylamide

Question 15.
What are Psychotropic drugs? (CBSE 1995)
Answer:
These are mood-altering drugs that selectively affect behaviour perception and mental activity of a person using them.

Question 16.
Where is Wuchereria found?
Answer:
Filarial worms Wuchereria are found in lymph vessels.

Question 17.
Define the term vaccine.
Answer:
A vaccine is a suspension of killed or alternated pathogenic macro organism or antigenic preparations made out of it which on administration provides immunity towards the pathogen.

Question 18.
What harm does AIDS cause in humans?
Answer:
The immune power of the body is decreased by AIDS.

Question 19.
Define Addiction. (HS&B 2001)
Answer:
Addiction is the state of giving up to a drug, alcohol, or tobacco due to becoming physically, physiologically, and psychologically attached to its certain effects like euphoria and a temporary feeling of well-being.

Question 20.
What is immunity? (HS&B 2003)
Answer:
Immunity is a natural or acquired ‘resistance of an individual to the development of pathological condition even after having received an infective dose of virulent pathogen its taxis or allergies.

Question 21.
Name 2 major groups and of cells required in attaining specific immunity. (CBSE 2005)
Answer:
B-lymphocytes, T-lymphocytes.

Question 22.
What is the full form of NAC?
Answer:
National Aids Control Organization.

Question 23.
What is interferon?
Answer:
Interferon is the proteins produced by virus-infected cells in our body.

Question 24.
Name combine form of the poppy, morphine, herein pethidine, and methedrine.
Answer:
Meconium.

Question 25.
Give 2 examples of passive immunity.
Answer:

  • The antibodies IgA in colostrum
  • Antibodies received by the foetus through the placenta.

Question 26.
Name the cells which are multiplied by HIV when it enters the human body.
Answer:
Macrophages and helper T-lymphocytes.

Question 27.
While 2 features of acquired immunity.
Answer:

  • It is pathogen-specific
  • It is characterized by memory.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 28.
Name 2 types of cells in which HIV multiplies after gaining entry into the human body.
Answer:
Macrophages and Helps T cells.

Question 29.
Why is the bone marrow considered the main lymphoid tissue of our body?
Answer:
Because in bone marrow along with blood cells lymphocytes are produced.

Question 30.
Which viruses have responsible for cancer?
Answer:
Oncogenic viruses have cancer-causing viral oncogenes.

Question 31.
Expand ELISA.
Answer:
Enzyme-linked Immuno-sorbent assay.

Question 32.
What are primary lymphoid organs?
Answer:
The primary lymphoid organs are those organs in which B-lymphocytes and T- lymphocytes undergo maturation, e.g., Bone marrow and thymus.

Question 33.
When is a tumour is referred to as Malignant?
Answer:
Malignant tumor is a mass of proliferating neoplastic cells, which spread to distant sites through body fluids to develop secondary tumors.

Question 34.
What is oncogenic virus?
Answer:
The viruses which cause cancer are called oncogenic virus.

Question 35.
How does tobacco smoking cause oxygen deficiency in the body.
Answer:
Smoking increases the carbon monoxide content of the blood that refuses.

Question 36.
What type of cells provide Innate immunity?
Answer:
Neutrophils.

Question 37.
What is drug abuse.
Answer:
When drugs are taken for a purpose other than their normal clinical use and in amounts concentrations or frequency that impairs one’s physical, physiological and psychological functions, it constitute drug abuse.

Question 38.
Write any 2 uses of morphine.
Answer:

  • Used as selective
  • Used as painkiller especially in patients who have undergone surgery.

Question 39.
Name the phylum and disease caused by Wucheria Bancroft (CBSE 2005)
Answer:

  • Phylum – Nemathelminthes
  • disease:- Elephantiasis (filaria)

2nd PUC Biology Human Health and Disease Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention any 2 measures for prevention and control of alcohol and drug abuse among adolescents.
Answer:

  • Communication: An adolescent should be able to disuses problems in studies, games, friends etc. with parents who should also know all the friends of the child.
  • Avoid undue pressure: The child should not be asked to perform beyond threshold limits whether in studies, sports or extracurricular activities.

Question 2.
In which parts of the body of the hosts do the following events in the life cycle of plasmodium take place? Name both the body parts and the host.
(a) Fertilization
(b) Development of gametocytes
(c) Release of Sporozoites
(d) Asexual reproductions.
Answer:
(a) Fertilization: Inside stomach/intestine of mosquito host.
(b) Development of Gamete cites:- In blood of human host.
(c) Release of sporozoites – In to the blood of human host
(d) Asexual Reproductions – Inside liver cells and-RBC’s of human host.

Question 3.
Write the specific symptoms of typhoid.
Name its causative agent. (AI – 2009)
Answer:
Symptoms of typhoid:

  • Sustained high fever
  • Loss of appetite
  • Stomach pain
  • Headache and weakness
  • Intestinal perforations severe cases may cause death causative agent of typhoid is Salmonella typhi.

Question 4.
What are allergens? What causes the allergy is produced?
Answer:
Allergy is the condition of hypersensitivity of the body against certain substances or to a physical or chemical agent allergens. When the antigen-antibody reaction takes place in the body, it results in allergy. Sufficient antibodies will not be produced if lacking proper immune system. The allergens combine with the antibody-bound mast cells, which causes the cell to burst to release histamine. It results inflammatory responses in the body. The allergy may be caused by medicine, cosmetics, and other substances like, pollen grains, dust particles etc.

Question 5.
Write the symptoms of pneumonia.
Answer:

  • Fluid-filled alveoli
  • Cough and headache
  • Fever
  • The nails turns gray to bluish in the severe cause.

Question 6.
Name and explain the type of barrier of innate immunity where some cells release inteifetofts when infected.
Answer:
Cytokinin barriers

  • Cells infected by virus release interferons
  • Interferons provide protection to noninfected cells from infection.

Question 7.
How do saliva and tear help to prevent bacterial infection?
Answer:
Saliva and tear consists of lysozymes Lysosomes are enzyme which can digest the bacterial cell wall which helps to kill bacteria.

Question 8.
Why vaccination is important in immunity?
Answer:
Vaccination is the process of introduction of weakened or inactivated pathogens or proteins (vaccine) into a person so, provide protection against the disease. Vaccination provides immunisation after a time gap. Due to immunisation our body produces antibodies against the vaccine and develops the ability to neutralise pathogens during actual infection. Nowadays different types of vaccine which gives in children like polio, tetanus, deptheria, pertusis, small pox etc.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Differentiate between primary response and secondary response.
Answer:

Primary response Secondary response
The immune response that occurs at the first encounter of the body with antigen is called -primary immune response The immune response that occurs at the second and subsequent, encounters of the body with the antigen is called secondary immune response
It declines rapidly It is severe and lasts for long time

Question 10.
Differentiate between T lymphocyte and B- lymphocyte.
Answer:

T lymphocyte B- lymphocyte.
These are lymphocyte which undergo maturation in thymus Maturation undergo in bone marrow
They constitute cell-mediated immune and don’t produce antibodies They constitute the humoral immune response and produce antibodies
They react to organ transplants Don’t respond to organ transplants.

Question 11.
How do B-lymphocyte cells direct humoral immunity?
Answer:
The B-lymphocyte cells multiply in number in response to the attack by antigen. They start producing characteristics proteins called antibodies. These antibodies circulate in the body fluids and act against the pathogen/ antigens.

Question 12.
Describe the effect of alcohol on human body and society.
Answer:
The effect of alcohol on the human body and society are:

  • It effects the central nervous system.
  • Persons is incapable of differentiating what is right and what is wrong.
  • Taking excess of alcohol weakens heart, lungs, liver and other parts of the body.
  • Pupil of eye expands on taking excess of alcohol.
  • This increases the criminal activities of human beings.

Question 13.
Elst specific symptoms of amoebiases write its causative agent. (CBSE 2009)
Answer:
Symptoms of amoebiasis

  • The patient passes out blood and mucus with the stool.
  • Severe griping pain in the abdominal, fever nausea, exhaustion and nervousness.
  • In chronic case, intestinal wall punctures. The causative agent is Entamoeba histolytica.

Question 14.
Describe psychotropic drugs.
Answer:
These drugs effect on thinking power, mental processes-, continuous use of these drugs, bring change in human behaviour, consciousness and perception. So, they are called mood-altering drugs. The person becomes addict by the use of these drugs and cannot live without these drugs.

Question 15.
AIDS is a disorder in which the immune mechanism of the body of a patient gets suppressed.
a. What pathogen is responsible for it?
b. Who discovered the pathogen for the first time?
c. Mention the major symptoms of that disorder.
Answer:
a. HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus)
b. Prof. Luc Montagnier in 1983.
c. Fever, weight loss, diarrhea, enlargement of lymph glands. All these are due to low immune response.

Question 16.
What is Interferon?
Answer:
Interferon: Interferon is an antiviral protein which is produced within animal cells due to stimulus produced after viral infection and which prevents the infection and, multiplication of other viruses.

Question 17
(a) Explain the property that prevents normal cells from becoming cancerous
(b) All normal cells have inherent characteristics of becoming cancerous. Explain. (CBSE2009)
Answer:
(a) Contact inhibition
(b) All normal cells have several genes called cellular oncogenes or proto-oncogenes.
These genes are activated under certain conditions can lead to oncogenic transformation of cells, i.e. cancer can result.

Question 18.
Write the importance of molecular biology in preventing cancer.
Answer:
Techniques of molecular biology can be applied to detect genes in individuals with inherited susceptibility to certain cancers. Identification of such genes, which predispose individuals to certain cancers may be helpful in the prevention of cancer, such individuals are advised to avoid exposure to particular carcinogens to which they may be susceptible.

Question 19.
C – Change in bowel or bladder
A – A sore which does not heal
U – Unusual bleeding or discharge
T – Thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere
I – Indigestion or difficulty in swallowing
O – Obvious change in wart or mole
N – Nagging cough
These are the symptoms of a disease.
a. Name the disease.
b. What is oncology?
c. What are oncogenes?
Answer:
a. Cancer
b. Study of cancer
c. Cancer inducing genes

Question 20.
Name one plant and the additive drug extracted from its latex. How does this drug affect the human body? (CBSE 2009)
Answer:
Morphine is obtained from the plant Papaver somniferum (poppy plant).
It is an opioid that binds to specific receptors in the central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract and slows down body function.

Question 21.
Give four reasons to justify the intake of cannabinoids by sports person (A.I. 2008)
Answer:

  • Cannabinoids affect the cardiovascular system.
  • They cause addiction and when the regular dose is not taken, there are unpleasant one’s term with drawl symptoms, which may be life-threatening.
  • The person shows reckless behaviour vandalism and violence
  • Excess can lead to coma and death due to heart failure cerebral hemorrhage etc.

2nd PUC Biology Human Health and Disease Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention 3 major categories of factors that affect the health of a person.
Answer:
Health is affected by
(i) genetic disorders:- the defects, deficiencies that are inherited from parents due to defective genes.
(ii) Infections caused by pathogens.
(iii) Lifestyles which includes

  • Food and water (eating habits)
  • Rest and exercise to the body
  • Habits like drugs, alcohol etc.

Question 2.
How do normal cells get transformed into cancerous neoplastic cells? Mention the difference between viral oncogenes and cellular oncogenes (Foreign 2008)
Answer:
The transformation of normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells is induced by physical clinical and biological agents collectively called carcinogens, they lose the property of contact inhibition.
Differences between viral oncogenes and cellular oncogenes are

  • Viral oncogenes are the genes present in I the oncogenic virus which affect the oncogenic transformation of the cells they infect.
  • Cellular oncogenes are the genes presents in normal cells and code for growth factors, when activated under certain condition can cause the oncogenic transformation of the cell.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
What are the side effects of the use of anabolic steroids by females?
Answer:
The side effects in females includes

  • Increased aggressiveness
  • Abnormal menstrual cycle
  • Excessive hair growth on the face and body
  • Enlargement of elitoris
  • Deepening of voice
  • Mood swings and depression.

Question 4.
Give the side effects of the use of anabatic steroids in males.
Answer:
The side effects in males includes

  • Reduction in the size of testicles
  • Decreased sperm productions
  • Breast enlargement
  • Premature baldness
  • Enlargement of prostrate gland
  • Development of acne.

Question 5
(a) List any two situations when a medical doctor would recommend injection of performed antibodies into the body of a patient. Name this kind of immunisation
(b) Name the kind of immunity attained when instead of antibody weakend antigens are introduced into the body. (Delhi 2008)
Answer:
(a) The two conditions include the following

  • When a person is infected by a deadly microbe, for which an immediate immune response is required.
  • Snakebite
    This kind of immunisation is called passive imminisation

(b) Active immunity.

Question 6.
Name the stage of plasmodium that a female Anopheles mosquito injects into a healthy person during its bite. Represent schematically the stages of the pathogen developed in the human body, till it is picked up by a mosquito.
Answer:
2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease 2

Question 7.
(a) How are primary lymphoid organs different from secondary lymphoid organs. Give an example of each.
(b) Name any 4 types of cells involved in the cellular barriers of innate immunity.
Answer:
(a)

  • Primary lymphoid organs: These are the lymphoid organs where immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes.
    E.g. Bonemarrow, thymus.
  • Secondary lymphoid organs: These are the lymphoid organs where the interaction occurs between lymphocytes and antigen and proliferation occurs.
    E.g. Spleen, tonsil.

(b) The cell types are

  • Poly morpho nuclear leucocytes (PMNL)
  • Monocyte
  • Natural killer cells
  • Macrophages

2nd PUC Biology Human Health and Disease Five Marks Questions

Question 1.
The science club in your school has decided to organise a street play aiming at giving public awareness against AIDS.
a. Mention the important characters performing in this play.
b. State the major ideas you are going to convey through the play.
Answer:
a. HIV, T-cells of the immune system, patient, other pathogens like
bacteria, viruses, protozoan etc.
b. i. Only one life partner in your life ii. Practise safe sex
iii. Use condoms
iv. Don’t share needles and syringes for injection.
v. Don’t receive blood from unknown person.
vi. Treatment is available to cure AIDS.

Question 2.
(i) Draw a labelled schematic diagram of antibody molecules
(ii) Mention any 4 warning signals of drug abuse in adolescents.
Answer:
(i)
2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease 3
(ii) Warning signals of drug abuse:
Aggressive and rebellious behaviour Loss of appetite
Lack of interest in personal hygiene Drop in academic performance Change in sleeping and eating habits .
(i) Define innate immunity Mention any 2 ways in which it is accomplished in our body.
(ii) How does spleen functions as an organ of our immune system.
Ans:
(i) Innate immunity is defined as the non¬specific type of defense with which an individual is bom and in always available to protect the body. It is accomplished by providing different types of barriers to the entry of antigens/pathogens
(a) Physical barriers: Skin of the body is the greater barrier that prevents the entry of microbes. Mucus coating on the epithelium of major tracts help in trapping the microbes that have entered the body.
(b) Physiological barrier:

  • Saliva in the mouth and tear contain an anti-bacterial substance.
  • HC1 scented by the stomach (C) Cytokine barriers:
    Interferon are the proteins which are produced by the body cells in response to viral infection and they protect the non-infected cell from viral infection.
  • Spleen acts as filter of blood by trapping the blood-borne microbes. It contains phagocytes which destroy the microbes through phagocytosis.

Question 4.
(a) Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunity.
(b) Describe the different methods of treatment of cancer.
Answer:

Active immunity Passive immunity
When antibodies are produced by our β lymphocytes in response to the antigen, it is called active immunity. When ready-made antibodies are injected into the body for defence, the immunity produced is called passive immunity.
It lasts for longer periods It lasts for shorter period.

(b) Different methods for the treatment of cancer are

  • Surgery: The tumour cells are surgically removed to reduce the growth of cancerous cells.
  • Radiation therapy: The tumour cells are radiated lethally taking care of the surrounding normal cells.
  • Chemotherapy: Certain drugs are specific for particular tumors, but have side effects like anaemia, hair loss etc.

Question 5.
(a) Represent schematically the life cycle of HIV or Replication of Retrovirus.
(b) What are the various routes by which transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus takes place?
Answer:
(a)
2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease 4
(b) The various ways of the transmission of ratio virus includes

  • Sexual contact with infected persons
  • By the transfusion of blood
  • By the use of infected needles and syringes
  • From infected mother to child through the placenta.

Question 6.
Why is using tobacco in any form injurious to health? Explain.
Answer:
The burning tobacco and the paper produce more than 1,000 chemicals in the form of gases, vapours and particulates. The substances include nicotine, carbon monoxide, hydrogen cyanide, benzopyrene etc. Many of these are irritants and have toxic effects on the body. Tobacco is used for smoking and chewing. Its main stimulating component is nicotine, which causes addiction. Harmful effects of tobacco include lung cancer, oral cancer, emphysema, blood pressure variation, heart diseases, peptic ulcer etc.

1st PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sanchalana Chapter 6 Shishu Makkaligolida Madeva

You can Download Chapter 6 Shishu Makkaligolida Madeva Questions and Answers Pdf, Notes, Summary, 1st PUC Kannada Textbook Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sanchalana Chapter 6 Shishu Makkaligolida Madeva

Shishu Makkaligolida Madeva Questions and Answers, Notes, Summary

1st PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sanchalana Chapter 6 Shishu Makkaligolida Madeva 1
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1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions

You can Download Chapter 8 Redox Reactions Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions

1st PUC Chemistry Redox Reactions One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define oxidation in terms of electronic concept.
Answer:
Oxidation is a process in which loss of electrons take place.

Question 2.
Define by reduction in terms of electronic concept.
Answer:
Reduction is a process in which gain of electrons takes place.

Question 3.
What are redox reactions ? Give an example.
Answer:
Redox reaction is reaction in which oxidation and reduction take place
simultaneously, e.g. Zn(s)+ Cu2+ (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s):

Question 4.
What is oxidation number of alkali metals in their compounds?
Answer:
+1.

Question 5.
Zn(s)+Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu(s) is this reaction redox reaction ? If yes, name the
∴ oxidizing agent as well as reducing agent.
Answer:
Yes, Cu2+ is oxidising agent whereas Zn is reducing agent.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Which of the following does not conduct electric current and why?
Molten NaCl, Solid Pb, AgNO3 solution and methanol.
Answer:
Methanol will not conduct electric current because it does not ionise. .

Question 7.
Define cathode and anode.
Answer:
Cathode is electrode towards which cations are attracted. Anode is electrode which : attracts anions.

Question 8.
What is oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 and why?
Answer:
Cr has +6 oxidation state because it has 6 valence electrons, therefore can form 6 covalent bonds.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 1

Question 9.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 2
which is the strongest oxidising agent out of them ?
Answer:
Fe3+ is strongest oxidising agent because it has standard reducing potential. (i.e., +ve value) value.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
What is meant by oxidation potential of an electrode ?
Answer:
Oxidation potential measures the tendency of an element or anion to lose the electrons.

Question 11.
What is relationship between standard oxidation potential and standard reduction potential?
Answer:
Both are equal in magnitude but opposite in sign.

Question 12.
Identify the oxidant and reductant in the following reactions :
(i) Zn(s) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) O2(g) → ZnO(s)
(ii) Zn(s) + 2H+ (aq) → Zn2+(aq) + H2(g)
Answer:
(i) Zn is reducing agent (reductant) and O2 is oxidizing agent (oxidant)
(ii) Zn is reducing agent (reductant) whereas H+ is oxidizing agent (oxidant).

Question 13.
How will you define (i) Oxidant and (ii) Reductant in terms of oxidation no.?
Answer:
(i) Oxidant: Which decreases its own oxidation no. and increases the ox. no. of the other in a reaction.
(ii) Reductant : Which increases its own ox. no. and decreases that of other in a chemical reaction.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
What do you mean by disproportionation reaction ?
Answer:
A disproportionation reaction is an oxidation-reduction process in which the same substance is oxidized and reduced e.g., 2Cu+ → Cu + Cu2+

Question 15.
Determine the oxidation number of C in the following : C2H6, C4H10, CO, CO2 and HCO3
Answer:
O.N. of C = -3 in C2H6 ; -2.5 in C4H10 ; +2 in CO ; +4 in CO2 and +4 in HCO3

Question 16.
Determine the oxidation number of O in the followiing : Na2O2 and CH3COOH.
Answer:
O.N. of+1 in Na2O2 and -2 in CH3COOH

Question 17.
Find out the oxidation number of sulphur in the following species : and HSO4.
Answer:
O.N. of S = + 6 in HSO4.

Question 18.
Determine the oxidation number of all the atoms in the following well known oxidants KCI04.
Answer:
K = +1, Cl = +7, O = -2

Question 19.
Determine the change in the oxidation number of S in H2S and SO2 in the following industrial reaction : 2H2S(g) + SO2(g) → 3S(g) + 2H2O(g)
Answer:
O.N. of S changes from -2 in H2S and +4 in SO2 to zero in elemental sulphur.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 20.
What is oxidised and what is reduced in the reaction ?
H2S + Cl2 → 2HCl + S
Answer:
H2S is oxidised to S and Cl2 is reduced to HCl.

Question 21.
In the reaction SnCl2 + 2HgCl2 → SnCl4 + Hg2Cl2
which is oxidant and which is reductant ?
Answer:
SnCl2 is a reductant and HgCl2 is an oxidant.

Question 22.
Identify the strongest and weakest reducing agents from the following list: Zn, Cu, Ag, Na, Sn.
Answer:
Strongest reducing agent in Zn and weakest reducing agent in Ag.

Question 23.
Can oxidation number of an atom in a chemical species he fractional ? Illustrate by an example.
Answer:
Yes, it can be fractional. For example oxidation no. of Pb in Pb3O4 = + \(\frac { 8 }{ 3 }\)

KSEEB Solutions

1st PUC Chemistry Redox Reactions Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Calculate the oxidation number of underlined atoms in the following compounds and ions: CH4, Sb2O5, C6H12O6
Answer:
CH4
X + 4 = 0;
X = -4

Sb2O5
2x – 10= 0;
2x = 10
x = +5

C6H12O6
6x + 12 – 12 = 0
x = 0

Question 2.
Identify the oxidant and reductant in the following chemical reaction:
2I(aq) + Cl2 (g) → 2Cl(aq) + I2(s)
Answer:
2I(aq) + Cl2 (g) → 2Cl(aq) + I2(s)
Oxidant is Cl2 (g) reductant is I(aq)

Question 3.
The standard reduction potentials of Al and Ni are -1.66 V and -0.28 V, respectively. Is Al a stronger or weaker reducing agent than Ni ? Explain.
Answer:
‘Al’ is stronger reducing agent than Ni because it has lower reduction potential. Al3+ is more stable than Ni2+ ion.

Question 4.
The standard reduction potentials of Zn2+, Mg2+ and Na+ are -0.76 V, -2.37 V and -2.71 Y respectively, which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
Answer:
Zn2+ is strongest oxidising agent. It can gain electrons easily. It has highest standard reduction potential.

Question 5.
Which of the following is best reducing agent and why ? Li, Cu, Br2, F2, H2, K.
Answer:
Lithium (Li) is best reducing agent because it has lowest standard reduction potential, i.e., Li+ is most stable.

Question 6.
Calculate the oxidation number of (i) C in CH2Cl2 and (iii) Pb in Pb3O4.
Answer:
(i) C in CH2Cl2. Let the oxidation number of C in CH2Cl2 be x. Writing the oxidation number of each atom above its symbol.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 3
x + 2(+1) + 2(-1) = 0 ,x = 0

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
Balance the equation by ion electron method.
Fe(OH)2(s) + H2O2 → Fe(OH)3 (s) + H2O is basic solution.
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 4

Question 8.
Balance the equation by ion electron method.
Al(s) + NO3 → Al(OH)4 + NH3 in basic solution.
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 5

Question 9.
Balance the equation by ion electron method.
PbO2 + Cl → ClO+ [Pb(OH)3] in basic solution.
Answer:
Here 2e + PbO2 → [Pb(OH)3]
2H2O + 2ePbO22 → [Pb(OH)3] + OH …(I)
2OH + Cl → ClO + 2e+H2O …(ii) Add(i)&(ii)
PbO2 + OH + Cl + H2O → [Pb(OH)3 ] + ClO

Question 10.
Balance the equation by ion electron method.
CrO4 + H2O2 →CrO42- in basic solution.
Answer:
[2OH + CrO3 → CrO42- + e + H2O] x 2 …(i)
2e+ H2O2 → 2OH …(ii) (Add(i) & (ii))
2OH+2CrO3 +H2O2 → 2CrO42-+ 2H2O

Question 11.
Starting with the correctly balanced half reactions write the overall net ionic reactions. Chloride ion is form oxidized to Cl2 by MnO4 in acid
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 6

Question 12.
Starting with the correctly balanced half reactions write the overall net ionic reactions for HNO2 reduces MnO4 in acid solution.
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 7

Question 13.
Starting with the correctly balanced half reactions write the overall net ionic reactions for HNO2 oxidizes I to I2 in acid solution.
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 8

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
Starting with the correctly balanced half reactions write the overall net ionic reactions. ClO3 oxidizes Mn2+ to MnO2(s) in acid solution.
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 9

Question 15.
Consider the following cell notation :
Al(s)|Al3+(aq)|Ni2+(aq)|Ni(s), here
Which substances act as anode ? Which of them acts as cathode ? Write the net ionic equation for the cell reaction.
Answer:
At acts as anode, Ni acts as cathode.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 10

Question 16.
Describe the standard half cell that is used in electrochemistry to measure standard potentials. Write an equation for its half reaction and show its standard potential.
Answer:
Standard hydrogen elctrode is used to measure standard electrode potential.
It consists of H2(g) filled at 1 atm, 298 K in a sealed tube having Pt rod for metallic contact, coated with platinum black which acts as catalyst. It is dipped in 1 M solution of HCl. The reaction 2H+ (aq) + 2e → H2(g) \(\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{H}^{+} / \mathrm{H}_{2}}^{\circ}=0\)

Question 17.
Calculate the E°cell using these electrodes whose half reactions are:
Fe(OH)2(s) + 2e → Fe(s) + 2OH(aq)  E° = -0.88V
NiO2(s) + 2H2O(l) + 2e → Ni(OH)2(s) + 2OH(aq)  E° = +0.49V
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 11

Question 18.
Calculate E°cell for the reaction Cl2(g) + 2l → I2(s) + 2Cl(aq) with the help of these half cell reactions:
Cl2 (g) + 2e → 2Cl(aq) ; E° = +1.36V
I2(g) + 2e → 2I(aq) ;E° = +0.54V
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 12

Question 19.
(a) Give one use of heavy water in nuclear reactor.
(b) Write down balanced chemical equations of the reaction of cone. Nitric acid with (i) Copper and (ii) Iodine.
Answer:
(a) Heavy water is used as moderate and coolant in nuclear reactor.
(b) (i) Cu(s) + 4HNO3(conc.) → Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 13

Question 20.
Balance the following ionic reaction with the help of oxidation number method : MnO4 + I → MnO2 + IO3 (alkaline medium)
Answer:
MnO4 + I → MnO2 + IO3 (alkaline medium)
H2O + 2MnO4 + I → 2MnO2 + IO3 + 2OH is balanced equation.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 21.
Complete the following equations :
(a) PbS(s) + H2O2(aq) → ………………………… (b) MnO4(aq) + H2O2 →………………….
Answer:
PbS + 4H2O2 → PbSO4 +4H2O
2MnO4 + 3H2O2 → 2MnO2 + 3O2 + 2H2O + 2OH

Question 22.
Write the cell reactions for Zn|Zn2+(lM)||cd2+(lM)|Cd
E°Zn2+ /Zn = -0.76V, E°Cd2+ /Cd = 0.40V
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 14

Question 23.
Zinc Silver oxide cell is used in heating aids or utensils and electric watches:
Zn → Zn2+ + 2e; E° = +0.76V
Ag2O + H2O + 2e → 2Ag + 2OH; E° = +0.80V
Which is oxidized and reduced?
Answer:
Zn is oxidised, Ag2O is reduced.

Question 24.
The standard emf value of some elements are listed below at 298 K. Which of the following two electrodes should be combined to form a cell having highest emf ? Identify the cathode and anode and write the cell reaction. Also mention the direction of flow of electrons in the external and internal circuit.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 15
Answer:
For maximum emf; anode should have minimum reduction potential and cathode should have maximum reduction potential. Hence A2+ / A couple should be anode and C2+/C couple acts as cathode.
Cell reaction A + C2+ → A2+ + C
Direction of flow of electrons is from A to C in external and from C to A internal circuit. Direction of flow of current is opposite to the direction of flow of electrons.

Question 25.
Silver jewellery turns greyish black due to the formation of Ag2S layer on it. Can this tarnish be removed by dipping tarnished jewllery in an aluminium vessel containing inert electrolytic solution. The standard electrode potential for the half reactions are given below :
Ag2S + 2e → 2Ag + S2-; E° =-0.71V ;and Al3+ +3e →Al; E° = -1.66V
Answer:
Tarnish (black colour) will be removed if the following reaction occur.
Al + Ag2S → A13+ +2Ag + S2 ; here E° for this reaction = -0.71-(-1.66) = 0.95 V
EMF is positive. ∆G will be negative this reaction will occur and tarnish will be removed.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 26.
Justify that the reaction : 2Na(s) + H2(g) → 2NaH is a redox reaction.
Answer:
In this reaction, Na is oxidised to Na+ and hydrogen is reduced from H2 and H- ion. Therefore it is a redox reaction.
2Na0 + H20 → 2Na+ H-1 (s)

Question 27.
Out of silver and aluminium vessel which one will be more suitable to store 1 M HCl solution and why ?
Answer:
Since reduction potential of silver is more than that of hydrogen (E°H+ /H2Pt = 0), silver vessel will be suitable to store 1 M HCl. On the other hand E° of Al3+ /Al is less than that of hydrogen (E°H+ /H2Pt) so that hydrogen will be liberated is stored in aluminium vessel.

Question 28.
What is the oxidation number of Cr in (i) K2CrO4 (ii) Ni and Ni(CO)4
Answer:
Let the Ox. no. of Cr in K2CrO4 be x.
2(+1) + x + 4(-2) = 0
+2 + X – 8 = 0
x = +6
Ox. no. of Cr in K2CrO4 = +6 A
Ox. state of Ni in Ni(CO)4 is x + 4(0) = 0;x – 0
Ox. state of Fe in Fe(CO)5 is x + 5(0) = 0 or x = 0

Question 29.
Can Fe3+ oxidize Brto Br2 at 1 m concentrations ?
Answer:
E°(Fe3+/ Fe2+) is lower than that of E°(Br / B). Therefore Fe2+ reduce Br2 but Br cannot reduce Fe3+ . Thus Fe3+ cannot oxidize Br to Br2.

Question 30.
What is the oxidation state of S in (i) H2SO3 (ii) P4 (ii) (iii) PH3 (iv) H3PO4
Answer:
(i) H2SO3 :2(+1) + x + 3(-2) = 0
x = +4
Ox. state of is IV in H2SO3
Answer:
(i) Ox. no. of P in P4 = 0
(iii) Ox. no. of P in H3PO4 .
3(+1) + x + 4(-2) = 0
+3 + x – 8 = 0
x = +5
Ox. no. of P in H3PO4 = +5

Question 31.
An iron rod is immersed in a solution containing NiSO4 and ZnSO4. When the concentration of each salt is 1M, predict giving reasons which of the following reactions is likely to proceed ? (i) Iron reduces Zn2+ ions, (ii) Iron reduces Ni2+ ions.
Answer:
Given : E°(Zn2+ /Zn) = 0.76V, E°(Fe2+ /Fe) = 0.44V and E°(Ni2+ /Ni) = 0.25V
Answer:
(i) The reduction potential of iron is more than that of zinc. Therefore, iron will be reduced. In other words Zn2+ will not be reduced.
(ii) The reduction potential of Ni2+ is more than that of Iron. Therefore, Ni2+ will be reduced by iron.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 32.
Which of the following redox reaction is oxidation and which is reduction?
(i) Zn → Zn2+ + 2e
(ii) Cl2 + 2e → 2Cl
(iii) Fe → Fe2+ + 2e
(iv) Sn4+ + 2e → Sn2+
Answer:
(i) Oxidation
(ii) Reduction
(iii) Oxidation
(iv) Reduction

Question 33.
Arrange the molecules, NH3, NO3, HN3, NO2, N2O4 and N2H4 in the decreasing order of the oxidation states of nitrogen.
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 16

Question 34.
Determine the change in oxidation number of S in H2S and SO2 in the following industrial process: 2H2S + SO2 → 3S + 2H2O
Answer:
Let us write the oxidation numbers of atoms of all the reactants and products taking part in the reaction:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 17
O.N. of S in H2S increases by 2 O.N. of S in SO2 decreases by 4

Question 35.
Can the reaction Cr3O72- + H2O ⇌ CrO42- +2H+ be regarded as a redox reaction ?
Answer:
Ox. no. of Cr in Cr2O72- ⇌ +6 Ox. no. of Cr in Cr2O72-= +6
Since the ox. no. of Cr has neither increased nor decreased in the above reaction, therefore this reaction cannot be regarded as a redox reaction.

Question 36.
Balance the oxidation reduction reaction FeS2 + O2 → Fe2O3 + SO2
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 18

Question 37.
Which of the two ClO2 or ClO4 show disproportionation reaction and why ?
Answer:
The oxidation state of Cl in ClO2 is +3 and in ClO4 is +7. Chlorine is present in highest oxidation state of +7 in ClO4 and it cannot increase its oxidation state. Hence ClO4 is not disproportionate.
The disproportion reaction of ClO2 is
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 19

KSEEB Solutions

Question 38.
Which type of electrolytic are used in salt bridge ?
Answer:
Only those electrolytes for which cations and anions have nearly the same ionic mobilities (i.e. distance travelled by an ion per second under a potential gradient of one voltmeter) are used as electrolytes in the salt bridge. Thus KCl, KNO3, K4SO4, and NH4NO3 are preferred over NaCl, NaNO3 and Na2SO4.

Question 39.
Mention the cation and anion which have highest ionic mobility.
Answer:
Among cations, H+ ion has the highest ionic mobility and among anions, OH has the highest ionic mobility.

Question 40.
The standard electrode potential corresponding to the reaction Au3+(aq) + 3e → Au(s) is 1.5 V. Predict if gold can be dissolved in 1M HCl solution and on passing hydrogen gas through gold salt solution, metallic gold will be precipitated or not.
Answer:
Consider the half reaction, 2H+(aq) + 2e → H2(g); E° = 0.0V
Au3+(aq) + 3e → Au(s); E° = 1.50V
Since E° (1.50V) for (Au3+ / Au) is higher than that H+ / – \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)H2 (0.0V), therefore, Au3+
can be more easily reduced than H+ ions Au3+ can be reduced to Au metal by H2 butr H+ cannot oxidize metallic gold to Au3+ ions. In other words, metallic gold does not dissolve in 1M HCl instead H2 gas can reduce gold salt to metallic gold.

Question 41.
What is the oxidation number of S in (i) Na2S4O6, (ii) S2Cl2?
Answer:
(i)
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 20
In b & c, s has oxidation number is zero. In a & d s has oxidation number +5
(ii)
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 21

Question 42.
What is the name of the reaction ?
2CH3CH2CH2SH → cCH3CH2CH2 – S – S – CH2CH2CH3
Whether condensation, oxidation, reduction or polymerization?
Answer:
This is an example of oxidation reaction since two H-atoms have been removed.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 43.
Both Cr2O72-(aq) and MnO4 (aq) can be used to titrate Fe2+(aq). If a given titration, 24.50 cm3 of 0.1 M Cr2O72- were used, then what volume of 0.1 M MnO4 solution would have been used for the same titration ?
Answer:
Suppose V2cm3 of M2Fe2+ is titrated against 24.50 cm3 0.1M Cr2O72-  and V1cm3 of 0.1M MnO4 solution, then
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 22
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 23

1st PUC Chemistry Redox Reactions Three/Four Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Balance MnO2 + HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2 + H2O
Answer:
Solution x
Step – 1: Assign oxidation number:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 24

Step – 2 : Write the oxidation number changes.
Change in oxidation number of Mn + 4 to +2 = 2
Change in oxidation number of Cl – 1 to 0 = +1

Step – 3 : Cross multiply the numbers. Co-efficient 2 is multiplied to HCl and 1 is multiplied to MnO2.
MnO2 + 2HCl → MnCl2+H2O + Cl2

Step – 4 : Check the oxidation number, and 2 molecules of HC1 on left hand side to balance the chlorine atoms of MnCl2. In order to balance oxygen and hydrogen atom 2 molecule of H2O has to be added on the right hand side.
MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2

Question 2.
Balance Fe2++ Cr2O72- → Fe3+ + Cr3+ is acid media.
Answer:
Solution:
Step -1: (LEO = Loss of Electron Oxidation)
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 25
(GER = Gain of Electron Reduction)

Step-2: Fe2+ → Fe3+ … (1) (2 → 3 = 1 unit ON) ,
Cr2O72- → 2Cr3+ … (2) (+6 →+3 = 3 units 2 sets => 6 units ON)

Step – 3 : Cross multiplication i.e., (1) x 6 and (2) x 1
(1) x 6 ⇒ 6Fe2+ → 6Fe3+ … (3)
(2) x 1 ⇒ Cr2O7-2 → 2Cr3+ …(4)

Step – 4 : Add (3) + (4) ⇒ 6Fe2+ + Cr2O72- → 6Fe3+ + 2Cr3+

Step – 5 : Balance Oxygen and then Hydrogen
6Fe2+ + Cr2O72- + 14H+ → 6Fe3+ + 2Cr3++ 7H2O

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Evaluate the equivalent weight of I2 from the following equation.
I2 + 2S2O3 → S4O62-+2I
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 26

Question 4.
Find equivalent weight of KMnO4 from
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 27
Answer:
Balance the given equation
2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 3H2O + 5[O]

Method – 1: Stoichiometry
We know equivalent weight of Oxygen = 8
Atomic weight of Oxygen = 16
∴ 2 equivalent of oxygen = 1 Atomic weight of oxygen
Here 5[O] = 10 equivalent of oxygen
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 28

Method – 2 : (Oxidation Number)
2 KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 3H2O + 5[O]
+7 ← 5 Unit GER Reduction → +3
KMnO4 acts as oxidising agent
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 29

Question 5.
Evaluate the equivalent weight of oxidizing and reducing agents in the
following reaction (4M) K2Cr207 +FeS04 >Cr3+ +Fe3+
Answer:
Assigning oxidation number,
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 30

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
The half cell reaction with their oxidation potentials are
Pb(s) → Pb2+(aq) + 2e; Eocell = +0.13V
Ag(s) → Ag(aq) + e; Eocell = -0.80V
Write the cell reaction and calculate its EMF.
Answer:
Rewrite the two equations in the reduction form thus.
Pb2+ (aq) + 2eE → Pb(s) ; E° = -0.13V .. (i)
Ag+(aq) + e → Ag(s) ; E° = +0.80V …(ii)
To obtain the equation for the cell reaction, multiply Eq. (ii) with 2 and subtract Eq. (i) from it, we have,
Pb(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Pb2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) ; Eocell =+0.80-(-0.13) =+0.93V

Question 7.
Justify that the reaction ; 2Cu2O(s) + Cu2S(s) → 6Cu(s) + SO2(g) is a redox
reaction. Identify the species oxidized, reduced, which acts as oxidation and which acts as reductant.
Answer:
Writing the oxidation number of each atom above its symbol we have,
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 31
Here, in the reaction, the oxidation number of copper decreases from +1 in Cu2O or Cu2S to 0 in copper metal, therefore, copper is reduced and is .oxidizing agent or oxidants. Further, the oxidation number of S increases from -2 in Cu2S to +4 in SO2. Therefore, sulphur is oxidized. Thus, it is reducing agent of reductant.

Question 8.
Using stock notation, represent the following compounds : HAuCl2 , TI2O, FeO, Fe2O3, Cul, CuO, MnO and MnO2.
Answer:
By applying the various rules for determining the oxidation number of different atoms in a compound, the oxidation number of each metallic element in the given compounds is as follows:
In HAuCl2 , Au has +3; in TI20, TI has +1; in FeO, Fe has +2; in Fe2O2 , Fe has +3 ; . in Cul, Cu has +1 : in CuO, Cu has +2 ; in MnO, Mn has +2 while in Mn2O , Mn has +4 oxidation state. Therefore, these compounds may be represent as :
HAu(II)Cl4, Tl2(1)O, Fe(II)O, Fe2(III)O3, Cu(I)I, Cu(II)O, Mn(II)O, and Mn(IV)O2.

Question 9.
Balance the equation, Mg(aq) + HNO3(aq) → Mg(NO3)2(aq) + N2O(g) + H2O(1)
Answer:
Find out the elements which undergo a change in oxidation number (O.N.)
O.N. increases by 2 per Mg atom
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 32
Here, O.N. of Mg increases from 0 in Mg metal to +2 in Mg(NO3)2 and that of N decreases from +5 in HNO3 to +1 in N2O.

Question 10.
Split the following redox reactions into the oxidation and reduction half reactions.
(a) 2K(s) + Cl2(g) →2KCl(s) (b) 2Al(s) + 3Cu2+(aq) → 2Al3++(aq) + 3Cu(s)
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 33

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
Predict the oxidation state of (a) C in C3O2, (b) Cr in Br3O3, (c) S in S3O32-
Answer:
(a) The structure of C3O2 (carbon -2 +2 0 +2 -2 suboxide) isO = C = C = C = 0 each of the two terminal oxygen atoms have an oxidation state of -2 and the carbons to which they are atteached have an oxidation state of +2. (Since when ever a covalent bond is formed between similar atoms, each of the atoms is given an oxidation state of zero), therefore, the oxidation state of central carbon atom in C3O2 is zero.

Thus, the two terminal carbon atoms are present in +2 oxidation state each, whereas the third one is present in zero oxidation state. Therefore, the average oxidation state of carbon in
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 34

(b) Tribromooctaoxide (Br3O8)
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 35

We can easily find out that the terminal bromine atoms are present in +6 oxidation state while the middle one has an oxidation state of +4. However, the average oxidation number of Br in Br308 turns out to be
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 36

(c) Tetrathionate ion
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 37
Since each of the two terminal sulphur atoms is connected to two oxygen atoms by a double bond and one oxygen atom by a single bond, therefore, the oxidation state of each of these terminal sulphur atoms is +5.

Since two central sulphur atoms are linked to each other by a single bond and each sulphur is further attached to similar species on either side, the electron pair forming the S – S bond remain in the centre and hence each of the two central sulphur atoms has an oxidation state of zero.
However, the average oxidation state of the sulphur atoms is
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 38

Question 12.
Mention which is reduced and oxidized in the following reaction :
(a) 4Na(s) + O2(g) → 2Na20(s)
(b) 2Na(s) + Cl2(g) → 2NaCl(s) ,
(c) 2Na(s) + S(s) → Na2S(s)
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 39

Question 13.
Identify the oxidant and reductant in the following reactions :
(a) 10H+ (aq) + 4Zn(s) + NO3 (aq) → 4Zn2+(aq) + NH+4 +3H2O(l)
(b) I2(g) + H2S(g) → 2IH(g) + S(s)
Ans:
(a) Writing the O.N. of all the atoms above their symbols, we have
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 40
O.N. of Zn changes from zero in Zn to +2 in Zn2+ and, therefore, it is oxidized and hence Zn acts as a reductant.
The O.N. of N decreases from +5 in NO3 to -3 in NO4+ and, therefore, it is reduced and hence NO3 acts as the oxidant.

(b) Writing the ON of all the atoms above their symbols, we have
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 41
The ON of I2 decreases from zero in I2 to -1 in HI, therefore, I2 is reduced and hence it acts as on oxidant.
The O.N. of S increases from -2 in H2S to zero in S, therefore, H2S is oxidized and hence it acts as the reductant.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
0.2g of a sample of H2O2 reduced 20 ml of 0.1M KMnO4 solution in acidic medium. What is the percentage purity of H2O2 ?
Answer:
No of moles of KMnO4 present in 20ml of 0.1M
KMnCh solution = \(\frac{20}{1000}\) x 0.1 = 2 x 10-3

The balanced equation for the redox reactions is :
2KMnO4 + 5H2O2 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 8H2O + 5O2 …(1)
From the equation, 2 moles of KMnO4 = 5 moles of H2O2.
2 x 10-3 moles of KMnO4 will react with H2O2 = \(\frac{5}{2}\) x 2 x 10-3 = 5 x 10-3 moles
Molecular wt. of H2O2 = 34
Amount of H2O2 actually present = 34 x 5 x 10-3 = 0.17g .
Percentage purity of in 20 ml is =  \(\frac{0.17}{0.20}\) x l00 = 85

Question 15.
16.6g of pure potassium iodide was dissolved in water and the solution was . made upto one litre. V cm3 of this solution was acidified with 20 cm3 of 2M HCl. The resulting solution required 10 cm3 of decinormal KlO3 for complete oxidation of I- ions to ICl. Find out the value of V.
Answer:
The chemical equation for the redox reactions is :
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 42

Question 16.
Which of the following species, do not show disproportionation reaction and why ? CIO, CIO2, CIO3 and CIO4 Also write reactions for each of the species that disproportionates.
Answer:
The oxidation state of Cl in all the given species are :
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 43
Out of above species, CIO4 does not undergo disproportionation since in this oxoanion chlorine is already present in the highest oxidation state of +7 and hence cannot be further oxidized.

All the remaining oxoanions have oxidation state lower than the highest (i.e., +7) and higher than the lowest (i.e. -1) therefore, all these species undergo disproportionation reactions as shown below.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 44

Question 17.
How does CU2O act as both oxidant and reductant ? Explain with proper reactions showing the change of oxidation numbers in each example.
Answer:
Cu2O undergoes disproportionation to form Cu2+ and Cu.
2Cu2+(aq) >Cu2+(aq) + Cu(s)
Thus, Cu2O acts both as an oxidant as well as a reductant.
(i)
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 45
and Cu2O acts as a reductant and reduces O2 to O2-

(ii) When heated with Cu2S it oxidizes S2- to SO2 and hence Cu2O acts as an oxidants
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 46

KSEEB Solutions

Question 18.
Determine the volume of \(\frac { M }{ 8 }\) KMnO4 solution required to react completely with 25.0cm3 \(\frac { M }{ 4 }M/4\) FeSO4 solution in acidic medium.
Answer:
The balanced ionic equation for the reaction is
MnO4+ 5Fe2+ + 8H+ → Mn2+ + 5Fe3+ + 4H2O
From the balanced equation, it is evident that 1 mole of KMnO4 = 5 moles of FeSO4.
Applying molarity equation to the balanced redox equation,
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 47
Thus, the volume of \(\frac { M }{ 4 }M/4\) KMnO4 solution required =10.0 ml.

Question 19.
Calculate the concentration of hypo (Na2S2O3.5H2O) solution in gdm-3 if 10.0ml of this solution decolourised 15mL of M/40 iodine solution.
Answer:
The balanced equation for the redox reaction is 2S2O32- + I2 → 2I + S4O6 2-
From the balanced equation, it is evident that 2 moles of Na2S2C>O3 ≡ 1 mole of I2.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 48
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 49

Question 20.
Calculate the volume of 0.05M KMnO4 solution required to oxidize completely 2.70g of oxalic acid (H2C2O4) in acidic medium.
Answer:
Balanced equation for the redox reaction is :
2KMnO4 + 5(COOH)2 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 10CO2 + 8H2O
No of moles oxalic acid = 2.70/90 = 0.03 mole
From the balanced equation, 5 moles of (COOH)2 = 2 mole KMn04 .
Then 0.03 mole (COOH)2 = pppp— x 0.03 = 0.012 moles of KMnO4.
Now, 0.05 mole of KMnO4 is present in solution given = 1000 cm3.
0.012 mole of KMnO4 is present in solution = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) = 240 cm3

Question 21.
Write the rules for assigning oxidation number.
Answer:

  • All atoms in the elemental or molecular state have ‘zero’ oxidation state.
  • Elements of group I and II in the periodic table always have ‘+1’ and ‘+2’ oxidation sstates respectively.
  • Hydrogen ‘+1’ oxidation state in all its compounds except metal hydrides where it is ‘-1’
  • Oxygen has been assigned an oxidation number of ‘-2’ in all its compounds except peroxides and oxygen fluoride. In peroxide it is ‘-1’ and in oxygen fluoride it is ‘+2’.
  • Halogens generally have ‘-1’ oxidation state. Except fluorine, other halogens may have positive oxidation states in their oxides and inter halogen compounds (Fluorine always has ‘-1’ state).
  • The algebraic sum of oxidation numbers of all the elements in a compound is zero and that in an ion is equal to the net charge on the ion.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 22.
Balance MnO4 + Fe2+ → Fe3+ + Mn2+ in acidic medium by ion electron method.
Answer:
MnO4 + Fe2+ → Fe3+ +Mn2+
[Fe2+ → Fe3+] x 5 ……………(i)
8H+ + MnO4 >Mn2+ + 4H2O …(ii)
… (ii) Adding (i) and (ii), we get
5Fe2+ + 8H+ + MnO4 → Mn2+ + 4H2O + 5Fe3+

Question 23.
Find the oxidation state of sulphur in the following compounds :
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 50

Question 24.
Find the oxidation number of element underlined in the following species :
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 52
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 53

Question 25.
Calculate the oxidation number of (i) N in NO3 ; (ii) P in H3P2O7 CO32-.
Answer:
(i) N in NO3 , let the oxidation number of N in NO3 be x. Writing the oxidation number of each atom above its symbol. \(\begin{array}{cc}{\mathbf{x}} & {-2} \\ {\mathbf{N}} & {\mathbf{O}_{3}}\end{array}\)
x + 3(-2) = -1
x – 6 = -1, x = +5
(ii) P in H3P2O7 , let the oxidation number of P in H3P2O7 be x. Writing the oxidation
number of each atom above its symbol.
\(\begin{array}{ll}{\text { th } x} & {-2} \\ {\text { H }_{3} P_{2}} & {\text { o_{ } }}\end{array}\)
H3P2O7= 3(+1) + 2 (x) = -1 +7(-2) or 2x – 11 = -1; x = + 5
Thus, the oxidation number of P in H3P2O7 is +5.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 26.
What is the oxidation number of metals (i) [Fe(CN)6 ]4- and (ii) MnO4 ?
Answer:
(i) Fe in [Fe(CN)6 ]4-. Let the oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(CN)6 ]4- bexand CN be -1 i.e..,
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 54
∴  Sum of oxidation numbers of all the atoms in
[Fe(CN)6 ]4- =x + 6(-l) = -4 = x-6 = -4; x = +2
Thus, the oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(CN)6 ]4- f is +2.

(ii) Mn in MnO4. Let the oxidation number of Mn in MnO4 be x. Writing oxidation number of each atom above its symbol, we get.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 55
Thus, the oxidation number of Mn in MnO4 is +7
Predict the oxidation number of the element underlined NaCl, MgSO4, AlF3, SiCl4, PF3, P4O10, SF6, SO3, HClO4, Cl2O7.
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 56

Question 27.
What is the maximum and minimum oxidation numbers of N, S and Cl?
Answer:
(i) The highest oxidation number (O.N) of N is +5 since it has five electrons in the valence shell (3s2 2p3 ) and its minimum O.N. is -3 since it can be accept three more electrons to acquire the nearest inert gas (Ne) configuration.

(ii) Similarly, the highest O.N. of S is +6 since it has six electrons in the valence shell (3s2 2p4) and its minimum O.N. is -2 since it needs two more electrons to acquire the nearest inert gas (Ar) configuration.

(iii) Likewise the maximum O.N. of Cl is +7 since it has seven electrons in the valance shell (3s2 2p5 ) and its minimum O.N. is -1 since it needs only one more electron to acquire the nearest (Ar) Noble gas configuration.

Question 28.
Nitric acid acts only as an oxidising agent while nitrous acid acts both as an oxidising as well as a reducing agent. Why ?
Ans:
(i) Nitric Acid HNO3 : Here Oxidation number of N is HNO3 = +5 ; But
Maximum oxidation number of N = +5 ; Minimum oxidation number of N = -3 Since the oxidation number of N in HNO3 is maximum (+5), therefore it can only decrease by accepting electrons. Hence HNO3 acts only as an oxidizing agent.

(ii) Nitrous Acid HNO2 : Here Oxidation number of N in HNO2 = +3
Maximum oxidation number of N = +5 ; Minimum oxidation number of N = -3 Thus, the oxidation number of N can either increase by losing electrons or can decrease by accepting electrons. Therefore, HNO2 acts both as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent.

Question 29.
Write correctly the balanced equations for the following redox reactions using half reaction:
(i) H2S + Fe3+ → Fe2+ + S + H+
(ii) I+IO3 + H+ → I2+H2O
(iii) I + O2 + H2O → I2 + OH
(iv) Cu(s) + Au+ → Au(s) + Cu2+
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 57

KSEEB Solutions

Question 30.
Consider the following reactions that produce electricity in the galvanic cell:
(i) 2Fe3+(aq) + 2Cl(aq) → 2Fe2+ (aq) + Cl2(g)
(ii) 2Cr(s) + 3Cu2+ → 3Cu(s) + 2Cr3+
Write the anode and cathode reactions for the galvanic cell. Write cell in the usual notation.
Cathode
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 58
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 59

Question 31.
Balance the following reaction :
(i) Cu + NO3 → NO2 + Cu2+
Write correctly balanced half cell reactions and overall equations for the following equations by ion electron method:
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 60
Question 32.
NO3 + Bi(s) → Bi3 + NO2 in acid solution by ion electron method.
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 61

Question 33.
Cr2O72- + C2H4O→ C2H4O2 + Cr3+ in acid solution by ion electron method.
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 62

Question 34.
MnO4 + H2C2O4 → Mn2+ + CO2 in acid solution by ion electron method.
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 63

KSEEB Solutions

Question 35.
A cell is prepared by dipping a zinc rod in 1M ZnSO4 solution and a lead rod in 1 M Pb(NO3)2 solution. The standard electrode a potentials for Pb+2/Pb and Zn+2 /Zn electrode are -0.126 V and -0.763 V respectively. _
(a) How will you represent the cell ?
(b) Write the half cell reactions and the overall cell reaction.
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 64

Question 36.
Copper dissolves in dilute HNO3 but not in dilute HCl. Why ? Explain.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 65
Answer:
Electrode potential of Cu2+/Cu is higher than H+/H2 and so H+ ions cannot oxidize Cu to Cu2+ ions and therefore copper does not dissolve in dilute HCl. On the other hand, the electrode potential of NO3 ion i.e., NO3/NO electrode is higher than that of copper electrode and hence it can oxidize Cu to Cu2+ ion; so copper dissolve in dilute HNO3.
Thus copper dissolved in dilute HNO3 due to oxidation of Cu by NO3 ions and not by H+ions.

1st PUC Chemistry Redox Reactions Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the following redox reactions using half equations.
(i) Zn(s) + PbCl2 (aq) → Pb(s) + ZnCl2(aq)
(ii) 2Fe3+ (aq) + 2e (aq) →  I2(s) + 2Fe2+ (aq)
(iii) 2Na(s) + Cl2 (g) →  2NaCl(s)
(iv) Mg(s) + Cl2(s) → MgCl2(s)
(v) Zn(s) + 2H+ (aq) →  Zn2+ (aq) + H2 (g)
In each of the reactions given above, mention
(i) Which reactant is oxidized ? To what ?
(ii) Which reactant is the oxidizer ?
(iii) Which reactant is reduced ? To what ?
(iv) Which reactant is the reducer ?
Answer:
(i) Zn → Zn2+ + 2e (oxidation), Pb2+ → 2e +Pb (reduction) Zn is oxidized to Zn2+, Pb2+ is reduced to Pb; Pb2+ is the oxidizer and Zn is the reducer.

(ii) 2Fe3+ + 2e → 2Fe2+ (reduction), 2l → I2 +2e (oxidation)
Fe3+ is reduced to Fe2+, I is oxidized to I2; I is the reducer and Fe3+ is the oxidizer.

(iii) 3Na → 2Na+ +2e (oxidation), Cl2 + 2e > 2Cl (reduction)
Na is oxidized to Na+ and Cl2 is reduced to Cl; Na is the reducer and Cl2 is the oxidizer.

(iv) Mg → Mg2+ + 2e (oxidation), Cl2 + 2e → 2Cl (reduction)
Mg is oxidized to Mg while Cl2 is reduced to Cl ; Mg is the reducer and Cl2 is the oxidizer.

(v) Zn → Zn2+ +2e (oxidation), 2H+ + 2e >H2 (reduction)
Zn is oxidized to Zn2+ while H+ is reduced to H2;Zn is the reducer and H+ is the oxidizer.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Write the reaction at anode and cathode and the net cell reaction in the following cells. Which electrode would be +ve terminal in each cell ?
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 66
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 69

Question 3.
Mention which element undergoes disproportionate reaction in alkaline media.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 70
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 71
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 72

Question 4.
Calculate emf of the following cell:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 73
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 74

Question 5.
In the reaction given below^ identify the species undergoing oxidation and reduction:
(i) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
(ii) CH2 = CH2(g) + H2(g) → H3C – CH3(g)
(iii) H2S(g) + O2(g) → 2S(s) + 2H2O(1)
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 75
Answer:
(i) CH4 is oxidized to CO2 while O2 is reduced to H2O.
(ii) H2S is oxidised to S while O2 is reduced to H2O.
(iii) CH2 = CH2 is reduced to CH3 – CH3 while H2 is oxidized to CH3 – CH3.
(iv) Hg2+ is reduced to Hg while O2- is oxidized to O2.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Using electron-transfer concept, identify the oxidation and reduction in the following redox reactions.
(a) Zn(s) + 2H+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + H2(g)
(b) 2[Fe(CN)6]4- (aq) + H2O2(aq) + 2H+(aq) → 2[Fe(CN)6]3- (aq) + 2H2O(aq)
(c) 2[Fe(CN)6]3- (aq) + 2OH(aq) + H2O2(aq) → 2[Fe(CN)6]4-(aq) + 2H2O(l)
(d) BrO3(aq) + F2(g) + 2OH(aq) → BrO4(aq) + 2F(aq) + H2O(l)
(e) 2NaClO3(aq) + l2(aq) → 2NaIO2(aq) + Cl2(g)
Answer:
Oxidants : (a) H+ (b) H2O2, (c) [Fe(CN)6]3-, (d) Fe, (e) l2.
Reductants : (a) Zn, (b) [Fe(CN)6]4- , (c) H2O2, (d) BrO3 , (e)NaClO3

Question 7.
Why do the following reactions proceed differently ?
Pb3O4 + 8HCl → 3PbCl2 +Cl2 + 4H2O and
Pb3O4 + 4HNO3   → 2Pb(NO3)2 + PbO2 + 4H2O
Answer:
Pb3O4 is actually a stoichiometric mixture of 2 moles of PbO and one mole of PbO2, i.e., 2PbO. PbO2. In PbO2, lead is present in + 4 oxidation state, whereas in PbO, lead is present in +2 oxidation state. Since +2 oxidation state or Pb is more stable, therefore, PbO2 acts as an oxidant (oxidizing agent) and hence oxidises OF ions of HCl into Cl2. Further more, PbO is a basic oxide and hence reacts with HCl to form PbCl2 and H2O. Thus the reaction of Pb2O4 with HCl can be split into two , reactions, namely, acid-base and redox reaction as shown below :
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 76

Since HNO3 is an oxidizing agent, it does not react with PbO2 which is also an oxidizing agent. Therefore, no redox reaction occurs between PbO2 and HNO3. However, acid-base reaction between PbO and HNO3 occurs as follows :

2PbO + 4HNO3 → 2Pb(NO3 )2 + 2H2O

The overall reaction of PbO3 with HNO3 can then be written as
2PbO + PbO2 + 4HNO3 → 2Pb(NO3 )2 + PbO2 + 2H2O or
Pb3O4+ 4HNO3 → 2Pb(NO3 )2 + PbO2 + 2H2O
Thus, it is the passive nature of PbO2 against HNO3that makes the reaction of Pb3O4 with HNO3 different from that with HCl.

Question 8.
Explain applications of Redox Reactions.
Answer:
1. Extraction of metals : By using a suitable reducing agent, metal oxides can be ‘ reduced to metals. For example, Fe2O3 is reduced to iron in the blast furnace using coke as the reducing agent.

Fe2O3(s) + 3C(S) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO(g)

Simialrly, Al2O3 is reduced to aluminium by cathodic reduction in an electrolytic cell. Other metals such as lithium, sodium, potassium, magnesium, calcium, etc., are also obtained commercially by electrolytic methods.

2. Electrochemical cells or batteries : Electrochemical cells or batteries based on redox reactions are widely used in our day today life to run a number of small and big gadgets and equipments. For example storage cells are used to supply all the electrical needs of our cars, trucks, buses, trains aeroplanes, etc. Similarly, electrical energy needed in the space capsule is obtained by the reaction of hydrogen and oxygen in fuel cells which are electro chemical cells using oxygen and hydrogen electrodes.

3. Photosynthesis : Green plants convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates in presence of sunlight. This reaction is called Photosynthesis and is sensitized by chlorophyll.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 77
During this reaction, CO2 is reduced to carbohydrates while water is oxidized to oxygen. The energy needed for the reaction is provided by sunlight.

This reaction is a source of food for plants and animals. It also maintain a constant supply of 21% of O2 by volume in the atmosphere needed for combustion of fuels and breathing of a living creatures in the world.

4. Supply of energy : The energy required for our daily needs is obtained by oxidation of fuels. For example, oxidation of fuels such as wood, gas, kerosene, petrol, etc., produces a large amount of energy which we need for various purposes in our daily life.
Fuels (wood, petrol, kerosene, gas) + O2 → CO2 + H2O + other products + Energy

Human body also needs energy for proper functioning. This is obtained by the oxidation of glucose in our body to CO2 and water.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 78

5. Production of chemicals : Many chemicals of our daily needs such as caustic soda, chlorine, fluorine, etc, are produced by electrolysis which is based on redox reaction.

6. Quantitative analysis : Redox reactions are very useful in quantitative analysis by redox titrations. These titrations involve the reactions between oxidizing and reducing agents and help in estimating the amount of unknown substances in solutions.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Balance the following equations in acidic medium by oxidation number
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 79
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 80

Question 10.
Balance the following equation by ION-Electron method :
Zn(s) + NO4+ → Zn2+ (aq) + NH4+ (aq) + H2O(l)
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 81

Question 11.
Split the following redox reaction in the oxidation and reduction half reactions:
(a) 2K(s) + Cl2(g) >2KCl(s)
(b) 2Al(s) + 3Cu2+(aq) >2Al3+(aq) + 3Cu(s)
Answer:
(a) Let us write the oxidation numbers of the atoms of all the reactants and products taking part in reaction.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 82

(b) Let us write the oxidation numbers of the atoms of all the reactants and products taking part in the reaction.
Increase in Oxidation Number
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 83
Question 12.
Balance the following reaction by ION-ELECTRON method Cl2(g) + OH → Cl (aq) + CIO3 (aq) + H2O (in basic medium)
Answer:
Cl2(g) + OH → Cl (aq) + CIO3 (aq) + H2O
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 84
Cl2(g) + 6H2O(l) → 2ClO3(aq) (… Go for balancing oxygen is a abasic media odd off on RHS )
Cl2(g) + 6H2O(l) + 12OH → 2ClO3(aq) + 12H2O(l)
Cl2(g) + 12OH (aq) → 2ClO3(aq) + 6H2O(l) (now balance e-)
Cl2(g) I +12OH (aq) → 2ClO3(aq) + 6H2O(l) + 10e . ..(1)
Reduction half-reaction
Cl2(g) → Cl(aq)
Cl2(g) → 2Cl(aq)
Cl2(g) + 3e → 2Cl(aq) …(2)
Multiply equation no. (2) by 5 to equalize electrons
Add both the half-reactions
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 85

KSEEB Solutions

Question 13.
Write the over all net ionic reaction for the following change if the half reactions are correctly balanced: Cl ion is oxidized to Cl2 by MnO2 in acidic solution: Chloride ion is oxidized to Cl2 by MnO4(in acid solution)
Answer:
The skeletal equation is
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 86
Where ox. no. of chlorine changes from -1 in Cl ion to O in Cl2
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 87
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 88

Question 12.
A cell is prepared by dipping a chromium rod in 1 M Cr2(SO4)3 solution and an ion rod in 1 M FeSO4 solution. The standard reduction potentials of chromium and iron electrodes are -0.75V and -0.45 V respectively.
(a) What will be the cell reaction ?
(b) What will be the standard EMF of the cell ?
(c) Which electrode will act as anode ?
(d) Which electrode will act as cathode ?
Answer:
The two half cell reduction equations me :

Fe2+(aq) + 2e → Fe(s);E° =-0.45 V …(i)
Cr3+(aq) + 3e → Cr(s);E° = -0.75V …(ii)

Since Cr3+ / Cr electrode has lower reduction potential therefore it acts as the anode while Fe2+ /Fe electrode with higher electrode potential acts as the cathode.

To equalize the number of electrons, multiply Eq. (i) by 3 and Eq. (ii) by 2. But do not multiply their E° values. Thus,

3Fe2+ (aq) + 6e → 3Fe(s); E° = -0.45V .. .(iii)
2Cr3+(aq) + 6e → 2Cr(s) ; E° =-0.75V …(iv)

To obtain equation for the cell reaction, subtract Eq. (iv) from Eq. (iii), we have,
2Cr(s) + 3Fe2+(aq) → 2Cr3+(aq) + 3Fe(s)
cell = -0.45-(-0.75V) = +0.30V Thus, the EMF of the cell = + 0.30V

Question 13.
Write the net ionic equation for the reaction of potassium dichromate (VI), K2Cr2O7 with sodium sulphate, Na2SO3, in acid solution to give chromium (III) ion and sulphate ion.
Answer:
Step-1: Write the skeleton equation for the given reaction.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 89
Step – 2 : Find out the elements which undergo a change in oxidation number (O.N.) O.N. decreases by 3 per Cr. atom
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 90
Here, O.N. of Cr decreases from +6 in Cr2O72- to +3 in Cr3+ while that of S increases from +4 SO3-2 to +6 in SO42-
Step – 3 : Balance increase / decrease in O.N. since the total increase in O.N. is 2 and decrease is 6, therefore, multiply SO32- on L.H.S. and SO42- on R.H.S. of Eq. (ii) by 3. Combining steps 2 and 3, we have,

1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 91

Step – 7 : Balance O atoms by adding H2O molecules.

1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 92

Step – 7 : Balance H atoms by adding H+

1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 93

Thus, Eq. (v) represents the correct balanced equation.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
Permanganate ion react with bromide ion in basic medium to give manganese dioxide and bromate ion. Write the balance chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer:
Step – 1: Write the skeletal equation. The skeletal equation for the given reaction is :
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 94

Step – 2 :
Find out the elements which undergo a change in oxidation number (O.N.) O.N. increases by 6 per Br atom
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 95

Here, O.N. of Br inceases from – 1 Br to +5 in BrO3, therefore, Br acts as reductant. Further, O.N. of Mn decreases from +7 in MnO4 to +4 in MnO2, therefore, MnO4 acts as oxidant.

Step – 3 : Balance O atoms by adding H2O molecules.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 96

Step – 4 s Balance H atoms by adding H2O and OH ions since the reaction occurs in basic medium, therefore, add 2H2O to L.H.S. and 2OH to R.H.S. of Eq. (iv), we have,
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 97

Question 15.
Write the half reactions for the following redox reactions.
(a) Fe2+(aq) + 2I(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + I2(aq)
(b) Zn(s) + 2H+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + H2(g)
(c) Al(s) + 3Ag+(aq) → Al3+(aq) + 3Ag(s)
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 98

Question 16.
Balance the equation, by ion electron method.
AS2S3(S) + NO3(aq) + H+ (aq) → AsO43-(aq) + S(s) + NO(g) + H2(l)
Answer:
Step 1 : To identify the atoms whose oxidation numbers have undergone a change. Writing the oxidation number of each atom above its symbol, we have
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 99

Step 2:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 100

Step 3 : To balance the oxidation half Eq. (i)
(a) Balance all the atoms other than H and O. Multiply AsO43- by 2 and S by 3 on RHS of Eq. (i) we have,
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 101

(c) Balance charge by adding H+ ions. The total charge on RHS of Eq. (iv) is -16 and zero the LHS therefore, add 16H+ to RHS of Eq. (iv) we have,
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 102
(d) Balance O atoms by adding H2O molecules.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 103
The H-atoms get automatically balanced. Thus Eq. (vi) represents the balanced oxidation half equation.

Step 4 : To balance the reduction half Eq. (ii)
(a) Balance oxidation number by adding electrons.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 104

(b) Balance charge by adding H+ ions.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 105
(c) Balance H+ by adding H20
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 106
Thus, Eq. (ix) represents the balanced reduction half equation Eq. (ix) by 10 and Eq,
(vi) by 3 and (ix) 10 + (vi) x 3

Step 5 :
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 107

KSEEB Solutions

Question 17.
Permanganate (VII) ion, in basic solution oxidizes iodide ion 1- to produce molecular iodine (I2) and manganese (IV) oxide (MnO2). Write a balanced ionic equation to represent this redox reaction.
Answer:
Step 1 s Write pie skeletal equation for the given reaction.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 108
Step 2 : Write the O.N. of all the elements above their respective symbols.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 109
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 110

Step 4 : To balance oxidation half Eq. … (ii)
(a) Balance all atoms 2I(aq) → I2(s) … (iv)
(b) Balance O.N. by adding electrons.
2I(aq) → I2(s) + 2e …(v)
Charge on either side of Eq(v) is balanced. Thus, Eq. (v) represents the balanced oxidation half equation.

Step 5 : Balance the reduction half equation (iii)
Balance O.N. by adding electrons.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 111

Step 6: To balance the electrons lost in Eq. (v) and gained in Eq. (viii) Equation (v) x 3 + Equation (viii) x 2 we have,
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 112
This represents are final balanced redox equation.

Question 18.
In passing chlorine gas through a concentrated solution of alkali, we get chloride and chlorate ions. Obtain balanced chemical equation for this reaction by ion -electron method.
Answer:
Step 1: Write the skeletal equation for the given reaction.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 113

Step 2 : Write the ON of all the elements above their respective symbols O.N. of Cl increases by 5 per Cl atom.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 114
O.N. of Cl decreases by 1 per Cl atom Total increase = 2 x 5 = 10 Total decrease = 2 x -1 = -2

Step 3 : Find out the oxidant and the reductant and split the skeletal Eq (i) into two half reactions.

Step 4 : To balance the reduction half equation (ii). (a) Balance all atoms.
Cl2(aq) →2Cl(aq) … (iv)
(b) Balance oxidation number by adding electrons.
Cl2(g) + 2e →2Cl(aq) … (v)
represents the balanced reduction half reactions.

Step 5 : To balance the oxidation half equation (iii)
(a) Balance all atoms Cl2(g) »2ClO3
(b) Balance ON by adding electrons.
Cl2(g) → 2ClO3(aq) + 10e … (vi)
(c) Balance charge by adding OH” ions
Cl2(g) + 120H(aq) → 2ClO3(aq) + 10e … (ix)
(d) Balance O atoms, the RHS of Eq. (viii) contains six O atoms but on the LHS there are 12. Therefore, add 5H2O to the RHS, we have
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 115
Eq (ix) represents the balanced oxidation half equation.

Step 6 : (v) x 5 + (ix) we have
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 116
This represents the final balanced redox equation.

Question 19.
Suggest a scheme of classification of the following redox reactions.
(a) N2(g) + O2(g) →2N(Xg)
Ob) 2Pb(NO3)2(s) → 2PbO(s) + 2NO2(g) + 1/2 O2(g)
(c) NaH(s) + H2O(1)→  4NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
(d) 2NO2(g) + 20H(aq) → NO2(aq) + NO3 (aq) + H2O(l)
Answer:
(a)
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 127 In this reaction, the compound nitric oxide is formed by combination of elemental substances like nitrogen and oxygen. Since the oxidation number of nitrogen increases from 0 to +2 and of oxygen decreases from 0 to -2 therefore, it is a combination redox reaction.

(b)
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 117

In this reaction, lead nitrate decomposes to form three products, viz, lead oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen. Since the oxidation number of nitrogen decrease from +5 in lead nitrate to +4 in NO2 in O2, therefore, it is a decomposition redox reaction.

(c)
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 118
In this reaction, hydrogen of water has been displaced by hydride ion to form dihydrogen gas. Therefore, it is a displacement reaction. Since in this reaction, the oxidation number of hydrogen increases from -1 in hydride ion to zero in dihydrogen gas and that of hydrogen decreases from +1 in water to zero in dihydrogen, therefore, it is a displacement redox reaction.

(d)
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 119
This is a disproportionation reaction since here the oxidation state of nitrogen decreases from +4 in NO2 to +3 in NO2 ion, as well as increases from +4 in NO2 to +5 in NO3 ion.

Question 20.
Calculate the oxidation number of the element underline in each of the following cases,
(a) Al in Al2O3
(b) P in P2O5
(c) S in Na2S2O3
(d) Cl in NaClO3
(e) Mn in KMnO4
(f) HA4Cl4
(g) Na2PdCl4
(h) K4MO2Cl8
(i) ClO
(j) Si032
(k) H2PO4
(1) Cr2O72
(m) H2PO4
Answer:
Solution : The rule used here is that the algebraic sum of the oxidation numbers of all the atoms a molecule is zero.
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 120

b) P2O5 : 2 x (oxidation no. of P) + 5(-2) = 0
oxidation of P = pp = +5

c) Na2S2O3 : 2(+l) + 2(oxidation no. of S) + 3(-2) = 0
2(oxidation no. of S) = 4

d) NaClO3 : 1(+1) + (oxidation no. of Cl) +3 (-2) = 0
oxidation no. of Cl = +6 – 1 = +5

e) KMnO4 : 1(+1) + (oxidation no. of Mn) + 4(-2) = 0
+1 + (oxidation no. of Mn) – 8 =0
∴ oxidation no. of Mn = + x7
Answer:
Solution : The rule used here is that the algebraic sum of the oxidation numbers of all the atoms in an ion is equal to the net charge on the ion.

f) HA4Cl4 1(ON of H) + 1C (ON of A4) + (ON of Cl) = 0
(+1) + x + 4(-l) = 0 => l + x-4 = 0 => x = +3

g) Na2PdCl2 = 2(+l) + x + 4(-l) = 0 => 2+x-5=0 => x = +2

h) x be ON to be find
K4MO2Cl8 = 4(+l) + (x)2 + 8(-l) = 0
4 + 2x – 8 = 0 => 2x – 4 = 0 => x = +2
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 121

KSEEB Solutions

Question 21.
What is oxidation number of sulphur in the following molecules / ions (n) sinH2S sin SO42- sinH2SO4
Answer:
(i) The oxidation number of Hydrogen is +1, and s = x than
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 122

(ii) SO42- let x be ON of s ; Oxidation Number of oxygen is -2
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 123

(iii) H2SO4 let x, +1, -2 be on of S, H and O
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 124

Question 22.
Find the oxidation number of the underlined atoms.
(a) CCl4
(b) CH4
(C) ClO3
(d) BrF3
(e) Na2 B4O7
(f) HClO3
(g) HPO2
(h) Fe3 O4
Answer:
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 125
1st PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 Redox Reactions - 126

KSEEB Solutions

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 10 Solutions Padya Chapter 8 Nittotadali Haydanu Bittamandeyali

Students can Download Kannada Poem 8 Nittotadali Haydanu Bittamandeyali Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Tili Kannada Text Book Class 10 Solutions, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 10 Solutions Padya Bhaga Chapter 8 Nittotadali Haydanu Bittamandeyali

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2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

You can Download Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Questions and Answers, 2nd PUC Biology Question Bank with Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

2nd PUC Biology Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the parts of an angiosperm flower in which the development of male and female gametophyte takes place.
Answer:
Development of male gametophyte takes place from microspore or pollen grains which develop inside the microsporangium or pollen sac of an anther.
Development of female gametophyte takes place in the nucellus of the ovule.

Question 2.
Differentiate between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis. Which type of cell division occurs during these events? Name the structure formed at the end of these two events.
Answer:
The development of microspore from the microspore mother cell is called microsporogenesis. The development of the megaspore from the megaspore mother cell is called megasporogenesis. In both these developments, the mother cell undergoes meiotic division or reduction division to produce spores. At the end of these divisions, microspores or pollen grains are produced inside the pollen sac, and megaspores are produced inside the ovary.

Question 3.
Arrange the following terms in the correct developmental sequence. Pollen grain, sporogenous tissue, microspore tetrad, pollen mother cell, male gamete.
Answer:
Sporogenous tissue – pollen mother cell – microspore tetrad – pollen grains – male gametes.

Question 4.
With a neat and labelled diagram, describe the parts of a typical angiosperms ovule.
Answer:
An ovule is a female megasporangium where the formation of megaspores takes place.

2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 1
The various parts of an ovule are:

  • A small stalk or funicle by which the ovule remains attached with the placenta of the ovary.
  • Hilum is the point at which it is attached with the ovule. In the inverted ovule the funicle fuses with the main body of the ovule and is called as raphe.
  • The ovule is surrounded on all sides by two integuments but not at the apex where an aperture called micropyle is present. This end of the ovule is called a micropylar, while the end of the ovule opposite to it is called a chalazal end.
  • The embryo sac is situated inside the nucellus.
  • Towards the micropyle end of the embryosac, one egg or oospore and two synergids are found, and towards the chalaza end of embryosac, three antipodal cells are found. At the center secondary nuclei are found.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
What is meant by the monosporic development of female gametophyte?
Answer:
In many flowering plants, only one out of the four megaspores enlarges and develops into a female gametophyte or embryo sac. The other three megaspores degenerate. This type of embryo sac formation is called a monosporic type of development.

Question 6.
With a neat labelled diagram, explain the 7 celled, 8 nucleate nature of the female gametophyte.
Answer:
2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 2

Embryo sac is an oval multicellular structure. It is covered by a thin membrane derived from the parent megaspore wall. The typical or Polygonum type of embryo sac contains 8 nuclei but 7 cells – 3 micropylar, 3 chalazal and one central. The three micropylar cells are collectively known as egg apparatus. One cell is larger and is called egg or oosphere. It bears a central or micropylar vacuole and a nucleus towards the chalazal end. The remaining two cells are called synergids or help cells.

Each of them bears a filiform apparatus in the micropylar region, a lateral hook, chalazal vacuole and a central nucleus. The egg or oosphere represents the single female gamete of the embryo sac. The synergids help in obtaining nourishment from the outer nucellar cells, guide the path of pollen tube by their secretion and function as shock absorbers during the penetration of the pollen tube into the embryo sac.

The three chalazal cells of the embryo sac are called antipodal cells. They are the vegetative cells of the embryo sac which may degenerate soon or take part in absorbing nourishment from the surrounding nucellar cells. Internally, they are connected with central cell by means of plasmodesmata.

The central cell is the largest cell of the embryo sac. It has a highly vacuolated cytoplasm which is rich in reserve food and Golgi bodies. In the middle, the cell contains two polar nuclei which often fuse to form a single diploid secondary nucleus. Thus, all the cells of the embryo sac are haploid except the central cell which becomes diploid due to fusion of polar nuclei.

Question 7.
What are chasmogamous flowers? Can cross-pollination occur in cleistogamous flowers? Give a reason for your answer.
Answer:
Chasmogamous flowers are the normal type of flowers, which are similar I to flowers of other species with exposed anthers and stigma, usually found in Commelina. Naturally, cross-pollination cannot occur in cleistogamous flowers because they are usually seen below the soil surface.

Question 8.
Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers.
Answer:
Continued self-pollination results in inbreeding depression. So flowering plants have developed the following devices to discourage self-pollination and to encourage cross-pollination:

  1. Dicliny (unisexuality): Flowers are unisexual so that self-pollination is not possible. The plants may be monoecious (bearing both male and female flowers, e.g., maize) or dioecious (bearing male and female flowers on different plants, e.g., mulberry, papaya).
  2. Dichogamy: Anthers and stigmas mature at different times in a bisexual flower so as to prevent self-pollination.
  • Protandry – Anthers mature earlier than the stigma of the same flower. Their pollen grains become available to stigmas of the older flowers,
    e.g., sunflower, Salvia.
  • Protogyny – Stigmas mature earlier so that they get pollinated before the anthers of the same flower develop pollen grains, e.g., Mirabilis jalapa (four o’clock), Gloriosa, Plantago.

Question 9.
What is self-incompatibility? Why does self-pollination not lead to seed formation in self-incompatible species?
Answer:
In some flowers, the pollen grains do not germinate on the pistil of the same flower. This is called self-incompatibility. In such cases, the pollen grains do not germinate and produce male gametes and hence fertilisation does not occur. So seeds are not produced in self-incompatible flowers.

Question 10.
What are bagging techniques? How is it useful in a plant breeding programme.
Answer:
If the female parent bears bisexual flowers, removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces using a pair of forceps is necessary. This step is referred to as emasculation. Emasculated flowers have to be covered with a bag of suitable size, generally made up of butter paper, to prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen. This process is called bagging. When the stigma of the bagged flower attains receptivity, mature pollen grains collected from anthers of the male parent are dusted on the stigma, and the flowers are rebagged, and the fruits allowed to develop. This process allows plant breeders to use desired varieties of pollen to obtain desired seeds.

Question 11.
What is triple fusion? Where and how does it take place? Name the nuclei involved in triple fusion.
Answer:
One of the male gametes fuses with the secondary nucleus is called triple fusion. It takes place in the embryo sac. After the normal fertilization i.e., syngamy, (fusion of male gamete with egg), the other male gamete fuses with secondary nucleus or endosperm nucleus. The nuclei involved in triple fusion are the secondary nucleus or endosperm nucleus. They are diploid;

Question 12.
Why do you think the zygote is dormant for some time in a fertilized ovule?
Answer:
Fertilised egg is known as zygote which gives rise to embryo. Before development, the zygote undergoes a resting period. This is because the zygote waits for the formation of certain amount of endosperm for the nourishment of embryo. This is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to the developing embryo.

Question 13.
Differentiate between
(a) Hypocotyl and epicotyl
(b) Coleoptile and coleorhiza
(c) Integument and testa
(d) Perisperm and pericarp
Answer:
(a) Hypocotyl and epicotyl

Hypocotyl Epicotyl
1.   The portion of the embryonal axis which lies below the cotyledon in a dicot embryo is known as hypocotyl.
2.  It terminates with the radicle.
1.   The portion of the embryonal axis which lies above the cotyledon in a dicot embryo is known as epicotyl.
2.  It terminates with the plumule.

(b) Coleoptile and coleorhiza

Coleoptile Coleorhiza
It is a conical protective sheath that encloses the plumule in a monocot seed. It is an undifferentiated sheath that encloses the radicle and the root cap in a monocot seed.

(c) Integument and testa

Integument Testa
It is the outermost covering of an ovule. It provides protection to it. It is the outermost covering of a seed.

(d) Perisperm and pericarp

Perisperm Pericarp
It is the residual nucellus which persists. It is present in some seeds such as beet. It is the ripened wall of a fruit, which develops from the wall of an ovary.

Question 14.
Why is apple called a false fruit? Which part(s) of the flower forms fruit?
Answer:
Most fruits develop only from the ovary and are called true fruits. When fruit develops from other floral parts other than ovary it is called false fruit. Apple is a false fruit where the thalamus contributes to fruit formation.

Question 15.
What is meant by emasculation? When and why does a plant breeder employ this technique?
Answer:
It is the removal of anthers before anthesis from the bisexual flower which is used as a female parent. During hybridization, the plant breeder uses this technique to prevent self-pollination.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 16.
If one can induce parthenocarpy through the application of growth substances, which fruits would you select to induce parthenocarpy and why?
Answer:
Parthenocarpic fruits are fruits which develop without fertilisation and hence are seedless. Parthenocarpy can be induced through the application of growth hormones. Important fruits like banana, papaya, orange, grapes, guava, watermelon etc. can be made seedless by applying growth substances as they are economically important fruits and if made seedless they will be more valuable.

Question 17.
Explain the role of the tapetum in the formation of pollen grain walls.
Answer:
Tapetum is the innermost layer of microsporangium. It provides nourishment to the developing pollen grains. During microsporogenesis, the cells of the tapetum produce various enzymes, hormones, amino acids, and other nutritious material required for the development of pollen grain. It also produces the exine layer of the pollen grains, which is composed of sporopollenin.

Question 18.
What is apomixis and what is its importance?
Answer:
Normal type of sexual reproduction having two regular features i.e., meiosis and fertilisation is called amphimixis. But in some plants, this normal sexual reproduction is replaced by some abnormal type of sexual reproduction called apomixis.

The term apomixis was first given by Winkler (1908). Apomixis may be defined as, abnormal kind of sexual reproduction in which an egg or other cells associated with an egg (synergids, antipodals, etc.) develop into an embryo without fertilisation and with or without meiosis. Hybrid varieties of several food and vegetable crops are being extensively cultivated. The cultivation of hybrids tremendously increased productivity.

One of the problems of hybrids is that hybrid seeds have to be produced every year. If the seeds collected from hybrids are sown, the plants in the progeny will segregate and do not maintain hybrid characters. Production of hybrid seeds is costly and hence the cost of hybrid seeds becomes too expensive for the farmers. If these hybrids are made into apomicts, there is no segregation of characters in the hybrid progeny. Then the farmers can keep on using the hybrid seeds to raise new crops year after year and do not have to buy hybrid seeds every year. Embryos formed through apomixis are generally free from infections.

2nd PUC Biology Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Additional Questions and Answers

2nd PUC Biology Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants One Mark Questions

Question 1.
Find the odd one out
b. Endothecium, Tapetum, Middle layers, Nucellus
c. Exine, Tube nucleus, Synergids, Generative cell
d. Egg, Intine, Antipedals, Secondary nucleus
Answer:
b. Nucellus
c. Synergids
d. Intine

Question 2.
Name some water-pollinated plats.
Answer:

  • Freshwater – Vallisneria
  • Hydrilla Aquatic – Zostera

Question 3.
Some flowers are highly modified for insect pollination. They have many features which help this kind of pollination.
a. What are these flowers called?
b. Explain the characters which make them suitable for this type of pollination.
Answer:
a. Entamophilous flowers
b. Brightly coloured, fragrant, nectary, sticky pollen grains.

Question 4.
What is a false fruit? Give an example.
Answer:
The fruit is formed by any floral parts of the flower other than the ovary, eg. apple, pear, cashew nut, etc. [CBSE – 95]

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Angiosperms produce male and female reproductive structures in which male and female gametophytes and gametes are produced.
a. Name the male and female reproductive structure.
b. Name the male and female gametophytes.
Answer:
a. The male reproductive structure is another and the female reproductive structure is the pistil.
b. The male gametophyte is the mature pollen grain and the female gametophyte is embryosac.

Question 6.
Which nuclei fuse to give endosperm?
Answer:
Polar nuclei.

Question 7.
Name the stage of the occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed.
Answer:
Polyembryony.

Question 8.
The term for the early stages of embryo development.
Answer:
Embryogeny

Question 9.
The formation of the primary endosperm nucleus is called triple fusion. Why is it called so?
Answer:
The primary endosperm nucleus is formed by the fusion of the secondary nucleus and a male gamete and the secondary nucleus is formed by the fusion of two haploid polar nuclei. As three fusions are taking place in the formation of the primary endosperm nucleus, it is called triple fusion.

Question 10.
Define parthenocarpy.
Answer:
These are seedless fruits which are formed without pollination and fertilization.

Question 11.
What is fertilization?
Answer:
It is the fusion of one male gamete with the egg cell and a second gamete with polar nuclei in angiosperm. [CBSE – 99]

Question 12.
State the difference between the endosperm of gymnosperms and angiosperms.
Answer:
The endosperm of gymnosperms is haploid gametophyte but in angiosperms, it is triploid as it is formed after double fertilization.

Question 13.
What is epicotyl?
Answer:
A portion of an embryonic axis between the plumule and cotyledon.

Question 14.
Define the term geitonogamy.
Answer:
A condition where pollen from one flower deposited on the stigma of another flower borne on the same plant.

Question 15.
What is the fate of the secondary nucleus after fertilization?
Answer:
It forms the endosperms.

Question 16.
What is allogamy?
Answer:
It is the transfer of pollen from one flower to the stigma of another flower on a separate plant of the same species.

Question 17.
What develops into a microspore mother cell in a flower?
Answer:
Sporogenous cells.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 18.
What is coleorrhiza ? [CBSE – 97]
Answer:
It is the protective cap over the radicle of maize.

Question 19.
What is scutellum?
Answer:
It is the single cotyledon of maize.

Question 20.
What is funiculus?
Answer:
The stalk of the ovule by which it is attached to the placenta.

2nd PUC Biology Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Two Marks Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate between parthenocarpy and parthenogenesis.
Answer:
Parthenocarpy is .the formation of fruit without fertilization whereas parthenogenesis is the formation of an embryo from an unfertilized egg.

Question 2.
Draw a labelled diagram of the mature pollen grain. [CBSE – 90]
Answer:
2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 3
Question 3.
What is seed dormancy? Give any 2 advantages. [CBSE – 94]
Answer:
Seed dormancy is the condition of the seed when it fails to germinate even though the environmental conditions are favorable for active growth.
Two advantages of dormancy:

  • It helps the seed to disseminate in time and space in order to achieve a maximum cooperative environment for the survival of species.
  • To ensure successful seed germination under the most favourable conditions.

Question 4.
What are false fruits? Give example.
Answer:
The fruits which develop from parts other than ripened ovary are called false fruits.
Eg: fruits of apple and pear develop from the fleshy thalamus. [CBSE – 95]

Question 5.
Write the significance of double fertilization.
Answer:
Double fertilization leads to the development of triploid endosperm which provides nourishment to the developing healthy seed and this triploid endosperm compensates for the extreme reduction of female gametophyte in angiosperms.

Question 6.
Arrange the following terms in a correct developmental sequence.
Pollen grain, sporogenous tissue, microspore tetrad, pollen mother cell, male gametes.
Answer:
The correct development sequence for the above terms is sporogenous tissue, microspore tetrad, pollen mother cell, pollen grain, male gametes.

Question 7.
Write the difference between coleoptile and coleorhiza.
Answer:

  • In the monocot seed, the region of the embryonic axis below the cotyledon is the radicle covered with a protective sheath is coleorhiza.
  • Above the point of attachment of the cotyledon, the embryonic axis becomes the plumule which is enclosed by a leaf-like covering called coleoptile.

2nd PUC Biology Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Five Marks Questions

Question 1.
Describe the process of development of a dicotyledonous embryo.
Answer:
The process of development of a mature embryo from a diploid zygote is called embryogenesis. After fertilization, the zygote of the ovule divides transversely into two cells – a small apical cell and a large basal cell. The basal cell lying towards the micropyle divides in one direction into a row of cells called a suspensor. It pushes the developing embryo into the endosperm for the absorption of nutrients.

The apical cell located towards the antipodal end of the zygote undergoes two vertical divisions and one transverse division to form the embryonal mass. The cells of the embryonal mass divide repeatedly and the various parts of the embryo are formed. The anterior cells of the embryonal mass form plumule and two cotyledons. The main part of the radicle and the hypocotyl are formed from the posterior embryonal mass cells.
2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 4

Question 2.
Trace the events that would take place in a flower from the time the pollen grain of the same species falls on the stigma up to the completion of fertilization.
Answer:
2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 5
The pollen grain develops on the stigma stimulated by the secretion of the stigma. The intine grows out as a protuberance through one of the germ pores. This outgrowth continues to grow as a pollen tube. The nucleus of the vegetative cell moves into it followed by the generative cell. The generative cell divides into two male gamete and moves to the tip of the pollen tube.

The pollen tube secretes enzymes to digest the tissues of the style and enters the ovule through the micropylar end and discharges the two male gametes into one of the synergies of the embryo sac. One of the male gametes fuses with the ovum to form a zygote. This process is called syngamy. The other male gamete fuses with the secondary nucleus to form the primary endosperm nucleus.

This process is called triple fusion. Since there are two fusions (syngamy and triple fusion) inside the ovule during fertilization, it is known as double fertilization.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Draw a labelled diagram of a T.S of a dehisced anther.
Answer:
2nd PUC Biology Question Bank Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 6

Question 4.
The flower of brinjal is referred to as chasmogamous while that of beans is cleistogamous. How are they different from each other?
Answer:

  • Chasmogamous flowers: Chasmogamous flowers are similar to flowers of other species with exposed anthers and stigma.
  • Cleistogamous flowers: Cleistogamous flowers never open to ensure self-pollination. They remain closed so that cross-pollination does not occur.

Three cells are grouped at the clealazal end; they are called antipodals. The large cell in the centre of the embryo sac is the central cell. Later 2 polar nuclei in the centre cell fused to form a depolid secondary nucleus or endosperm nucleus. Thus the embryo sac of flowering plants is 8 nucleate 7 celled at maturity. This type of embryo sac is called monosporic because it is formed from only one of the 4 megaspores.

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