2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1

Students can Download Maths Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 2nd PUC Maths Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1

2nd PUC Maths Application of Derivatives NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers Ex 6.1

Question 1.
Find the rate of change of the area of a circle with respect to its radius r when
(a) r = 3 cm
(b) r = 4 cm
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.1

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
The volume of a cube is increasing at the rate of 8 cm3/s. How fast is the surface area increasing when the length of an edge is 12 cm?
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.2

Question 3.
The radius of a circle is increasing uniformly at the rate of 3 cm/s. Find the rate at which the area of the circle is increasing when the radius is 10 cm.
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.3
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1 .3

Question 4.
An edge of a variable cube is increasing at the rate of 3 cm/s. How fast is the volume of the cube increasing when the edge is 10 cm long?
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.4

Question 5.
A stone is dropped into a quiet lake and waves move in circles at the speed of 5 cm/s. At the instant when the radius of the circular wave is 8 cm, how fast is the enclosed area increasing?
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.5

Question 6.
The radius of a circle is increasing at the rate of 0.7 cm/s. What is the rate of increase of its circumference?
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.6

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
The length x of a rectangle is decreasing at the rate of 5 cm/minute and the width y is increasing at the rate of 4 cm/minute. When x = 8cm and y = 6cm, find the rates of change of
(a) the perimeter, and
(b) the area of the rectangle.
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.7

Question 8.
A balloon, which always remains spherical on inflation, is being inflated by pumping in 900 cubic centimetres of gas per second. Find the rate at which the radius of the balloon increases when the radius is 15 cm.
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.8

Question 9.
A balloon, which always remains spherical has a variable radius. Find the rate at which its volume is increasing with the radius when the latter is 10 cm.
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.9

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
A ladder 5 in long is leaning against a wall. The bottom of the ladder is pulled along the ground, away from the wall, at the rate of 2cm/s. How fast is its height on the wall decreasing when the foot of the ladder is 4 m away from the wall ?
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.10

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
Find the points on the curve at which the y-coordinate is changing 8 times as fast as the x-coordinate.
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.11
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.12

Question 12.
The radius of an air bubble is increasing at the rate of 1/2 cm/s. At what rate is the volume of the bubble increasing when the radius is 1 cm?
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.13

Question 13.
A balloon, which always remains spherical, has a variable diameter 3/2 (2x + 1). Find the rate of change of its volume with respect to x.
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.14

Question 14.
Sand is pouring from a pipe at the rate of 12 cm3/s. The falling sand forms a cone on the ground in such a way that the height of the cone is always one-sixth of the radius of the base. How fast is the height of the sand cone increasing when the height is 4 cm?
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.15

Question 15.
The total cost C(x) in Rupees associated with the production of x units of an item is given by C(x) = 0.007x3 – 0.003x2 + 15x + 4000. Find the marginal cost when 17 units are produced.
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.16

KSEEB Solutions

Question 16.
The total revenue in Rupees received from the sale of x units of a product is given by R(x) = 13x2 + 26x + 15. Find the marginal revenue when x = 7. Choose the correct answer in the Exercises 17 and 18.
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.17

Question 17.
The rate of change of the area of a circle with respect to its radius r at r = 6 cm is
(A) 10π
(B) 12π
(C) 8π
(D) 11π
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.18

Question 18.
The total revenue in Rupees received from the sale of x units of a product is given by
R(x) = 3x2 + 36x + 5. The marginal revenue, when x = 15 is
(A) 116
(B) 96
(C) 90
(D) 126
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives Ex 6.1.19

2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 4 Binomial Theorem Ex 4.1

Students can Download Basic Maths Exercise 4.1 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 4 Binomial Theorem Ex 4.1

Part – A

2nd PUC Basic Maths Binomial Theorem Ex 4.1 One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
(1 – 2x)5
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 4 Binomial Theorem Ex 4.1 - 1

Question 2.
( \(\frac{2}{x}-\frac{x}{2}\) )5
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 4 Binomial Theorem Ex 4.1 - 2

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
(2x – 3)6
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 4 Binomial Theorem Ex 4.1 - 3

Question 4.
\(\left(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{1}{x}\right)^{5}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 4 Binomial Theorem Ex 4.1 - 4

Question 5.
\(\left(x+\frac{1}{x}\right)^{6}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 4 Binomial Theorem Ex 4.1 - 5

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
\(\left(x^{2}+\frac{3}{x}\right)^{4}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 4 Binomial Theorem Ex 4.1 - 6

Part B

2nd PUC Basic Maths Binomial Theorem Ex 4.1 Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
(√3 + 1)5 – (√3 – 1)5
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 4 Binomial Theorem Ex 4.1 - 7

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
((1 + √5)5 – (1 – √5)5
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 4 Binomial Theorem Ex 4.1 - 8

Question 3.
(3 + √2)4 + (1 – √2)4
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 4 Binomial Theorem Ex 4.1 - 9

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
(√2 + 1)6 – (√2 – 1)6
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 4 Binomial Theorem Ex 4.1 - 10

2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2

Students can Download Basic Maths Exercise 20.2 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2

Part-A

2nd PUC Basic Maths Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 Three and Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
(7x – 3)4
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 1

Question 2.
\((2 x+5)^{\frac{3}{2}}\)
Answer:
\(\int(2 x+5)^{\frac{3}{2}} d x=\frac{(2 x+5)^{\frac{3}{2}+1}}{\left(\frac{3}{2}+1\right) \cdot 2}=\frac{(2 x+5)^{\frac{5}{2}}}{5}+C\)

Question 3.
\(\frac{1}{10 x+3}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 2

Question 4.
e3 – 4x
Answer:
\(\int e^{3-4 x} d x=\frac{e^{3-4 x}}{-4}+C\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
35x – 3
Answer:
\(\int 3^{5 x-3} \cdot d x=\frac{3^{5 x-3}}{5 \cdot \log 3}+C\)

Question 6.
sec2(x – 5)
Answer:
∫sec2(x – 5)dx = tan(x – 5) + c

Question 7.
cosec(3 – 5x) cot (3 – 5x)
Answer:
\(\int \csc (3-5 x) \cdot \cot (3-5 x) d x=-\frac{\csc (3-5 x)}{-5}+C\)

Part-B

2nd PUC Basic Maths Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
cos2
Answer:
\(\int \cos ^{2} x \cdot d x=\int \frac{1+\cos 2 x}{2} d x=\frac{1}{2}\left[x+\frac{\sin 2 x}{2}\right]+C\)

Question 2.
cot2(5x + 3).
Answer:
∫cot2(5x + 3)dx = ∫cosec2(5x + 3)-1)dx = \(\frac{\cot (5 x+3)}{5}\) -x + c.

Question 3.
cos3x
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 3

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
(3x + 4)3 + 57 – 3x.
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 4

Part-C

2nd PUC Basic Maths Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 Three Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
sin 2x cos 3x
Answer:
∫sin 2x . cos 3x dx = ∫\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)[sin 5x – sin x] dx (using transformation formula)
\(=\frac{1}{2}\left[\frac{-\cos 5 x}{5}+\cos x\right]+C\)

Question 2.
cos 9x sin 4x.
Answer:
∫cos 9x . sin 4x . dx (using ttransformation formula)
= ∫\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)(sin 13x – sin 5x)dx
\(=\frac{1}{2}\left[\frac{-\cos 13 x}{13}+\frac{\cos 5 x}{5}\right]+C\)

Question 3.
cos 7x cos 6x
Answer:
∫cos 7x . cos 6x . dx
= ∫\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) (cos 13x + cos x ) dx
\(=\frac{1}{2}\left[\frac{\sin 13 x}{13}+\sin x\right]+C\)

Question 4.
sin 11x sin 7x.
Answer:
∫sin 11x . sin 7x .dx = –\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)∫cos 18x – cos 4x . dx
\(=-\frac{1}{2}\left[\frac{\sin 18 x}{18}-\frac{\sin 4 x}{4}\right]\)
\(=\frac{\sin 4 x}{8}-\frac{\sin 18 x}{36}+C\)

Question 5.
\(\int \frac{x}{\sqrt{x-5}}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 5

Question 6.
\(\frac{2 x}{2 x+3}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 6

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
\(\frac{3 x}{5 x-1}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 7
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 8

Question 8.
\(\frac{2 x+5}{3 x+4}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 9
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 10

Part-D

2nd PUC Basic Maths Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 Four Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
\(\sqrt{1+\sin x}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 11

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
\(\int \frac{1}{1-\cos x} d x\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 12

Question 3.
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}-\sqrt{2+x}}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 13

Question 4.
\(\frac{4}{\sqrt{x+1}+\sqrt{x+2}}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 14

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
\(\frac{5}{\sqrt{3 x+1}-\sqrt{3 x+4}}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.2 - 15

2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1

Students can Download Basic Maths Exercise 20.1 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1

Part-A

2nd PUC Basic Maths Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1 One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
\(x^{2}-\frac{6}{x}+5 e^{x}\)
Answer:
\(\int x^{2}-\frac{6}{x}+5 e^{x} d x=\frac{x^{3}}{3}-6 \log x+5 e^{x}+C\)

Question 2.
7x – 10.9x
Answer:
\(\int 7^{x}-10 \cdot 9^{x} d x=\frac{7^{x}}{\log 7}-10 \frac{9^{x}}{\log 9}+C\) [∵ alogex = xa]

Question 3.
xe + ex – log a
Answer:
\(\int\left(x^{e}+e^{x}-\log a\right) d x=\frac{x^{e+1}}{e+1}+e^{x}-\log a \cdot x+c\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
76log7x.
Answer:
\(\int 7^{6 \log _{e} x} d x=\int 7^{\log _{7} x^{6}} d x=\int x^{6} d x=\frac{x^{7}}{7}+c\)

Question 5.
cot2x.
Answer:
∫cot2x dx = ∫(cosec2x – 1)dx = cot x – x + c

Question 6.
\(\frac{9 \cos x}{5 \sin ^{2} x}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1 - 1

Question 7.
7x2 – 4 sec2x
Answer:
∫7x2 – 4 sec2x dx = 7.\(\frac{x^{3}}{3}\) – 4.tan x + c

Part-B

2nd PUC Basic Maths Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1 Two marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
\(\int \frac{x^{5}+5 x^{2}-7 x}{\sqrt{x}}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1 - 2

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
\(\left(x-\frac{1}{x}\right)^{2}\)
Answer:
\(\int\left(x-\frac{1}{x}\right)^{2} d x=\int\left(x^{2}+\frac{1}{x^{2}}-2\right) d x=\frac{x^{3}}{3}-\frac{1}{x}-2 x+c\)

Question 3.
\(\int \sqrt{x}\left(1-\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\right)\)
Answer:
\(\int \sqrt{x}\left(1-\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\right) d x=\int(\sqrt{x}-1) d x=\frac{2}{3} x^{\frac{3}{2}}-x+c\)

Question 4.
\(\int x^{\frac{3}{2}}\left(x^{1}-\frac{1}{x^{2}}\right)\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1 - 3

Question 5.
\(\int \frac{6^{x}-3^{x}}{5^{x}}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1 - 4

Question 6.
∫(33log3x – 77log7x)
Answer:
∫(33log3x – 77log7x)dx = ∫(x3 – x7)dx = \(\frac{x^{4}}{4}-\frac{x^{8}}{8}\) + C [∵ aalogax = xa]

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
\(\sqrt{1-\cos 2 x}\)
Answer:
\(\int \sqrt{1-\cos 2 x \cdot d x}=\int \sqrt{2 \sin ^{2} x} d x=\int \sqrt{2} \cdot \sin x \cdot d x=\sqrt{2} \cos x+c\)

Question 8.
\(\frac{1+\sin x}{\cos ^{2} x}\)
Answer:
\(\int \frac{1+\sin x}{\cos ^{2} x} d x=\int \frac{1}{\cos ^{2} x} d x+\frac{\sin x}{\cos ^{2} x} d x=\int \sec ^{2} x+\tan x \cdot \sec x d x=\tan x+\sec x+c\)

Question 9.
sec x(sec x – tan x)
Answer:
∫sec x (sec x – tan x)dx = ∫sec2x – sec x .tan x. dx
= tan x – sec x + c

Part-c

Integrate the following

2nd PUC Basic Maths Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1 Three marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
\(\frac{\left(a^{x}+b^{x}\right)^{2}}{a^{x} b^{x}}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1 - 5

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
\(\csc x \cdot \sqrt{\csc ^{2} x-1}\)
Answer:
\(\int \csc x \cdot \sqrt{\csc ^{2} x-1} \cdot d x\)
= ∫cos ex. \(\sqrt{\cot ^{2} x} d x\) = ∫cosecx. cot x .dx = cosec x + c

Question 3.
\(\sqrt{1+\sin 2 x}\)
Answer:
\(\int \sqrt{1+\sin 2 x} d x=\int \sqrt{(\cos x+\sin x)^{2}}=\int(\cos x+\sin x) d x\)
= sinx – cosx + c

Question 4.
\(\frac{1-\cos 2 x}{1+\cos 2 x}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1 - 6

Part-D

Integrate the following

2nd PUC Basic Maths Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1 Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
\(\frac{1}{1+\sin x}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1 - 7

Question 2.
\(\frac{\sec x}{1+\sec x}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1 - 8

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
\(\frac{\cos x}{1+\cos x}\)
Answer:
\(\int \frac{\cos x}{1+\cos x} d x=\int \frac{\cos x(1-\cos x)}{1-\cos ^{2} x} d x=\int \frac{\cos x}{\sin ^{2} x}-\frac{\cos ^{2} x}{\sin ^{2} x} d x\)
= ∫(cot x . cosecx – cot 2)dx
= -cosec x – ∫(cosec2x – 1)dx
= -cosecx -(- cotx) + x + c
= -cosecx + cot x + x + c

Question 4.
\(\frac{\sin ^{2} x}{1+\cos x}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.1 - 9
= ∫(1 – cos x)dx
= x – sinx + c

2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1

Students can Download Basic Maths Exercise 3.1 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1

Part – A

2nd PUC Basic Maths Probability Ex 3.1 One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is an Experiment?
Answer:
An operation which can produce some well defined outcomes in known as an experiment.

Question 2.
What is random experiment?
Answer:
Any experiment that results in two to more outcomes is called a random experiment.

Question 3.
Define sample space.
Answer:
The set of all possible outcomes of a random experiment is called as sample space & it is denoted by S.

Question 4.
What is the probability of sample space?
Answer:
P(S) = 1

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
What is an event?
Answer:
Any subset of a sample space is called an event.

Question 6.
What is the range for probability?
Answer:
Range of probability is 0 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1.

Question 7.
What is probability of a certain event?
Answer:
p(certain event) = 1

Question 8.
What is probability of an impossible event?
Answer:
P(Impossible event) = 0

Question 9.
Define
(aj Mutually exclusive events
(b) Independent events
(c) Complementary events.
Answer:
(a) If two events cannot occur simultaneously in a random experiment then they are called mutually exclusive events,
(b) Events are said to be independent, if the occurrence of one does not depend upon the occurrence of the other,
(c) In a random experiment, let S be the sample space & let E be an event then E C S, So ‘E’ is also an event called the complementary of E.

Question 10.
IfP(A) = \(\frac{3}{5}\) FindP(A’).
Answer:
If P(A) = \(\frac{3}{5}\) then P(A’) = 1-P(A) = 1- \(\frac{3}{5}\) = \(\frac{2}{5}\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
A coin is tossed thrice. Write the sample space.
Answer:
S = (HHH, HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, TTH, THT, TTT}

Question 12.
Ved hits the target 7 times out of 10 shots. Find his probability of missing the target.
Answer:
P[Missing the target = \(1-\frac{7}{10}=\frac{10-7}{10}=\frac{3}{10}\)

Question 13.
What is the probability of an event A if odds in favour are 3:5.
Answer:
P(odds in favour of 3 : 5) = \(\frac{3}{8}\)

Question 14.
What is the probability of an event A if odds against are 2:7
Answer:
(odds against of 2 : 7) = \(\frac{7}{9}\)

Question 15.
A card is drawn from a pack of 52 playing cards What is the probability that is queen.
Answer:
Answer:
Event A: Card is a queen => n(A) = 4 & n(S) = 52.
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{4}{52}\)

Question 16.
What is the probability of getting two heads when a coin is tossed twice.
Answer:
S = {HH, 1IT, TH, IT}, n(S) = 4
Event A = Two heads n(A) = 1.
∴ P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 17.
If P(A) = \(\frac{3}{4}\) ,P(B) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) PAB) = \(\frac{1}{4}\) , fine P(A/B)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 1
Question 18.
A bag contains 8 red and 4 green marbles. Find the probability that a marble selected at random is red.
Answer:
n(s) = 8 + 4 = 12
A: Marble is red, n(A) = 8
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{8}{12}=\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 19.
What is the probability of getting a multiple of 3 when a die is thrown.
Answer:
n(S) = 6, A = {3,6}, n(A = 2
∴ P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{2}{6}=\frac{1}{3}\)
n(S) 6 3

Question 20.
What is the probability that the child born is a boy?
Answer:
S = {B,G} n(S) = 2.
A: Child is a boy, n(A) = 1
P(A) = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{A})}{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 21.
A number chosen from 1 to 50. What is the probability that the number is a multiple of 8.
Answer:
n(S) = 50, A = {8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48}
n(A)=6
P(A) = \(\frac{6}{50}=\frac{3}{25}\)

Question 22.
If A and B are mutually exhaustive events, then what is P(A ∪ B)
Answer:
P (A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P (A∩B)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 23.
A die is thrown. What is the chance of getting a face with dots as multiple of 2.
Answer:
n(S) = 6,A = {24,6}
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 24.
If A and B are independent events find P(B/A)
Answer:
If A and B are independent events P(A ∩ B) = P(A). P(B)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 2

Question 25.
A box contains 5red balls, 8 green balls and 10 pink balls. A ball is drawn at random from the box. What
is the probability that the ball drawn is either red or green.
Answer:
m(S) = 5 + 8 + 10 = 23
A= Red orGreen, nÍA)= 5+8=13
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{13}{23}\)

Part – B

2nd PUC Basic Maths Probability Ex 3.1 Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are independent events? Give one example,
Answer:
(a) If two events cannot occur simultaneously in a random experiment then they are called mutually exclusive events
(b) Events are said to be independent, if the occurrence of one does not depend upon the occurrence of the other
(c) In a random experiment, let S be the sample space & let E be an event then E C S, So ‘E’ is also an event called the complementary of E.

Question 2.
Explain sample space with an example.
Answer:
The set of all possible outcomes of a random experiment is called as sample space & it is denoted by S.
S = (HHH, HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, TTH, THT, TTT}

Question 3.
IfA and B are mutually exclusive events with P(A) = \(\frac{2}{5}\) P(B) = \(\frac{1}{7}\) find P(A ∪ B)
Answer:
P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 3
∵A & B are mutually exclusive.

Question 4.
If P(A) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) P(B) = \(\frac{1}{3}\) P(A∪B} = \(\frac{7}{12}\) find P(B/A)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 4

Question 5.
If P(A’) = 0.65 P(A∪B) = 0.65 find P(B)
Answer:
If P(A’) = 0.65 ⇒ P(A) = 1 – 0.65 = 0.35
P(A∪B) = P(A)+P(B)
0.65 = 0.35 + P(B) ⇒ P(B) = 0.65 – 0.35 = 0.30

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Two cards are drawn at random from a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards. Wh both are queens or both are king cards,
Here n(S) = 52c2 = \(\frac{52 \times 51}{2 \times 1}\) = 1326
Let Event A: both are queeWs, n(A)=4c2 = \(\frac{4 \times 3}{2 \times 1}\) =6
Event B: both are kings, n(B) = 4c2 = \(\frac{4 \times 3}{2 \times 1}\) = 6
A & B are mutually exclusive A ∩ B = O
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 5

Question 7.
A die is thrown twice, what is the probability that at ¡east one of the two numbers is 6.
Answer:
n(S) = = 36
Event A = {(1, 6), (2, 6) (3, 6) (4, 6) (5, 6) (6,6) (6, 1) (6, 2) (6, 3) (6, 4) (6, 5)}
n(A) = 11
∴ P(A) = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{A})}{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{11}{36}\)

Question 8.
From a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards a card is drawn at random. Find probability that the drawn card is a king or a queen.
Answer:
n(S) = 52
Event A:Cardisakingz ⇒ n(A)=4
B = Card is a Queen ⇒ n(B) = 4
A & B are mutually exclusive (A ∩ B) = (A ∩ B) = 9, P(A or B) = P(A∪B) = P(A) +P(B)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 6

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
The probability of occurrence of two events A and B are \(\frac{1}{4}\) and \(\frac{1}{2}\) respectively. The probability of their simultaneous occurrence is \(\frac{7}{50}\) . What is the probability that neither A nor B occurs.
[Hint:find 1- P(A∪3)
Answer:
‘Given P(A) = \(\frac{1}{4}\), P(B) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
P(A∩ B) = \(\frac{7}{5}\)
P(neither A nor B) = P(A’∩B’) = P(A∪B)’ = 1 – P(A∪B)
=1 – [P(A)+P(B)-P(A∩B)]
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 7

Question 10.
Two coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of getting (a) atmost 1 tail (b) atleast 1 tail.
Answer:
(a) S = {HH, HT, TH, TT}, n(S) = 4
Let A: Atmost 1 tail
A = {HH, HT, TH}, n(A) = 3, P(A) = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
(b) B = Atleastl tail
B = {HT,TH,TT}, n(B) = 3.P(B) = \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 11.
Three fair coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of getting atleast one head and aleast one tail.
Answer:
S = {HHH, HHT, HTH, THH, HTT, THT, TTH, TTT}
n(S)=8
Let A: Atleast one head & atleast onetail.
A = {HTH, HHT, HTT, THH, THT, TTH}, n(A) =6
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{6}{8}=\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 12.
Two dice are rolled simultaneously. Find the probability of getting a doublet of even numbers.
Answer:
n(S) = 36
Let A=doublet of even numbers
A = {(2, 2), (4, 4), (6, 6)), n(A) = 3
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{3}{36}=\frac{1}{12}\)

Question 13.
If there are two children in a family. Find the probability that there ¡s atleast one girl child in the family.
Answer:
Li S={HB,BG,GB,GG),n(S)=4
A: Atleast one girl,
A={BG,GB,GG},n(A)=3
P(A) = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{A})}{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 14.
A box contains S defective and 15 non defective bulbs. Two bulbs are chosen at random. Find the probability that both the bulbs are non- defective.
Answer:
Total = 5 + 15 = 20,
n(S)= 20c2 = \(\frac{20 \times 19}{2 \times 1}\)= 190
Let A = both bulbs are non-defective
n(A)= 15c2= \(\frac{14 \times 15}{2 \times 1}\) = 105
P(A)= \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{105}{190}=\frac{21}{38}\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
A problem in a question paper is given to 3 students in a class to be solved. The probabilities of their solving the problem are 0.5, 0.7 and 0.8 respectively. Find the probability that the problem will be solved.
Let
P(A) = P(A Solves the problem) = 0.5
P(B) = P(B solves the problem) = 0.7
P(C) = P(C solves the problem) = 0.8
P(Problem is solved)
= 1 – P(None of then solves O
= 1 – P(A’ B’ C’) = 1 – F(A’) F(B’) P(C’)
=1 – (0.5)(0.3)(0.2) = 1 – 0.03 = 0.97

Question 16.
What is the probability that a randomly chosen two-digit positive integer is a multiple of 3.
Answer:
Let n(s) 90
A={12,15 ……………… 99}
n(A)=30
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{30}{90}=\frac{1}{3}\)
Using a + (n — 1)d = Tn
12+ (n – 1)3=99
12 + 3x – 3 = 99
3x = 99 – 9
3x = 90; x = 30

Question 17.
Two cards are drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that both are face cards.
Answer:
n(s) = 52c2 = \(\frac{52 \times 51}{2 \times 1}\) = 1326
Let A = both are face cards
n(s) = 12c2 = \(\frac{12 \times 11}{2 \times 1}\) = 66
n(s) = 52c2 = \(\frac{52 \times 51}{2 \times 1}\) = 1326
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{66}{1326}=\frac{11}{221}\)

Question 18.
Tickets are numbered from 1 to 18 are mixed up together and one ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket has a number which is a multiple of 2 or 3.
Answer:
n(S) = 18
Let A: Multiple of 2, A {2 ………………..18), n(A) = 9
B: Multiple of 3, B {3, …………… 18), n(B) = 6
A ∩ B: Multiple of 2 & 3, A B {6, 12, 18}, n(A ∩ B) = 32nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 8

Question 19.
If the letters of the word ‘RAMLEELA’ are arranged in random. What is the probability that it begins with REEL.
Answer:
n(s) = \(\frac{8 !}{(21)^{3}}\)
Let A: Word begins with REEL
n(A) = \(\frac{4 !}{2 !}\)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 9

KSEEB Solutions

Question 20.
A committee of 4 has to be selected from 9 boys and 6 girls. What is the probability that the corn contains 2 boys and 2 girls.
Answer:
n(S) (9 + 6)C4 =15c4
Let A: Committees contains 2 Boys and 2 Girls
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 10

Part – C

2nd PUC Basic Maths Probability Ex 3.1 Three Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A box contains 4 defective and 6 non def when 4 bulbs are selected at random.
Answer:
n(S) = (6 + 4)C4 = 10 \(c_{4}-\frac{10 \times 9 \times 8 \times 7}{4 \times 3 \times 2 \times 1}\) = 210
Let A: at least 3 are defective
Here 4 defective 6non defective
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 11

Question 2.
A natural number is chosen at random from among the first 300. What Is the probability that the number
so chosen is divisible by 3 or 5.
Answer:
n(S) = 300
Let A: Number is divisible by 3 = (3, 6, 9 300)
∴ n(A) = 100
Let B: Number is divisible by 5 = (5, 10 300)
∴ n(B) = 60
A∩ B: Number is divisible by 3 & 5 i.e., 15
A∩B = {15 ………………….300} n(A∩B) = \(\frac{300}{15}\) = 20
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 12

Question 3.
The probability that a MBA aspirant will join 11M is \(\frac{2}{5}\) and that he will join XLRI is \(\frac{1}{3}\) . Find the probability that (a.) he will join 11M or XLRI
(b) he will join neither 11M nor XLRI.
Answer:
‘Let A: MBA aspirant will join TIM ⇒ P(A) = \(\frac{2}{5}\)
B: Will join XLRI ⇒ P(B) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
A ∩ B = 9
∴ P(JoinhIMor x LRl) = P(A∪ B) = P(A) + (PB) = \(\frac{2}{5}+\frac{1}{3}=\frac{11}{15}\)
P(NeitherllM norx LRI)= P(A’∪ B’) = P(A∪ B)’ = 1 – P(A∪B)
= \(1-\frac{11}{15}=\frac{15-11}{15}=\frac{4}{15}\)

Question 4.
A die is thrown twice and sum of the numbers appearing is observed to be 9. What is the conditional probability that the number 4 has appeared at least once.
Answer:
Let A:Sum is 9
A = {(3,6) (6, 3) (5,4) (4,5)} ⇒ n(A)=4
B = (1, 4) (2, 4) (3, 4) (4, 4) (5, 4) (6, 4) (6, 4) (4, 1) (4, 2) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 6)
A∩B = {(5,4)(4,5)} ⇒ n(A∩B)=2
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 13

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
A die is rolled. If the outcome is an odd number. What Is the probability that It is a number greater than 1.
Answer:
Let A: Odd number = {1, 3, 5) ⇒ n(A) = 3
B: number greater than 1 = {2, 3, 4, 5, 6)} ⇒ n(S) = 5
A∩B ={3,5} ⇒ n(A∩B) = 2
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 14

Question 6.
A couple has two children. Find the probability that both are boys, ¡fit is known that
(a) one of the children is a boy
(b) older child is a boy.
Answer:
(a) Let
A: both are boys={B, B}, n(A)= 1
Let B: One of the child is boy = {BG, BB, GB}
= n(B) = 3
(b) Let C: Elder child is a boy
c={BG,BB} ⇒ n(c) = \(\frac{2}{4}\)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 15

Question 7.
A die is rolled twice. If the sum of the numbers facing upwards is even find the probability that both are odd
Answer:
Let A: both are odd
A = {(1, 1) (1, 3) (1, 5) (3, 1) (3, 3) (3, 5) (5. 3) (5, 1) (5, 5))}
n(A)=9
B = sum is even
= {((1, 1) (1, 3) (1, 5) (3, 1) (3, 3) (3, 5) (5, 3) (5, 1) (5, 5) (2, 2) (2, 4) (2, 6) (4, 2) (4, 4) (4, 6) (6, 2) (6. 4) (6, 6))}
n(B) 18
n(A∩B)=9
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 16

Question 8.
Seven persons are to be seated in a row. Find the probability that 2 particular persons sit next to each other.
Answer:
Here n(S) = 7!
Let A: 2 persons sit next to each other.
Let the 2 particular persons be together and 5 remaining people, totally 6 can be permuted in 6! ways and 2 particular persons they themselves can be permuted in 2! Ways.
∴ the number of ways is 6! And 2!.
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 17

Question 9.
There are 20 girls and 60 boys in a class. Half of the girls and half of the boys are first class students. A student ¡s selected at random. What is the probability that the student ¡s either a boy or a first class holder.
Answer:
n(S) = 20 + 60 = 80
Let A: student is a boy n(A) 60
P(A) = \(\frac{60}{80}=\frac{3}{4}\)
Let B: student is a ¡ class holder
1 class = 30 boys + lo girls = 40
P(B) = \(\frac{40}{80}=\frac{1}{2}\)
Let (A ∩ B) = n(Student is a boy and I class holder) = 30
P(A) = (A ∩ B) = \(\frac{30}{80}=\frac{3}{8}\)
∴ P(Student is a boy of first class holder)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 18

Question 10.
Among the members of a committee, there are 75% males and 25% females. The probability that a male member becomes the president is 0.25 and probability that a female member becomes the president is 0.4. Find the probability that the person selected at random becomes the president.
[Hint: Person selected Is Male and becomes President OR is female and becomes President]
Answer:
Let A:Malemember = P(A) = \(\frac{75}{100}=\frac{3}{4}\)
B: Female member =P(B) = \(\frac{25}{100}=\frac{1}{4}\)
C: Member is a president
P(C/A) = 0 25, P(Female president) = P(C/B) = 0.4
P(C) = P(Member is a president)
= P(A) P(C/A) + P(B)P(C/B)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 19

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
Two cards are drawn from a pack of playing cards, one after the other. Find the probability of getting a
heart in first draw and diamond ¡n the second draw if the cards are drawn.
(a) without replacement
(b) with replacement
Answer:
(a) Without replacement
Heart in I draw and claimant in II draw
∴ n(A)= 13C1 x 13C1 n(S)= 52C1 x 51C1
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 20
(b) With replacement
n(S) = 52 x 52 and n(A) = 13 x 13
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 21

Question 12.
If three cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards, what is the probability that at least two of them are kIngs?
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 22

Part-D

2nd PUC Basic Maths Probability Ex 3.1 Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
If the letters of the Word INDEPENDENCEare arranged at random. Find the probability that
(a) 4 E’s are together in the word.
(b) The 2 D’s are together and 3 N’s are togethc
(c) All the 4 E’s are not together.
(d) No two E’s are together.
Answer:
Total letters = 12 in which N = 3, D = 2. E = 4.
Total number of Arrangements = n(S) = \(\frac{12 !}{3 ! \cdot 2 ! \cdot 4 !}\)

(a) A : 4 E’s are together can be taken as I unit and remaining 8 totally 9 can be permuted in
\(\frac{9 !}{3 ! \cdot 2 !}\)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 23

(b) B: 2D’s are together and 3N’s are together
1 + 1 + remaining 7 = 9 can be done in \(\frac{9 !}{4 !}\)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 24

(c) All 4E’s are not together = total – together = 1 – 0.0 18 = 0.982
(d) D: No. two Es are together
:. E’s are in between the other B letters, there are 9 spaces, in which 4 Es are placed in 9C4 ways and 8 letters can be permuted in \(\frac{8 !}{3 ! \times 2 !}\) and 4E’s are repeated need to delete n(D) = \(^{9} \mathrm{C}_{4} \frac{8 !}{3 ! \cdot 2 ! \times 4 !}\)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 25

Question 2.
A bag contains 3 red and 4 black balls and another bag has 4 red and 2 black halls. One bag is selected at
random and from the selected bag a ball Is drawn. Let E be the event that the flrstbag ¡s séÍected, F b the
event that the second bag is selected. G be the event that ball drawn Is red. Find
(a) P(E)
(b) P(F)
(c) P(G/E)
(d) P(G/F)
Answer:
Let E: First bag is selected
(a) P(E) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
F: Second bag is selected G: Ball is red
(b) P(F) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
G: Ball is Red
(c) P (G/E) = P (red ball from I bag) = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
(d) P(G/F)= P(red ball from Il bag) = \(\frac{4}{6}=\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 3.
In a class 45% students read English, 30% read French and 20% read both English and trench. one student Is selected at random. Find the probability that a) he reads english, If It Is known that he reads French b) he reads French [f It Is known that he reads english
Answer:
E: 45% red English = P(E) = \(\frac{45}{100}\)
F: 30% red French P(F) = \(\frac{30}{100}\)
E m F: 20% read both English & French P(E ∩ F) = \(\frac{200}{100}\)
P (reads English given that the read French)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 26
P (reads English given that the read French)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 27
P (reads French given that he read English)

Question 4.
A bag contains 8 red and 4 green balls. Find the probability th
(a) ball drawn is red when one ball is selected at random.
(b) all the 4 baUs are green when four balls are drawn at random.
(c) Two balls are red and one ball is green when three balls are drawn at r
(d) Three balls are drawn and none of them Is green.
Answer:
n(s)=8+4= 12
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 28

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
In case of 1oo students, 60 drInk tea, 50 drInk coffee and 30 think both tea and coffee A chidgini fvva this class is selected at random. What Is the probability that the student takes
(a) atleast one õf the two drinks
(b) only one of the drinks
Answer:
Let E: Students drinks tea ⇒ P(E) = \(\frac{60}{100}=\frac{3}{5}\)
F: Student drinks coffee ⇒ P(F) = \(\frac{50}{100}=\frac{1}{2}\)
E n F: Student drinks both tea & coffee P (E ∩ F) = \(\frac{30}{100}=\frac{3}{10}\)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 29

Question 6.
One card is drawn from a oi L ciras. rina iiae pruuauuiry war
(a) Card is neither an ace nor a king
(b) Queen given the
(c) Card is either black or a jack
(d) It Is a face card
n(s) = 52, E = Ace, F = king
(a) Let A: card is neither ace nor a king E’ ∩ F’
P(E) = \(\frac{4}{52}\) P(F) = \(\frac{4}{52}\) P(E∩ F) = 0
P(A) = P(E’ ∩ F’) = P(E∪ F)’ = 1 – P(E∪F)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 30

(b) B: Queen given that the card is red
Let R: Card is queen P P(R) = \(\frac{4}{52}[latex]
S: Card is red P P(S) = [latex]\frac{26}{52}=\frac{1}{2}\)
R m S: Card is red & Queen P P(R∩S) = \(\frac{2}{52}\)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 31

(c) Let C: Card is black or a jack LUM
Where L: Card is black, m : card is jack
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 32

(e) Let D: Face card (there are 12 face cards)
P(d) = \(\frac{12}{52}=\frac{3}{13}\)

Question 7.
Two dice are rolled simultaneously. Find the probability of
(a) getting a total of 11.
(b) getting a sum greater thar 11
(c) getting a multiple of 2 on one die and a multiple of 3 on the other.
N(S) = 36
Let A : sum is 11 = {(6, 5) (5, 6)) ⇒ n(A) = 2
(a) P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(s)}=\frac{2}{36}=\frac{1}{18}\)

(b) Let B=Sum> 11 = {(66)),n(B) = 1
P(B) = \(\frac{n(B)}{b(s)}=\frac{1}{36}\)
(c) Let C = multiple of 2 on one die & multiple of 3 on the other {(2, 3), (2, 6), (4, 3) (4, 6) (6, 3) (6, 6)} n(c) =
6 P(c) = \(\frac{6}{36}=\frac{1}{6}\)
S = (HHH, HHT, HTH, THIL TTH, THT, HTT, TTT}

Question 8.
Three fair coins are tossed simuItaneousIy Find the proaint
(a) getting one head
(b) getti
(c) getting atleast two head
(d) getting 3 heads when It Is known that first two are heads.
n(S) = 8
(a) A: getting one Head = (HTH, HTT, TTH) = n(A) = 3 P(A)= \(\frac{3}{8}\)
(b) B : getting atmost one head (TTT TTH, ThT, HTT) n(B) = 4 P(B) = \(\frac{4}{8}=\frac{1}{2}\)
(c) C : getting atleast two heads = {HHT, THH, FITH, HFŠH}, n(C) = \(\frac{4}{8}=\frac{1}{2}\)
(d) D: first 2 are heads, E: 3 heads \(P\left(\frac{E}{D}\right)=\frac{P(E \cap D)}{P(D)}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 9.
Two cards are drawn at random from a pack of cards, Find the probability that both are aces if the
cards are drawn I) together II) one after the other without replacement III) one after the other with
replacement.
n(S) = 52C2
(i) Let A both are ace ⇒ n(A) = 4C2
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 33

(ii) One after the other without replacement
n(s) = 52 x 51,n(A) = 4 x 3
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 34

(iii) with replacement
n(s) = 52 x 52,n(A) = 4 x 4
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 35

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
A committee of 12 with atleast 5 women has to formed from 9 women and 8 men. What Is the probability that
(a) Women are in majority
(b) Men are in majority In the committee so formed.
Answer:
n(S) = (9+8)C12 = 6186
(a) Let A : women are in majority
No of selections are:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 36

(b) Men are in majority
No of selections are: 9w 8M 5 79Cr5 x 8C7, = 126 x 8 = 1008
P(B) = \(\frac{n(B)}{n(S)}=\frac{1008}{6188}\)

Question 11.
From 8 gentlemen and 7 ladies a committee of 5 Is to be formed. What is the probability that this committee consists of
(a) exactly 2 ladies
(b) atleast 3 gentlemen .
(c) atmost 2 ladies
Answer:
n(S) = (8+7)C5 = 15C5 = 3003
(a)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 37

(b) Let B : At least 3 gentlemen
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 38

(c) Let C : At most 2 Ladies
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 39

Question 12.
There are six tickets numbered from O to 5. Two tickets are selected at random from the lot. What is the probability that the sum Is
(a) atmost 8
(b) atleast 8
(c) prime number
Answer:
n(S) = 6C2 = \(\frac{6 \times 5}{2 \times 1}\) = 15
(a) Let A: sum is at most 8 i.e max B
A = {(O, 1) (0, 2) (0,3) (0,4) (0,5) (1,2) (1,3) (1.4) (1,5) (2,3) (2, 4) (2, 5) (3, 4) (3, 5))
n(A)=14
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{14}{15}\)
(b) Let B = sum is at least 8 = {(5, 3) (4, 5)) ⇒ n(B) = 2
⇒ n(B) = \(\frac{n(B)}{n(S)}=\frac{2}{15}\)
(c) Let C : Sum is prime number
C = { (0. 1) (0, 2) (0, 3) (0, 5) (1, 2) (1. 4) (2, 3) (3, 4)) ⇒ n(C) = 8
P(C) = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{C})}{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{8}{15}\)

Question 13.
A bag contains 6 red, 4 white and Z black balls. Z balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that the balls drawn are
(a) both red
(b) 1 white and 1 black
(c) same colour
(d) different colour
Answer:
Here n(s) = (6 + 4. 2)C, = 12C,
(a) Let A:both are red ⇒ n(A)=6C2
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 40

(b) Let B: 1 white & 1 Black
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 41

(c) Let C1: Both are of same colour.
n(c) = 64c2 or 2Ca = 15 + 6 + 1 = 22
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 42

(d) Let D both are of different colour no of selections 6C1 x 4C1 or 4C1 x 2C or 6C1 x 2C1 = 24 + 8 + 12 = 44
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 43

Question 14.
An urn contain 4white 2 green and 4 black balls. 3 balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that the drawn balls are 1) 3 white 2) 1 white and 2 green 3) one of each colour.
Answer:
n(S)=(4+2+4)C3 = 10C3 = \(\frac{10 \times 9 \times 8}{3 \times 2 \times 1}\) = 120
(1) Let A = 3 white balls ⇒ n(A) = 4C3 = 1
P(A) = =\(\frac{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{A})}{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{A})}=\frac{1}{120}\)

(2) Let B: 1 white or 2 green
n(B) = 4C1 x 2C2 = 4 x 1= 4
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 44

(3) Let C1: one of each colour:
n(B) = 4C1 x 2C1 x 4C1 = 4x2 x = 32.
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 45

Question 15.
The probability that Anirudh solves the given problem is ½and probability that Akansh solves the given problem is \(\frac{1}{4}\). If the problem Is independently tried by them. What is the probability that
(a) the problem is solved
(b) both of them solve the problem
(c) Anirudh alone solves the problem
(d) Akansh alone solves the problem
(e) Both do not solve the problem
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 46

KSEEB Solutions

Question 16.
An educational institute wants to select 3 teachers. If S ladies and 4 gents appear for the interview. What is the probability that the selected teachers are a) 3 gents b) 3 ladies C) 2 gents and I lady d) atleast one lady.
Answer:

n(s) = (5+4)C3 = 9C3 = \(\frac{9 \times 8 \times 7}{3 \times 2}\) = 84
(a)Let A:3gents = n(A) = 4C3= 4C1 = 4
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 47

(b) Let B : 3 ladies n(B) = 5C3 = \(\frac{5 \times 4 \times 3}{3 \times 2}\) = 10
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 48

(c) Let C:2gents& 1 lady n(C) = 4C2 x 5C1
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 49

(d) Let D: At least one lady
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 50

Question 17.
Two persons A and B climb a hill. The probability that A climbs the hill is \(\frac{1}{6}\) and that B climbs the hill is \(\frac{1}{4}\) . What Is the probability that
(a) Both of them climb the hill
(b) Only one of them will climb the hill
(c) None of them will climb the hill
(d) Only A will climb the hill
(e) Only B climbs the hill
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 51

Question 18.
The probability that India win a cricket test against Australia is \(\frac{1}{3}\). If india and Australia nIai
Is the probability that 3
(a) India will lose alt the 3 matches.
(b) India will win all the 3 matches.
(c) India will atleast one match.
(d) India will win exactly two matches.
Answer:
Given P(India winds) = P(W) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
P(lndia loses) = P(L) = P(W’) – 1- \(\frac{1}{3}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(a) P(lndia loses all 3 matches) P(L.L.L) = P(L) P(L) P(L) = \(\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^{3}=\frac{8}{27}\)
(b) P(India will all 3 matches) P(WWW) = P( W ) P(W). P(W) = \(\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{3}=\frac{1}{27}\)
(c) P(lndia wins atleast one match)
= P(wins 1 match or 2 matchs or 3 matchs)
= 3P(WLL) 3P(WWL) + P(WWW) = 3P(W). P(L) . P(L) + 3P(W) . P(W) . P(L) + P(W) . P(W) . P(W)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 52
(d) P(lndia win exactly 2 matches)
= 3p(\Y\rL) + P(WLW) + P(L\VW)= 3P(WWL)
= 3. P(W). P(Wj. P(L) = \(\left.3 \cdot \frac{1}{3}\right)^{2} \cdot \frac{2}{3}=\frac{2}{9}\)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 19.
A couple appears in an interview for two vacancies in the same post. The probability of husband’s
selection \(\frac{1}{7}\) and the probability of wife’s selection is \(\frac{1}{5}\). What is the probability that
(a) both of them are selected
(b) only one of them will be selected
(c) none of them will be selected
(d) Wife only ¡s selected.
Answer:
Given P(Husband is selected) = P H) = \(\frac{1}{7}\)
P(H’) = 1 – \(\frac{1}{7}\) = \(\frac{6}{7}\)
P(wife is selected) = P(W) = \(\frac{1}{5}\) P(W’) = \(1-\frac{1}{5}=\frac{4}{5}\)

(a) P(both are selected) = P(HW) = P(H).P(W) = \(\frac{1}{7} \cdot \frac{1}{5}=\frac{1}{35}\)
(b) P(only one of them will be selected)
=P(HWHW)=P(H).P(W1)+ P(F1’)P(W)
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 53
(c) P(None of them will be selected) = P(H’ W’)
= P(H’)P(W’) = \(\frac{6}{7} \cdot \frac{4}{5}=\frac{24}{35}\)

(d) P(wife only is selected) = P(W H’) = P(W) . P(H’) = \(\frac{1}{5} \cdot \frac{6}{7}=\frac{6}{35}\)

Question 20.
A bag contains 10 tickets numbered 0, 1,2 ….9. Two tickets are drawn at random simultaneously. What is probability that
(a) product of the numbers on the two tickets drawn is
(b) sum of the numbers on the two tickets ¡s less than 4
(c) One ticket number is 3 times the other ticket number.
Answer:
Let n(S)= 10C2 = \(\frac{10 \times 9}{2 \times 1}=45\)
(a) Let A: Product of the members is 0
= {(0. 1) (0, 2) (0, 3) (0, 4) (0, 5) (0, 6) (0, 7) (0, 8) (0, 9)}
n(A) = 9
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 54

(b) Let B: sum is less than 4
B = {(0, 1) (0, 2) (0, 3) (1, 2)} n(B) = 4
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 55

(c) Let C: one number is 3 times the other
C = ((1,3) (2,6)(3,9)} ⇒ n(C)=3
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 3 Probability Ex 3.1 - 56

2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7

Students can Download Maths Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 2nd PUC Maths Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7

2nd PUC Maths Continuity and Differentiability NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers Ex 5.7

Find the second order derivatives of the functions given in Exercises 1 to 10.

Question 1.
x2 + 3x + 2
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.1

Question 2.
x20
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.2

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
x. cos x
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.3

Question 4.
log x
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.5

Question 5.
x3 log x
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.6

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
ex sin 5x
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.7
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.8

Question 7.
e6x cos 3x
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.9

Question 8.
tan-1 x
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.10

Question 9.
log  (log x)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.11

Question 10.
sin(log x)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.12
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.13

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
If y = 5 cos x – 3 sin x prove that \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}+y=0\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.14

Question 12.
\(\text { If } y=\cos ^{-1} x, \text { Find } \frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\)
in terns of y alone
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.15

Question 13.
If y = 3 cos (log x) + 4 sin (log x), show that x2y2 + xy1 + y = 0
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.16

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
If y = Ae-nx + Benx, Show that
\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}-(m+n) \frac{d y}{d x}+m n y=0\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.17

Question 15.
If y = 500e7x + 600e-7x, show that \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}=49 y\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.18
KSEEB Solutions

Question 16.
\(\text { If } \mathrm{e}^{y}(x+1)=1, \text { show that } \frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}=\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{2}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.19
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.20

Question 17.
If y = (tan-1 x)2, show that (x2 + 1)2 y2 + 2x (x2 + 1) y1 = 2
Answer:

2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.7.21

2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6

Students can Download Maths Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 2nd PUC Maths Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6

2nd PUC Maths Continuity and Differentiability NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers Ex 5.6

If x and y are connected parametrically by the equations given in Exercises 1 to 10, without eliminating the parameter,find \(\frac{\mathrm{d} y}{\mathrm{d} x}\)

Question 1.
x = 2at2, y = at4
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6.1

Question 2.
x = a cos θ, y = b cos θ
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6.2

Question 3.
x = sin t , y = cos 2t
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6.3

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
\(x=4 t, y=\frac{4}{t}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6.4
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6.5

Question 5.
x = cosθ – cos 2θ y = sinθ – sin 2θ
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6.6

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
x = a (θ – sin θ),y = (1 + cos θ)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6.7

Question 7.
\(x=\frac{\sin ^{3} t}{\sqrt{\cos 2 t}}, y=\frac{\cos ^{3} t}{\sqrt{\cos 2 t}}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6.8
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6.9

Question 8.
\(x=a\left(\cos t+\log \tan \frac{t}{2}\right), y=a \sin t\)
Answer:

2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6.10

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
x = a sec θ, y = b tan θ
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6.11

Question 10.
x = a (cos θ +θ sin θ ), y = a (sin θ – θ cos θ)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6.12

Question 11.
\(\text { If } x=\sqrt{a^{\sin ^{-1} t}}, y=\sqrt{a^{\cos ^{-1} t}}, \text { show that } \frac{d y}{d x}=-\frac{y}{x}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.6.13

2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Students can Download 2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Biology Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70

General Instructions:

  1. This question paper consists of four parts A, B, C and D. Part D consists of two parts, Section – I and Section – II.
  2. All the parts are Compulsory.
  3. Draw diagrams wherever necessary. Unlabelled diagrams or illustrations do not attract any marks.

Part – A

I. Answer the following questions in One Word or One Sentence each : ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
Name the site of fertilization in female human beings.
Answer:
Upper limb (Ampullary – isthmic junction) of fallopian tube.

Question 2.
Define adaptive radiation
Answer:
It is the evolution of different animals in different direction from a common ancestor adapting to different ecological niches. It is also called as divergent evolution.

Question 3.
Name the organism that causes typhoid.
Answer:
Salmonella typhi.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
What is green revolution?
Answer:
The dramatic increase in food production due to improvement of high yielding and disease resistant crop varieties is called green revolution.

Question 5.
Name the microbe that causes big holes in the Swiss cheese.
Answer:
Propioni bacterium sharmanii

Question 6.
Why does the logistic growth curve becomes S shaped?
Answer:
In sigmoid growth unlimited resources are rare, population growth is, therefore becomes stable due to environmental resistance.

Question 7.
Breast feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended. Give reason?
Answer:
The yellowish milk (colostrum) secreted from mammary glands during the initial days contains antibodies (IgA) to boost the development of immune system of the child.

Question 8.
Give an example for chemical carcinogen that causes cancer.
Answer:
Alcohol or tobacco or coal tar or coal gas or asbestos cement etc

Question 9.
What is totipotency?
Answer:
The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell or explant is called totipotency

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
How do birds cope with temporary fluctuations in their environmental conditions?
Answer:
They migrate to hospitable areas for food and breeding purposes during unfavourable conditions in their habitat.

Part – B

II. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 3 – 5 sentences each, wherever applicable : ( 5 × 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
Name the plant that shows unusual flowering phenomenon in hilly tracks of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamilnad.
Answer:
Strobilanthus kuluthiana ( Neelakuranji)

Question 12.
What is Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)? Mention its significance.
Answer:
BOD refers to the amount of oxygen that would be consumed if all the organic matter in one liter of water were oxidized by bacteria.

Significance

  • The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by micro-organisms in a sample of water.
  • Indirectly BOD is a measure of the organic matter present in the water.
  • The greater the BOD of waste water more is its polluting potential.

Question 13.
Differentiate test cross and out cross.
Answer:
Test cross
It is a cross between F1 hybrid and homozygous recessive parent.

Out cross
It is a cross between F1 hybrid and homozygous dominant parent.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
Give two examples for natural selection in organisms.
Answer:

  1. Industrial melanism in Biston betularia
  2. Antibiotic resistance in bacteria

Question 15.
What are single cell proteins? Mention their importance?
Answer:
Dried biomass of a single species of microbes that can be used as protein source in the diet is known a single cell protein (SCP).

Single cell proteins (SCP) are alternative source of proteins used to feed the ever increasing population with protein rich diet to overcome the problems of protein malnutrition.

Question 16.
Why is India said to have greater ecosystem diversity than Norway?
Answer:
India with diverse ecosystems such as rain forests, coral reefs, wet lands, coastal areas, mangroves, estuaries and deserts has greater ecosystem diversity than Norway.

Question 17.
Draw a diagram of sparged tank bioreactor and label the parts.
Answer:
2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers 1

KSEEB Solutions

Question 18.
Explain the mechanism of action of restriction endonucleases.
Answer:
Restriction endonucleases recognize a specific base sequence of a DNA molecule.
They cut double stranded DNA at different sites. This generates protruding (51 or 31) ends. Such ends are called cohesive or sticky ends. These ends can join with single stranded sequences of other DNA having complementary base pairs.
E.g. EcoRI, Bam H1
2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers 2
Cuts symmetrically placed around the line of symmetry
2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers 3

Part – C

III. Answer any FIVE of the following Questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable. ( 5 × 3 = 15 )

Question 19.
Describe the different phases of life cycle.
Answer:
Juvenile phase
The period of growth from birth till individual attains sexual maturity is called Juvenile phase. It is known as vegetative phase in plants.

Reproductive phase
The period of growth after Juvenile or vegetative phase during which individual reaches sexual maturity and capable of producing gametes is called reproductive phase. In human beings reproductive phase begins on the onset of puberty usually after 13 or 14 years. In plants flowering marks the beginning of reproductive phase.

Senescent phase
The phase begins after reproductive phase and marks the end of growth cycle in organisms.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 20.
Give a brief account of Human Origin and evolution.
Answer:

  • Human evolution states that humans developed from primate or ape like ancestors.
  • Human origin occurred in Central Asia and Africa, China, Java and India (Shivalik hills).
  • The first mammals were shrew like terrestrial, insectivores or rat like creatures.
  • The insectivorous mammals namely tree shrews gave rise to the primitive primates called prosomians which include tarsiers, lemurs and lories and anthropoids (marmosets, baboons, monkeys, apes and man).
  • Modem man Homo sapiens belongs to class mammalia, order primata and suborder anthropoidea.
  • Dryopithecus africanus is regarded as common ancestor of man and apes.
  • It is lived about 20 – 25 million years ago (Miocene).
  • Dryopithecus gave rise to Rama pithecus; he appeared 14-15 million years ago.
  • The fossil of Rama pithecus was discovered from Pliocene rocks of Shivalik hills of India by Edward Lewis.
  • Rama pithecus gave rise to Australo pithecus after a gap of 9 – 10 million years.
  • Rama pithecus the first ape man commonly called southern ape .He appeared about 5 million years ago (early Pleistocene).
  • Homo habillus lived in early Pleistocene about 2 million years ago.
  • He was the first tool maker or handy man.
  • Homo erectus is the direct ancestor of modern man.
  • Homo erectus evolved from homo habillus about 1-7 million years ago in middle Pleistocene.
  • Homo erectus include Java ape man, pieking man and Heidelberg man.
  • The Neanderthal man existed in the late Pleistocene he was roughly equal to the modem man.
  • Cro-Magnon is regarded as direct and most recent ancestor of the living modem man.
  • He lived about 34.0000 years ago in Holocene epoch.
  • The cranial capacity was about 1650cc and considered more intelligent than the man of today.
  • The modern man Homo sapiens arose in Africa about 25.0000 years ago in Holocene epoch.
  • It is believed that the man of today appeared about 11.000 or 10.000 years ago in the region around Caspian and Mediterranean seas from their members migrated west wards, eastwards and south wards respectively changing into present day white or Caucasoid, Monogoloid and black or Negroid races.
  • Modern man underwent cultural evolution. Cave art developed about 18.000 years ago.
  • Agriculture came around 10.000 years back and human settlement started.

Question 21.
List the various public health measures as a safeguard against infectious diseases?
Answer:
Following are the public health measures, considered safe against infectious diseases.

  1. Maintenance of personal and public hygiene like proper disposal of waste and excreta through proper sanitation.
  2. Provision of safe water supply, periodic cleaning and disinfection of water reservoirs, pools, and tanks, etc.
  3. Standard practices of hygiene in public health catering.
  4. Avoiding stagnation of water in and around residential areas to prevent breeding of mosquitoes and vectors.
  5. Spraying of insecticides like DDT in ditches, drainage areas, swamps, etc., to prevent mosquito breeding.
  6. Measures against vector borne diseases like dengue and chikungunya, include fixing of wire meshes to doors and windows to prevent the entry of mosquitoes.
  7. Regular health camps, immunization (Vaccination) programmes to prevent the spread of infectious diseases.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 22.
What is food chain? Describe the types of food chain.
Answer:
The transfer of food energy from producers to decomposers through a series of organisms with repeated eating and being eaten is called food chain.
1. Grazing food chain
The food chain begins with producers (green plants) at the first trophic level. It involves grazing Of grass by herbivores and flow of energy occurs from smaller organisms (herbivores) to larger animals (consumers). It is based on prey – predator relationship and is therefore, called predator food chain.
Grass → Deer → Tiger

2. Parasitic food chain
The food chain begins with producers and flow of energy goes from larger organisms (host) to smaller organisms (parasites) as parasites draw nourishment from the host. This is based on host – parasite relationship.
2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers 4

3. Detritus or saprophytic food chain
The food chain begins with dead and decaying organic matter (detritus). Which is acted upon by decomposers or saprophytes and energy from decomposers goes to detrivores.
Leaf litter → Earth worm → bird → hawk

Question 23.
Define the terms
(a) Emasculation
Answer:
The removal of anthers from the flower bud of a bisexual flower before the anther dehisces is called emasculation.

(b) Bagging
Answer:
The process of covering the emasculated flowers with a bag of suitable size to prevent contamination with unwanted pollen is called bagging.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 24.
What is transformation? Explain any two methods of introduction of recombinant DNA in to host organism.
Answer:
Transformation is the process by which plasmid or DNA can be introduced into a cell.

1. Gene gun or particle gun or Biolistics method
It is a popular and widely used direct gene transfer method for delivering foreign genes into any cells and tissues or even intact seedlings.

  • The foreign DNA is coated or precipitated onto the surface of minute gold or tungsten particles (1-3 pm).
  • It is bombarded or shot onto the target tissue or cells using the gene gun or micro projectile gun or shot gun.with a device much like a particle gun. Hence the term biolistics
  • The bombarded cells or tissues are cultured on selection medium to regenerate plants from the transformed cells.

2. Micro injection
In this technique a solution of DNA is directly injected in to the host nucleus using a fine micro capillary pipette or micro syringe, under a phase contrast microscope to aid vision.

Question 25.
Define trophic level. Show schematically the different tropic levels in a food chain.
Answer:
The amount of energy available at each step in food chain is called Trophic level.
2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers 5

KSEEB Solutions

Question 26.
What is pedigree? Show diagrammatic representation of pedigree for sickle cell anemia.
Answer:
Pedigree is a chart of graphic representation of record of inheritance of a trait through several generations in a family
2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers 6

Part – D

Section – I

IV. Answer any FOUR of the following questions on 200 – 250 words each, wherever applicable . ( 4 × 5 = 20 )

Question 27.
What are assisted reproductive technologies? Describe the various reproductive technologies to assist an infertile Couple to have children.
Answer:
The couple can be assisted to have children through certain special techniques known as assisted reproductive technologies (ART).
1. In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer (IVF-ET)

  • In this technique egg cells are fertilized by sperm (usually 100,000 sperm / ml) outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the body.
  • In this process Ova from the wife or donor female and sperm from husband or donor male are allowed to fuse in shallow containers called Petri dishes. (Made of glass or plastic resins) Under laboratory condition.
  • The fertilized egg (zygote) is then transferred to the patient’s uterus this called embryo transfer (E.T.), Where she provides suitable conditions for the development of embryo.
  • The baby born by this technique is called test tube baby.

2. ZIFT ( Zygote intra fallopian transfer)
Zygote or early embryo up to eight blastomeres is transferred into the fallopian tube.

3. Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor to fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ova, but provide suitable conditions for fertilization and further development up to parturition.

4. Intra uterine transfer (IUT)
Embryo with more than eight blastomeres is transferred in to the uterus.

5. Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
The sperm is directly injected into the cytoplasm of the ovum to form an embryo in the laboratory and then embryo transfer is carried out.

6. Artificial insemination (AI)

  • This method is used in cases where infertility is due to the inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or due to very low sperm counts in the ejaculates.
  • In this method, the semen collected from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI – Intra uterine insemination).

KSEEB Solutions

Question 28.
What is dihybrid cross? State and explain Mendel’s second law of independent assortment.
Answer:
When a cross is made between two parents differing in two pairs of contrasting characters like round yellow and wrinkled green is called dihybrid cross.

Based on the results obtained from dihybrid cross, Mendel postulated his second law “The law of independent assortment”. It states that, when two pairs of contrasting characters are brought into the hybrid they behave independently of each other without contamination. The presence of one character is not contaminated with the other character. These characters are assorted independently of one another during the formation of gametes.
Mendel conducted dihybrid cross for which he selected two characters at a time.

2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers 7
Self crossed (F2)
2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers 13

KSEEB Solutions

Question 29.
What is meant by semi conservative replication? How did Meselson and Stahl prove it experimentally?
Answer:

2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers 8
It is a process by which DNA produces daughter DNA molecules, which are exact copies of the original DNA. In each new DNA molecule, one strand is old (original) while the other is newly formed. Hence, Watson and Crick described this method as semi-conservative replication.

Meselson and Stahl conducted experiments on E.coli to prove that DNA replication is semi conservative.

  1. They grew E.coli cells in a culture medium containing radioactive isotopes N15 (NH4cl).
    The 15N was incorporated into the newly synthesized DNA and other nitrogen containing compounds.
  2. Bacteria labeled with 15N are transferred into a medium containing normal 14NH4cl.
  3. The analysis was done after every generation at regular intervals.
  4. The DNA samples were separated by centrifugation on CSCl2 gradient.
  5. The hybrid DNA separated from fresh generations possesses one heavier strand contributed by parental with 15N isotope which is radioactive and lighter strand is newly synthesized with 14N isotope, is non-radioactive.
  6. The DNA of the second generation showed that in one DNA molecule one strand was radioactive (15N) and other was non radioactive (14N), Whereas both the strands of other DNA molecule were non-radioactive (14N).
  7. It is clear that the DNA of the first generation is intermediate it contains both 15N and 14N.
  8. In the second generation there were two types of DNA one heavier DNA with 15N and 14N isotopes while the lighter DNA with 14N and 14N, the ratios of two types of DNA was 50:50.
  9. In the third generation the ratio of intermediate (15N and 14N) was reduced from 50% to 25% while the lighter fraction (14N and 14N) increased from (50% – 75%).
  10. In the 4th generation the percentage of intermediate still reduced to 12.5% while that of lighter fraction increased from 75% to 87.5%.
  11. These experiments prove that DNA shows semi conservative replication.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 30.
What is water pollution? Write short notes on the following with respect to water pollution.
a) Eutrophication
b) Biomagnifications
Answer:
Any undesirable change in the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of water, which makes water unfit for human use and harmfully affect aquatic organisms is called water pollution.

a) Eutrophication
It the process of nutrient enrichment of water bodies and subsequent loss of species diversity like fishes.
Harmful effects

  1. Excess nutrients cause algal bloom, which may cover the whole surface of water body and release toxins.
  2. It causes oxygen deficiency in water that leads, to the death of aquatic animals like fishes.

b) Biomagnifications
It refers to increase in concentration of toxic substances at successive trophic levels in a food chain. Example: Biomagnifications of DDT in an aquatic food chain.

Harmful Effect
High concentration of DDT disturbs calcium metabolism in birds, which causes thinning of egg shell and their premature breaking, causing decline in bird’s population.

Question 31.
Explain the structure of an anatropous ovule with a neat labeled diagram.
Answer:
2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers 9
Ovule is the female gametophyte develops inside the ovary from a cushion like structure called placenta. It is attached to placenta by a stalk known as funicle. The nutritive tissue enclosed inside the ovule is the nucellus. Nucellus is surrounded by outer and inner integuments. These integu-ments leave a small pore at the anterior end called micropyle. Anterior end of the ovule is micropyle chalazal end is the posterior part.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 32.
Distinguish DNA and RNA with respect to their structure or Chemistry and function.
Answer:

DNA RNA
1. Present mainly in the chromatin the nucleus. 1. Most of RNA is present in the cell of cytoplasm (90%) and a little (10%) in the nucleolus
2. Normally double stranded and rarely single stranded. 2. Normally single stranded and rarely double stranded.
3. It contains deoxyribose sugar. 3. It has ribose sugar.
4. It contains bases like Adenine, Guanine, cytosine and Thymine. 4. It contains bases like, Adenine, Guanine cytosine and uracil.
5. DNA acts as template for its Synthesis. 5. RNA does not act as a template for its synthesis.

Section – II

Answer any THREE of the following questions in 200 – 250 words each, wherever applicable. ( 3 × 5 = 15 )

Question 33.
What is biocontrol? Name the principle behind biological method of pest control. Mention examples of biocontrol agents and their function.
Answer:
It is the use of micro organisms to control or eliminate insect pests. The micro organisms employed in biological control are called bio control agents.

Principle
It is based on prey – predator relationship.

Examples
1. Ladybird and Dragon flies useful to get rid of aphids and mosquitoes.

2. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is used to control butterfly caterpillar. Spores available in sachets are mixed with water and sprayed on plants, eaten by insect larva, toxin released in gut kills larvae.
Example: Bt toxin genes are introduced into cotton plants and made resistant to insect pests such as cotton boll worms, stem borer, aphids and beetles.

3. Nucleo polyhedrovirus ( NPV) is a virus suitable for narrow spectrum insecticide applications. It has no negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds, fish or target insects. It is suitable for overall integrated pest Management programme (IPM) in ecologically sensitive areas.

Question 34.
What is logistic growth? Explain sigmoid curve with a suitable diagram.
Answer:
The rate of population growth slows as the population size approaches carrying capacity, leveling to a constant level.
2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers 10
Logistic growth curve or S-shaped growth curve (sigmoid growth curve) is characteristic of all higher animals including man and microbes like yeast cells growing in a natural environment.

Logistic growth is a pattern of growth in which the population density of few individuals introduced into the new habitat increases slowly initially, in a positive acceleration phase (lag phase) then increases rapidly, approaching an exponential growth rate (log phase) due to abundance of food, favourable environmental conditions such a climate, few predators and low levels of disease. Then declines in a negative acceleration phase.

This decline reflects increasing environmental resistance at higher population densities. This type of population growth is termed density-dependent, since growth rate depends on the numbers present in the population. The point of stabilization, or zero growth rates, is termed the saturation value or carrying capacity (K) of the environment for that organism.

When population growth rate is plotted graphically against time S shaped or sigmoid curve is obtained. This type of population growth is also called Verhulst- pearl logistic growth.
The mathematical equation for sigmoid growth is
dN / dt = rN(N – K) / k
Where
N = Population size at a given time
t = Time,
r = intrinsic rate of natural increase
k = Saturation value or carrying capacity for that organism in that environment.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 35.
What is animal breeding? Explain the controlled methods of animal breeding and mention their significance.
Answer:
The production of new varieties of animals which are superior to their parents through selective breeding or mating is called animal breeding.
There are two control breeding methods

  1. Artificial insemination
  2. Multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology (MOET)

Artificial insemination
Semen of superior male is collected and-injected unto the reproductive tract of selected female.

Significance:

  1. It helps to overcome several problems of normal mating.
  2. Semen of a desirable bull can be inseminated into cows.
  3. Semen can be stored by cryopreservation to use at later stages and can be easily transported to distant places.
  4. Semen of single ejaculation can be used to inseminate large number of cows.

Multiple Ovulatuion Embryo transfer technology (MOET)
Technique for herd improvement by successful production of hybrids

  1. Hormones (FSH) are administered to the cow for inducing follicular maturation and super ovulation.
  2. Cow produces 6-8 eggs instead of one egg and is either mated with, superior bull or artificially inseminated.
  3. Fertilized egg at 8-32 cell stage are recovered non-surgically & transferred to surrogate mother.

Significance:

  1. It is practiced in cattle, sheep, rabbits, buffaloes, etc.
  2. Genetically superior animals can be produced.
  3. It solves the problems of infertility.
  4. A single female can donate many ovules.
  5. Preservation and transport of embryos is convenient.

Question 36.
What is recombinant DNA technology? Draw a schematic representation of various steps involved in recombinant DNA technology.
Answer:
The branch of biotechnology that deals with altering the characters of an organism by introducing genes selected from desired organism is called genetic engineering or gene cloning or gene splicing.

2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers 11

KSEEB Solutions

Question 37.
What is gametogenesis? Mention the types. Explain spermatogenesis with a schematic representation.
Answer:
The process of formation of haploid male and female gametes in gonads is called gametogenesis.
It is of two types

  1. Spermatogenesis
  2. Oogenesis

2nd PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers 12
1. Multiplication phase (mitosis)
Each testis is composed of numerous seminiferous tubules. Epithelial cells lining these tubules are called germinal epithelium. At the time of gametogenesis some cells of the epithelium become active, detach from the layer and start dividing mitotically to produce large number of primordial germ cells (2n), in turn primordial germ cells undergo repeated mitotic divisions to form sperm mother cells or spermatogonial cells which are diploid in nature.

2. Growth phase
Some of the spermatogonial cells (2n) stop dividing and enter into the seminiferous tubule where they grow in size by accumulating cytoplasm and duplication of DNA; sertoli or nurse cells provide necessary nutrients for the growing sperm mother cells, now sperm mother cells are termed as primary spermatocytes.

3. Maturation phase (meiosis)
Each primary spermatocyte (2n) enters into first meiotic division and forms two cells with haploid number of chromosomes called secondary spermatocytes. The secondary spermatocytes undergo second meiotic division to give rise to four haploid spermatids. The spermatids are unspecialized cells and do not undergo further division; all the four spermatids are transformed into four haploid sperms. This process of transformation of spermatids into mature and motile sperms is called spermiogenesis or spermateliosis.

2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3

Students can Download Maths Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 2nd PUC Maths Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3

2nd PUC Maths Continuity and Differentiability NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers Ex 5.3

Find \(\frac{\mathrm{d} y}{\mathrm{d} x}\) in the following

Question 1.
2x + 3y = sin x
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.1

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
2x + 3y = sin y
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.2

Question 3.
ax + by2 = cos y
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.3

Question 4.
xy + y2 = tan x + y
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.4

Question 5.
x2 + xy + y2 = 100
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.5
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.6

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
x3 + x2y + xy2 + y3 = 81
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.7

Question 7.
sin2y + cos xy = π
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.8

Question 8.
sin2 x + cos2 y = 1
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.9

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
\(y=\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{2 x}{1+x^{2}}\right)\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.10

Question 10.
\(y=\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{3 x-x^{3}}{1-3 x^{2}}\right),-\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}<x<\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.11

Question 11.
\(y=\cos ^{-1}\left(\frac{1-x^{2}}{1+x^{2}}\right), 0<x<1\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.12

KSEEB Solutions

Question 12.
\(y=\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{1-x^{2}}{1+x^{2}}\right), 0<x<1\)
Answer:

Question 13.
\(y=\cos ^{-1}\left(\frac{2 x}{1+x^{2}}\right),-1<x<1\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.14
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.15

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
\(y=\sin ^{-1}(2 x \sqrt{1-x^{2}}),-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}<x<\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.16

Question 15.
\(y=\sec ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2 x^{2}-1}\right), 0<x<\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability Ex 5.3.17

2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.3

Students can Download Basic Maths Exercise 20.3 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.3

Part-A

2nd PUC Basic Maths Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.3 Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
\(\int \frac{3 x^{2}}{1+x^{3}} d x\)
Answer:
\(\int \frac{3 x^{2}}{1+x^{3}} d x\) = log(1 + x3)+c or using \(\int \frac{\mathrm{f}^{\prime}(\mathrm{x})}{\mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})} \mathrm{d} \mathrm{x} = log (f(x) + c\)
put 1 + x3 = t
∴ 3x2dx = dt
∴ = ∫\(\frac { 1 }{ t }\)dt = log t + c = log(1 + x3) + c

Question 2.
\(\int \frac{4 x+3}{2 x^{2}+3 x+5} d x\)
Answer:
\(\int \frac{4 x+3}{2 x^{2}+3 x+5} d x\) = log(2x2 + 3x +5) + c
∴ \(\int \frac{\mathrm{f}^{\prime}(\mathrm{x})}{\mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})} \mathrm{d} \mathrm{x}\) = log(f(x)) + C

Question 3.
\(\int \frac{e^{x}-1}{e^{x}-x} d x\)
Answer:
\(\int \frac{e^{x}-1}{e^{x}-x}\) = log(ex – x) + c

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.3 - 4
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.3 - 5

Question 5.
\(\int \frac{\cos x}{2+\sin x} d x\)
Answer:
\(\int \frac{\cos x}{2+\sin x} d x\) = log(2 + sin x) + c

Question 6.
\(\int \frac{1}{x(2 \log x+5)} d x\)
Answer:
\(\int \frac{1 / x^{d x}}{2 \log x+5}\)
\(\int \frac{d t / 2}{t}=\frac{1}{2} \int \frac{1}{t} d t\)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)log t + c
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)log (2 log x + 5) + c
put 2 log x + 5 = t
2. \(\frac { 1 }{ x }\) dx = dt
\(\frac { 1 }{ x }\) dx = \(\frac { dt }{ 2 }\)

Question 7.
\(\int \frac{3 \sin x}{3+4 \cos x} d x\)
Answer:
\(\int \frac{3 \sin x}{3+4 \cos x} d x\)
\(=\int \frac{3 \cdot \frac{d t}{-4}}{t}=\frac{-3}{4} \int \frac{1}{t} d t\)
= \(\frac { -3 }{ 4 }\) log t + c
= \(\frac { -3 }{ 4 }\) log(3 + 4 cos x) + c
put 3 + 4 cos x = t
– 4 sinx dx = dt
sin x dx = \(\frac { dt }{ -4 }\)

KSEEB Solutions

Part-B

2nd PUC Basic Maths Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.3 Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
\(\int \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}+x} d x\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.3 - 1

Question 2.
\(\int \frac{\sin 2 x}{1+\cos ^{2} x} d x\)
Answer:
\(\int \frac{\sin 2 x}{1+\cos ^{2} x} d x\)
= \(\int \frac{-d t}{t}\)
= -log t + c
= -log (1 + cos2x) + c
put 1 + cos2x = t
2 cosx (-sinx) dx = dt
-sin 2x dx = dt
sin 2x dx = -dt

Question 3.
\(\int \frac{e^{2 x}+1}{e^{2 x}-1} d x\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.3 - 2

Question 4.
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.3 - 6
Answer:
2nd PUC Basic Maths Question Bank Chapter 20 Indefinite Integrals Ex 20.3 - 3

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
\(\int \frac{\cot x}{3+\log (\sin x)} d x\)
Answer:
\(\int \frac{\cot x}{3+\log (\sin x)} d x\)
\(=\int \frac{d t}{t}\)
= log t + c = log(3 + log(sin x)) + c
put 3 + log(sin x) = t
\(\frac{\cos x}{\sin x} d x=d t\)
cos x dx = dt

Question 6.
\(\int \frac{\csc ^{2} x \cdot \cot x}{4+5 \csc ^{2} x} d x\)
Answer:
\(\int \frac{\csc ^{2} x \cdot \cot x}{4+5 \csc ^{2} x} d x\)
\(=\int \frac{-1 / 10^{\mathrm{dt}}}{t}=\frac{-1}{10} \log t+C\)
= \(\frac { -1 }{ 10 }\)log(4 + 5cosec2x) + c
put 4 + 5 cosec2x = t
– 10 cosec x – cosec x × cot x dx = dt
cosec2x . cot dx = \(\frac { -1 }{ 10 }\)dt

error: Content is protected !!