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Students can Download 2nd PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2016, Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2016

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in one sentence each: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
State the average life expectancy of the world.
Answer:
68.09 years

Question 2.
What are primary activities?
Answer:
Primary activities such as food gathering, hunting, lumbering, animal rearing, fishing, agriculture & mining etc.

Question 3.
What is transportation?
Answer:
Transport is the carrying of Goods & Passengers from one place to other by Human Animals and different kinds of vehicles

Question 4.
Which is the largest mega city in the world?
Answer:
Newyork is the largest mega city in the world.

Question 5.
In which year was family planning program introduced in India?
Answer:
The family planning program introduced in India in the Year 1952

Question 6.
What is the name of Bhakra Reservoir?
Answer:
Govind Sagar.

Question 7.
Mention two important beverage crops of India.
Answer:
Tea and coffee are important beverage crops of India

Question 8.
Why is Jharia famous for?
Answer:
Jharia is “store house of the best Metallurgical coal.”

Question 9.
Name important agro-based industries of India.
Answer:

• Cotton textile industries
• Jute industries
• Sugar industries

Question 10.
On which river bank is Kolkata Port located?
Answer:
On the Hoogly river 148 Km from the sea

II. Answer any 10 of the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences each: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
What are the different types of fishing?
Answer:
The different types of fishing are:

• Fresh water fishing
• Coastal fishing and
• Open sea fishing

Question 12.
Write a short note on food gathering.
Answer:
Gathering of products from nature to fulfill their basic needs like food, clothing and shelter. In some parts of the world, the people lead a simple life depending upon the nature for their livelihood like collect the wild fruits roots, nuts, leaves for the food, bark of trees, leaves and grass for clothing, branches of trees, bamboo, leaves for making their homes for example few nomadic tribes in the world.

Question 13.
Mention important pattern of rural settlements.
Answer:
There are 5 important pattern of rural settlements.

1. Uniform Pattern
2. Clustered Patttem
3. RANDOM Pattern
4. Dispersed Pattern
5. Hamlets Pattern.

Question 14.
Give any four causes for high birth rate in India.
Answer:
Immigration : is used for in-migration from across the international border where.
Emigration : is used for out-migration from one country to another.

Question 15.
What are the uses of sugarcane?
Answer:

• Sugarcane is the main source of Sugar, Gur and Khandsari.
• It provides raw materials for manufacturing Alcohal.

Question 16.
Name the two important Gold producing regions of karnataka.
Answer:

• Hutti gold field in Raichur districts and Bellary gold field in Tumkur in Karnataka.
• Ramagiri in Ananthpur district and Jonnagiri in Kurnool in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 17.
What are the geographical factors necessary for Hydro-electricity?
Answer:

• The regular and uniform supply of water is essential.
• The water should fall from a sufficient height.
• It requires huge capital investment to purchase machines.
• A ready available market should be there.

Question 18.
Why is Mumbai known as ‘Manchester’ of India?
Answer:
Mumbai is the leading cotton textile center of India. So it is known as “Manchester of India”.

Question 19.
Mention four important types of roads in India.
Answer:

• National Highways
• State Highways
• District roads and
• Village roads

Question 20.
Mention the importance of satellites.
Answer:
A satellite can be defined as a body that orbits the earth or other planet which has been sent from the Earth into space theses are of vital importance to life on earth.
1. The 20th century is also known as space age. With the advancement in science and technology artificial satellites has marked a new era in the history of global telecommunication.

2. The Geo-stationary satellites are positioned at a height of about 36,000 km in the sky.

3. Radio and Television networking over entire India are done through satellite technology. So, it is popularly called as ‘space age communication technique’.

4. The world’s first artificial satellite, the sputnik. I was launched by the soviet union in 1957.

5. Very recently India has launched a satellite IRS P-2 into the orbit successfully from the country’s space port at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.

6. Satellite construction and launching is carried out as a part of the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). The ISRO centre is located at Bangalore,

7. The satellite launching centres are located near Hassan in Karnataka.

8. National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA) Hyderabad is responsible for reception, processing of data from remote sensing satellites

Question 21.
What are the effects of air pollution?
Answer:

• Diseases are selacted to respiratory.
• Nervous and Circulatory systems.
• Urban smog, acid rain.
• Global wanning.

Question 22.
What are the causes of noise pollution?
Answer:

• It is caused by from factories, demolition works.
• Noise from sirens landspeakers used in various festivals etc.
• The biggest Noise Pollution is produced by traffic and
• The sea traffic. The Noise Pollution is confined to the harbour due to loading and unload¬ing activities being carried.

III. Answer any eight of the following questions in 25 to 30 sentences each: (5 × 8 = 40)

Question 23.
Explain the scope of Human Geography.
Answer:
Scope of human Geography:
As early societies became more successful in meeting their need within.permanent settlements.
1. The rise of agriculturing activities resource extra and manufacturing activities led to more complex economic and political boundaries were created and more settlement grew into towns and cities.

2. The physical environment also changed with the influence of modem urbanize and industrized world that we known today.

3. One of the greatest challenges faced by humans today is how to manage energy resource in a sustainable fashion without inflicting permanent damage to environment in the form of land, air, water, pollution and climatic changes.

Importance of Human Geography:

• It clarifies the societies and cultures in different ^locations.
• The great diversity reflects through the fashion life.
• Which realizes carrying capacity of the Earth.
• It helps us to understand circumstances affecting people and nation.
• It is helpful to the planners, administrations, Industrialists and others.

Question 24.
Discuss the distribution of population in the world.
Answer:
The population of the world is unevenly distributed. The distribution of population is expressed in terms of density. The density is the ratio between the numbers of people in to the size of land.

Distribution of population of the world has been divided into three regions.
1. Area of high density: The three principal high density zones are:
(a) Eastern, Southern and South – Eastern part of Asia.
(b) North – Western part of Europe.
(c) North – Eastern part of USA and South Eastern part of Canada.

2. Area of high density: The population moderately dense in tropical regions of the world and moist temperature regions of the Argentina South-East Africa and Eastern Australia.

3. Area of low density: The areas which are nearest to the North and South poles hot and cold desertes and high rain fall zones near the equator have very low density of population.

• Asia is the most populous continent. It accounts about ‘61 percent’ of the world population.
• Africa is second most populated continent with 13 percent.
• Europe has 12 percent.
• South America 8.5 percent.
• Northern America 5 percent.
• Oceania is the least – populated region which has 0.5 percent.
• Antarctica is uninhabited permanently.

Question 25.
Write a note on sex ratio and age structure of the world.
Answer:
The ratio between male and female population is called sex ratio. It is usual measured as “the number of females per thousand males.

• On an average, a sex ratio of the world was 986 females per 1000 males during 2010 it
• The highest sex ratio in the world has been recorded in ‘Latria and Estonia’ it was 1174 & 1170 per thousand.
• The lowest sex ratio was found in UAE which is only 468 females per thousand males.
• As per the united nations list in 139 countries females are more than the males. Where as 72 countries males are more than females.

Age structure:
Age structure represents the number of people in different age groups. It includes both male & female population.

• About 65.8% of population belongs to the age group of 15-65 years who are ‘adults’ .
• Above 65 years of age group is only 8%. They are called ‘aged’.
• Remaining about 26.2% is below the age group of 15 year called ‘infants’.
• Dependency ratio – The population ratio between the ages of 15 & 64 (Aults) and below 15,(infants) & above 64 (aged).

Question 26.
Write a note an the air routes of the world.
Answer:
1. The North America – The Greatest air traffic is found in USA with internal and international flights. It has the top airports like Attanta, Chicago, Los Angeles, Dallas.

2. South America – It has far air routes.
The Major international airports are:
Rio-de-Janeiro, Brasilia, Saopaulo, Santiago and Buenos Aires.

3. Africa – It is served by 2 international Airlines.
(a) The East African air route through London, Rome, Cairo, Nairobi and Johannesbrug.
(b) SriLanka and South East Asia and the Central air route connects Paris, Capetown, logos.

4. Australia – It is a well developed internal and external air services. Sydney is an important international airport.

5. Asia – China has external links with other countries of the world. Its enroute location is between Europe, Asia, Australia and Africa.

6. The Russian International Air Routes: Russia and other countries of former Soviet Union are well connected by air service. All Countries of the World connects each other through airlines of different comers.

Question 27.
What are the problems caused with rapid growth of population? .
Answer:
The Rapid growth of population has led to a number of problems as follows:- ‘
1. Unemployment and Under employment : It has been increasing from year to year. It has badly affected on young educated people both in rural and urban areas.

2. Shortage of food & -Malnutrition : A large number of people are poorly fed. Malnutrition is prevailing throughout the country. It is fatal for the development of the country.

3. Burden on Civic & Social Amenities : Education, health and medical, housing, drinking water, electricity and problems increases.

4. Low per capita income : The increase in per capita income is only 15% annually. Low per capita income has a direct impact on the economic condition of the people.

5. Increase of Unproductive population : Below 15 years (Infants) and above 60 years (old age) are unproductive. They are dependent on earning persons. Thus rapid growth has increased dependents rather than producers.

6. Others : Slow in economic development, mass poverty, low standard of living, political unrest and the social problems like theft robbery, immortality, corruption and the growth of slums, environment pollution are also directly related to the popualtion explosion.

Question 28.
Describe the effects of migration.
Answer:
The Effects of Migration can be classified into two namely:-
1. Positive effects.
2. Negative effects.

1. Positive effects of Migration :

• Migration controls the high density of population.
• It helps the people to get employment.
• It reduces the problem of scarcity of Labour.
• Migration leads to the change in the demographic structure of a region.
• It helps to reduce the inequality of the society.

2. Negative effects of Migration :

• It affects on density and distribution of population.
• Large-scale migration from rural to urban centres results in creation of slums.
• It also leads to many social problems such as debauchery and immoral activities.
• Their will be pressure on civic amenties, like electricity etc.
• Migration causes ethnics, religious and language problems.
• It will effects on the job opportunities of local people.

Question 29.
Discuss the present situation of Tank Irrigation in India.
Answer:
Tanks are natural or man hollows or depressions into which rain water is collected.

• Usually they are built by individuals or groups of farmers by raising bunds across sea-sonal stream.
• Tank irrigation is widely practiced in Andhra Pradesh (29.8%), TamilNadu and Karnataka states.
• Tank irrigation is an ancient method of irrigation in the country. But the area under tank irrigation has decreased in recent years due to some draw backs.
• The area under tank irrigation decreased from 4.6 million hectare in 1960 – 61 to 1.56 . million hectre in 2007 – 08.
• It accounts for only 3.2% of the total irrigated area in India. Tank irrigation is suffering from certain inherent drawbacks
  • Tanks get silted up soon.
  • Most of the tanks are non-perennial’and become dry during winter and summer seasons.
  • They occupy large fertile areas which could have been used for cultivation.

Question 30.
Discuss about the rain water harvesting.
Answer:
1. Controlling the runoff of rain water and make it to perculate to increase ground water table for future purpose.

2. It involves collection and storage of rainwater at surface or in sub-surface aquifier, before it is lost as surface runoff. It not only increases water availability but also checks the declining water table.

Objectives :
The following are the main objectives of rain water harvesting.

• It checks runoff water & avoid flooding.
• It replenishes the ground water table and enables the wells.
• It helps to overcome the adequancy of surface water to meet demand of water.
• If the ground water is blackish, it will reduce the salinity.
• It also reduces ground water contamination and improve water quality.
• It helps to increase agricultural product and improves ecology of an area.

Methods of Rain Water Harvesting :
1. In-situ method The method of percolating the rain at the point of its fall itself is called In-situ rainwater harvesting.
For example –

• Infilteration pits : The rain water can be collected and stored in pits, dug in farm lands and used for irrigation.
• Contour bunds and trenches : The Construction of bunds, trenches or check dams.
• Roof top water harvesting : The Rain water that falls on the roofs of buildings or in courtyards is collected and stored in underground. Sumps, or wells or in drums and used for domestic purpose such as cleaning, washing etc.

2. Ex-situ method : This method of rainwater harvesting involves storing of running water. It is collected in check dams, huge percolation tanks etc. It is an expensive method.

Question 31.
Give an account of the distribution and production of sugarcane in India.
Answer:
Distribution of sugarcane in India : The distribution of sugarcane cultivation in India is uneven. Sugarcane is grown in almost in all the stats of the country. But it is mainly concentrated in Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, TamilNadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Bihar, Haryana & Uttaranchal.
1. Uttar Pradesh : Uttar Pradesh occupies first place both in terms of production & area under sugarcane in the country.

• The largest concentration is upper Ganga-Yamuna doab & Rohilkhand areas which together produce about 70% of the sugarcane produced in the state.
• Its share is about 36.02% under total production.

2. Maharashtra : Maharashtra is in second place both in area & production of sugarcane in the country.

• The production of sugarcane comes from Kolhapur, Pune, Ahmednagar, Nasik.
• Its share is about 22.89% under total production.

3. TamilNadu : TamilNadu is the third largest producer of sugarcane in India.

• It has highest yield per hectare in India.
• Arcot, periyar, salem, Tiruchirapalli & Coimbatore are the important sugaecane growing industries
• Its Shares is about 10.98% under total production

4. Karnataka : Karnataka is fourth largest sugarcane producing state in India.

• Most of the sugarcane is grown with the help of irrigation
• Belgaum, Mysore, Mandhya, Bijpur, Shimoga & Chitradurga are the important sugarcane producing districts.
• Its Shares is about 10.85% under total production

5. Andhra pradesh : Andhra pradesh is in fifth place of sugar cane production in India

• West & East Godavari, vishakapatnam & Nellore are the important sugarcane producing districts.
• Its Shares is about 4.68% under total production

6. Others : Gujarat, Bihar, Haryana etc
Production:

• India is second largest produces of Sugarcane next to Brazil. –
• The total cultivated area under sugarcane was reported as 5.09 million hectares in 2011-12.
• Theproductionis357.67million tonnes in 2011-12.

Question 32.
Explain the condition for growth and give reasons for the concentration of coffee cultivation in South India.
Answer:
Conditions for Growth:

• Coffee is a tropical crop. So, it requires hot & humid climate.
• It requires high temperature ranging from 15°C to 30°C.
• Rainfall varying from 150 to 200 cms is necessary & it should be well distributed through out the year.
• Coffee plants require deep fertile soil, humus & nitrogenous contained soils are suitable, so cleared up forest land is most suitable for coffee cultivation.
• Coffee plants require shade, because sunrays & strong winds are harmful to coffee plants.
• Hill slopes are suitable for cultivation of coffee plants to avoid stagnant of water.
• Dry weather is necessary’ at the time of ripening of harries.
• Use of manures and fertilizers are required for coffee cultivation.
• Use of pesticides and insecticides are very essential, because coffee plant is susceptible to pests & diseases.
• It requires abundant supply of cheap & skilled labour for various operations.

Reasons for the concentration of coffee in South India:
The Coffee plant was first introduced in lndia by a muslim Fakir, Bababudan Sahib who brought some seeds from Mecca during 17th Century and planted the seedlings in Chandragiri Hills now. It is called Bababudan Hills in Chikmangalur district of Karnataka. Then it was spread to the neighbouring districts of TamilNadu, Kerala & other parts if the country.

Question 33.
Explain the development of Railways in India.
Answer:

• The first railway line in India was from Bombay (V.T) to Thane, a distance of 34 km, opened on 16th April, 1853.
• It was followed by a railway line in 1856, from Madras to Arkonam (70 km).
• A Railway line in 1874 from Kolkata to Raniganj (180 km).
• Then gradually railway lines were constructed to link different parts of the country.
• At the time of Independence, the length of the railway line was 54,96 km.
• During post-Independence period, because of the Five year plans, the Indian railway has recorded spectacular progress.
• There were 43 steam, 4,963 diesel and 3585 electric locomotives 55,065 coaches 2,11,763 wagons.
• The trains moved everyday through more than 7,030 stations.
• On an average they carried 17 million passengers and 2.8 million lakh tones of freight everyday.
• At present all the rail operations in India are managed by Ministry of Indian railways.
• The country’s railways is about 64,460 km of length which is fourth largest railway network in the world and first in Asia.
• It has transported 7651 million passengers and 921 million tonnes of frieght annually.
• The Network operates 28 states and 3 union territories.

Question 34.
Explain about urban waste disposal in India.
Answer:

• Urban centres are known for large amount of waste generation. It is a serious problem in India.
• In metropolitan cities likes Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore etc.
• About 90 percent of the solid waste is collected and disposed.
• The waste may be treated as resources and utilized for generating energy and compost.
• Untreated wastes permanently releases toxic bio gases to the atmosphere including methane.
• These wastes should be treated as resources and utilized for generating energy and compost

IV, Answer any one of the following questions : (1 × 10 = 10)

Question 35.
Explain the distribution and production of Iron-ore in India.
Answer:
Importance:

• The Iron and Steel industry is described as a basic Industry.
• Iron and Steel supplied by this industry such as machineries, irrigation projects, ship building, power projects, construction of bridges, buildings, transport equipment, machine tools and so on.
• The Production and Consumption of Iron and Steel is an index level of the economic develpoment of a country.

Distribution:
There are nine major Iron and Steel industries in India.

• Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO), Jamshedpur: It was established in 1907. It was the first largest steel plant of the country.
• Vishveswariah Iron and Steel Co. Ltd (VISL) Bhadravathi 11 was first established in 1923 by the princely state of Mysore located at Bhadravathi in Shimoga district of Karnataka.
• India Iron and Steel Company Ltd (IISCO) Bunpur:- It was established in 1919 at Bumpur in West Bengal. It was the second largest integrated steel plant after Tata Iron and Steel Ltd.
• Hindustan Steel Company Ltd, Rourkela:- It was completed with the German collaboration. The steel plant was comminssioned in 1955.
• Bhilai Steel Plant: It has the largest steel production plant of the public sector. It is located at Bilai near Raipur in Chhatisgarh.
• Durgapur Steel Plant: The steel plant in Durgapur in West Bengal was established with British collaboration and was commissioned in 1956.
• Salem Steel Plant: It is located at Salem in TamilNadu and the production was started from 1982.
• Vishakapatnam Steel Plant: Established by National Ispat Nigam Ltd in Andhra Pradesh.
• New Steel Plants Some private sectors plants are.
• Jindal Vijaynagar Steel Ltd (JVSL) This steel plant is located at Tomagal, Bellary district in Karnataka.
• Essar Steel Ltd (ESL) It is situated at Hazira in Gujarat.
• Ispat Insutries Ltd (IIL) It is situated at Dovi, Ratnagiri district of Maharashtra.
• Neelachal Ispat Nigam Ltd (NINL)It is a new steel plant located at Dubai, Odisha.
• Mini Steel Plants Presently, 199 lincensed electric ore furnace units with an installed capacity of 7.8 million tonnes have been commissioned and hence started commercial production.

Question 36.
Explain the Industrial Regions of India.
Answer:
Industrial region refers to the continuous development of industrial landscape over a large area by concentration of a number of factories of different industries. In short, it is a wide area of manufacturing industries.

1. Mumbai-Pune Industrial regions: It is the biggest and most important industrial region of the country. Opening of the Bhorghat to Pune in 1830, opening of steamer service through Suez Canal in 1843, opening of first railway line of 32 km in 1853 between Mumbai and Thane etc. Supports lot of development of industries in this region by the British who got the Mumbai island as marriage gift of Catherine Braganza’s dowry, in 1661.

2. Kolkata-Hooghly Industrial region: It is an old and important industrial region of the country. Kolkata is the main centre for Hooglgly basin, port, rich hinterland of Ganga and Brahmaputra plain, Assam and Bengal tea plantations, coal and iron ore region of Chotanagapur plateau. Cheap labour from Weat Bengal Bihar, Orissa states, efficient transport by rail, road and waterways etc. are the important facilities supported to develop this region.

3. Ahmedabad-Vadodara Industrial region: It is thrid largest industrial region of the country. It is located in Gujarat and includes the areas around the Gulf of Khambhat and important industrial centres like Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Koyali, Baruch and Surat etp. Ahmedabad is the main centre for cotton.textiles, woollen and silk, textiles, paper, petrochemicals milk products, Engineering, diesel engines, oil refining etc., are the other important industries of this region.

4. Madurai-Coimbatore-Bangalore Indusrial regions: This region lies in Tamil nadu and Karnataka states. The Important centres are Bangalore, Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai, Sivakasi, Tiruchirapalli, Salem, Mysore, Mandya, Bhadravathi etc. The region has diversified Industries like cotton textiles, silk, sugar, leather, chemicals, machinery, rubber, electrical equipments telephone, railway coaches, Information Technology’, BioTechnology etc.

5. The Chotanagapur Plateau Industrial regions: This region is located in the states of Bihar, parts of Jharkhand and West Bengal. This region is called the Ruhr of India on account of the growth of a number of iron and steel plants and various engineering industies. Jamshedpur, Bokaro, Chittaranjan, Sindri, Durgapur, Hazaribagh etc are the important industrial town in this region.

6. The Mathura-Delhi-Saharanpur-Ambala Industrial regions: This region covers Uttar Pradesh, parts of Haryana and Delhi. It includes Agra, Saharanpur, Faridabad, Ambala, Delhi, Modinagar, Ghaziabad, Ferozabad, Noida, Meerut, Mathura, Panipat etc. Delhi is the most important centre for the Industries of cotton textiles, glass, chemicals, automobiles, engineering, paper, soap, vanaspati, sugar and oil refineries. The region is facing the problem of environmental pollution.

V. Answer the following questions: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 37.
Construct a Pie-Diagram using the following data :

Types	percentages
Single lane	21
Double lane	54
Four/six/eight lane	25
Total	100

Answer:
Sinle lane = \(\frac { 21 }{ 100 }\) × 360 = 75.6

Double lane = \(\frac { 54 }{ 100 }\) × 360 = 194.4

Four/six/eight = \(\frac { 25 }{ 100 }\) × 360 = \(\frac { 90 }{ 360 }\)

Question 38.
(a) construct a line-graph by using the following data of selected district-wise population (in lakh) Of Karnataka in 2011.
Answer:

District	Population
Belgium	47.8
Bagalkot	18.9
Bijapur	21.8
Bidar	17.0
Raichur	19.3
Dharwad	18.5

(b)
Construct a single-bar graph by using the following data of selected state-wise rice production in India in percentage :
Answer:

District	production
West bengal	15.80
Andhra Pradesh	12.71
Uttar Pradesh	11.91
Punjab	10.86
Orissa	7.31
Tamilnadu	7.08
Karnataka	3.70

For Blind Students only

Question 39.
Answer any two of the following : (2 x 10 = 20)

(a)
Write the importance of remote sensing.
Answer:
Remote sensing is the science and art of obtaining information about an object, area or phenomenon through the analysis of data aquired by a device that is not in contact with it. This is done by sensing and recording reflected or emitted energy and processing, analyzing and applying that information.

In much remote sensing, the process involves an interaction between incident radiation and the targets of interest. This device can be a camera or a bank of sensors operated from an airplane or a satellite. Though satellite we can collect date related agriculture, forest, urban land use, water, natural calamities etc the satellite data is based for mapping, monitoring, studying the various phenomena related to earth’s surface.

(b)
Explain the function of GLI.S
Answer:
1. Capture data : Geographical data can be collected/captured from various sources like hard copy, map through tophosheet, digital data, through GPS, Secondary data through published tables.

2. Storing data : Geographical data once captured, it needs to transform from Analogy into digital format and to be stored in computer for further analysis.

3. Query : Once you have a functional GIS containing your geographical information, you can begin to ask a simple questions.

4. Analysis : There are 3 types

1. Proximity Analysis: Proximity queries find features with in a certain distance of other features.
2. Overlay Analysis: It is simplest, this could be a visual operation, but analytical operations require One or more data layers to be joined physically.
3. Network Analysis: A network is a set of edges and junctions that are Topologically connected to each other.

5. Display: Once analysis is done maps, diagrams, graphs and tables are to be designed and same has to be displayed over computer moniter.

6. Output: This is final, stage of GIS function where in the maps, data tables etc…. can be printed to have hard copy as output.

(c)
Explain the functions of GPS.
Answer:
There are three segments of GPS:-
1. The space segments : The satellites of GPS are launched and positioned at an altitude of approximately 20200 km which is almost more than three times of the earth’s radius. The space segment consists of a constellation of 24 functioning GPs satellites located in 6 orbital plane with 4 satellites in each orbital plane. The time for the satellite to complete one revolution around the earth is 11 hrs and 58 minutes.

2 . The control segment: The control segment consists of facilities necessary for satellites especially healthy monitoring, telemetry, tracking command and control clock error ‘ computation .of satellites. There are 5 GPS stations spread over the earths surface they arc –

• Hawaii
• Colorado spring
• Ascension Island
• Diego Garcia
• Kwajalein.

3. The user segment: It is a total user and supplier community, both civilian and military. The user segment consists of all earth – based GPS receivers. Receivers very greatly in size and complexity, through the basic design in rather simple. The space and control segments are largely transparent to the operations of navigation functions.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Economics Model Question Paper 2 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Economics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Economics Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

Time: 3 hrs 15 minutes
Max. Marks: 100

PART-A

I. Choose the correct answer (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 1.
The scarce resources of an economy have
(a) Competing usages
(b) Single usages
(c) Unlimited usages
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Competing usages

Question 2.
In perfect competition buyers and sellers are
(a) Price makers
(b) Price takers
(c) Price analysts
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Price takers

Question 3.
market structure which produces heterogeneous.products is called
(a) Monopoly
(b) Monopolistic competition
(c) Perfect competition
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Monopolistic competition.

Question 4.
In 1936, British economist J.M.Keynes published his celebrated book.
(a) Wealth of Nations
(b) Theory of Interest
(c) General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money.
(d) Theory of Employment
Answer:
(c) General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money.

Question 5.
The taxes on individual and firms are
(a) Direct taxes
(b) Indirect taxes
(c) Fixed taxes
(d) Non-tax revenues
Answer:
(a) Direct taxes

II. Fill in the blanks (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 6.
Wants satisfying capacity of commodity is______
Answer:
Utility.

Question 7.
In a perfectly competitive market, equilibrium occurs when market demand_____market supply.
Answer:
Equals

Question 8.
cY shows the dependence of consumption on______
Answer:
Income

Question 9.
Non-paying users of public goods are known as______
Answer:
Free riders

Question 10.
______is the record of trade in goods and services and transfer payments.
Answer:
Current account

III. Match the following (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 11.

Answer:
1 -e; 2-a; 3 -b; 4-c; 5 -d.

IV. Answer the following questions in a sentence or a word each. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 12.
To which side does a supply curve shift due to the technological progress?
Answer:
The supply curve shifts to the right due to the technological progress.

Question 13.
What is monopoly?
Answer:
It is a market with one seller or firm with many buyers.

Question 14.
Write the meaning of autonomous consumption.
Answer:
The consumption which is independent of income is called as autonomous consumption.

Question 15.
What are public goods?
Answer:
Public goods are the goods and services provided by the government and which cannot be provided by the market mechanism. Example, roads, defence, etc.

Question 16.
What do you mean by open economy?
Answer:
An open economy is one which interacts with rest of the world through various channels.

PART-B

V. Answer any NINE of the following in 4 sentences each. (2 × 9 = 18)

Question 17.
What do you mean by inferior goods? Give example.
Answer:
The inferior goods are those goods for which the demand increases with the fall in income of consumer and vice-versa. That is, there will be a negative relationship between income of consumer and demand for inferior goods. Here, the income of consumer and demand move in opposite directions. Example: low-quality goods.

Question 18.
State the law of demand?
Answer:
Law of demand states that other things being equal, there is a negative relation between demand for a commodity and its price. In other words, when price of the commodity increases, demand for it falls and when price of the commodity decreases, demand for it rises, other factors remaining the constant.

The law can be explained in the following manner, i.e. “Other things being equal, a fall in price leads to expansion in demand and a rise in price leads to contraction in demand”.

Question 19.
Write the meaning and formula of marginal product.
Answer:
Marginal product of an input is defined as the change in output per, unit of change in the input when all other inputs are held constant. It is the additional unit of output per additional unit of variable input. It is calculated by dividing the change in output by change in input labour. The formula is
MP_L = ∆TP_L/∆L.

Question 20.
Mention the conditions needed for profit by a firm under perfect competition.
Answer:
The following conditions needed for profit by a firm under perfect competition:

• The price P must be equal to MC
• Marginal cost must be non-decreasing at q₀
• The firm to continue to produce, in the short run, price must be greater than the average variable cost and in the long run, price must be greater than the average cost.

Question 21.
Define equilibrium price and quantity.
Answer:
Equilibrium price is the price at which equilibrium is reached in the market.
The equilibrium quantity is defined as the quantity which is bought and sold at equilibrium price. Therefore, price and quantity will be at equilibrium when
Q^d(p*) = q^s(p*)
p* denotes the equilibrium price and Q^d (p*) and q^s(p*) denote the market demand and market supply, respectively.

Question 22.
State the meaning of average revenue and marginal revenue.
Answer:
Marginal revenue of a firm is defined as the increase in total revenue for a unit increase in the firm’s output. It is obtained by dividing the change in total revenue (∆TR) by change in quantity (∆q). Thus,
MR = ∆TR/∆q.
Average revenue:
We calculate average revenue, by dividing total revenue by the quantity sold. The following formula used:
AR = TR/q.

Question 23.
What are the four factors of production? Mention their rewards.
Answer:
The four factors of production are land, labour, capital and organisation. The rewards of these factors of production are as follows:

1. Land gets rent
2. Labour gets wages
3. Capital gets interest
4. Organisation gets profit.

Question 24.
Distinguish between stock and flow. Give example.
Answer:

Stock	Flow
• It is that quantity of economic variable which is measured at a particular point of time. • Examples are capital, inventory, wealth, foreign exchange reserves, etc.	• It refers to that quantity of economic variable measured over a period of time. • Examples are net investment, salary, national income, etc.

Question 25.
Give the meaning of CRR and SLR.
Answer:
The cash reserve ratio (CRR) is a certain percentage of bank deposits which a commercial bank is required to keep as cash reserves with itself.

The statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) refers to the ratio of deposits which the commercial banks have to maintain a certain percentage of their total deposits and time deposits with themselves in the form of liquid assets, as per the directions of RBI.

Question 26.
Write the meaning of excess demand and deficient demand.
Answer:
If the equilibrium level of output is more than the full employment level, it is due to the fact that the demand is more than the level of output produced at full employment level. This situation is called excess demand.

If the equilibrium level of output is less than the full employment of output, it is due to fact that demand is not enough to employ all factors of production. This situation is called deficient demand.

Question 27.
Give the meaning of investment multiplier. Write its formula.
Answer:
Investment multiplier is the ratio of the total increment in equilibrium value of final goods output to the initial increment in autonomous expenditure. Its formula is
Investment Multiplier = ∆Y/∆A= 1/1-c.
Where, ∆Y is the total increment in final goods output, ∆A is initial increment in autonomous expenditure and c is size of the multiplier.

Question 28.
Write the difference between public provision and public production.
Answer:
The difference between public provision and public production are as follows:

Public Provision	Public Production
• A set of facilities financed by the government through its budget. • These are used without any direct payment. Examples are free education, mid-day meals, etc.	• When the goods produced directly by the government, it is called public production. • These are used with direct payment. Examples are electricity, water supply, etc.

Question 29.
Mention the three linkages of open economy.
Answer:
The three linkages of open economy are as follows:

• Output market linkage
• Financial market linkage
• Labour market linkage.

Question 30.
What is the difference between current account and capital account?
Answer:
The difference between current account and capital account are as follows:

Current Account	Capital Account
• It is the record of trade in goods and services, and transfer payments. • It consists of factor and non-factor incomes apart from gifts, remittances, and grants.	• It is the record of all international transactions of assets. • It includes money, stocks, bonds, government debt, etc.

PART-C

VI. Answer any SEVEN of the following questions in 12 sentences each. (4 × 7 = 28)

Question 31.
Briefly explain the production possibility frontier.
Answer:
The production possibility frontier is a graphical representation of the combinations of two commodities (cotton and wheat) that can be produced when the resources of the economy are fully utilized. It is also called as production possibility curve (PPC) also known as transformation curve.

It gives the combinations of cotton and wheat that can be produced when the resources of the economy are fully utilized. This can be graphically represented as follows.

As per the above graph, the points lying strictly below the production possibility curve represents a combination of cotton and wheat that will be produced when all or some of the resources are either underemployed or are utilized in a wasteful fashion.

Question 32.
Explain the in difference map with the diagram.
Answer:
A family of indifference curves is called as in difference map. It refers to a set of indifference curves for two commodities showing different levels of satisfaction. The higher indifference curves show higher level of satisfaction and lower indifference curve represent lower satisfaction. A rational consumer always chooses more of that product which offers him a higher level of satisfaction which is represented in higher indifference curve. It is also called ‘monotonic preferences’.

The consumer’s preferences over all the bundles . can be represented by a family of indifference curves as shown in the following diagram.

In the given diagram, we see the group of three indifference curves showing different levels of satisfaction to the consumer. The arrow indicates that bundles on higher indifference curves are preferred by the consumer to the bundles on lower indifference curves.

Question 33.
Explain isoquant with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
An isoquant is the set of all possible combinations of the two inputs that yield the same maximum possible level of output. Each isoquant represents a particular level of output and is labelled with that amount of output. It is just an alternative way of representing the production function.
The concept of isoquant can be explained with the help of following diagram:

The given diagram generalizes the concept of isoquant. In the above diagram, labour is measured in OX axis and capital is measured in OY axis. There are 3 isoquants for the three output levels, viz. q=q₁ q=q₂ and q=q₃. Two input combinations (L₁, K₂) and (L₂, K₁) give us the same level of output q₁.

If we fix capital at K₁ and increase labour to L₃, output increases and we reach a higher isoquant q=q₂. When marginal products are positive, with greater amount of one input, the same level of output can be produced only using lesser amount of the other. Therefore, isoquant curves slope downwards from left to right (negatively sloped).

Question 34.
Write a brief note on returns to scale.
Answer:
The returns to scale can happen only in the long run as both the factors (labour and capital) can be changed. One special case, in the long run, occurs when both factors are increased by the same proportion or factors are scaled up.

a. Constant returns to scale:
When a proportional increase in all inputs results in an increase in output by the same proportion, the production function is said display constant returns to scale.

b. Increasing returns to scale:
When proportional increase in all inputs results in an increase in output by a larger proportion, the production function is said to display increasing returns to scale.

c. Decreasing returns to scale:
When a proportional increase in all inputs results in an increase in output by a smaller proportion, the production function is said to display decreasing returns to scale.

For example, if in a production process, all inputs get doubled. As a result, if the output gets doubled, the production function exhibits constant returns to scale, if output is less than doubled, exhibits decreasing returns to scale and if it is more than doubled, exhibits increasing returns to scale.

Question 35.
Explain the determinants of a firm’s supply curve.
Answer:
A firm’s marginal cost curve is a part of its marginal cost curve. Any factor that affects a firm’s marginal cost curve is a determinant of its supply curve. Following are the two factors determining a firm’s supply curve:

a. Technological progress:
The organisational innovation by the firm leads to more production of output. That means to produce a given level of output, the organisational innovation allows the firm to use fewer units of inputs. It is expected that this will lower the firm’s marginal cost at any level of output, i.e. there is a rightward shift of the MC curve. As the firm’s supply curve is essentially a segment of the MC curve, technological progress shifts the supply curve of the firm to the right. At any given market price, the firm now supplies more quantity of output.

b. Input prices:
A change in the prices of factors of production (inputs) also influences a firm’s supply curve. If the price of input (e.g. wage) increases, the cost of production also increases. The consequent increase in the firm’s average cost at any level of output is usually accompanied by an increase in the firm’s marginal cost at any level of output, which leads to an upward shift of the MC curve. That means the firm’s supply curve shifts to the left and the firm produces less quantity of output.

Question 36.
Write a short note on profit maximization of a firm under the following conditions

1. P=MC
2. MC must be none decreasing at q₀.

Answer:
A firm always wishes to maximize its profit. The firm would like to identify the quantity q₀, the firm’s profits are less at q₀ For profits to be maximum, the following conditions must hold at q₀.

1. The price P must equal MC (P = MC):
Profit is the difference between total revenue and total cost. Both total revenue and total cost increase as output increases. As long as the change in total revenue is greater than the change in total cost, profits will continue to increase.

The change in total revenue per unit increase in output is the marginal revenue and the change in total cost per unit increase in output is the marginal cost.

Therefore, we can conclude that as long as marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost, profits are increasing and as long as marginal revenue is less than marginal cost, profits will fall. It follows that for profits to be maximum, marginal revenue should be equal to marginal cost.

For the perfectly competitive firm, we have established that the MR=P. So the firm’s profit-maximizing output becomes the level of output at which P = MC.

2. Marginal cost must be non-decreasing at q₀:
It means that the marginal cost curve cannot slope downwards at the profit-maximizing output level. This can be explained with the help of diagram:

In the given diagram, at output levels q₁ and q₄ the market price is equal to the marginal cost. However, at the output level q_1, the marginal cost curve is downward sloping. The q₁ is not profit-maximizing output level.

If we observe all output levels left to the q₁ the market price is lower than the marginal cost. But the firm’s profit at an output level slightly smaller than q₁ exceeds that corresponding to the output level q₁ Therefore, q₁ cannot be a profit-maximizing output level.

Question 37.
Explain the role of the government (state) and household sector in both developed and developing countries.
Answer:
1. Role of government:
In both the developed and developing countries, apart from capitalist sector, there is the institution of state. The role of the state includes framing laws, enforcing them and delivering justice. The state here refers to the government which performs various developmental functions for the society as whole.

It undertakes production, apart from imposing taxes and spending money on building public infrastructure, running schools, providing health services, etc. These economic functions of the state have to be taken into account when we want to describe the economy of the country.

2. Role of household sector:
By household we mean a single individual who takes decisions relating to her own consumption or a group of individuals for whom the decisions relating to consumption are jointly determined. Households consist of people. These people work in firms as workers and earn wages.

They are the one who work in government departments and earn salaries or they are the owners of firms and earn profits. Therefore, the market in which the firms sell their products could not have been functioning without the demand coming from the households. Further, they also earn rent by leasing land or earn interest by lending capital.

Question 38.
Write a note on externalities.
Answer:
An externality is a cost or benefit conferred upon second or third parties as a result of acts of individual production and consumption. But the cost or benefit of an externality cannot be measured in money terms because it is not included in market activities.

In other words, externalities refer to the benefits or harm a firm or an individual causes to another for which they are not paid or penalized. They do not have any market in which they can be bought and sold. There are two types of externalities viz.,

1. Positive externalities
2. Negative externalities.

For example, let us imagine that there is chemical fertilizer industry. It produces the chemical fertilizers required for agriculture. The output of the industry is taken for counting GDP of an economy. This is positive externality.

While carrying out the production, the chemical fertilizer industry may also be polluting the nearby river. This may cause harm to the people who use the water of the river. Hence their health will be affected. Pollution also may kill fish and other organisms of the river. As a result, the fishermen of the river may lose their livelihood. Such harmful effects that the industry is inflicting on others, for which it will not bear any cost are called negative externalities.

Question 39.
Write the meaning of transaction motive and speculative motive of demand for money and liquidity trap.
Answer:
a. Transaction motive:
Transaction motive demand for money refers to holding money to carryout transactions. If we receive our income weekly and make payments on the first day of every week, we need not hold any cash balance throughout the rest of the week. But our expenditure patterns do not normally match our receipts. People earn incomes at discrete points in time and spend it continuously throughout the interval.
The transaction demand for money is represented as follows:
M^d_T = k. T
Where, T is the total value of transactions in the economy over unit period and k is a position fraction.

b. Speculative motive:
Some people hold cash to invest on shares, debentures, gold, immovable properties, etc. The speculative demand for money refers to the demand for money that people hold as idle cash to speculate with the aim of earning capital gains and profits. The speculative demand for money can be written as follows:
\(M_{s}^{d}=\frac{r_{\max }-r}{r-r_{\min }}\)
Where, r is the market rate of interest and r_max and r_min are the upper and lower limits of r, both positive constants. It clearly states that as r decreases from r_max to r_min, the value of speculative demand for money decreases from zero to infinity.

Question 40.
Write a note on balance of trade.
Answer:
Balance of trade is the difference between the value of exports and value of imports of goods of a country in a given period of time. Export of goods is entered as a credit item in balance of trade. Import of goods is entered as a debit item in balance of trade. It is also called as trade balance. Balance of that is said to be in balance when exports of goods are equal to the imports of goods, i.e. balanced balance of trade.

Surplus balance of trade arises if country’s exports of goods are more than its imports. Deficit balance of trade arises if a country’s imports of goods are more than its exports. Balance of trade is narrow concept and it may not show the international economic position of an economy. It gives partial picture of international transactions and it is less reliable. It does not include net invisibles, i.e. the difference between the value of exports and value of imports of invisibles (services) of a country in a given period of time.

Question 41.
Explain the law of diminishing marginal utility with the help of a table and diagram.
Answer:
One of the most important propositions of the cardinal utility approach to demand was the Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility. German Economist Gossen was the first to explain it. Therefore, it is called Gossen’s First Law.

According to Alfred Marshall, “The additional benefit which a person derives from a given increase of a stock of a thing diminishes, other things being equal, with every increase in the stock that he already has”.

This law simply tells us that, we obtain less and less utility from the successive units of a commodity as we consume more and more of it.

Assumptions of the Law of DMU

1. Uniform quality and size of the commodity:
The successive units of the commodity should not differ in any way either in quality or size.

2. Suitable quantity of consumption:
The Commodity units should not be very small, e.g. milk should be in glasses and not in spoons.

3. Consumption within the same time:
Consumption must be continuous. There should not be so much difference in time between the consumption of successive units.

4. No change in the price of the commodity or its substitutes:
The law is based on the assumption that the commodity’s price is not changed with successive units. The price of the substitutes is also kept at the same level.

5. Utility can be measured in cardinal numbers, i.e. 1, 2, 3, 4, …….

6. Consumer must be rational, i.e. every consumer wants to maximize his satisfaction.

The basis of this law is that every want needs to be satisfied only up to a limit. After this limit is reached the intensity of our want becomes zero. It is called complete satisfaction of the want. Therefore, we consume more and more units of a commodity to satisfy our need, the intensity of our want for it becomes less and less.

Therefore, the utility obtained from the consumption of every unit of the commodity is less than that of the units consumed earlier. This can be explained with the help of the following table.

Units of Apples	Total Utility (TU)	Marginal Utility (MU)
1	30	30
2	50	20
3	65	15
4	75	10
5	80	5
6	82	2
7	82	0
8	80	-2

Suppose a man wants to consume apples and is hungry. In this condition, if he gets one apple, he has very utility for it. Let us say that the measurement of this utility is equal to 30 utils. Having eaten the first he will not remain so hungry as before. Therefore, if he consumes the second apple he will have a lesser amount of utility from the second apple even if it was exactly like first one.

The utility he got from the second apple equals 20 units, the third, fourth, fifth and sixth apples give him utility equal to 15, 10, 5 and 2 units respectively. Now, if he is given the seventh apple he has no use for it. That means the utility of the seventh apple to the consumer is zero.

It is just possible that if he is given the eighth apple for consumption, it may harm him. Here the utility will be
negative, i.e. -2. Therefore, we are clear that the additional utility of the successive apples to the consumer goes on diminishing as he consumes more and more of it.

The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility can be explained with the help of the following diagram.

In the diagram, the horizontal axis shows the units of apples and the vertical axis measures the MU and TU obtained from the apple units. The total utility curve will be increasing in the beginning and later falls. The marginal utility curve is falling from left down to the right clearly tells us that the satisfaction derived from the successive consumption of apples is falling.

The marginal utility of the first apple is known as initial utility. It is 30 utils. The marginal utility of the seventh apple is zero. Therefore, this point is called the satiety point. The marginal utility of the eighth apple is -2. So, it is called negative utility and lies below the X-axis.

PART-D

VII. Answer any Six of the following questions in 20 sentences each. (6 × 4 = 24)

Question 42.
Explain the market equilibrium with the fixed number of firms with the help of diagram.
Answer:
Under perfect competition, market is said to be in equilibrium when quantity demanded is equal to the quantity supplied. Here, with the help of market demand curve and market supply curve, we will determine where the market will be in equilibrium when the number of firms is fixed.
This can be illustrated with the help of the following diagram.

The given diagram illustrates equilibrium for a perfectly competitive market with a fixed number of firms. SS is market supply curve and DD is market demand curve. The market supply curve SS shows how much of the commodity firms would wish to supply at different prices and the demand curve DD tells us how much of the commodity, the consumer would be willing to purchase at different prices.

At point E, the market supply curve intersects the market demand curve which denotes that quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied. At any other point, either there is excess supply or there is excess demand.

OP is the equilibrium price and Oq is the equilibrium quantity. If the price is P₁, the market supply is q₁ and market demand is q₄. Therefore, there is excess demand in the market equal to q₁q₄ Some consumers who are either unable to obtain the commodity at all or obtain it in insufficient quantity will be willing to pay more than P₁ The market price would tend, to increase.

All other things remaining constant, when the price increases the demand falls and quantity supplied rises. The market moves towards equilibrium where quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied. It happens at P where supply decisions match demand decisions.

If the price is P₂, the market supply q₃ will exceed the market demand q₂ which leads to excess supply equal to q₂q₃ Some firms will not be able to sell quantity they want to sell. Therefore, they will lower their price.

All other things remaining constant, when the price falls, quantity, demanded rises and quantity supplied falls to equilibrium price P where the firms are able to sell their desired output as market demand equals market supply at P. So, the P is the equilibrium price and the corresponding quantity q is the equilibrium quantity.

Question 43.
Explain the short-run equilibrium of a monopolist firm, when the cost of production is positive by using TR and TC curves with the help of diagram.
Answer:
The short-run equilibrium of a monopolist firm, when the cost of production is positive by using TR and TC curves can be explained with the help of diagram as follows:

In the given diagram, total cost, total revenue, and profit curves are drawn. The profit received by the firm equals the total revenue minus the total cost. In the diagram, if quantity q₁ is produced, the total revenue is TR₁ and total cost is TC₁. The difference TR₁ – TC₁ is the profit received. The same is depicted by the length of the line segment AB, i.e. the vertical distance between the TR and TC U curves at q₁ level of output.

If the output level is less than q₂, the TC curve lies above the TR curve, i.e. TC is greater than TR and therefore profit is negative and the firm makes losses. The same situation exists for output levels greater than q₃. Hence, the firm can make positive profits only at output levels between q₂ and q₃.

where TR curve lies above the TC curve. The monopoly firm will chose that level of output which maximizes its profit. This would be level of output for which the vertical distance between TR and TC is maximum and TR is above the TC, i.e. TR – TC is maximum. This occurs at the output level q₀.

Question 44.
Explain the macroeconomic identities.
Answer:
The macroeconomic identities are as follows:

1. Gross domestic product (GDP):
Gross domestic product measures the aggregate production of final goods and services taking place within the domestic economy during a year. But the whole of it may not accrue to the citizens of the country. It includes GDP at market prices and GDP at factor cost.

GDP at market price is the market value of all final goods and services produced within a domestic territory of a country measured in a year. Here everything is valued at market prices. It is obtained as follows:
GDP_MP = C + I + G + X – M
GDP at factor cost is gross domestic product at market prices minus net indirect taxes. It measures money value of output produced by the firms within the domestic boundaries of a country in a year.
GDP_FC = GDP_MP – NIT.

2. Gross national product:
It refers to all the economic output produced by a nation’s normal residents, whether they are located within the national boundary or abroad. It is defined as GDP plus factor income earned by the domestic factors of production employed in the rest of the world minus factor income earned by the factors of production of the rest of the world employed in the domestic economy. Therefore,
GNP = GDP + Net factor income from abroad.

3. Net national product (NNP):
A part of the capital gets consumed during the year due to wear and tear. This wear and tear is called depreciation. If we deduct depreciation from GNP the measure of aggregate income that we obtain is called net national product. We get the value of NNP evaluated at market prices. So,
NNP = GNP – Depreciation.

4. Net national product (NNP) at factor cost:
The NNP at factor is the sum of income earned by all factors in the production in the form of wages, profits, rent, and interest, etc. belong to a country during a year. It is also known as national income. We need to add subsidies to NNP and deduct indirect taxes from NNP to obtain NNP at factor cost.
NNP_FC = NNP at market prices – indirect taxes + subsidies

5. Personal income (PI):
It refers to the part of national income (NI) which is received by households. It is obtained as follows:
PI = NI – Undistributed Profits -Net interest payments made by the households – Corporate tax + Transfer payments to the households from the government and firms.

6. Personal disposable income (PDI):
If we deduct the personal tax payments (income tax) and non-tax payments (fines, fees) from personal income, we get PDI. Therefore,
PDI = PI – Personal tax payments – Non-tax payments.

Question 45.
Explain the functions of money. How does money overcome the shortcomings of a barter system?
Answer:
The functions of money are broadly classified as follows:

1. Primary functions
2. Secondary functions
3. Contingent functions.

I. Primary functions: The primary functions of money are as follows:

a. Medium of exchange:
Money plays an important role as a medium of exchange. It facilitates exchange of goods for money. It has solved the problems of barter system. Barter exchanges become extremely difficult in a large economy because of the high costs people would have to incur looking for’suitable persons to exchange their surpluses. It helps the people to sell in one place and buy-in another place. Money has widened the scope of market transactions. Money has become a circulating material between buyers and sellers.

b. Measure of value/unit of account:
The money acts as a common measure of value. The values of all goods and services can be expressed in terms of money. As a measure of value, money performs following functions:

1. The value of all goods and services measured and expressed in terms of the money
2. Rate of exchange of goods and services expressed in money
3. Facilitates the maintenance of accounts
4. It facilitates price mechanism
5. It makes goods and services comparable in terms of price.

For instance, when we say that the value of a book is Rs.500 we mean that the book can be exchanged for 500 units of money where a unit of money is rupee in this case. If the price of a pencil is Rs.5 and that of a pen is Rs.10 we can calculate the relative price of a pen with respect to a pencil, i.e. a pen is worth 10/5=2 pencils.

II. Secondary functions: The secondary functions of money are as follows:

a. Store of value:
People can save part of their present income and hold the same for future. Money can be stored for precautionary motives needed to overcome financial stringencies. Money solves one of the deficiencies of barter system, i.e. difficulty to cany forward one’s wealth under the barter system.

For instance, we have an endowment of wheat which we do not wish to consume today entirely. We may regard this stock of surplus wheat as an asset which we may wish to consume or even sell-off”, for acquiring other commodities at some future date. But wheat is a perishable item and cannot be stored beyond a certain period.

Also, holding the stock of rice required a lot of space. We may have to spend considerable time and resources looking for people with a demand for wheat when we wish to exchange our stock for buying other commodities. This problem can be solved if we sell our wheat for money. Money is not perishable land its storage costs are also less.

b. Standard of deferred payments:
All the credit transactions are expressed in terms of money. The payment can be delayed or postponed. So, money can be used for delayed settlement of dues or financial commitments.

c. Transfer of value:
Money acts as a transfer of value from person to person and from place to place. As a transfer of value, money helps us to buy goods, properties or anything from any part of the country or the world. Further, money earned in different places can be brought or transferred to anywhere in the world.

III. Contingent functions of money: Other than primary and secondary functions, money also performs other functions which are as follows:

a. Basis of credit:
Money serves as a basis of the credit. The modem credit system exists only because of existence of money.

b. Distribution of national income:
Money helps in distribution of national income. The reward paid to factors of production in the form of rent, wages, interest, and profit are nothing but the distribution of national income at factor prices.

c. Provides liquidity and uniformity:
Money provides liquidity to all kinds of assets both moveable and immovable. Money can be converted into any type of asset and all assets can be converted into money.

d. Helps in consumers’ and producers’ equilibrium:
All goods and services are expressed in terms of money. The consumer attains equilibrium when the price of a product is equal to his marginal utility. Similarly, the producers reach equilibrium if they get maximum satisfaction. Both consumers and producers try to achieve equilibrium with the help of money.

Question 46.
Explain the classification of receipts.
Answer:
The government budget consists of revenue budget and capital budget. Both the budgets have receipts viz., revenue receipts and capital receipts.

I. Revenue receipts:
Revenue receipts are those receipts which do not lead to a claim on the government. They include the following:

1. Tax revenue.
2. Non-tax revenue.

1. Tax revenues:
These are the important component of revenue receipts. Tax revenue consists of direct tax and indirect taxes. The direct tax includes income tax, corporate tax and indirect tax includes excise duty (tax on production of goods in the country), customs duties (tax on exports and imports) and service tax (GST-goods and services tax has been introduced in place of indirect taxes from 1^st July 2017). Other direct taxes like wealth tax and gift tax have never brought in large amount of revenue and thus they are called as paper taxes.

2. Non-tax revenue:
The non-tax revenue of the central government consists of the following:

• Interest receipts on account of loans by the central government
• Dividends and profits on investments made by the government
• Fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government
• Grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organizations.

II. Capital receipts:
All those receipts of the government which create liability or reduce financial assets are termed as capital receipts. The government receives money by way of loan or from the sale of its assets. Loans have to be repaid to the agencies from whom the government has borrowed. Thus it creates liability. Sale of government assets like sale of shares in public sector undertakings (disinvestment) reduces the total amount of financial assets of the government.

When government takes fresh loans it means that it has to be returned with interest. Similarly, when government sells an asset it means that in future its earnings from that asset will disappear. Thus, these receipts can be debt creating or non-debt creating.

Question 47.
Briefly explain the foreign exchange market with fixed exchange rates with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
Under fixed exchange rate system, the government decides the exchange rate at a particular level. The foreign exchange market with fixed exchange rates can be explained with the help of following diagram.

In the given diagram, the market-determined exchange rate is e where demand and supply intersect. However, if the government wants to encourage exports for which it needs to make rupee cheaper for foreigners it would do so by fixing a higher exchange rate say, Rs.70 per dollar from the current exchange rate of Rs.65 per dollar.

Thus, the new exchange rate set by the government is E₁ where E₁ is greater E. At this exchange rate, supply of dollars exceeds the demand for dollars. The RBI intervenes to purchase the dollars for rupees in the foreign exchange market in order to absorb this excess supply which has been marked as AB in the diagram.

Thus, by interfering, the government can maintain any exchange rate in the economy. If the government wants to set an exchange rate at a level E₂ there would be an excess demand for dollars, the government would have to withdraw dollars from its past holds of dollar. If the government fails to do so, it will encourage black market transactions.

Question 48.
Briefly explain the expenditure method of measuring GDP.
Answer:
Expenditure method is the alternative way to calculate the GDP by looking at the demand side of the products. Here, the aggregate value of the output in the economy by expenditure method will be calculated in the following way.

In this method, we add the final expenditures that each firm makes. Final expenditure is that part of expenditure which is undertaken not for intermediate purposes. If the baker buys Rs. 50 worth of wheat from the farmers is considered as intermediate good and the final expenditure received by the baker is 200. Then the aggregate value of output of the economy is Rs. 200 + Rs. 50 = Rs. 250.

Let us assume that firm ‘i’ makes the final expenditure on the following accounts:

1. Final consumption expenditures on the goods and services by households denoted as C_i.
2. Final investment expenditure incurred by the firms on capital goods denoted as I_i.
3. The expenditure that the government makes on the final goods and services produced by the firm, denoted as G_i.
4. The export revenues that firm i earns by selling its goods and services abroad denoted as X_i.

Now the total final consumption, investment, government and export expenditures received by the firm i. Now GDP according to the expenditure method is expressed as follows:

GDP = ΣN_i-1RV_i = C + I + G + X-M

ΣN_i-1 RV_i is the sum of final consumption C, investment is I, government is G and exports is X expenditures (M is imports) received by all the firms in the economy.

PART-E

VIII. Answer any two of the following project-oriented questions. (5 × 2=10)

Question 49.
A consumer wants to consume two goods. The price of bananas is Rs.4 and price of mangoes is Rs.5. The consumer income is Rs.20.

1. How many bananas can she consume if she spend her entire income on that good?
2. How many mangoes can she consume if she spend her entire income on that good?
3. Is the slope of budget line is downward or upward?
4. Are the bundles on the budget line equal to the consumers’ income or not?
5. If you want to have more of banana, you have to give up mangoes. Is it true?

Answer:

1. 5 Bananas (20/4).
2. 4 Mangoes (20/5).
3. Slope of budget line is downward.
4. Yes, the bundles on the budget line are equal to the consumer’s income.
5. True, if we want to have more of banana we have to give up mangoes.

Question 50.
From the following data calculate personal income and personal disposable income.

(a)	Net domestic product at factor cost	8,000
(b)	Net factor income from abroad	200
(C)	Undisbursed profit	1,000
(d)	Corporate tax	500
(e)	Interest received by households	1,500
(f)	Interest paid by households	1,200
(g)	Transfer income	300
(h)	Personal tax	500

Answer:
Personal income = Net domestic product at factor cost + Net factor income from abroad + (Interest received by households – Interest paid by households) + Transfer income – Corporate tax – Undisbursed profit.
Therefore, – PI = 8000 + 200 + (1500 – 1200) + 300 – 500 -1000
= 8000 + 200 + 300+300-500-1000
= 7300
Personal Disposable Income = Personal Income – Personal Tax
Therefore PDI = 7300 – 500
= 6800.

Question 51.
Name the currencies of any five countries of the following USA, UK, Germany, Japan, China, Argentina, UAE, Bangladesh, Russia.
Answer:

Countries	Currency
USA	US dollars
UK	British Pound
Germany	Euro
Japan	Japanese Yen
China	Chinese yuan
Argentina	Argentine peso
UAE	UAE dirham
Bangladesh	Bangladeshi taka
Russia	Russian Ruble

Students can Download 2nd PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper June 2015, Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper June 2015

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

PART – A

Answer all the following questions. Each question carries one mark. (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
What is a motherboard?
Answer:
The motherboard is a large printed circuit board and every physical unit is connected to it. It is the main circuit board of computer system.

Question 2.
What is a logic gate?
Answer:
It is an electronic circuit having one or more than one input and only one output.

Question 3.
Give an example for linear data structure.
Answer:
The examples for linear data structures are stack, queues and linked lists.

Question 4.
What is a class?
Answer:
A class is a structured data type in C++ which is a collection of variables and functions.

Question 5.
Mention any one advantage of pointers.
Answer:
The advantage of pointer is memory can be allocated or deallocated dynamically.

Question 6.
What is a database?
Answer:
A database is a collection of large amount of related data. In other words, It is a collection of database tables.

Question 7.
Expand URL.
Answer:
Uniform Resource Locator.

Question 8.
Define bus topology.
Answer:
A bus topology consists of a central cable with a terminator at each end. All nodes (file server, workstations, and peripherals) are connected to the linear cable.

Question 9.
Name any one web browser.
Answer:
The name of a web browser is Google Chrome

Question 10.
Write any one HTML tag.
Answer:
HTML tag :

PART-B

Answer any five questions. Each question carries two marks. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
State and prove involution law.
Answer:
This law states that the double complement of a variable gives the same variable.

Question 12.
What is principle of duality? Give an example.
Answer:
The principle of duality states that starting with a Boolean relation, another relation can be derived by

1. Changing each OR sing (+) to an AND sign (.).
2. Changing each AND sing (.) to an OR sign (+).
3. Replacing each 0 by 1 and each 1 by 0.
4. All variables are complemented.

For example, (X + Y’) dual is (X’. Y)

Question 13.
Differentiate between base class and derived class.
Answer:
A base class is a class from which other classes are derived. The class that inherits is called derived class. The inheriting class is called the derived class.

Question 14.
Mention different types of constructors.
Answer:
The three types of constructors are

1. Default constructor.
2. Parameterized constructor.
3. Copy constructor.

Question 15.
What is a stream? Mention any one stream used in C++.
Answer:
A stream is a sequence of characters that move from the source to the destination. The streams generally used for file I/O is input stream, output stream, and error stream.

Question 16.
Write any advantages of database system.
Answer:
The two advantages of database system are controlling Redundancy and Sharing of data.

Question 17.
Mention any two data types used in SQL.
Answer:
The two data types used in SQL are number and varchar2.

Question 18.
Explain the circuit switching technique.
Answer:
A type of communication in which a dedicated channel (or circuit) is established at the time of transmission. For example, the telephone system, which links together wire segments to create a single unbroken line for each telephone call. Circuit-switching systems are ideal for communications that require data to be transmitted in real-time.

PART-C

Answer any five questions. Each question carries three marks: (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 19.
What is the function of UPS? Mention different types of UPS.
Answer:
The function of UPS is

• UPS unit give continuous power supply in the event of main source power break.
• It also regulates the high and low voltage in power supply.
• They give different backup power ranging from 15 minutes to several hours.

On-line UPS and Off-line UPS are the two types of UPS.

Question 20.
Write the logic diagram and truth table for a NAND gate.
Answer:
The truth table of NAND gate

The standard symbol of NAND gate.

Question 21.
Explain the various operations performed on queue data structure.
Answer:
A queue is a non-primitive data structure where an item is inserted at one end and removed from the other end.

The queue(), enqueue(item), dequeue(), isEmpty() and size() are the operations that can be performed on queues.

• Queue() – create an empty queue
• enqueue(item) – insert in element into the queue.
• dequeue() – remove the element from the queue.
• isEmpty() – returns true if queue is empty otherwise false.
• size() – give the count of elements in a queue.

Question 22.
What is array of pointers? Give an example.
Answer:
The one dimensional or two-dimensional pointer array is called array of pointer.
For example, int *ptr[5];
Where *ptr is array pointer variable and size of array is 5. i.e., ptr[0], ptr[l], ptr[2], ptr[3], ptr[4].

Question 23.
List the different modes of opening a file with their meaning in C++.
Answer:
The methods of opening file within C++ program

• Opening a file using constructor
• Opening a file using member function open() of the class

Opening a file using constructor:
The syntax for opening file for output purpose only is ofstream obj(“filename”);
Example:
ofstream fout(“results.dat”);

Question 24.
Write the different symbols used in E-R diagram with their significance.
Answer:

Question 25.
What is E-commerce? Explain any two types.
Answer:
The e-commerce is defined as buying and selling of products or services over electronic systems such as the Internet and other computer networks

1. B2B – Business to business:
Electronic commerce that is conducted between business organizations is referred to as business-to-business or B2B. for example, transactions between manufacturing industry with suppliers of raw materials.

2. B2C – Business to Consumer:
Electronic commerce that is conducted between trader and consumers is referred to as business-to-consumer or B2C. This is the type of electronic commerce conducted by companies such as Amazon.com, ebay.com, etc.

Question 26.
What is web-hosting? Mention different types of web-hosting.
Answer:
Web hosting means to put web-site content on a Web server and provide fast connection to the internet. The different type of web-hosting are:

1. Free Hosting
2. Virtual or Shared Hosting
3. Dedicated Hosting
4. Colocation Hosting

PART-D

Answer any seven of the following questions. Each question carries Five marks: (7 × 5 = 35)

Question 27.
Reduce.(F(A,B,C,D) = Σ(l,2,3,4,5,7,9, 11, 12, 13, 15) using Karnaugh map.

Answer:
Reduced Boolean expression is AD + D + C

Question 28.
Explain the memory representation of stack data structure using arrays.
Answer:
The items into the stack are stored in a sequential order from the first location of the memory block.
A pointer TOP contains the location of the top element of the stack.
A variable MAXSTK contains the maximum number of elements that can be stored in stack.
The stack is full when TOP = MAXSTK
The stack is empty when TOP = 0.

Question 29.
Write an algorithm of binary search.
Answer:

Question 30.
Mention any five applications of OOP.
Answer:
Some of the real life applications of object oriented programming are given below;

• Computer graphic applications
• CAD/CAM software
• Object oriented database
• User interface design such as windows
• Real time systems
• Simulation and modeling
• Artificial intelligence and expert systems.

Question 31.
What are access specifiers? Explain any two with examples.
Answer:
The data members and member functions can be accessed using access specifiers. They define the scope of members.
The different access specifiers are private, protected and public.

1. Private members:
The member data and members functions defined using access specifier private, can be accessed by member functions of that class only. Non-members of the class cannot access private members of the class. If no access specifier is mentioned for the members, then it is treated as private members.

2. Public members:
The public members of a class can be accessed by member functions of that class and also non member functions (outside the class) of the class. The public member functions can access private, protected and public data members of the class.

For example;

The private data members regno, fees and name can be accessed by only getdata() and printdata() public member functions of the class student.

Question 32.
What is function overloading? Explain the need for overloading.
Answer:
The overloading helps to apply polymorphism because Function overloading means two or more functions having same name but different types of arguments or different number of arguments. Whereas polymorphism refers to “one name having many forms of an object behavior depending on situations.

Function overloading is normally used when several function of the same name perform identical tasks on different data types. The overloading function helps to reduce the use of different names for many functions.

The developer of the program can use one function name to give function call to one in many functions and C++ select the appropriate function by checking the number of parameter and type of parameters. This reduces the selecting a function block to give a function call by the user.

It is easier to understand the flow of information that helps in faster debug. Easy program maintenance. There can be common interface between programs and real-world objects.

Question 33.
Explain destructor with syntax and example.
Answer:
It is a special function used to release the memory space allocated by the object.
→ Name of the Destructor is similar to the class, which it belongs.
→ It does not have argument(s) and doesn’t return any value (no return type)
→ Destructor is preceded by ~ (tilde) sign.
Following points should be kept in mind while defining and writing the syntax for the destructor:

• A destructor function must be declared with the same name as that of the class to which it belongs.
• The first character of the destructor name must begin with a tilde (~).
• A destructor function is declared with no return types specified (not even void).
• A destructor function must have public access in the class declaration.

General Syntax of Destructors:
~ classname();
The above is the general syntax of a destructor. In the above, the symbol tilde ~ represents a destructor which precedes the name of the class.
For example,

Question 34.
What is inheritance? Mention its advantages.
Answer:
In object-oriented programming, inheritance is a way to form new classes using classes that have already been defined.
1. Reusability:
Inheritance helps the code to be reused in many situations.

2. Saves Time and Effort:
Since the main code written can be reused in various situations as heeded.

3. Easy Maintenance:
The different part of the programs written in C++ can be easily maintained due to the features of Inheritance, polymorphism, dynamic binding, etc.,

4. Easy to extend:
The programs can be extended with new features by adding very easily.

5. Memory utlisation:
Due to the feature of dynamic binding and dynamic memory allocation (new and delete), memory can be efficiently used.

Question 35.
Define the following database terms

1. Data model
2. Tuple
3. Domain
4. Primary key
5. Foreign key

Answer:
1. Data model:
Data models are fundamental entities that define how the logical structure of a database is modeled. Data models define how data is connected to each other and how they are processed and stored inside the system.

2. Tuple:
Collection of related fields (e.g. Name, Age, register number, marks)

3. Domain:
A domain describes the set of possible values for a given attribute.

4. Primary key:
A primary key is a field in a table which uniquely identifies each row/record in a database table. Primary keys must contain unique values. A primary key column cannot have NULL values.

5. Foreign key:
A foreign key is a key used to link two tables together. Foreign Key is a column or a combination of columns whose values match a Primary Key in a different table.

Question 36.
What is data definition language? Explain SELECT and UPDATE commands.
Answer:
Data Defintion Language commands create database objects such as tables, views, etc., The various Data definition language commands are Create Table, Alter Table, Create View, Drop Table, etc.,

1. Select Command:
It is used to view tuple/records from the tables. It is a read only command.

Usage:
> select columns from table_name where condition;

For example:
> select * from tablename;
> select columnname1, columnname2,…. From tablename;
> select * from tablename where columnname=value

2. UPDATE command:
The update command is used to change row values from a table. The SET key word takes the column in which values needs to be changed or updated.
Syntax:
update tablename set columnname = value where condition;
Example:
> update marks set total = marks 1 + marks 2 + marks 3 where class =”IIPUC”;

Question 37.
Give the measures for preventing virus.
Answer:
1. Install quality antivirus:
The users should install professional, business-grade antivirus software on their PCs. Pro-grade antivirus programs update more frequently throughout the, protect against a wider range of threats (such as rootkits), and enable additional protective features (such as custom scans).

2. Install real-time anti-spyware protection:
Use of professional (or fully paid and licensed) anti-spyware programs are required to prevent infections and fully remove those infections already present.

3. Keep anti-malware applications current:
Antivirus and anti-spyware programs require regular signature and database updates. Without these critical updates, anti-malware programs are unable to protect PCs from the latest threats. Computer users must keep their antivirus and anti-spyware applications up to date.

4. Perform daily scans:
Enabling complete, daily scans of a system’s on hard drive gives protection. These daily scans can be invaluable in detecting, isolating, and removing infections that initially escape security software’s attention.

5. Disable autorun:
Many viruses work by attaching themselves to a drive and automatically installing themselves. As a result, connecting any network drives, external hard disks, or even thumb drives to a system can result in the automatic propagation of such threats. The users can disable the Windows autorun feature to avoid.

6. Don’t click on email links or attachments:
Users should never click on email attachments without at least first scanning them for viruses using a business-class anti-malware application. As for clicking on links, users should access Web sites by opening a browser and manually navigating to the sites.

7. Use a hardware-based firewall:
The software-based firewall included with Windows isn’t sufficient to protect systems. For this reason, all PCs connected to the Internet should be secured behind a capable hardware-based firewall.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018, Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Section – A

I. Answer ANY TEN of the following questions: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Define cohort.
Answer:
Cohort is a group of individuals who presumed to be born at the same time and who experience the same mortality conditions.

Question 2.
What is the value of Index Number for the base year?
Answer:
100.

Question 3.
Which weights are used in the construction of Laspeyre’s Price Index Number?
Answer:
Base year quantity : q₀

Question 4.
What is Time Series?
Answer:
Chronological arrangement of statistical data is called time series.

Question 5.
Under what condition Poisson distribution tends to Normal distribution?
Answer:
When λ is very large i.e., λ → ∞ poisson distribution tends to normal distribution.

Question 6.
Write the range of a Chi-square distribution.
Answer:
(0, ∞).

Question 7.
Which is the best estimator of population mean?
Answer:
Sample mean: x̄.

Question 8.
What is parameter space?
Answer:
Set of all admissible values of parameter is called parameter space.

Question 9.
In Statistical Hypothesis, if H₁ : μ < 50 kg then write H₀.
Answer:
H₀: μ = 50.

Question 10.
What is meant by Statistical Quality Control?
Answer:
It is the method of controlling the quality of the products using statistical technique.

Question 11.
What is feasible region (FR) in LPP?
Answer:
Feasible region is the area which satistifies by all constraints and non-negativity restrictions.

Question 12.
When is a Transportation Problem (TP) balanced?
Answer:
If Σa_i – availiability = Σb_j – Requirements, then T.P is called balanced.

Section – B

II. Answer ANY TEN of the following questions: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 13.
Mention the methods of collecting Vital Statistics.
Answer:

• Registration method
• Census method.

Question 14.
Write any two limitations of Index Number.
Answer:

1. Many formulae are used and they give different answers for the Index.
2. As the customs and habits change from time to time, uses of commodities also vary.

Question 15.
For the following data compute Value Index Number: Σp₀q₀ = 300 and Σp₁q₁ = 375.
Answer:

Question 16.
From the following Time Series data, calculate trends values by the method of SemiAverages

Answers:
Let x and y be year and profit, ŷ – trend analyss values

Question 17.
Define Interpolation and Extrapolation.
Answer:
Interpolation is the technique of estimating the value dependent variable(Y) for any intermediate ) value of the independent variable(X).
Extrapolation is the technique of estimating the value of dependent variable (Y) any value of independent variable (X) which is outside the given series.

Question 18.
Write down the Bernoulli distribution with parameter p – 0.4.
Answer:
p(x)= p^x q^1-x : x = 0,1; q = 1 – p = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6
p(x)= 0.4^x 0.6^1-x x = 0,1
OR

Question 19.
State any two features of student /-distribution.
Answer:
n is the parameter, Mean = 0, Range = (-∞, ∞)

Question 20.
Define Point estimation and Interval estimation.
Answer:
‘While estimating the unknown parameter, if a specific value is proposed as an estimate, which is called Point estimation’.
‘While estimating the unknown parameter instead of a specific value, an interval is proposed, which is likely to contain the parameter is called Interval estimation’

Question 21.
If n₁ = 40, n₂ = 60 and P₁ = 0.02 and P₂ = 0.01 then find S.E. (p₁ – p₂).
Answer:
S.E. (p₁ – p₂) = \(\sqrt{\frac{p_{1} Q_{1}}{n_{1}}+\frac{p_{2} Q_{2}}{n_{2}}}\) ∴ Q₁ = 1 – P₁ = 1 – 0.002 = 0.98
Q₂ = 1 – P₂ = 1 – 0.01 = 0.99
S.E (p₁ – p₂) = \(\sqrt{\frac{0.02 \times 0.98}{40}+\frac{0.01 \times 0.99}{60}}\) = 0.0256

Question 22.
What do you mean by Process control and Product control?
Answer:
Controlling the quality of the product during the manufacturing process itself is called process control.
Controlling the quality of the finished products/manufactured products is called product control.

Question 23.
The objective function and two solutions of an LPP are Max Z = 5X + 4Y and A(12,10); B(14, 4). Find the optimal solution.
Answer:
Z_A = 5(12) + 4(10) = 100; Z_B = 5(14) + 4(4) = 86.
Z_A is maximum. The optimal solution is at A: x = 12, y = 10.

Question 24.
From the following Transportation Problem test whether solution is degenerate.

Answer:
Number of allocations = 4
m(rows) + n(columns) – 1 = 3 + 3 – 1 = 5
Here allocations ≠ m+n-1, the solution is degenerate.

Section – C

III. Answer any ten of the following questions: (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 25.
From the following data calculate Crude Birth Rate (CBR) and General Fertility Rate (GFR):

Answer:

= \(\frac{1270}{54,000+55,820}\) × 1000 = 11.564 Births/1000 population

= 35.7746 Births/1000 population of women of child bearing age.

Question 6.
Calculate Un-weighted geometric mean price index number for the following data.

Answer:

Unweighted G.M. P.I No: P₀₁ = AL \(\left[\frac{\sum \log \mathrm{P}}{n}\right]\)
= AL \(\left[\frac{11.5641}{5}\right]\) = AL [2.3128] = 205.4944

Question 27.
What is Consumer Price Index Number (CPI)? Write its four uses.
Answer:
Refer Page No 47. Q.No. 09 and 17

Question 28.
Compute the trend values by finding 3 yearly moving averages for the following data.

Answer:
Let X and Y be the year and sales

Question 29.
Interpolate and Extrapolate the population of India for the census years 1981 and 2021 from the following data.

Answer:
Let X and Y be the census year and population

Number of known values ofy.n = 5. The Binomial expansion (y- 1)⁵ = 0;
y₅ – 5y₄ + 10y₃ – 10y₂ + 5y₁ – y₀ = 0 ………. (1)
122 – 5(103)+ 10(84)- 10y₂ + 5(55) – 44 = 0
122 – 515 + 840 – 10y₂ + 275 – 44 = 0; – 10y₂ + 678 = 0
∴ y = 67.8 crores is the population in 1981.
From equation (1) suffixes of y are increased by 1.
We get: y₆ – 5y₅ + 10y₄ – 10y₃ + 5y₂ – y₁ = 0
y₆ – 610 + 1030 – 840 + 339-55 = 0
y₆ – 136 = 0 ∴ y₆ = 136 crores is the population in 2021.

Question 30.
The number of accidents in a year attributed to taxi drivers in a city follows Poisson distribution with mean 2.5. Out of 2000 taxi drivers, find approximately the number of drivers with
(a) One accident,
(b) More than 2 accidents in a year
Answer:
Let X be the number accidents follows poisson distribution with the parameter λ = 2.5, N = 2000

No. of drivers with one accident = 0.2053 x 2000 = 410.6 = 411

(ii) P(more than 2 accidents) = p(x > 2) = 1 – p(x ≤ 2)
= 1 – [p(x = 0) + p(x = 1) + p(x = 2)]

= 1- e^-25 [1+2.5 +3.125] = 1 – 0.0821 × 6.625
= 1 – 0.5439 = 0.4561
No. of drivers with more than 2 accidents = 0.4561 × 2000 = 912.2.

Question 31.
In a Hyper Geometric distribution, if a = 6, b = 9 and n = 4 then find
(a) P(X = 2)
(b) Standard Deviation
Answer:

Question 32.
A manufacturer claims that less than 2% of the products are defective. A retailer buys a hatch of 400 products from the manufacturer and find that 12 are defectives. Test at 1% level of significance that whether the manufacturer claims is justifiable.
Answer:
Given: P = 2% = 0.0 2, Q = 0.98, n = 400, x = 12 and so p = \(\frac{x}{n}=\frac{12}{400}\) =o.03, ∝ = 1%
H₀: 2% of the products are defective (P = 0.02)
H₁ : less than 2% of the products are defective (P < 0.02) {Lower tail test -K}

Under H₀ the test statistic is:-

At ∝ = 1% the lower tail crtical value -K = -2.33
Here Z_cal lies in (Acceptance Region)
∴ H₀ is accepted.
Conclusion: 2% of the products are defective (P = 0.02)

Question 33.
A random sample of size 16 has mean 53. The sum of the squared deviations taken from mean is 150. Can this sample be regarded as taken from the population having mean 56? (K = ±2.13)
Answer:
Given :n= 16, x̄ = 53, Σ(X— X̄)² =150, µ = 56
H₀: Population mean = µ = 56
H₁ : Population mean differs from µ ≠ 56 {Two tailed test ± K = ± 2.13)

Under H₀, the test statistic is


Critical Values ± K = ±2.13 given.
Here t_cal lies in R.R (Rejection Region)
∴ H₀ is rejected and H₁ is accepted
Conclusion: Population mean differs from µ ≠ 56

Question 34.
Ten samples of size 50 each were inspected and the number of defectives in each of them was as follows.

Obtain the control limits for np-chart.
Answer:
Given: No. of defectives: Σd= 15, Sample no. K = 10 and n- 50

Standard not known, the control limits for np-chart are:
C.L = np̄ = 50 × 0.03 = 1.5
L.C.L = np̄ – 3\(\sqrt{n \bar{p} \bar{q}}\) = 50 × 0.03 – 3\(\sqrt{50 \times 0.03 \times 0.97}\) = -2.118 = 0 [Takenas’0′]
U.C.L = np + 3\(\sqrt{n \bar{p} \bar{q}}\) = 50 × 0.03 + 3\(\sqrt{50 \times 0.03 \times 0.97}\) = 5.1187

Question 35.
Solve the following game by Maxi-min and Mini-max principle. Is game fair?

Answer:

By Maxi min-minimax principle –

• Maximin (∝) – minimum pay-off in each row is/are circled.
• Minimax(β)-Maximum pay-off in each column is/are boxed.
• Saddle point occurs at (1,3). Here pay-off ‘0’ is circled as well as boxed.
• Suggested optimal strategies for the players are: For player A-A₁, For players B-B₃
• Value of the game: V = 0, yes the game is fair.

Question 36.
The capital cost of a machine is Rs. 10,500. Its resale value is Rs. 500. The maintenance costs are as follows:

When should the machine be replaced?
Answer:
Given: P = 10,500, S_n= 500 and so (P – S_n) = (10,500 – 500) = 10,000 is fixed for all the years.

From the above table the annual average maintenance cost A(n) is minimum for n = 5, is the optimal period for replacement of the machine and A(5) = ₹ 3,660/-

Section-D

IV. Answer any two of the following questions: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 37.
(a) From the following data show that Town-A is healthier.

Answer:
Here Deaths per 1000 are A.S.D Rs of Town A and B as A,B; P_s be the standard population

Here SDR (A) < SDR (B , so town – A is healthier

(b) Compute the Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR) from the following data

Answer:

Here , W.S.F.R – Women Specific fertility rate

W.S.F.R.(15-19)= \(\frac { 20 }{ 1600 }\) × 1000 = 12.5 1600
Similarly W.S.F.Rs can be calculated for the other age groups.

i = age width = 5; ΣW.S.F.R = 225
G.R.R = 5 × 225 = 1125 Female births/1000 Women population.

Question 38.
Compute Fisher’s Price Index Number. Show that Fisher’s Index Number satisfies TRT and FRT.

Answer:


T.R.T: p₀₁ × p_1o = 1 Except 100

Satisfies T.R.T

Question 39.
Fit a parabolic trend of the form Y = a + bX + cX² for the following Time Series.

Answer:
Let x and y be the year and production

From the normal equation na + bΣx + cΣx² = Σy; 5a + b.0 + c. 10 = 115
5a + 10c = 115 … (1) From: aΣx + bΣx² + cΣx³ = Σxy
a.0 + b. 10 + c.0 = -25; b = -2.5 and From: aΣx² + bΣx³ + cΣx⁴ = Σx²y ;
a. 10 + b.0 + c.34 = 237; 10a + 34c = 237 … (2)
from(l) and (2) 5a + 10c=115 × 2

0 – 14c = -7; ∴ c = 0.5; Put c = 0.5 in (1)
5a + 10(0.5)= 115; a = 22
The fitted parabolic trend equation is:-
y = a + bx + cx²; y =22 – 2.5x + 0.5x²

Question 40.
Fit a Binomial distribution for the following data and test at 5% level of significance that Binomial distribution is a good fit.

Answer:
Let x be the number of defective items is a Binomial variate with the parameter n = 5, and P is obtained as below:
Let f be the number of samples, then from the frequency distribution:


5p = \(\frac { 600 }{ 200 }\) , p = \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 }\) = 0.6, q=0.4
200 5
Then the p.m.f is:-
p(x) = ⁿC_xp^x q^n-x; x = 0,1,2 ….. n
p(x) = ⁵C_x 0.6^x 0.45^{5 – x}; x = 0,1,2, 5
Theoretical frequency : Tx = p(x) N
T₀ = ⁵C₀ 0.6⁰ 0.4^5-0 × 200 = 2.048
Using recurrence relation :


The fitted observed and theoretical frequency distribution (Approx) is:

CHI-SQUARE TEST:

H₀: Binomial distribution is good fit (0_i = E_i)
H₁ Binomial distribution is not good fit (0_i ≠ E_i) {upper tail text K₂}
Under H₀, the χ²-test statistic is:-

since P is estimated/calculated from the data and so (n – 1 – 1) = (n-2) d.f

χ²_cal =0.1206
At ∝ = 5% for (n- 2) = 5-2 = 3 d.f the upper tail critical value K₂= 7.81
Here χ²_cal lies in AR (Acceptance region).
Therefore H₀ is accepted.
Conclusion: B.D is a good fit.

Section-E

V. Answer any two of the following questions: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 41.
X is a normal variate with parameters mean (μ) = 50 and variance (σ²) = 16. Find the probability that
Answer:
Given: μ = 50, Variance = σ² = 16; σ = 4


= Area from 1.5 to (-∞)
= 1 – 0.0668 = 0.9332

(ii) P(52 < X < 55) = P\(\left(\frac{52-50}{4}<Z<\frac{55-50}{4}\right)\)
= p(0.5 < Z < 1.25)
= Area from 0.5 to ∞ -Area from 1.25 to ∞
= 0.3085 – 0.1056 = 0.2029

Question 42.
From the following data regarding average weight of boys and girls. Test whether the mean weight of boys are greater than mean weight of girls.

Answer:
Let n₁ = 64, n₂ = 48, x̄₁, = 63, x̄₂ = 60, S₁² -64, S₂² = 144 .
H₀: Mean weight of boys and girls are same (µ₁ = µ₂)
H₁ : Mean weight of boys is more than girls (µ₁ > µ₂) {upper tail test ± K}
Under H₀ the test statistic is :


At ∝ = 5% the upper tail critical value K = 1.65
Here Z_cal lies in A.R (Acceptance region).
∴ H₀ is Accepted.
Conclusion: Mean weight of boys and girls are same.

Question 43.
To test the effectiveness of vaccination against Tubeculosis (TB) and following data was obtained.

Test at 1% level of significance whether vaccination and attack of TB are independent.
Answer:
H₀: Vaccination and attack of T.B are independent.
H₁ : Vaccination and attack of T.B are dependent
The given data can be written under 2 × 2 contigency table as below:-
The 2 × 2 contingency table is:

From the contingency table the χ² – test statistic is –

At ∝ = 1% for l.d.f. the uppertail critical value K₂  = 6.65
Here χ²_cal lies in R.R (rejection region)
∴ H₀ is rejected and H₁ is accepted.
Conclusion: Vaccination and attack of T.B. are independent.

Question 44.
The annual demand for an item is 3000 units. Capital cost is Rs. 7 per unit. Inventory carrying cost is 20% of capital cost per annum. If setup cost is Rs. 150 then find
(a) Economic Order Quanity and
(b) Optimum number of orders.
Answer:
Given: R = 3000/year, P = 7, I = 20% per year
C₁ = PI = 7 × 20% = 1.4/year, C₃ = 150
Shortages not allowed use E.O.Q model I

Students can Download 2nd PUC Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper March 2019, Karnataka 2nd PUC Accountancy Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper March 2019

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions: –

1. All sub questions of Section – A should be answered continuously at one place.
2. Provide working notes wherever necessary.
3. 15 minutes extra time has been allotted for the candidates to read the questions.
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicates full marks.

Section – A

I. Answer any Eight questions, each question carries One mark : (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Government grant is treated as __________ receipt.
Answer:
Revenue receipt.

Question 2.
When the partners current accounts are prepared in partnership firm?
Answer:
Partners current account is prepared when the partners maintain their capital under Fixed Capital Method.

Question 3.
If the amount brought by a new partner is more than his share in capital, the excess is known as ___________
Answer:
Hidden Goodwill

Question 4.
Give the formula for calculation of new profit sharing ratio on retirement of a partner.
Answer:
New profit ratio = Old Ratio + Gain Ratio.

Question 5.
What is buy-back of shares?
Answer:
Buy – back of shares :
Also known as repurchase of shares by the company that issued them or purchase of its own shares from the market.

Question 6.
Debentures cannot be redeemed out of:
(a) Profits
(b) Provisions
(c) Capital
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Provisions

Question 7.
Financial statements generally include:
(a) Comparative statement
(b) Fund flow statement
(c) Income statement and balance sheet
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Income statement and balance sheet

Question 8.
Financial analysis is used only by the creditors. State True / False.
Answer:
False.

Question 9.
Give one example for current liability.
Answer:
Current liabilities → Creditors, Bills payable, Short term provisions, Short term borrowings.

Question 10.
Expand ICAI.
Answer:
The Institute of chartered Accountants of India.

Section – B

II. Answer any Five questions, each question carries Two marks : (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
State any two features of Receipts and Payments account.
Answer:
Features of receipts and payments account
(a) It is real account
(b)It is prepared on cash system of accounting.

Question 12.
Name any two contents of partnership deed.
Answer:
contents of partnership deed.
(a) Name and addresses of the firm
(b)Name and address of all the partners or any other

Question 13.
Goodwill of the firm is valued at two years purchase of the average profit of last four years. The total profits for last four years is ? 40,000.
Calculate the goodwill of the firm.
Answer:
Calculation of Good will:
Good will = Average profit of last 4 year x Number of years of purchase of Average profits.
Average profits = \(\frac { 40,000 }{ 4 }\) = Rs. 10000
Good will = Rs. 10,000 × 2 year purchase = Rs. 20,000

Question 14.
Give the Journal entry for the asset taken over by a partner in case of dissolution of partnership firm.
Answer:
Partner capital account Dr.
To Realisation A/c

Question 15.
What is forfeiture of shares?
Answer:
Forfeiture of shares means cancellation of the rights of the shareholders on the shares held by him for Non payment of allotment money or call money or both, on such shares.

Question 16.
Give the meaning of financial statements.
Answer:
Financial statements are the basic and formal annual reports through which the company communicates financial information to its owners and other stake holders/extemal parties.

Question 17.
List out any two techniques of financial statement analysis.
Answer:

1. Comparitive statements
2. common size statements
3. Trend and ratio analysis

Question 18.
Mention any two activities which are classified as per AS – 3.
Answer:
The two activities classified as per AS – 3 are

1. Operating Activities
2. Investing activities.

Section – C

III. Answer any Four questions, each question carries Six marks : (4 × 6 = 24)

Question 19.
Yashas and Abhi are partners in a firm, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:1. Yashas withdrew the following amounts during the year 2017-18 are given as under:
₹ 4,000 on 1.6.2017
₹ 10,000 on 30.09.2017
₹ 6,000 on 30.11.2017
₹ 12,000 on 1.1.2018
Interest on drawings is to be charged at 8% p.a.
Calculate the amount of interest to be charged on Yashas drawings for the year ending 31.3.2018.
Answer:
Calculation of Yashas interest on Drawing for the year ending 31.3.2018

Interest on Drawings = Total product \(\times \frac{\text { Rate }}{100} \times \frac{1}{12}=1,60,000 \times \frac{8}{100} \times \frac{1}{2}\) = Rs. 1067

Question 20.
Swarna, Swapna and Vidya are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. Vidya retires from the firm. Swarna and Swapna agreed to share equally in future.
Calculate the gain ratio of Swarna and Swapna.
Answer:
Calculation of Gain Ratio :

∴ Gain Ratio =1:3

Question 21.
Shobha, Sudha and Rathna are partners. Sharing profits and losses in the ratio 2:2:1.
Their Balance sheet as on 31.03.2018 was as follows:

Rathna died on 30.06.2018. Her executor’s should be entitled to :
(a) Her capital on the date of last Balance sheet.
(b) Her share of reserve fund on the date of last Balance sheet.
(c) Her share of profit up to the date of death, on the basis of previous year’s profit. Previous year profit is Rs. 20,000.
(d) Her share of goodwill. Goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs. 40,000.
(e) Interest on capital at 10% p.a
You are required to ascertain amount payable executors of Rathna by preparing Rathna’s capital account. .
Answer:

Question 22.
Ganesh co., ltd., purchased assets of the book value of Rs. 99,000 from another firm. It was agreed that purchase consideration be paid by issuing 11% debenture of Rs. 100 each. Assume debentures have been issued.
(a) At par
(b) At discount of 10% and
(c) At a premium of 10%
Record necessary Journal entries.
Answer:

Question 23.
From the following information, prepare statement of profit and loss for the year ended 31.03.2018 as per schedule – III of the companies Act. 2013.
Answer:

Answer:

Question 24.
Calculate current ratio and Liquid ratio from the following information :

Answer:
Calculation of Ratios:

Current Liabilities Rs.50,000
Note: Current Assets = Trade receivable + Cash in hand + cash at Bank + Inventories + Advance Tax
= 30000+ 10000+ 10000+ 20000+ 10000 = Rs.80,000

Note: Liquid / Quick assets = Current assets – Stock – Prepaid expenses
= Rs. 80,000 – 20,000 – 10,000 = Rs. 50,000

Question 25.
Mangala ltd. arrived at a Net income of Rs. 5,00,000 for the year ended 31.03.2018. Depreciation for the year was Rs. 2,00,000. There was a profit of Rs. 50,000 on assets sold which was transferred to statement of profit and loss. Trade receivable increased during the year Rs. 40,000 and Trade payables also increased by Rs. 60,000.
Compute cash flow from operating activities by the indirect method.
Answer:

Section-D

VI. Answer any four questions, each question carries Twelve marks : (4 × 12 = 48)

Question 26.
From the following Receipts and payments account and Balance sheet of union club, prepare Income and Expenditure account for the year ended 31.03.2018 and the Balance sheet as on that date.

Receipts and payments a/c for the year ended 31.03.2018

Adjustments:
(a) Subscription outstanding on 31 March, 2018 ₹ 10,000.
(b) Salary outstanding on 31 March, 2018 ₹ 1,000.
(c) Depreciate furniture and Books at 10% each (only on opening Balances)
(d) Donation to be capitalised.
(e) Electricity charges paid in Advance ₹ 650.
Answer:

Question 27.
Given below is the Balance sheet of Kumar of Kumar and Rajashekar, who are carrying on partnership business as on 31 March, 2018. Kumar and Rajashekar share profits and losses in the ratio of 2 :1.


Shamanth is admitted as a partner on the date of the Balance sheet on the following terms.
(a) Shamanth bring in Rs. 1,00,000 as his capital and Rs, 60,000 as his share of goodwill for l/4th share in profits.
(b) Plant is to be appreciated to Rs. 1,20,000 and the value of Building is to be appreciated by 10%.
(c) Stock is found over valued by Rs. 5,000.
(d) A provision for Doubtful debts is to be created at 5% on Debtors. Prepare Revaluation account, partners capital accounts and Balance sheet of the constituted firm after admission of the new partner.
Answer:

Question 28.
Rekah and Chetana sharing profits as 3 :1 and they agree upon dissolution. The balance sheet as on 31 March, 2018 is as under :

Additional information:
(a) Rekah took over plant and Machinery at an agreed value of ₹ 12,000.
(b) Stock and furniture were sold for f 8,400 and ₹ 2,780 respectively.
(c) Debtors were taken over by Chetana at ₹ 13,000.
(d) Liabilities were paid in full by the firm.
(e) Realisation expenses were ₹ 320.
Prepare:
(a) Realisation A/c
(b) Partners’ Capital Accounts and
(c) Bank A/c
Answer:

Question 29.
Vigneshwara Trading Co., Ltd., issued 10,000 ordinary shares of ₹ 100 each, at a premium of ₹ 10 per share. The amount payable is as follows:
On application ₹ 20
On Allotment ₹ 40 (including premium)
On First and final call ₹ 50.
All the shares were subscribed and the money duly received except the first and final call on 500 shares. The directors forfeited there shares and re-issued them as fully paid at ? 80 per share.
Pass the necessary Journal entries in the books of the company.
Answer:

Question 30.
Give the Journal entries for issue of Debentures for the following cases in the Books of Reliance co., Ltd. .
(a) Issue of ₹ 2,00,000,9% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at par and redeemable at par.
(b) Issue of ₹ 2,00,000,10% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at a premium of 5% but redeemable at par.
(c) Issue of ₹ 2,00,000,12% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 5%, redeemable at par.
(d) Issue of ₹ 2,00,000, 8% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at par but redeemable at a premium of 5%.
Answer:

Question 31.
From the following information, prepare comparative Balance sheet of Honda company Ltd.,

Answer:

Question 32.
From the following particulars calculate:
(a) Inventory turn over ratio.
(b) Trade receivable turn over ratio
(c) Trade payable turn over ratio
(d) Gross profit ratio
(e) Operating ratio
(f) Net profit ratio.

Answer:

Section-E
(Practical Oriented Questions)

V. Answer any Two questions, each question carries Five marks: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 33.
Write two partners capital accounts under fluctuating capital system with 5 imaginary figure.
Answer:

Question 34.
Prepare Executor’s loan account with imaginary figures showing the repayment in two annual equal installments along with interest.
Answer:

Question 35.
Name the major heads under which the following items will be presented in the Balance sheet of a company
(a) Share Capital
(b) Debentures
(c) Trade payables
(d) Furniture
(e) Inventory
Answer:

Students can Download 2nd PUC Geography Model Question Paper 1 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs
Max. Marks: 100

Section – A

I. Answer the following in one sentence each: ( 1 × 10 = 10 )

Question 1.
Name any two countries which have highest birth rate in the world?
Answer:

1. Neger – 51.26 briths per 1000 Population
2. Chad-47 births per 1000 Population.

Question 2.
What is Mining?
Answer:
Mining refer to the Extraction of the minerals from the Earth such as Iron ore, Manganese. Gold, Coal, Diamond and Petroleum.

Question 3.
Name the first artificial satellite lounched by Russia?
Answer:
‘Sputnik’ on 1957.

Question 4.
Define Mega city?
Answer:
Mega city is a metropolitan area with total Population of more than 10 million People.

Question 5.
Which state has highest Sex – ratio in India?
Answer:
Kerala (1084 females for every 1000 males) accordings to 2011 census.

Question 6.
Name the dam which was constructed across the river Sutlej Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:
Bhakra – Nangal dam.

Question 7.
What is tissue culture?
Answer:
The growing of cell or tissue or an organ in an artificial aseptic and nutritive medium is called “Tissue culture”.

Question 8.
What for Digboi is famous?
Answer:
The first oil well was drilled at Digboi. And Major oil fields of Assam state are in Digboi.

Question 9.
Where was the first cotton industry established in India?
Answer:
The first modem cotton mill was setup in 1818 at ‘Fort Glaster’ near Kolkata.

Question 10.
On which river bank Kolkata Port located?
Answer:
On the Hoogly river 148km from the sea.

Section – B

II. Answer any ten the following in 2-3 sentences each: ( 2 × 10 = 20 )

Question 11.
Differentiate between secondary and tertiary activities?
Answer:
Secondary activities:- the processing and conversion of raw materials into useful Products are concidard as secondary activities.
Tertiary activities:- where as tertiary sector is basically the part of the economy that helps both the sector of primary and secondary it includes all kinds of services.

Question 12.
Why lumbering has developed in cold temperate regions?
Answer:
Coniferous forest region is ideal for the gathering forest products for livelihood by man which is found in cold temperate region. So it encourages largely on this part of the world.

Question 13.
Mention any two cultural and religious towns of the world?
Answer:

1. Mecca
2. Rome

Question 14.
Name two states of highest and lowest HD I in India.
Answer:
Kerala has a highest and Chhattisgarh has a lowest HDI in India.

Question 15.
Name the varieties of coffee?
Answer:

1. coffee Robusta
2. Coffee Arabica
3. Coffee liberica

Question 16.
Mention any four metallic minerals?
Answer:

1. Iron ore
2. Copper
3. Manganese
4. Bauxite

Question 17.
Distinguish between conventional and non-conventional energy sources.
Answer:
The resources which cannot be used again and again for example, coal, petroleum natural gas are called ‘conventional power resources” in contrast, the resoures which can be use again and again forex: Solar, wind, tidal, Hydro electricity etc. are called ‘non conventional power resources”.

Question 18.
Mention the major sugar Producing states of India?
Answer:

1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Maharashtra
3. Tamilnadu
4. Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, etc.

Question 19.
Write the advantages of Rail transport?
Answer:

1. They help the industry by transporting raw – material,-labour, fuel by distribution and . marketing.
2. Railways are promoting the movement of goods and passenger traffic
3. They are promoting the development of foreign trade
4. It is the cheapest means of surface transport to carry the bulky goods for the longer distances.

Question 20.
State the commodities of exports from India?
Answer:
Plantation crops, agricultural and- allied products, ores and minerals, chemical and related products, textiles, electronic goods, Information technology etc are the’ important exports of India.

Question 21.
What are the causes for air pollution?
Answer:

1. Increased use of varieties of fuels such as coal. Petrol, and diesel.
2. increase in emission of Toxic gases from industrial activities into the atomosphere.
3. Mining activities release dust in the air.
4. Important pollutants are oxides of sulpher and nitrogen hydro carbons dioxide, carbon monoxide lead and asbestos

Question 22.
Define sustainable development with examples?
Answer:
The term sustainable development is defind as development to acheive the needs of present generation without compromising future generation.
Ex: Sustainable development takes care of ecological, social and economic aspects of development.

Section – C

III. Answer any eight of the following in 25-30 sentences each:  ( 5 × 8 = 40 )

Question 23.
Explain the scope of Human geography?
Answer:
Scope of Human geography.
As early societies become more successful in meeting their needs with in Permanent settlements.

• The rise of agricultureing activities led to more complex economic and political boundaries were created and more settlement grew into towns and cities.
• The physical environment also changed with the influence of modem urbanized and industrized world that we known today.
• One of the greatest challenges faced by humans today is how to manage energy resources in a sustainable fashion with our inflicting permanent damage to environment in the form of land, air, water, pollution and climatic changes.

Question 24.
Explain the distribution of population in the world?
Answer:
The population of the world is
unevenly distributed. The distribution of population is expressed in terms of density. The density is the ratio between the numbers of people to the size of land. Distribution of 0C£M population of the world has been divided into three regions.
(a) Area of high density
(b) Area of medium density
(c) Area of low density

1. Area of high density: The three principal high density zones are:

• Eastern, southern and south – eastern part of Asia.
• North – western part of Europe
• North – Eastern part of USA and south eastern part of Canada.

2. Area of Midiun density: The population moderately dense in tropical regions of the world and the moist temperature regions of the Argentina south East Africa and eastern Australia.

3. Aiea of low density: The area which are nearest to the north and south poles, hot and cold desertes and high rain fall zones near the equator have very low density of population.

• Asia is the most populous continent. It accounts about ’61 present’ of the world population.
• Africa is second most populated continent with 13 percent
• Europe has 12 percent
• South America 8.5 percent
• Northern America 5 percent
• Oceania is the least – populated region which has 0.5 percent
• Antarctica is uninhabited permanently.

Question 25.
Explain the demographic cycle?
Answer:
Demographic cycle is the process of population transformation from the countries of high birth rate and high death rates to low birth rate & low death rate countries.
Stages of Demographic cycle:

• First stage: High birth rate and high death is found when the country is economically most backward, so the population remains stationary. india was in the stage till 1920.
• Second stage (Early expanding): It begins with the declining of death rate while the birth rate ramins unchanged. These changes due to the advancement of science & technology, basic healthcare and education etc. At present many developing countries of Asia & Africa are in this stage.
• Third stage (Late expanding): Death rate declines and birth rate begins to fall due to access of contraceptives, urbanization, an ilicreascE in the status and women education etc India appears to be this stage.
• Fourth stage (Low stationary): It is characterized with low birth rate and low death rate. Growth is stationary due to changing life style, high obesity and many diseases are caused in this stagé. Japan, Sweden, Belgium Denmark & Switzerland are in this stage.
• Fifth stage(Declining): Population begins to decline or birth rate is lower than deathrate. East European countries like Germany and Hungary and North European countries like Sweden, Norway are now in this stage.

Question 26.
Write a note an water transport?
Answer:
Water Transportation is ideal for the movements of bulky heavy large quantities of commodities as well as perishable products. As such the oceans are considered as the natural high ways of the world. Some of the important ocean routes.

• The northern Atlantic sea route:- It connects north eastern USA and north western Europe. The two industrially developed regions of the world. The north Atlantic sea route is the busiest route in the world and called “The Big Trunk Route”.
• The Mediterranean sea route:- the cape of good hope sea route in the oldest route of the world discovered by vasco-da-Gama in 1948. Many ships follows this route to avoid heavy Taxation at the Suez canal.
• The north – Pacific sea route connects the port are vanconver. Seattle, posttand.
  Sanfranciso, losangles onAmerican side andYakohoma, Kobe, Shangai, Hanking, Manila, Singapore on the Asia side.
• The south Atlantic sea Route:- The eastern coast of South America with western coast of south America with western coast of Africa and Europe this route is not well developed.
• Shipping canals: The shipping canals are most important and plays a crucial role in the world transport Pattern. The Major shipping canals in the world are the suez and the panama canals.

Question 27.
Explain the causes and impacts of rapid growth of population in India?
Answer:
1. High Birth Rate – High birth rate is the dominate factor in rapid growth of population in India. It was 492 in 1901 and has declined to 22.22 per thousand in -2011.

Causes for high birth rate : There are several causes for high birth rate in India. For example : Early marriage, Universal marriage, religious and superstitions, joint family system, illiteracy polygamy, predominance of agriculture, poverty, slow urbanization process, tropical climate etc. All these factors have been caused directly or indirectly for high birth
rate.

2. Low Birth rate: Death rate was very high (42.6) in 1901, but it was sharply declined to 6.4 per thousand persons) in 2011.
Causes for low death rate : There are many causes for declining trend of deathrate they are control of epidemics, decline in the incidence of Malaria and tuberculosis expansion of medical facilities, control of infant mortality, spread of education, improvement in the nutrition level etc, due to all of these programs and activities, death rate has been declining from one decade to another.

The Rapid growth of population has led to a number of problems as follows:-

1. Unemployment and Underemployment: It has been increasing from year to year. It has badly affected on young educated people both in rural and urban areas.
2. Shortage of food & Malnutrition : A large number of people are poorly fed. Malnutrition is prevailing throughout the country. It is fatal for the development of the country.
3. Burden on Civic & Social Amenities : Education, health and medical, housing, drinking water, electricity and problems increases.
4. Low per’capita income : The increase in per capita income is only 15% annually. Low per capiia income has a direct impact on the economic condition of the people.
5. Increase of Unproductive population : Below 15 years (Infants) and above 60 years (old age) are unproductive. They are dependent on earning persons. Thus rapid growth has increased dependents rather than producers. . .
6. Others: Slow in economic development, mass poverty, low standard of living, political unrest and the social problems like theft robbery, immortality, corruption and the growth of slums, environment pollution are also directly related to the popuahion explosion.

Question 28.
What is Migration? Explain the types of migration?
Answer:
Migration:
The movement of people from one place to another is known as migration.
The types of Migration arc Internal Migration and International Migration

1. Internal Migration :
Movement of people from one region to another within the same country’ is called internal migration. In India there are four streams of internal migration. They are
(a) Rural to Rural
(b) Rural Lo Urban
(e) Urban to Urban
(d) urban to Rural

(a) Rural to Rural: This is estimated that about 65.2% of total migration is of this category’.
Female migrants dominated in this stream. Thus it is an important example for matrimonal migration and it is called women migration.
(b) Rural to Urban : Rural to Urban migration (17.6%) is second important type of migration. Rural – Urban migration is caused by both push of the rural areas as well as pull of the urban areas.
(c) Urban to Urban : Generally, people like to move from small town with less facility to large cities with more facilities.
(d) Urban to Rural : Urban areas are usually affected by the pollution.
The retired and aged people prefer to spend their old age life in nearby villages. Thus people move from Urban to Rural.

2. International Migration : Movement of people from one country to another across international borders is called International migration.

Question 29.
Give an account of land use pattern in India?
Answer:
The important types of land use pattern in India are :

1. Forest area
2. Land not available for cultivation
3.  Cultivable wasteland
4. Fallow land
5. Net area sown.

1. Forest area :

• According to National Forest Policy 1952, reporting area of the forest must be 33.3.% of the total land.
• Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Odisha, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Andaman Nicobar. Islands are reporting more area under forests.
• It is due to heacy rainfall and relief features.

2. Land not available for cultivation :

• The land used for human settlements, transport routes, canals, quarries, the mountains, deserts, marshes etc, are coming under this category. It accounts 14.2% of the total land in India.
• Arunachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh, states are having more area under this category.

3. Other Uncultivated lands including fallow land :
This category includes permanent pasture as other grazing area, land under miscellanous tree crops, groves and cultivable waste. This category covers about 8.6% of the country’s total reporting land.
The cultivable waste land is found more in the states of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

4. Fallow lands :

• The land which is not used for cultivation for last 3 to 5 years is considered as fallow land.
• It accounts for about 8.13 % of Indias total land.
• The land under this category is reported more in the states of Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand.

5. Net area sown :

• India has a net sown area of 46.2% of the total reporting land in India.
• Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmii, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Mizoram.

Question 30.
Write a note on UKP.
Answer:
This is the biggest Multipurpose project in North Karnataka across the river Krishna.

• it comprises two dams namely Alamatti and Narayanapura.
• The Alamatti dam is constructed near Alamatti village in Basavana Bagewadi taluk and the Narayanapura dam is located near Siddapur village in Muddebihal taluk of Bijapur district.
• The Alamatti dam is 1,578 mt long & its height is 47.8 mt above the lowest foundation level with a gross capacity of 5,285 mcum.
• The Narayanapura dam is 10,637 mt long and 29.7 mt high above the lowest foundation level with a gross capacity of 10,66 mcum.
• It is going to irrigate about 6.22 lakh hectares of land in Bagalkot district, Bijapur district, Yadgir district, Gulbarga district, Raichur district.
• The project also include 6 units of power generation at Alamatti having a total capacity of 268 mw.

Question 31.
Discuss the importance of agriculture in India? –
Answer:
Importance of agriculture in India :
Agriculture is the most important Primary activity and the oldest occupation of human beings in India.

•  Main source of livelihood : About 70% of the people directly and indirectly depend on agriculture for their Livelihood.
• Food supply : Agriculture provides food grains, fruits, vegetables, spices etc to the people and fodder for the animals.
• Provides employment facilities : Agriculture is largest sector providing highest employment.
• Source of National income : It contributes to the national income .of the country.
• Source of raw materials for Agro-based-industries ex: Raw cotton, sugar cane and Jute.
• Source of large amount of revenue to the government.
• Support to tertiary sector like transport, communication, banking, insurance etc.
• Help to internal trade like Agricultural products are transported from the area of surplus production to the area scarcity.
• Support to export, many agricutlural products produced in the country are exported i.e. tea, coffee, Jute, Tobacco etc.
• Political & Social situation in the country is determined by the agricultural production

Question 32.
Describe the distribution of wheat cultivation in India?
Answer:
Wheat growing areas can be divided into two:

1. Alluvial soilregion – Which includes Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan Bihar,
   Madhya Pradesh, west Bengal and Uttar Kannada.
2. Black soilregion – Includes Maharastra, Gujarath, and Western Andhra Pradesh.

1. Uttar Pradesh: It is the largest wheat producing state of India. About 75% area of the state is under wheat cultivation. It is found largely in Ganga – Ghagra and Ganga – Yamuna doabs. Gorakhpur, Meerut, Bulandsher, Jhans: etc.
2. Punjab: It is second largest producer of wheat in India. Leading wheat producing districts are L Jalandhar, Ludhiana Bhatinda and Amritsar districts.
3. Haryana: It is 3rd largest wheat producing state,and stands 1st in yield per hect of country ie 50.30 quintals per hectare. Kamal, Kurushetra Ambala, paniput, Sonipat are the leading wheat producing areas.
4. Madhya Pradesh: It ranks 4th place in wheat production in the country. Sagar, Vidisha, Marena, Gwaliar are important wheat production areas.
5. Rajasthan: It is fifth largest producer of wheat in the country. Ganganagar, kota, Jaipur, Ahwar, Tonk and Udaipur are the important produces.
6. Bihar: It ranks 6th place in the wheat production. Bhoj pur, Nalanda, patna Begusarai, Saron, and siwan are main wheat growing districts.
7. Others: Gujarath, Maharashtra west Bengal, Uttar Khand, Himachal Pradesh, and Karnataka.

Question 33.
Write a note on Road transport of India?
Answer:
A well known and co-ordinated system of transport plays an important role on trade, transport, social integration and economic development of the country. Importance:- * roads play a vital role in transporting the passengers for a short and Medium distances. * It is capable of providing door to door service * the perishable goods like vegetables, fruits, and milk can be transported easily by road ways. * Road – transport helps the industry by moving raw materials to industries and finished goods to market. * it provides employment opportunities. * The road traffic accounts for 85% of passengers and 65% of goods traffic by the end of length plan. * It plays a vital role in national and International security. * In hilly area, roads are only the means of effective transport. * Lastly roads are especially useful for defence, purpose, particularly in border areas.

Question 34.
Explain the causes and problems of Slums?
Answer:

• Slums are in environmentally unsuited and degraded area. Houses in slums are decaying, poor hygienic conditions, poor ventilation.
• Lack of basic amentities like drinking water, light and toilet facilities.
• They are overcrowded having narrow street pattern prone to serious hazards from fire.
• People living in slums are poor. Therefore problems are common.
• They arc the undernourished, prone to different types of diseases and illness.
• They can not afford to give proper education to their childern.
• The Poverty makes them valnerable to drug abuse alcoholism, critic, vandalism and ultimately they face social exclusion.

Causes for the slums:
City characterized by substandard housing and dirt

• Most are inhabited by poor people lacking reliable sanitation.
• Scarcity of clean water reliable electricity, timely law enforcement and other basic services.
• Slum residences are poorly built, deteriorated building.

Section – D

IV. Answer any one of the following: ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 35.
Discuss the distribution of coal in India? 1
Answer:
Importance :

• Coal constitutes about 70 percent of the total commercial power consumed in India.
• Coal is a source of energy and raw material for many chemical industries.
• It provides many by products i.e., tar napthaline, ammonia gas, coal gas, benezol etc.
• These are used in the manufacture of synthetic fibres, rubber, plastic, explosives, dyes and insecticides.

Distribution :

• Currently the leading producer of coal in India are Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and
• Madhya Pradesh.
• These four states contributes 84.33 per¬cent of the India’s coal production.

1. Chhattisgarh : It is having first place in the production of coal in India.

• It produces 31.3 percent coal of India.
• Major coal fields of the state are located in the Northern part of the state i.e, Surgija, Bilasapur and Korba.

2. Jharkhand : Jharkhand is the second larg¬est producer of coal in India.

• It produces more than 20.3 percent of coal in 2011-2012.
• Jharia, Bokaro, Giridhi, Karnapur, Ramagarh are very important.
• Jharia is one of the oldest and richest coal fields of India. It has been recognised as the “Store house of the best metallurgical coal” in the country.

3. Odisha : It is the third largest producer of the coal and contributing 19.5 percent of the total coal production of the country .

• Most of its coal deposits in Dhenkanal, Sambalapur and Sundaragh districts.

4. Madhya Pradesh : Jharkhand is the second largest producer of coal in India.

• The main coal depoists are located in Sindhi, Shahdol, Betul, Narasingour and Chhindwara districts.

5. Andhra Pradesh :

• It produces about 9.7 percent of coal.
• It is found in Adilabad, Karimnagar, Warangal districts. ‘

6. Maharashtra : The coal deposits of the state occur in Wardha valley, Ballarpur, Warora in Chandrapur district.

7. West Bengal :

• It has 4.48 percent of the total production of the country.
• Burdwan, Bankura, Purulia, Daijeeling and Jalpaiguri are the chief coal producing districts.

Production :
The total reserves of all grade coal in India is 283.50 billion tonnes.

• India is producing 560.90 million tonnes of coal in 2012-13.
• So India ranks third among the coal producing countries of the world next to China and USA.
• It contributes 10.2 percent of the total world’s production of coal.

Question 36.
Explain the development and distribution of Iron and steel industry in India?
Answer:
Importance:

• The Iron and Steel industry is described as a basic Industry.
• Iron and Steel supplied by this industry such as machineries, irrigation projects, ship build¬ing, power projects, construction of bridges, buildings, transport equipment, machine tools and so on.
• The Production and Consumption of Iron and Steel is an index level of the economic develpoment of a country.

Distribution:
There are nine major Iron and Steel industries in India.

• Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO), Jamshedpur :- It was established in 1907. It was the first largest steel plant of the country.
• Vishveswariah Iron and Steel Co. Ltd (VISL) Bhadravathi 11 was first estab¬lished in 1923 by the princely state of Mysore located at Bhadravathi in Shimoga district of Karnataka.
• India Iron and Steel Company Ltd (IISCO) Bunpur:- It was established in 1919 at Bumpur in West Bengal. It was the second largest integrated steel plant after Tata Iron and Steel Ltd.
• Hindustan Steel Company Ltd,
• Rourkela :- It was completed with the German collaboration. The steel plant was comminssioned in 1955.
• Bhilai Steel Plant :- It has the largest steel production plant of the public sector. It is located at Bilai near Raipur in Chhatisgarh.
• Durgapur Steel Plant :- The steel plant in Durgapur in West Bengal was established with British collaboration and was commissioned in 1956.
• Salem Steel Plant:- It is located at Salem in TamilNadu and the production was started from 1982.
• Vishakapatnam Steel Plant :- Established by National Ispat Nigam Ltd in Andhra Pradesh.
• New Steel Plants Some private sectors plants are.
• Jindal Vijaynagar Steel Ltd (JVSL):- This steel plant is located at Tomagal, Bellary district in Karnataka.
• Essar Steel Ltd (ESL):- It is situated at Hazira in Gujarat.
• Ispat Insutries Ltd (IIL):- It is situated at Dovi, Ratnagiri district of Maharashtra.
• Neelachal Ispat Nigam Ltd (NINL) :- It is a new steel plant located at Dubai, Odisha.
• Mini Steel Plants :- Presently, 199 lincensed electric ore furnace units with an installed capacity of 7.8 million tonnes have been commissioned and hence started commercial production.

Section – E

V. Answer any two of the following: ( 10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 37.
Represent the following data by a pie-chart?
India: Area under selected kharif crops (in lakh hectare)


Answer:

Crops	Area
Cereals	35
Pulses	16.4
Oil seeds	12.0
Commercial crops	11.0
Others	5.1

Question 38.
Construct a line graph to represent the following data.
Karnataka ; Selected districts wise area under rice [in hectares]

Answer:

District	Area
Bellary	1,22,72 1
Davanagere	1,30,208
Mysore	1,23,803
Raichur	1,64,925
Shimoga	1,31,070
Mandya	88,657

Question 39.
Represent the following data by means of vertical bar graph.
India : Decade – wise sugarcane production (in million tons)

Year	Production
1951	57.05
1961	110.0
1971	126.36
1981	156.24
1991	241.04
2001	286.00
2011	310.0

39. Answer any two questions of the following
(a) Distinguish between primary and secondary data.
Answer:

Primary	secondary
(a) The data which are collected for the first time by a researcher or group of researchers, institutions or organizations are called Primary data.	(a) The data those have been collected and analyzed already by some departments, NGO’s etc …. are called Secondary data,
(b) These are original in character and first hand information.	(b) Here instead collecting the data by primary method the researcher may take, the help of secondary data.

(b) Explain the components of GIS.
Answer:
The components of GIS are

1. Data : Geographical data can jbe divided into 3
   • Spatial data Any data which is associated with a specific geographical location, eg Locating of India, Bangalore city, KRS dam.
   • Attribute/Non-spatial data Any data which is not associated with a specific geographical location.
   • Continous dataThe data which have no discrete boundaries like soil, atmospheric temperature and land elevation.
2. Software : There are the programmes designed to run the computer. However, GIS is designed to collect, store, process geographical data and construct maps.
3. Hardware : Hardware comprises storing and processing devices like central process unit, monitor}’, key board, mouse, printer, scanner etc …
4. People : This component consists of the skilled people who involve in data capturing, ‘, processing and analysing.
5. Analysis : It involves the processing of GIS data with various analyses so as to get meaningful information.

(c) Explain the three segments of GPS.
Answer:
There are three segments of GPS:-
1. The space segments : The satellites of GPS are launched and positioned at an altitude of approximately 20200 km which is almost more than three times of the earth’s radius. The space segment consists of a constellation of 24 functioning GPs satellites located in 6 orbital plane with 4 satellites in each orbital plane. The time for the satellite to complete
one revolution around the earth is 11 hrs and 58 minutes.

2. The control segment: The control segment consists of facilities necessary for satellites especially healthy monitoring, telemetry, tracking command and control clock error ‘ computation .of satellites. There are 5 GPS stations spread over the earths surface they are –

• Hawaii
• Colorado spring
• Ascension Island
• Diego Garcia
• Kwajalein.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs. 15 Min.
Max. Marks: 70

PART-A

I. Each question carries one mark. (10 × 1 =10)

Question 1.
What is the function of North Bridge in the motherboard?
Answer:
The northbridge is an integrated circuit (1C ) is responsible for communication between ‘ the CPU interface, AGP, and the RAM memory.

Question 2.
Define logic gate.
Answer:
A gate is an electronic circuit that operates on one or more signals and always produces an output signal.

Question 3.
What are primitive data structures?
Answer:
Data structures that are directly operated upon by machine level instructions are known as primitive data structures.

Question 4.
How are member functions defined?
Answer:
The member function can be defined inside the class definition and outside the class definition.

Question 5.
What is dynamic memory?
Answer:
Allocation of memory at the time of execution (run time) is known as dynamic memory allocation.

Question 6.
What is an attribute?
Answer:
An attribute is the characteristic property of an existing entity.

Question 7.
What do you mean by transmission modes?
Answer:
The way in which data is transmitted from one place to another is called data transmission mode. It des indicates the direction of flow of information.

Question 8.
What is a SIM card?
Answer:
A Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) card is a portable memory chip used mostly in cell phones. These cards hold the personal information of the account holder, including his or her phone number, address book, text messages, and other data.

Question 9.
Expand IPR.
Answer:
The expansion of IPR is Intellectual Property Rights

Question 10.
What is DHTML?
Answer:
Dynamic HTML is an extension to HTML that will enable a web page to react to user input without sending requests to the web server.

PART-B

II. Each question carries two marks. (5 × 2=10)

Question 11.
Convert the expression (A+C) (C+D) to canonical Product of Sum form.
Answer:

Question 12.
Given the expression in four variables, draw the K-map for the function m₂+m₃+m₅+m₇+m₉+m₁₁+m₁₃.
Answer:
a) m₂+m₃+m₅+m₇+m₉+m₁₁+m₁₃.

Question 13.
What is the difference between program module and an object?
Answer:
A program module is a self-contained independent program segment only it does not provide security to data whereas an object is a collection of data members and member functions that operate on data and data is provided with security.

Question 14.
Mention the features of parameterized constructors.
Answer:
The features of parameterized constructors are

• parameterized constructors can be overloaded
• parameterized constructors can have default arguments and default values.

Question 15.
Mention the methods of opening files within C++ program.
Answer:
The methods of opening file within C++ program

• Opening a file using constructor
• Opening a file using member function open()

Question 16.
What is the difference between serial and direct access file organization?
Answer:
In sequential access data is stored at random locations.

• In direct access data is stored at sequential locations.
• Data structure implementing Sequential access is linked list.
• Data structure implementing Direct access is an Array.

Question 17.
Explain the features of SQL.
Answer:
The features of SQL:

• SQL is an ANSI and ISO standard computer language for creating and manipulating databases.
• SQL allows the user to create, update, delete, and retrieve data from a database.
• SQL is very simple and easy to learn.

Question 18.
Name the different types of cables used in transmission.
Answer:
The different types of cables used in transmission are

• Unshielded Twisted Pair Cable (UTP cable)
• Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable
• Coaxial Cable
• Fiber Optic Cable

PART C

III. Each question carries three marks. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 19.
Explain any three types of motherboard.
Answer:
The three types of motherboard are XT motherboard, AT motherboard and ATX motherboard.

1. XT motherboard:
The extended Technology motherboards are old model motherboards. Slot type processors, Low Insertion Force (LIF) sockets, DIMM RAM slots and ISA slots with 12 pin power connectors can be seen.

2. AT motherboard:
Advanced Technology motherboards has Pin Grid Array (PGA) socket, SDRAM slots, 20 pin power connector, PCI slots, and ISA slots. Example: motherboard for Pentium 3 processors.

3. ATX motherboard:
Advanced Technology extended motherboards are comparatively latest boards with MPGA processor sockets, DDR RAM slots, PCI slots, primary and secondary IDE interfaces, SATA connectors, 20 pin and 24 pin ATX power connectors and USB ports.

Question 20.
Prove the following rules using the proof of perfect induction
a. XY’ + XY = X
b. X+Y = Y+X
Answer:
a. XY’ + XY = X
By proof of perfect induction X = 0, Y =1 XY’ + XY = X
LHS = 0.0 + 0.1±0 + 0 = 0
By proof of perfect induction X = 1, Y = 0 LHS = 1.1+ 1.0= 1 + 0= 1

b. X + Y = Y + X
By proof of perfect induction X = 0, Y = 1 LHS = 0 + 1 = 1 RHS = 1 + 0=1 LHS = RHS

By proof of perfect induction X = 1, Y = 0 LHS = 1 + 0 = 1 RHS = 0 + 1 = 1 LHS = RHS

Question 21.
Write a short note on arithmetic expression.
Answer:
An expression is a combination of operands and operators that after evaluation results in single value. Operands consist of constants and variables. Operators consist of +,-, *, /.. etc., The different methods for evaluation of arithmetic expressions are Infix expression, Postfix expression, and Prefix expression.

1. Infix expression:
If an operator is in between two operands then it is called infix expression. For example A+B

2. Postfix expression:
If an operator follows the two operands, it is called postfix expression. For example, AB +

3. Prefix expression:
If an operator precedes two operands, it is called prefix expression. For example, + AB

Question 22.
How to declare and initialize pointer? Give example.
Answer:
The pointer declaration syntax:
datatype *pointername;
To initialize pointer:
pointervariable = &variable;
For example; inta, *ptr;
ptr = &a; .
From the above, address of variable ‘a’ is assigned to variable ‘ptr’.

Question 23.
Write the different member functions belonging to stream class.
Answer:
The member functions belonging to fstream class are constructor, open, is_open, close, and inherits get(), getline(), read(), seekg() and tellg() from istream, inherits put(), write() seekp() and tellp() from ostream.

Question 24.
Explain any three components of E-R diagram.
Answer:
The three main components of E-R diagram are Entity, Attribute, and Relationship.
1. Entity:
An entity is a person, place, thing or event for which data is collected and maintained.

2. Attribute:
An attribute is the characteristic property of an existing entity.

3. Relation:
A relation is defined as a set of tuples that have the same attributes. A relation is usually described as a table, which is organized into rows and columns.

Question 25.
Write the advantages of WWW.
Answer:
Advantages of WWW

• Availability of mainly free information
• Reduces the costs of information
• The same protocol of communication can be used for all the services
• Provide rapid interactive communication
• Provides the exchange of huge volumes of data
• Provides access to different sources of information, which is continuously up-dated

PART-D

IV. Each question carries five marks. (7 × 5 = 35)

Question 26.
Use Karnaugh map to reduce the given functions using SOP form. Draw the logic gate diagrams for the reduced SOP expression. You may use gates with more than two inputs. Assume that the variables and their complements are available as inputs.
Answer:


Question 27.
Write a short note on stack.
Answer:
A stack is an ordered collection of items in which data items may be inserted and deleted at one end. This end is referred as “top”. The opposite to top is known as “base”. The most recently added item in the stack is removed first. This working principle is sometimes called LIFO (Last In First Out). Newer inserted elements will be near the top and elements that are inserted at the beginning are near the base.

The applications of stack:

• Arithmetic Expression evaluation
• Arithmetic Expression conversion
• Recursive function .
• Backtracking (game playing, finding paths, exhaustive searching)
• Memory management, run-time environment for nested language features.

The operation on stack is

• stack() creates a new empty stack,
• push(item) insert new item at the top of stack,
• pop() removes the top element from the stack,
• peek() returns the top item of the stack,
• Empty() checks the stack is empty or not and
• size() returns number of items present in the stack

Question 28.
Write an algorithm to delete a data element from the front end of the queue.
Answer:
Step 1: if FRONT = -1 then
Print “Queue is Underflow”
Exit
End of if
Step 2: ITEM = QUEUE [FRONT]
Step 3: if FRONT = REAR then
FRONT = 0 REAR = 0
Else
FRONT = FRONT+1
Step 4: return

Question 29.
Write a short note on inheritance and polymorphism.
Answer:
1. Inheritance:
Inheritance is the process of creating new classes, called derived class, from existing or base classes. The derived class inherits all the capabilities of the base class. Using Inheritance some qualities of the base classes are added to the newly derived class, apart from its own features. Inheritance permits code reusability. The different types of inheritance are single inheritance, multilevel inheritance, multiple inheritance, hierarchical inheritance, and hybrid inheritance.

2. Polymorphism:
The polymorphism is ability of an object to take more than one form in different instances. For example, one function name can be used for different purposes. Similarly, same operator can be used for different operations. There are of two types one is the “compile time polymorphism” and other one is the “run-time polymorphism”. The polymorphism is implemented using function overloading and operator overloading in C++.

Question 30.
Illustrate how an array of objects can be defined.
Answer:
The arrays can be used as data members and objects as well. For example,



in the above example, data members are name, Regno, and fees are data members. The . getdata() and printdataQ are the members functions of the class student and obj is an array of objects of type class student. The for loop is used to pass value to data member for all the objects and another time for loop is used to print the data values of data. members of the class.

Question 31.
Write a short note on function overloading.
Answer:
Function overloading means two or more functions having same name but different types of arguments or different numbers of arguments. Function overloading is also known as compile time polymorphism. Function overloading is normally used when several functions of the same name perform identical tasks on different data types.

Reasons for function overloading.

1. The overloading function helps to reduce the use of different names for many functions.
2. The developer of the program can use one function name to give function call to one in many functions. This reduces selecting a function block to give a function call by the user.
3. It is easier to understand the flow of information that helps in faster debug.
4. Easy program maintenance.

The restrictions on overloaded functions are

• The parameters/arguments should differ in the number of arguments or if they have same number of argument then they should differ in the type of the arguments
• The use of typedef keyword for naming functions is not treated as different type but is only a synonym for another type.

Declaration and Definition of overloaded functions:

Question 32.
Write a short note on destructors.
Answer:
It is a special function used to release the memory space allocated by the object.

• Name of the Destructor is similar to the class, which it belongs.
• It does not have argument(s) and doesn’t return any value (no return type)
• Destructor is preceded by ~ (tilde) sign.
  Following points should be kept in mind while defining and writing the syntax for the destructor:
• A destructor function must be declared with the same name as that of the class too. which it belongs.
• The first character of the destructor name must begin with a tilde (~).
• A destructor function is declared with no return types specified (not even void).
• A destructor function must have public access in the class declaration.

General Syntax of Destructors:
~ classname();
The above is the general syntax of a destructor. In the above, the symbol tilde ~ represents a destructor that precedes the name of the class.

Question 33.
Explain multiple inheritances with a suitable C++ program.
Answer:

Question 34.
Explain Chen’s style and Martin’s style of relation.
Answer:
Cardinality specifies how many instances of an entity relate to one instance of another, entity i.e., it specifies the occurrences of relationship and also specifies the maximum number of relationships. The cardinality notation can be shown using Information Engineering style, Bachman style, Chen style, and Martin style.

Question 35.
List the built-in functions associated with Group functions in SQL.
Answer:
The built-in functions associated with GROUP functions in SQL are
1. COUNT function:
returns the count of records that satisfies the condition for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT department, COUNT(*)FROM employees WHERE salary > 25000 GROUP BY department;

2. MAX function:
returns the maximum values from the column for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT department, MAX(salary) FROM employees GROUP BY department;

3. MIN function:
returns the lowest values from the column for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT department, MIN(salary)FROM employees GROUP BY department;

4. AVG function:
returns the average values from the column for each group of records. SELECT AVG(cost) FROM products WHERE category = ‘Clothing’;

5. SUM function:
returns the total values from the column for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT department, SUM(sales)FROM order_details GROUP BY department;

DISTINCT function:
returns the once occurrence of many repeated values from the column for each group of records.
SELECT AVG(DISTINCT cost)FROM products WHERE category = ‘Clothing’;

Question 36.
Explain network security in detail.
Answer:
Network security refers to any activities designed to protect the network and related. activities. It protects the usability, reliability, integrity, and safety of network and data. Good network security identifies variety of threats and stops them from entering or spreading on network.

The network security concerns with allowing only legal or authorized users and programs to gain access to information resources like databases. It also ensures that properly authenticated users get access only to those resources that they are supposed to use.

Many network security threats today are spread over the Internet. The most common include:

• Viruses, worms, and Trojan horses
• Spyware and adware
• Zero-day attacks also called zero-hour attacks
• Hacker attacks
• Denial of service attacks
• Data interception and theft
• Identity theft

A network security system usually consists of many components. Ideally, all components work together, which minimizes maintenance and improves security.
Network security components include:

• Anti-virus and anti-spyware
• Firewall, to block unauthorized access to your network
• Intrusion prevention systems (IPS), to identify fast-spreading threats, such as zero-day or zero-hour attacks
• Virtual Private Networks (VPNs), to provide secure remote access
  The network security make use of variety of resources like user name, password, encrypted smart cards, biometrics, and firewalls to protect resources.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Paper 4 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in one word – or a sentence each. (10 x 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Who is called as the ‘Iron Man of India’?
Answer:
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is called as the ‘Iron Man of India’.

Question 2.
Which Political party secured majority in the First General Election?
Answer:
Indian National Congress (INC) secured majority in the First General Election.

Question 3.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
Answer:
The President of India, on the advice of Union cabinet, appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India.

Question 4.
Expand EPIC.
Answer:
Elector’s Photo Identity Card.

Question 5.
Give an example of Central Services.
Answer:
Indian Foreign Services.

Question 6.
Who is the head of District Administration?
Answer:
The Deputy Commissioner (DC) is the head of the District Administration.

Question 7.
What is Economic exploitation?
Answer:
Economic exploitation refers to the economic inequality between the Backward Classes and other forward classes.

Question 8.
Which day is celebrated as The Labours Day?
Answer:
1^st of May is celebrated as The Labours Day.

Question 9.
What is a democratic movement?
Answer:
Afro-Asian nations started to overthrow despotic, autocratic other authoritarian governments and demanded democratic rights through movements. This is called democratic movement and 21^st century is known as the era of democratic movements.

Question 10.
Who was the architect of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was the architect of India’s foreign policy.

II. Answer any 10 of the following questions in 2-3 sentences: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
What is Paramountcy?
Answer:
Paramountcy of Suzerainty refers to the Princely states accepting British supremacy but enjoyed little freedom in internal affairs.

Question 12.
When and where did the Backward Classes Movement start in Kama- taka?
Answer:
During 1920, an agitation was started by Backward classes in the Mysore Province to get political participation to Non-Brahmins and was led by Sri Kantaraje Urs.

Question 13.
What is the ‘Child Labour System’?
Answer:
Children working below the age group of 14 years in industries, mines, etc. are deprived from getting basic education.

Question 14.
State any two features of Coalition government.
Answer:
Features:

1. Coalition is the product of multiparty system.
2. It is a democratic arrangement.
3. It challenges single party dominance and in which smaller parties come together to defeat bigger ones in elections and snatch power.
4. Coalition may be a pre-poll arrange mentor a post-poll arrangement.

Question 15.
On what matters the central government can advise the states during normal times?
Answer:
On issues like the Railways, proper means of communication and transports, ensuring the welfare of SCs and STs, the central government advises the states.

Question 16.
State any two obstacles in removing corruption in India.
Answer:
Bribery, fraud, nepotism, and cronyism are the hurdles in creating a corruption-free India.

Question 17.
Name any two racial groups of Syria.
Answer:
Syria has a multi-ethnic population comprising of Arabs, Kurds, Armenians, Assyrians, and Turkmens.

Question 18.
What is national power?.
Answer:
It is the sum total of the strength and capabilities of the State harnessed and applied, to the attainment of its national objectives.

Question 19.
State any two objectives of the U.N.
Answer:

1. To maintain international peace and security.
2. To develop friendly relations among nations.

Question 20.
When was the first NAM summit held and where?
Answer:
The first summit of NAM was held at Belgrade, Yugoslavia in 1961.’

Question 21.
Name the two power blocks.
Answer:
With the beginning of cold war, two power blocs have emerged, i.e., USA for spreading Democracy and the Soviet Union for spreading Communism.

Question 22.
Write any two reasons for the liberation of Bangladesh.
Answer:
The communal clashes in Tripura. Millions of refugees fled to India which caused uneasy law and order situation upsetting Indian economy and social peace.

III. Answer any eight of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 23.
State the main provisions of the Indian Independance Act of 1947.
Answer:
Provisions:
1. The Act Provided that on 15^th August 1947, the appointed date, two independent dominions, India and Pakistan, would be set up and the Act provided for complete transfer of power.

2. The dominion of India got the territories of Bombay, Madras, UP, Central Provinces, Bihar, Assam, Delhi, Ajmer, Coorg, etc., and the rest of India except Sindh, Baluchistan, West Punjab, East Bengal, North West Frontier Province and Sylhet in Assam, which became the territories of Pakistan. For demarcating the boundaries, a Boundary Commission was formed with Sir Cyril Radcliffe as the Chairman.

3. The Crown was no longer the source of authority.

4. The Governor General and provisional Governors were to act as constitutional heads. They lost extra-ordinary powers to legislate.

5. The office of the Secretary of State was abolished.

6. From 15^th August 1947, the British Crown lost all rights of Paramountcy over India and the Indian states were free to join either Indian Union or Pakistan.

7. The power in each dominion was transferred to the Constituent Assembly which became fully sovereign from 15^th August 1947 and was absolutely free to frame the constitution. The Constituent Assemblies had a dual role i.e. Constituent and Legislative. They functioned as Central Legislature, till the new Legislatures were formed.

8. Until the new Constitution was framed, the Act of 1935 would govern the Centre and the Provinces with necessary modifications.

Question 24.
Explain the “Patel Scheme”.
Answer:
Sardar Patel and V.P. Menon dealt with matters arising between Central Government and Indian states, during the process of integration. Patel handled the princes with patience, tact, sympathy and an iron hand. The process of integration was three-fold and known as the ‘Patel Scheme’.

1. Merger of small states with adjoining provinces:
About 216 states were merged with provinces adjoining them, e.g: Merger of 24 states of Orissa, 14 states of Central Province, Pudukottai with Madras, etc. These merged states were included in part B of the Constitution.

2. Grouping of small states:
Many small states grouped themselves to form a big state with the ruler of the most important becoming the Rajpramukhs e.g.: Union of Saurashtra, Patiala, and East Punjab States Union (PEPSU), etc. These unions were called part B states.

3. Integration into Chief Commiss- oner’s Provinces:
About 61 states which were quite small and backward were converted into centrally administered areas as Chief Commissioner’s Provinces and were called Part-C States, e.g.: Himachal Pradesh, Ajmer, Coorg, Cooch-Bihar, etc.

Question 25.
What are the advantages of EVM?
Answer:
The Electronic Voting Machine(EVM) is one of the important innovations of modem technology. It has replaced the system of ballot box and ballot papers with the most effective Electronic Voting Machine. EVM consists of a controlling Unit and a Balloting Unit and both are interconnected with a cable.

The balloting unit is kept in the place where voters exercise votes. The controlling unit is with the polling officer. After the voter proves his identity, by pressing the blue button on the balloting unit against the candidate’s symbol he casts his vote. With the beeping sound, the voting procedure gets completed.

Uses of EVM:

1. EVM can be easily operated and saves time.
2. It is simple to operate by the voter to cast vote.
3. Quick and accurate results.
4. Economic and Eco If friendly.
5. Avoids invalid votes.
6. Control of irregularities.
7. NOTA option is provided.

Question 26.
Explain the role of Deputy Commissioner in District Administration.
Answer:
The Deputy Commissioner. (DC) is the head of U the District. He also acts as the District Magistrate Superintendent of police (SP), District Treasury Officer. Deputy Director of Pre University Education, Social Welfare Officer, Deputy Director of Public Instruction District Medical Officer, Deputy Registrar and other functions under the jurisdiction of the Deputy Commissioner. The Deputy Commissioner performs the following functions.

1. Law and order and Magisterial powers:
Deputy Commissioner enjoys magisterial powers. Being the District Magistrate, he maintains law and order and performs other judicial functions in the district.

2. Revenue functions:
It includes maintenance of Land Records and its assessment, collection of Land Revenue and other public dues and settlement of land disputes. Assistant Commissioners and Tahsildars work under the overall supervision and control of the Deputy Commiss- ioner.

3. Development Functions:
It includes Public Health, Educational Rural Development, Social Welfare (Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe) and Welfare of Backward Classes and Minorities and Protection of Weaker sections of the Society.

4. Regulatory Functions:
It includes control, regulation, and distribution of Food and Civil Supplies and essential commodities. He also controls the matters relating to excise, stamps, and registration.

5. Electoral Functions:
Deputy Commissioner is the District Election Officer and he is in charge of elections to Parliament, State Legislature and Local bodies.

Question 27.
Explain the political implications of Peasants Movement.
Answer:
Political implications:
The successive Governments have taken measures to reduce the problems of peasants by the following methods.
1. Agricultural Loans:

• National Crop Insurance Programme (NCIP).
• National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS).
• Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme. (WBCS)
• Primary Land Development Bank (PLD).

2. National Agriculture Scheme:
For agricultural improvements, National Development Council (NDC) has made enormus arrangements in 2007 and National Agriculture scheme was implemented with a view to enhance 4% in agricultural production. The main objective of this plan is to determine agricultural policy of all the states and provide essential facilities.

3. Waiving of debts:
When farmers are not able to get the yield to their expectations they cannot clear the debts. To uplift the farmers from debts the Governement have taken necessary measures to waive the debts of farmers. This has reduced the suicide and death rate of farmers.

4. Establishment of Peasant Liason centres:
To protect farmers from low quality seeds, fertilizers and protect crops from diseases, Peasant Liason centres are opened to provide necessary implements and information related, at Hobli level.

5. Veterinary services:
Government is proving veterinary services to the livestock which also supports agriculture. Though encouraging dairying and saavayava Krishi (Organic agriculture) which are allied sectors.

6. Land Reforms Act:
National Land Reforms Act was implemented in Karnataka in 1974 when Sri Devaraj Urs was the Chief Minister of Karnataka. Land reforms Act of 2013 provides more compensation to Landowners, rehabilitation and settlement facilities, retaining the ownership of land with farmers, no forceful acquisition of agricultural land till the final settlement facilities, retaining the ownership of land with farmers, no forceful acquisition of agricultural lands till the final settlement. Providing the same quantum of land elsewhere in the case of SCs and STs.

Question 28.
Elucidate the role of Saalumarada Thimmakka in Environmental protec- tion.
Answer:
Achievement of Saalu Marada Thimmakka:
Thimmakka and Bikkalu Chikkaiah, a childless couple of Hulikal village of Magadi Taluk, Ramanagara District, started planting Banyan saplings by the roadside between Kudur and Hulikal. They reared, cared and guarded them with their meagre earning with sheer love and affection.

The Government of Karnataka has taken the responsibility of these 248 trees. This great achievement of Saalu Marada Thimmakka is recognised and honoured by awarding Rajyothsava and National Awards. A seminar paper was presented in the UN on her contribution to environment. To create awamess among people, ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on 5^th June every year.

Question 29.
How the gender based inequality is a slur to Democracy?
Answer:
Discriminations made on the basis of men and women, denying equal opportunities to the fairer sex are called gender based inequalities. It is the result of gender bias favoring male throughout the ages. The prevalence of gender based inequality in family, economic, cultural, educational and political fields are seen.
Causes:
1. Manu Smriti:
Earlier the Hindu society followed ‘Manu Smriti’ which asserted that women should always be under the guardianship of men at different stages of her life. He wanted her to be within the four walls, restricting her from the happenings of the society.

2. Male domination:
The society is based on physical strength of man where he dominates the female. He does not want that female should take over his responsibility and authority at home as well as in society.

3. Denial of education:
Male domination is reflected in the field of education too. Denying education for girls for many centuries has made them incapable in many fields. Men occupied major jobs and secured well and dominating positions in the entire society.

4. Dowry system:
The practice of dowry system contributes for inequality of gender. Boys are treated as assets and girls as burden. The attitude also intensifies the discrimination between men and women.

5. Inadequate representation:
Women constitute 50% of the total population. They are inadequately represented in the field of politics and economics. Even though women are as capable as men, they are not allowed in these fields. Women have little or no opportunities in participating in public life.

Question 30.
What are the constitutional measures taken to eradicate illiteracy as per the 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Answer:
Article 45 envisages states to provide free and compulsory education. It has not been implemented properly. Hence, through the 86^th Constitutional Amendment, it is made compulsory. The Parliament of India passed the 86^th constitutional amendment act in 2002. Accordingly, 21A is inserted in the constitution which aimed at making right to education a fundamental right for children between 6 to 14 years of age.
Its main provisions are:
1. Compulsory education means obligation of the government to provide free elementary education and ensure compulsory admission and attendance and completion of education to every child in the age group of 6 to 14.

2. It is a compulsory duty of parents and guardians to send the children to schools.

3. The schools must have minimum facilities such as adequate pupil I-teacher ration, trained teachers, infrastructure and playgrounds.

4. The Central Government and State Government bear the expenditure on the basis of agreed formula (in 2013 it was in the ratio of 65:35)

5. The school management committee or the local authority should identify the dropouts or out of school children and admit them in classes appropriate to their age. Before admission, they have to be given special training.

As per section 12, (1) C of the RTE Act, private aided and non-minority unaided schools must reserve 25 percent of seats for children belonging to Backward Classes and disadvantaged groups in neighborhood areas (7.5% for ST category and 16% for other Backward Groups.)

Question 31.
“The youth of India can change the Indian Political System”. Discuss.
Answer:
India is a vast country with 1.2 billion population. Being the seventh-largest country geographically, it can just be described as a mini continent. Universal Adult Franchise is provided for both men and women belonging to all castes, colors, regions, languages, religions, etc., In spite of presence of several hurdles like poverty, illiteracy, inequality, communalism, and terrorism.

India has crossed several other hurdles and milestones and proved to be a vibrant democracy. Registration of new voters is a continuous process. As franchise brings a voice to voters in democracy due care must be taken to the enrolment of women and youth. As per 61^st Amendment to the constitution, the voting age reduced to 18 years from 21 during 1986 when Sri Rajiv Gandhi was the Prime Minister.

With the reduction in voting age the size of the electorate increased heavily providing an opportunity to the younger generation to participate in choosing their representatives. The country that respects its youth can bring new thinking in all walks of life including politics. Youth have the energy to liberate and purify the political arena of the country as they normally do not accept traditional caste barriers.

Usually, leaders of older generations do not prefer youth in politics as they are revolutionary and reject the traditional mindset. “ Youth have the courage and the capacity to understand burning issues like boundary, language, river, water, ethnic disputes.

Increase in number of youth in politics enhances the credibility of democracy. The honest involvement of youth in politics being away from violence is the need of the hour to strengthen the system. Recent development shows a large number of youth participating and winning both Loka Sabha and Assembly elections.

Question 32.
Explain any five areas of co-operation between India and SAARC.
Answer:
In the rapidly changing global environment, regional integration in South Asia has assumed a new strategic significance. As a largest economy of the South Asian region, it is imperative and right time for India to inculcate an environment of trust among SAARC partners. India stands to gain substantially from greater economic integration in the region.
1. Summit level cooperation:
India has participated in all the summit level meetings. During the 16^th SAARC summit held in New Delhi on 3^rd and 4^th April 2007, the leaders recognized collectively in fulfilling this in a better way with the rest of the world. The Prime Minister of India Mr. Rajiv Gandhi attended the first SAARC summit held in Bangladesh in 1985. He emphasized the core issue of economic development in the South Asian region with joint efforts.

India is committed to fastening the sense of a South Asian Identity through the SAARC process, enhancing mutual confidence in multiple areas in trying to leverage India’s rapid economic growth into win-win arrangements with her neighbors.

The change perhaps started in about 2002 in India, has gained momentum since India acquired the Chairmanship of SAARC in April 2007. Among several factors that are perhaps responsible for this positive movement, the more important one is the acceleration in economic growth in all major regional economics especially India.

2. SAARC regional Centres:
India is having two regional centers:-

1. SAARC Documentation center (SDC) in New Delhi.
2. SAARC Disaster Management Centre (SDMC) in New Delhi.

3. SAARC Development Fund (SDF):
India has been 6ne of major contribution to the SAARC Development Fund. The Fund has the areas of action social, economic and infrastructure. India has offered US $100 million for the SAARC fund to be utilized for projects in other SAARC countries.

4. Economic co-operation:
The Agreement on SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement (SAPTA) was signed in 1993 and four rounds of trade negotiations have been concluded. The Agreement on South Asian Free Trade Area (S AFTA) was signed. Creation of Export Promotion Zones and Special Economic Zones in each SAARC member country as’ pointed out by industrial bodies which enhances investment and will thus encourage Intra-SAARC investments.

5. People-to-people Countries:
For strengthening cooperation in information and media related activities of the Association, the heads of National Television and Radio Organisations of member countries meet annually. The SAARC Audio-Visual exchange (SAVE) Committes disseminates information both on SAARC and its member States through regular Radio and TV programme.

6. Educational Cooperation:
India proposed to create a center of excellence in the form of a South Asian University (SAU), which can provide world class facilities and professional faculty to students and researchers drawn from each country of the region. The south Asian university is established in India.

Question 33.
Write a note on the principles of Panchasheel.
Answer:
Panchsheel continues to be another fundamental principle of Indian foreign policy. An agreement signed between Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Chinese Prime Minister Zhow-en-Lai on April, 29th 1954, sought to govern the relationship between India and China on the basis of five principles.

1. Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
2. Mutual non-aggression.
3. Mutual noninterference in each other’s internal affairs.
4. Equality and mutual benefits.

It is a principle of peaceful co-existence with other countries, it guided the basis of relationship between 1954-57 marked by numerous visits and exchanges. This period is described as Sino-Indian honeymoon.

Question 34.
Analyze the Kashmir issue in India and Pakistan relations.
Answer:
In India’s perspective, Kashmir is an integral part of the republic of India and to Pakistan, it is a disputed territory. The argument of Pakistan on Kashmir is that, since the partition of the country was done on religious basis and majority of, population are Muslims, Kashmir should be part of Pakistan. This argument failed to recognize the following facts:

1. Partition was done of the British Indian Provinces & and not of the Indian princely states.
2. National Conference was the only major political party in Kashmir, which was affiliated to Congress. It was opposed to Pakistan and had faith in secular politics.
3. The Indian princely states had the freedom to join either India or Pakistan.
4. India was a secular state consisting of a multi-religious population.

So, Kashmir formally decided to join India after the invasion of its territory by Pakistani tribals supported by the Pakistan Army.

IV. Answer any 2 of the following in 30 to 40 sentences: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Distinguish between direct and indirect elections.
Answer:
Direct Election:
In this system, all the eligible Voters of the nation directly elect their representatives through secret ballots without any intermediaries. For e.g. the Lok Sabha (House of People) and Vidhana Sabha (State Legislative Assembly) in India and the House of Commons in U.K and House of Representatives in the USA are directly elected.

Features of Direct election are:
1. More democratic:
Eligible voters have a wider choice to elect their representatives directly. This provides a direct relationship between the voter and their representatives.

2. Responsive:
Since there is a direct relationship between voters and the representatives, they are responsive to the needs and aspirations of the people.

3. Creates political awareness:
In the direct election, voters come in direct contact with their representatives. Voters are curious about them and gather information through mass media and print media about political parties, their manifesto, and personalities of the candidates. In this way, the voters get educated.

4. Selection of eligible candidates:
The voters test the capacities, capabilities of the candidates and finally elect them since there is a rapport between the two.

5. Public relationship:
In view of the forthcoming OH elections, representatives keep regular contact with their constituencies and electorate.

6. Indirect election:
It is another method of election where voters elect a group of members in the first instance to form an ‘Electoral College’ as an intermediary body to elect representatives. For e.g. the President of India and USA are elected through electoral colleges, which consists of the representatives of people. The members of Rajyasabha and members of the State Legislative Council are indirectly elected by the people.

7. Selection of best candidates:
In this method, candidates are elected by the intelligent Voters. For e.g. at the first step, people elect their representatives to the Electoral College and at the second step, they in turn judiciously elect the final representatives of legislature or Head of the nation. This method involves double election.

8. Prevents unhealthy campaign:
It avoids all sorts of evils like dirty propaganda tricks and instigation of people for petty issues to divide them. For e.g. in the election of President of India, the average voters are kept outside and only the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament participate to elect them.

9. Peaceful voting:
In this method, there is no scope for illegal activities or fights during the election as it happens in the direct election. In the electoral. process, only a small number of enlightened voters peacefully exercise their votes judiciously. The elections are conducted according to well-defined norms and values.

10. Little scope for emotions:
Elected Representatives are not carried away by passions or sentiments nor can they be influenced like an average voter. There is no chance of misusing sensitive issues for political gains. The higher leaders are elected by people representatives and act with a sense of responsibility.

11. Suitable to developing nations:
Since majority of the voters are ignorant, not educated and intelligent hence a small group of politically educated and wise voters elect responsible and public-spirited representatives.

Question 36.
Describe the essentials of Nation-Building
Answer:
The process of Nation-building started with the attainment of independence. The leaders of. modem India initiated the process in the right direction as they worked out the details in an orderly and systematic way. However, during implementation, they had to face numerous problems associated with national reconstruction resulting in a slow process.

The process of nation-building is an offshoot of the concept of nation-states. The idea of nation-states emerged after the signing of the treaty of West Phalia (1648) by Western Countries. The people of the common religious and traditional backgrounds living in a definite territory with like mindedness and ‘we’ feeling form the nation. Common language, culture, and history aspirations help common people to form nationality.

1. Components to community support:
To realise the process of nation building, collective support and endeavor of the people are essential. The quality of the people reflects the quality of a nation. Disciplined work culture and patriotic feelings also contribute to nation-building. In a democracy, people are the kingmakers. Hence, they are expected to elect competent and honest representatives. They formulate a sound public opinion on important national issues. As J.S. Mill said ‘Eternal vigilance is the price of democracy’.

2. Good Governance:
Good governance ensures accountability, transparency, efficiency, responsibility, and responsiveness. In addition, the use of technology has given rise to e-Governance. India is one of the leading countries in the world in the adoption of the system of e-governance.

3. Committed Leadership:
History depicts many examples of committed leadership. Eg.: US President F. D. Roosevelt solved the crisis of Economic depression by adopting the New Deal Policy and US became a superpower at global level after the II World War. In India Nehru’s leadership largely contributed to the process of nation-building. He formulated goals for nation-building and introduced the planning system, adopted industrialization policy and socialistic pattern of society. He had vision and farsightedness for the transformation of India. Hence Nehru is called the Architect of Modem India.

4. Political culture:
Political Culture constitutes a set of values, attitudes, and behavior towards a political system. It requires an ideal political behavior for national reconstruction. Leaders have to embody the principles of national interest, public service, probity, and statesmanship.

5. Power Sharing:
To realize the goal, political power needs to be shared among all sections of society. The concentration of political power in the hands of a few people and some families leads to the emergence of authoritarianism and dictatorship. As H.J. Laski rightly puts it “ A decision which affects all must be decided by all” To attain this reservation is provided to the SCs and STs and women at different levels of Government. It ensures social justice which is the foundation of socio-economic democracy.

6. Universal Education:
For the develop- ment of national universal education is of paramount importance. It enables the person to
understand his potentiality and strengthens dignity. As Gandhi said, “Education is the light of life”. It encourages people to develop the spirit of inquiry the ability to analyze the national problems and to work for national progress. Education also equips the people to shun fanaticism, parochialism, communalism, casteism and religious fundamentalism. The Right To Education Act 2009 implemented in 2010 is a step in this direction.

7. National Character:
Nationalism and patriotism are the foundations to build a national character. Each country has its distinct national character which denotes one’s nativity-as the conservatism of UK, ‘Land of Liberty’ of US, Ethnicity of Africa, Aboriginal of Australia, cultural diversity of India.

Love and respect for one’s country and national symbols such as national flag, national anthem, and national monuments are the prerequisites. One has to acquire knowledge about the history of his motherland and its contributions to human civilizations. Realizing the significance of national character, the makers of the Indian constitution have asserted the supremacy of popular sovereignty in the preamble reading with the expression.” We the people of India”.

8. Mass Media:
Mass Media is regarded as the Fourth Estate in democracy as it plays a vital role in the nation building. It highlights the omissions and commissions of the government and acts as a bridge between the government and the public. It is an effective instrument of political socialization. modernization and development. In India, the ‘Freedom of Expression’ is a fundamental right under Art. 19 of the Constitution.

9. Responsible Intelligentsia:
The contribution of intellectuals is recognized all over the world. Research and innovations in important areas of human life have contributed to national development.

In India the development in the field of social sciences, M.N. Srinivas, Amartya Sen, S.Shettar, Gail Omvedt, Kancha, Ilaya, Vandana Shiva, S.N. Balagangadhara, AshishNandy, Rajiv Malhotra and others. In Science and Technology Sir M. Vishveshwaraiah, Sir C.V. Raman, Dr. Raja Ramanna, Dr. M.G.K. Menon, Dr. CNR Rao. Dr. U.R. Rao, Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam, and others have greatly contributed for India’s present position at global level.

10. National Integration:
It is the process of uniting the people emotionally, psychologically and politically, Sardar Vallabha Bai Patel, Vinoba Bhave, Lai Bahadhur Shastri, J.B. Kriplani, Acharya Narendra Dev played a key role in the national integration. November 19th is being observed as National integration day, the birthday of Smt. Indira Gandhi.

Question 37.
Describe the democratic movements in Nepal.
Answer:
21^st century is known as the era of democratic movements. These movements in Afro-Asian nations started to overthrow despotic, autocratic and other authoritarian governments. Nepal was a small landlocked kingdom in Southern Asia lying between India to the south and Tibet to the north. Monarchy was prevalent in Nepal since 18^th centuries. During the rule of Birendra Bir Bikram Shah Dev, democratic Maoist movements started mainly because of the influence of India and China.

In 1980 limited democracy resulted in the creation of multi-party parliamentary monarchy. The political war was launched by the communist Party of Nepal (Maoist) in 1996, with the overthrow of the Nepalese monarchy and establishing a people’s Republic. Maoist insurgency began in 1996 ended with the Communist victory in 2001. The comprehensive Peace Accord was signed on 21 ^st November 2006. The Crown prince massacred king Birendra and the royal family.

Bringing the unpopular Gyanendra to the throne. Nepal witnessed a popular movement in 2006. The movement was aimed at restoring democracy. At the same time, the king reinstated old Nepal house of Representatives, with an assurance of permanent peace and the multi-party democracy. The king called upon the Seven Party Alliance (SPA) to bear the responsibility of taking the nation on the path of national unity and prosperity.

The popular Government assumed office on 18^th May 2006 and withdrawn all the privileges given to the king unanimously. The bill included-

1. Imposing tax on the royal family and its assets.
2. Ending the Raj Parishad, a Royal Advisory council.
3. Eliminating Royal references from army and Government titles.
4. Declaring Nepal a secular country, not the Hindu Kingdom.
5. Scrapping the national anthem until a new one is composed.
6. Eliminating the king’s position as the supreme commander of the army.

This is popularly Known as the “Nepalese Magna Carta”.

Question 38.
Discuss India’s role in the establishment of UN and its powers.
Answer:
Independent India viewed its membership of the United Nations a guarantee for maintaining international peace and security. UN membership has also served as an opportunity for leadership, in world affairs. India stood at the forefront during the UN’s tumultuous years of struggle against colonialism, apartheid, global disarmament and creation of more equitable international economic order.

India has used platform of the General Assembly for voicing against imperialism, colonialism and apartheid in 1954, India took a leading part in securing political sanctions against the racialist regime of South Africa, in 1965 it supported the UN sponsored economic boycott of Rhodesia. It gave full support to the Angolan liberation movement and to the cause of Independence of Namibia.

India also played and active role in setting up of the united nations conference on trade and development (UNCTAD) and calling for the creation of a New International economic order (NIEO). India is a member of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO), International labour organisation (ILO), World Health Organisation (WHO), Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO), United Nations International Development Organisation (UNIDO), etc.

V. Answer any two of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39.
Write a note on Union Secretariat.
Answer:
1. The Central Secretariat:
The word secretariat means Office of the Secretaries. For the purpose of administration, the Government of India is divided into different Ministries and Departments which constitute the Central Secretariat. For efficient discharge of business allotted to a ministry, it is divided into various Departments, Wings, Divisions, Branches, and Sections.

2. Hierarchical order of Central Secretariat:

• Department(Secretary)
• Wing(Additional/Joint Secretary)
• Division(Deputy Secretary)
• Branch(Under Secretary)
• Section (Section Officer)

3. Department:
This is the primary unit of a ministry. It is pertinent to point out the difference between a ministry and a department. A single ministry may have several departments within a ministry, each is headed by the secretary. A Minister remains in power for a period of five years.

Generally, the Cabinet Secretary belongs to the permanent civil service and remains in office till he retires. It has been observed that the portfolios of ministers change frequently, particularly with every change of leadership or through occasional reshuffles in the council of ministry.

4. Wings:
Depending upon the volume of work in a ministry, one or more wings can be set up. An Additional Secretary or Joint Secretary is in charge of the Wing. He is given independent charge, subject to the overall responsibility of the Secretary.

5. Division:
A Wing of the Ministry is then divided into Divisions for the sake of efficient and expeditious disposal of business allotted to the ministry. Two branches ordinarily constitute a division which is normally under the charge of a Deputy Secretary.

6. Branch:
A Branch normally consists of two sections and is under the charge of an Under Secretary. He is also called as Branch Officer.

7. Section:
Headed by a Section Officer, a section consists of Assistants, Upper Division and Lower Division Clerks. The initial handling of cases, noting and drafting is carried on by these Assistants

OR

Write a note on Anti defection law.
Answer:
Defection is change of loyalty to another party, without resigning from his elected post for benefits. Defector gets elected on one party’s ticket and tries to enjoy power in another party. The word defection also called ‘Floor Crossing in UK and ‘Carpet Crossing’ in Nigeria. The term ‘Defection’ is used in India. Defection is commonly known as ‘House funding’. Defectors . are called ‘Fence-sitters’ or Turn Coats.

Sri Rajiv Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India decided to remove the evils of defection. Hence, Anti defection Act came into force on 1^st April through the 52^nd Constitution Amendment. The main intention of the law was to combat “the evils of political defections”. The provisions are:

1. A member of Parliament or state legislature belonging to any political party shall be disqualified if he voluntarily quits his party.

2. He will be disqualified from his membership if he votes against his party whip in the session.

3. A member of Parliament or State Legislature belonging to any political party shall be disqualified from his membership if he votes in the session without prior permission of his party.

4. A nominated member shall be disqualified from his membership in the upper house, if he joins any political party after six months from the date on which he assumes his position.

5. If the 1/3^rd strength of any political party merges with another political party, it shall be considered as defection.

6. A person disqualified under this Act shall not be provided any office of profit.

7. The Anti-defection law determines the size of the council of Ministers. The size of the council of Ministers of Union shall exceed 15% of the total members of the Lok Sabha and similar to that of state legislative Assembly.

8. Speakers can initiate action against the members under Anti-defection law.

9. The Chairpersons of Legislative are permitted to frame the rules to implement this law.

Question 40.
Discuss the nature of Crony Capitalism.
Answer:
Crony capitalism is a negative term used to refer the business dealings carried out by the Government officers in a capitalist economy.
Nature of crony capitalism are as follows:-
1. Favours political authorities:
Crony capitalism is a system in which, close associates of the people in power who enact laws and execute policies, get favors that have a large economic impact.

2. Cronies are rewarded:
with the provision to charge higher prices for their output, than would prevail in a competitive market. Funds are funneled to the enterprises of cronies through government-controlled banks.

3. Protection of assets:
Crony capitalism allows Government to guarantee a subset of asset holders that their property rights are protected. As long as their assets are protected, these asset holders will continue to invest as if there were universal protection of property rights.

4. Share in the rents generated by the asset holders:
The members of the Government or members of their families, share the rents generated by the asset holders. This may take the form of jobs, co-investments or even transfers of stock. Crony capitalism goes & hand in hand with corruption.

5.The concentration of economic Power:
A few business groups are cronies, influence state policies and pool their assets in private corporate sectors. Such concentration gives birth to crony capitalism. Crony capitalism is an economic phenomenon with political consequences. In crony capitalism, the Government makes deals in closed doors, without public review and approval.

OR

Write a note on the relationship between India and America.
Answer:
India’s freedom movement had drawn much inspiration from the colonial history of US. President F.D. Roosevelt’s positive contribution to the 1942 Cripps Mission negotiation to help India proceed on the road to independence received a positive and grateful response from the Indian leaders. Pandit Nehru identified a number of positive factors that favored the growth of Indo US relations during his visits to US.

Because of this historical background and shared democratic values of both countries, they acquired a pattern of good and positive relationship. Both nations have a common faith in democratic institutions and way of life and are dedicated tot he cause of peace and freedom.

1. Economic Relations:
After Indian Independence, the US extended its economic aid under ‘Truman’s’ Four Point Program of 1950, consisting of American technical skills, knowledge and investment capital. It provided wheat loan to India to manage the famine in some parts of the country in 1951. The major aid has been in the shape of surplus commodity assistance provided under Public Law 480 (PL 480) in 1956, which was repayable in rupees.

Under the supervision of United States Agency for International Development (USAID), it gave the development loans. With these aids and support US topped the list of countries that gave economic aid to India. In recent years India decided to liberalize its economy and integrate it with the global economy.

India’s impressive economic growth rates have made the country an attractive economic partner for the US. In the past cold war era, both countries found themselves closer and committed to extending their economic co-operation in other fields. The Indian economy had close ties India’s total exports in the software sector and extended job opportunities to lakhs of Indians in its silicon valley.

2. Military Relations:
After the II World War US built many military alliances (NATO, ANZUS, SEATO, Bagdad Pact, and CENTO). As the leader of western bloc, it expects newly liberated countries which are not aligned with any of these military alliances, not to oppose US in any organization including UN.

India keeping away from the military alliances, its principled support tot he liberation movements and crusade against apartheid racism and racial discrimination were interpreted by US as unfriendly act. Obviously it led to a misunderstanding between India and US relations.

The US military support to Pakistan its military ally in 1954, created apprehensions in India regarding regional military balance and it widened the gap between India and Pakistan. When the liberation struggle was going on in Goa, the US supported Portuguese claims to keep Portugal as its ally in NATO, out victory of India was interpreted by US as ‘hypocrisy’ and ‘hallow moralist’

As its global strategy to curb the Communism, US respond positively with military assitance to India in 1962. Indo-China war. But it acted against India in Indo-Pak conflict in 1965 and Indo-Pak war on Bangladesh in 1971. The US has military bases in the Indian ocean in the Island called Diego Garcia, India opposed to these bases because these can threaten any of the states which are on the banks of the Indian Ocean.

Inspite of Indian protest, the US has not taken off the bases from the Island. By minimizing our misunderstandings and by better appreciaiton of each other, there is a need to work out a pattern of mutual benefit relationship with the US.

3. Socio-cultural Relations:
India and US have close socio-cultural relations, eg. Fort Foundation grants aid for scientific, technical, education, and cultural activities. There is co-operation in the field of cultural exchange scientific and educational interaction, a large number of people of Indian origin living in the US hold potential of a greater co-operation. Thousands of Indian scholars acquired their advanced knowledge from the educational institutions of the US.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017, Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper June 2017

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

1. Statistical table and graph sheets will be supplied on request.
2. Scientific calculators may be used.
3. All working steps should be clearly shown.

Section – A

I. Answer any TEN of the following questions: ( 10 x 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
Define fecundity.
Answer:
The capacity of a women bear children.

Question 2.
Mention one characteristic of index numbers.
Answer:
Index numbers are specialised averages.

Question 3.
Theoretically which average is considered as the best average in the construction . of index number?
Answer:
Geometric mean.

Question 4.
What is a Historigram?
Answer:
The graph of time series is called Historigram.

Question 5.
If p = 0.2 for Bernoulli distribution, find variance.
Answer:
Variance = pq = 0.2 x 0.8 = 0.16 Here q = 1 – P.

Question 6.
If Z is a SNV and P(Z > k) = 0.05, find the value of k.
Answer:
From the table k= 1.64.

Question 7.
What is an estimator? ;
Answer:
The statistic used to estimate the population parameter is an estimator.

Question 8.
What is test statistics?
Answer:
Test statistic is the statistic whose distribution test being conducted.

Question 9.
When the pooling done in testing of goodness of fit?
Answer:
When expected frequencies are below 5(E_i < 5) =

Question 10.
In S.Q. C what is defect?
Answer:
An Defect is quality characteristic which does not conform to specifications.

Question 11.
The graphical solution to the L.P.P lies in the first quadrant. Give reason.
Answer:
Because of non-negative restrictions both x and y are positive on x, y – plane.

Question 12.
Mention a property of a competitive game.
Answer:
Number of competitors should be finite.

Section – B

II. Answer any ten of the following questions:

Question 13.
In a life table, if l₀= 1,00,000 and T₀ = 65,00,000 years then, find longevity.
Answer:

Question 14.
State two norms (considerations) for the selection of base year.
Answer:

1. Bse year should be economically stable
2. Base year should not be too distant from the current year.

Question 15.
If Σp₀q₁ = 1125 and Σp₀q₀ = 1250 then, find suitable quantity index number.
Answer:
Quantity index number: Q₀₁

Question 16.
What is seasonal variation? Give an example.
answer:
Seasonal variations refers to the variations caused annually by the seasons of the year, which are regular, periodic and short term variations in the time series.
There is more sales of ice creams and cool drinks in summer season.

Question 17.
Write down the two assumptions of interpolation and extrapolation.
Answer:

1. There are no sudden jumps in the values of dependent variable (y) from one period to
2. There will be no. consecutive missing value int he series.

Question 18.
Write down the range and mean of a hypergeometric distribution whose parameters are a = 4, b = 6 and n = 5.
Answer:
Range: x = 0, 1, 2, min (a, n)
= 0, 1, 2, …………..min (4, 5) = 0,1,2, 3, 4

Question 19.
For a Chi-square (χ²) variate, with 10 d.f. p{0 < χ² < 9.34) = 0.5. Find median and mode.
Answer:
Median = 9.34 and mode = (n – 2) = 10 – 2 = 8.

Question 20.
Define size of the test and power of a test.
Answer:
Probability of occurrence of type error or the probability of rejecting HO, when it is fr called size of the test, also called as level of significance.
Probability of rejecting H_o when it is not true.

Question 21.
Write two applications of χ² test. ;
Answer:

1. To test whether the population has given variance.
2. To test whether the two attributes are independent.

Question 22.
Mention two advantages of acceptance sampling.
Answer:

1. It is used when the items are of destructive in nature.
2. It is less expensive, as 100% inspections more expensive.

Question 23.
Which of the two feasible solutions (12, 10) and (14, 5) of an E.P.P minimises the objective function Z = 5X + 4Y.
Answer:
Here Z (12, 10) = 5(12) + 4(10)= 100 and
Z (14, 5) = 5(14) + 4(5) = 90. (14,5) minimises the objective function.

Question 24.
From the following pay-off matrix, obtain the value of game.

Answer:

Row minimum circled and column boxed. Value of the of the game: V = 5

Section – C

III. Answer ANY EIGHT of the following questions: ( 8 x 5 = 40 )

Question 25.
Compute the gross reproduction rate from the following data:

Answer:
G.R.R = (i) \(\sum_{i=15}^{49}\) W.S.F.R where i = 5 Age width and W.S.F.R-women specific fertilise rate.

Similarly remaining W.S.F Rs. can be computed

GRR = 5(260) = 1300 female birth per 100 women of (15 – 49) in a year.

Question 26.
Calculate Kelly’s price Index number from the following data and comment on the result.

Answer:

Question 27.
Compute the cost of living index number for the following data:

Answer:

Question 28.
For the following data draw a trend line by the method of semi averages.

(OR)
Answer:
Let x and y be the year and sales

Explain semi – averges method of measuring trend.
(For visually challenged students only)

Semi-averages method: In this method the original data is divided into two equal parts and averages are calculated for both the parts. These averages are called semi-averages. Teh two semi-averages are written against the centres of the two time points.

After drawing the actual line, the two trend values are plotted and joined by a straight line, extended on either side is called trend line.

Question 29.
For the following data interpolate the value of Y, when X = 30.

Answer:
Number of known values of ‘y’ n 4, then prepare the leading differences upto Δ³
y = ?, x = 30

Question 30.
In a college 35% students are girls. Find the probability that:
(i) two are girls,
(ii) at least one is a girl in a random sample of 5 students.
Answer:
Let x be the number of girls is a binomial variate with the parameters n-5,p = 0.35 and
p = 1 -P
= 1 – 0.35 = 0.65.
Then the p is:
p(x) = nc_x p^x q^{n – x}; x = 0,1,2, …… n
= 5c_x (0.35)^x (0.65)^5-x; x = 0,1,2, …….. 5
(i) p( girls ) =p(x = 2) = = 5c₂ (0.35)² (0.65)^{5 – 2} = 10 x 0.1225 x 0.2746 = 0.3364
(ii) p(at least one is a girl) = p(x > 1) = 1 – p (x < 1) = 1 – p (x = 0)
= 1 -5C₀ (0.35)⁰ (0.65)^{5 – 0}= 1 – [1 x 1 x 0.1160] = 0.884

Question 31.
State five properties of a normal distribution
(i) The curve is bell-shaped and X̄ = M = z
(ii) The curve is symmetric i.e, Non-skew ((β₁ = 0)
(iii) The curve is meso kurtic (β₂ = 3)
(iv) Area under the curve is ‘1’.
(v) For the distribution : Mean = m, variance = 6² and S . D = σ.

Question 32.
“In an election the leaders of a party contend that they would secure more than 36% of votes. A pre-poll survey of 400 voters revealed that the percentage is 42. Does the survey support the leader’s claim? (Use 5% L.O.S)
Answer:
Given: p₀ = 0.36, n = 400, p = 0.42, a = 5%
H₀ : Party secures 36% vate (i.e., p₀ = 0.36)
H₁ : Party secures more than 36% vote (i.e., p₀ > 0.36)
{upper tail test + k}
Under H₀ , the test statistic is :


At a = 5% the upper tail critical value +k = 1.64 .
Here Z_cal lies in rejection region (R. R) i.e., Z_cal > k. H₀ is rejected and H₁ is accepted. Conclusion: Party secures more than 36% votes (p₀ > 0.36)

Question 33.
The following is the data regarding family condition and examination result of 100 students. Test whether results depends on family conditions.
(Use α = 0.01)

Answer:
H₀ : Family condition and Examination result are independent.
H₁ : Family condition and Examination result are dependent {upper tail test}
The 2 x 2 contingency table is:

The χ² test statistic is :

At a = 1% he upper tail critical value for I d.f is k₂ = 6.65

Here χ²_cal lies in acceptance region. H₀ is accepted
Conclusion: Family condition and examination result are independent.

Question 34.
Find control limits for R-chart with sample size 4.

Answer:
For R – chart, standard not known, we need
R̄ = \(\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{R}}{k}=\frac{30}{6}\) = 5; k=6 sampleno. and n = 4
The control limits are: C.L = R̄ = 5
L.C.L = D₃ R̄ = 0 x 5=0
U.C.L=D₄ R̄ =2.282 x 5=11.41

Question 35.
Find the initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation problem by NWCR method and find transportation cost to this solution.

Answer:
By N.W.C.R first allocation is made in the cell (1,1) as: Xu = Min(a, b) = m, n (500,400) = 40, and replace 500 by (500-400)= 100
Next allocation is made at (1,2)

Question 36.
Purchase cost of an item is Rs. 5,000. Its running costs and resale values in different years are as follows:

Find the optimum period of replacement of item.
Answer:

From the above-the annual average cost is minimum ,for the 4th year and so, n = 4 is the optimal replacement period. A(4) = ₹ 1.160.
From the normal equaitons: na + Σx = Σy

The fitted straight lien trend equation is:
y = a + bx; ŷ = 51 + 1.5x
Estimation of production for 2008;x = 5
ŷ(2008) = 51 + 1.5 (5) = 58.5 (000’sTons)
Trend values: ŷ (2000) = 51 + 1.5(-3) = 46.5
ŷ(2001) = 51 + 1.5(-2) = 48
Similarlly remaining trend values can be computed.

Section – D

IV. Answer any two of the following questions: ( 2 x 10 = 20 )

Question 37.
By taking locality ‘B* as standard calculate the STDR’s for both localities. Mention which locality is more healthier?

Answer:
Since locality B is take as standard, so calculating C.D.R is same as calculation S.D.R

Conclusion: Here S.D.R (B) L.S.D.R(A)
Locality B is healthier.

Question 38.
Compute Laspcyre’s, Paasche’s and Fisher’s price index numbers for the following data:

Answer:

Question 39.
For the following data fit a straight line trend by least square method, obtain trend values. Estimate the production for the year 2008.

Answer:

and all other allocations are made in the same way until the last allocation at (3,3) as below:

The suggested Initial basic feasible solution and the total transportation cost is:

Question 40.
For the following data fit a Poisson distribution and test for goodness of fit at 5% level of significance.

Answer:
Let x be the no. of mistakes is a poisson variate the parameter is obtained as below:
Let f be the no. of pages.

Theoretical frequency: T_x = p{x) N
T₀ =p(x = 0)100 = \(\frac{e^{-i .2} 1.2^{0}}{0 !}\) x 100 = 0.3012 x 100 = 30.12

T₅ and more = N – [T₀ + T₁ + T₂ + T₃ + T₄ = 100 – [30 + 36 + 22 + 9 + 3] = 100 – 100 = 0
The fitted observed and theoretical frequency distribution is:

chi – Square test: H₀ : Poisson distribution is a good fit [O_i = E_i]
Hj: poisson distribution is not good fit [O_i = E_i] {Upper tail test}
Under H₀, the χ² – test stastic is:
λ is estimated from the parameter and so degrees of freedom is (n – 2)

Ay α = 5% for (n – 2) = 4.2 = 2 d.f the upper tail critical value k₂= 5.99

Here χ²_calllies in acceptance region (A.R)
.’. Ho is accepted.
Conclusion: Poisson distribution is good fit.

Section – E

V. Answer any two of the following questions: ( 2 x 5 = 10)

Question 41.
Marks scored by the students of a class follow normal distribution with mean 80 and S.D.5. Find the probability that a student selected at random from the class scored:
(i) More than 90 marks
(ii) Between 70 and 85 marks.
Answer:
Marks scored by the students is a normal variable with the parameters. µ = 80, σ = 5.
Then S.N.V:


(i) p(marks more than 90) =p(x > 90) = p(z) > \(\frac{90-80}{5}\)
p(z > 2) = Area from 2 to ∞
from the table = 0.0228

(ii) p(marks between 70 and 85) =p(70 <x< 85)

= Area tray (-2) to 1
= Area tray (-2) to ∞ – Area tray 1 to h
= 0.9772 – 0.1587 = 0.8185.

Question 42.
A company manufactures car tyres. Their average life is 40,000 km and standard deviations 5,000 km. A change in the production process is believed to result in a better product. A test sample of 100 new tyres has mean life of 41,000 km. Can you conclude at 1% L.O.S. that the new product gives better result?
Answer:
Given: µ = 40,000, σ = 5,000, n = 100, x̄ =41,000, α = 1% .
H₀ : Mean lif eof tyres is 40,000 kms (i.e., µ = 40,000)
H₁ : Mean life of tyres is mroe than 40,000 kms (better result) (i.e., µ > 40,000) {upper tail test)

Under H₀the test statistics is:

At α = 1% the lower tail critical value k = 2.33
Here z_cal lies in acceptance region (A.R) H₀ is accepted
∴ H_o is accepted.
Conclusion: Mean life of tyres is 40,000kms.

Question 43.
I. Q of 5 students before and after training is given below:

H₀ : before and after training is source (µ₁ = µ₂)
H₁ has increased after training /training is effective (µ₁ < µ₂

At α = 0.05/5% the lower tail critical value k = -2.13
Here t_cal lies in acceptance region (A.R)
∴ H_o is accepted.
Conclusion: I.Q before and after training is same.

Question 44.
There is a demand for 3600 units/year. The cost of placing an order is Rs. 50. Maintenance cost Rs. 9/unit/year and shortage cost is Rs. 3/unit/year.
Find:
(i) EOQ
(ii) Minimum average cost per year.
Answer:
Given : R = 3600 units/year, C₃ = ₹ 50, C₁ = ₹ 9/unit/year C₂ = ₹ 3/unit/year
Use EOQ model II

Students can Download 2nd PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2015, Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2015

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

PART – A

Answer all the following questions. Each question carries one mark. (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
What is data bus?
Answer:
A set of wire connected between the control unit and other units like memory, Input/Output device.

Question 2.
Which basic gate is also called as inverter?
Answer:
The NOT gate is named as Inverter.

Question 3.
What is meant by primitive data structure?
Answer:
The data structures that are directly operated upon by machine-level instructions are called as primitive data structure.

Question 4.
What is a member function?
Answer:
The member functions are behaviour of a class and can access or manipulate data members without passing them as parameters.

Question 5.
Write the declaration syntax for a pointer.
Answer:
Syntax:
data-type * pointer-variable-name;

Question 6.
Define primary key.
Answer:
Primary key uniquely identifies each record in a database.

Question 7.
Expand FTP.
Answer:
File Transfer Protocol

Question 8.
What is network topology?
Answer:
It is the geometric arrangement of computer system in network. Common topologies include a Linear bus, star, ring and ring.

Question 9.
What is freeware?
Answer:
A software available free of cost to use and distribute, but not for modification and without source code.

Question 10.
Mention the use of HTML.
Answer:
The HTML is used to create web pages.

PART – B

Answer any five questions. Each question carries two marks. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
Prove that x + xy = x
Answer:
Prove that X + XY = X.

Question 12.
Define minterm and maxterm.
Answer:
A minterm is a special product of literals, in which each input variable appears exactly once. A. maxterm is a sum of literals, in which each input variable appears exactly once.

Question 13.
Briefly discuss the classes in OOP.
Answer:
The Class allow to group functions and data variables. The class is a way to grouping objects having similar characteristics. The objects can be made user defined data type with the help of a class.

Question 14.
What is a destructor? Write its syntax.
Answer:
It is a special function used to release the memory space allocated by the object.
General Syntax of Destructors

~ classname();

The above is the general syntax of a destructor. In the above, the symbol tilde ~ represents a destructor which precedes the name of the class.

Question 15.
Differentiate between ifstream and ofstream.
Answer:
This ifstream class supports input operations on files and ofstream class supports output operations on files.

Question 16.
What is data independence? Mention the types of data independence.
Answer:
Database systems are designed in multi-layers. A major objective for layer architecture is to provide data independence, which means that upper levels are unaffected by changes in lower levels.
There are two kinds of data independence:

• Logical data independence
• Physical data independence

Question 17.
Give the syntax and example for DELETE command in SQL.
Answer:
It is used to delete/remove the tuples/rows from the table.
Syntax:
DELETE from tablename [WHERE Condition];
Example:
DELETE from student;

Question 18.
Explain half duplex communication mode.
Answer:
In this mode, communication can take place between sending and receiving end in both directions, but only one direction at a time (not simultaneously). Example, walkie-talkie device.

PART – C

Answer any five questions. Each question carries three marks: (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 19.
What is a port? Explain serial port.
Answer:
The ports are used to connect external devices like printers, keyboards or scanners and interface with the computer.
COM/Serial ports: [Component Object Model]
It is used for connecting communication devices like modems or mice. Serial ports provide the serial transmission of data of one bit at a time. There are two types namely, COM ports – 9 pin ports and 25- pin ports.

Question 20.
Write the logic diagram and truth table for NOR gate.
Answer:
The logic diagram of NOR gate

Question 21.
Write an algorithm for PUSH operation in stack.
Answer:
Algorithm for PUSH operation
PUSH(STACK, TOP, SIZE, ITEM)
Step 1: if TOP >= N-1 then
PRINT “stack is overflow”
Exit
End of if
Step 2: Top = TOP + 1
Step 3: STACK[TOP] = ITEM
Step 4: Return

Question 22.
What are the operations performed on pointers?
Answer:
The various operations performed on pointers are:

1. Arithmetic operations can be performed.
2. Comparison of two pointers that belongs to same array.
3. Assign one pointer to another provided both pointers belongs similar type.
4. Increment and decrement operations etc.,

Question 23.
Give the function of put()> get() and getline() w.r.t. text files.
Answer:
1. put() function
The put() function is used to write a single character to the associated stream.

2. get() function
The get() function is used to read a single character from the associated stream.

3. getline() function
The use of getline() function is to read a whole line of text.

Question 24.
Briefly explain one-tier database architecture.
Answer:
The design of DBMS depends on its architecture. The DBMS architecture can be single tier or multi-tier. The dividing the system helps to modify, alter, change or replace on independent ‘n’ modules.

Logical one-tier architecture:
Here, DBMS is the only entity where DBMS user directly access database and uses it. Any changes made by the user directly done on DBMS itself. The database designers and programmers use 1-tier architecture.

Question 25.
What is a web browser? Mention any two web browsers.
Answer:
It is a software application used to locate and display Web pages. A web browser is an interface between user computer and a remote web site. The two types of web browsers are Mozilla Firefox, Google Chrome, Internet Explorer, etc.,

Question 26.
Explain any three text formatting tags in HTML.
Answer:
1. Bold Text:
You can bold text to emphasize information on your web page. Bold text is useful for introducing new terms and highlighting important phrases on a Web page.
Tag:
<B> SOME TEXT </B>
EXAMPLE:
<BODY> <B> THIS IS A Bold TEXT </B> </BODY>

2. Underline Text:
Tag:
<U> Some text </U>
Example:
<BODY> <U> You can underline this text </U> </BODY>

3. Italicise Text
Tag:
<I> SOME TEXT </I>
EXAMPLE:
<BODY> <I> THIS IS A ltilicize TEXT </I> </BODY>

PART – D

Answer any Seven of the following questions. Each question carries Five marks: (7 × 5 = 35)

Question 27.
Given the Boolean functionΣ(W,X,Y,Z) = (0,4,8,9,10,11,12,13,15). Reduce it by using Karnaugh map.
Answer:

Quad 1: \(\overline{\mathrm{Y}}\overline{\mathrm{Z}}\)
Quad 2: WZ
Quad 3: \(\mathrm{W} \overline{\mathrm{X}}\)
Simplified expression: F(W, X, Y, Z) = \(\overline{\mathrm{Y}}\overline{\mathrm{Z}}\) + WZ + \(\mathrm{W} \overline{\mathrm{X}}\)

Question 28.
Explain the General structure of C++ program with ah example.
Answer:
The basic operation performed on arrays are
1. Traversing:
Accessing each element of the array exactly once.

2. Searching:
Finding the location of an element in the array.

3. Sorting:
Arranging the elements of the arrays in either ascending or in descending order.

4. Insertion:
Inserting an element in a given position of the array.

5. Deletion:
Deleting an element from the location in an array.

6. Merging:
Combing two more arrays to form a single array.

Question 29.
Write an algorithm to delete a data element from the queue.
Answer:
Step 1: ifFRONT = -1 then
Print “Queue is Underflow”
Exit
End of if
Step 2: ITEM QUEUE [FRONT]
Step 3: if FRONT = REAR then
FRONT = 0
REAR = 0
Else
FRONT = FRONT + 1
Step 4: return

Question 30.
Explain the advantages of object oriented programming.
Answer:
The advantages of OOPs are
1. OOP provides a clear modular structure for programs. Large problems can be reduced tr
smaller and more manageable problems.

2. In OOP, data can be made private to a class such that only member functions of the class can access the data. This principle of data hiding helps the programmer to build a secure program.

3. Implementation details are hidden from other modules and other modules has a clearly defined interface.

4. It is easy to maintain and modify existing code as new objects can be created with small differences to existing ones.

5. With the help of polymorphism, the same function or same operator can be used for different purposes. This helps to manage software complexity easily.

6. In OOP, programmer not only defines data types but also deals with operations applied for data structures.

Question 31.
What is class definition? Write its general syntax and examp.
Answer:
A class definition is a process of naming a class and data variables and interface operations of the class. A class is a structured datatype in C++which is a collection variables and functions.
The syntax of a class definition:

Question 32.
What is an inline function? Write a simple program for it.
Answer:
When a member function is defined inside a class, we do not require to place membership label along with the function name. We use only small functions inside the class definition and such functions are known as inline functions. In case of inline function, program execution is faster but memory penalty is there.
Inline function C++ program:

Question 33.
What is a constructor? Give the rules of writing a constructor function.
Answer:
Constructor is a special member function that is used to initialize the data members of an object. The rules for writing a constructor functions are

• They should be declared in the public section
• They are invoked automatically when the objects are created
• They should not have return types, therefore they cannot return values
• They cannot be inherited
• They can have default arguments
• These cannot be static

An object of a class with a constructor cannot be used as a member of a union.

Question 34.
What is inheritance? Explain any two types of inheritance.
Answer:
In object-oriented programming, inheritance is a way to form new classes using classes that have already been defined.
1. Single inheritance:
A derived class with only one base class is called single inheritance. For example, If A is base class then class B derive from base class A.

2. Multilevel inheritance:
A class can be derived from another derived class which is known as multilevel inheritance. For example, The derived class C inherit B class whereas B is derived from class A.

Question 35.
What is data warehouse? Briefly explain its components.
Answer:
A data warehouse (DW) is a database used for reporting. The data is offloaded from the operational systems for reporting. The components of data warehouse are data sources, data transformation, reporting, metadata, operations, and operational components.

In short, data is moved from databases used in operational systems into a data warehouse staging area, then into a data warehouse and finally into a set of conformed data marts. Data is copied from one database to another using a technology called ETL (Extract, Transform, Load).

Sourcing, Acquisition, Cleanup and Transformation Tools:
The functionality includes:

• Removing unwanted data from operational databases
• Converting to common data names and definitions
• Establishing defaults for missing data
• Accommodating source data definition changes

Meta data:
Meta data is data about data that describes the data warehouse. It is used for building, maintaining, managing and using the data warehouse.

Question 36.
Explain the various group functions in SQL.
Answer:
The built-in functions associated with GROUP functions in SQL are

1. COUNT function:
returns the count of records that satisfies the condition for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT department, COUNT(*)FROM employees WHERE salary > 25000 GROUP BY department;

2. MAX function:
returns the maximum values from the column for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT department, MAX(salary) FROM employees GROUP BY department;

3. MIN function:
returns the lowest values from the column for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT department, MIN(salary) FROM employees GROUP BY department;

4. AVG function:
returns the average values from the column for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT AVG(cost) FROM products WHERE category = ‘Clothing’;

5. SUM function:
returns the total values from the column for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT department, SUM(sales)FROM order_details GROUP BY department;

6. DISTINCT function:
returns the once occurrence of many repeated values from the column for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT DISTINCT department from Employees;

Question 37.
Explain any five network devices.
Answer:
1. Network Interface Cards:
The network interface card (NIC) provides the physical connection between the network and the computer workstation. Network interface cards are a major factor in determining the speed and performance of a network. The most common network interface connections are Ethernet cards.

2. Switches:
A switch is a hardware device that provides a central connection point for cables from workstations, servers, and peripherals. Switch forwards data only to the port on which the destination system is connected.

3. Repeaters:
Since a signal loses strength as it passes along a cable, it is often necessary to boost the signal with a device called a repeater. The repeater electrically amplifies the signal it receives and rebroadcasts it.

4. Routers:
Routers are network devices that route data around the network. By examining data as it arrives, the router can determine the destination address for the data; then, by using tables of defined routes, the router decides the best way for the data to reach destination. The router can direct traffic to prevent crash.

5. Hubs:
A network hub contains multiple ports. When a packet arrives at one port, it is copied to all ports of the hub for transmission.

The two types of hubs are active or passive hubs. Active hubs regenerate signal before forwarding it to all the ports and requires a power supply. Passive hubs, do not need power and they don’t regenerate the data signal.

6. Gateways:
It is a device that connects dissimilar networks. The term gateway is applied to any device, system, or software application that can perform the function of translating data from one format to another. The key feature of a gateway is that it converts the format of the data, not the data itself.

The conversion from one data format to another takes time, and so the flow of data through a gateway is always slower than the flow of data without one.

7. Modems:
Modem is a short form of the terms modulator and demodulator. Modems translate digital signals from a computer into analog signals that can travel across phone lines. The modem modulates the signal at the sending end and demodulates at the receiving end.

Modems provide a relatively slow method of communication. Modems are available as internal devices that plug into expansion slots in a system; external devices that plug into serial or USB ports;