1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

You can Download Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Physics Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

1st PUC Physics Work, Energy and Power TextBook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State carefully
if the following quantities are positive or negative:

  1. work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket.
  2. work done by gravitational force ‘in the above case,
  3. work done by friction on a body sliding down an Inclined plane,
  4. work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform velocity,
  5. work done by the resistive force of air on a vibrating pendulum in bringing it to rest.

Solution:
W = FS cos θ, where θ is the angle between \(\vec { F } \) and \(\vec { S } \)

  1. Force on the bucket is in the direction of the displacement of the bucket i.e., θ = 0. Hence, work done is positive.
  2. Gravitation force acts downwards and displacement of the bucket is in an upward direction i.e.,θ = 180; work done is negative.
  3. Force of friction and displacement are in opposite direction i.e., θ= 180; work done is negative.
  4. F and S are in the same direction e., θ = 0°; work done is positive.
  5. The resistive force of air opposes the motion, hence work done is negative.

Question 2.
A body of mass 2 kg initially at rest moves under the action of an applied horizontal force of 7 N on a table with a coefficient of kinetic friction = 0.1. Compute the

  1. work done by the applied force in 10 s
  2. work done by friction in 10 s
  3. work done by the net force on the body in 10 s
  4. change in kinetic energy of the body in 10 s, and interpret your results.

Solution:
1. We know that: μk\(\frac{\text { Frictional force }}{\text { Normal force }}\)
Here, μk = 0.1 and normal force = mg
Frictional force = 0.1 × 2 × 9.8 N = 1.96 N
∴ Net force = (7 – 1.96) N = 5.04 N
acceleration = \(\frac{\text { Net force }}{\text { Mass }}\) = \(\frac{5.04}{2}\) m/s² = 2.52 m/s
To find the distance (d) moved in 10 s
d = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 2.52 × 10 × 10 = 126 m
∴ Work done by applied force in 10 s is work done = 7 × 126 J = 882 J.

2. Work done by the friction in 10 ‘s’ we know that frictional force = 1.96 N
∴ work done by frictional force = 1.96 × 126 = 246.96 J.
Since force is opposite to the direction of displacement (0 = 180°), work done is = 246.96 J.

3. Work done by the Net force in 10 ‘s’
we know that Net Force = 5.04 N.
∴ work done by the Net force = 5.04 × 126 = 635.04 J.

4. Change in the body’s kinetic energy is the net work done on the body = work done by the Net force in 10’s’.
∴ Change in kinetic energy of the body = 635.04 J

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 1
Given in Fig. 6 are examples of some potential energy functions in one dimension. The total energy of the particle is indicated by a cross on the ordinate axis. In each case, specify the regions, if any, in which the particle cannot be found for the given energy. Also, Indicate the minimum total energy the particle must have in each case. Think of simple physical contexts for which these potential energy shapes are relevant.
Solution:
(a) Total energy, E = P.E + K.E = constant. In the region x > a, the P.E. has a value more than E. Thus, K.E = E- P.E. i.e., K.E. has a negative value, so the particle can not exist in the portion x > a. (The particle exists in region in which its K.E. is positive).

(b) Here P.E. > E, and as such the kinetic energy of the particle would be negative. Thus, particle can not be present in any region of the graph.

(c) Here, in x = 0 to x = a and x > b, the P.E. is more than E, so K.E. is negative. The particle can not exist in these regions.

(d) The object can not exist in the region between
x =- \(\frac { b }{ 2 } \) to x=- \(\frac { a }{ 2 } \) and x=- \(\frac { a }{ 2 } \) to x =- \(\frac { b }{ 2 } \)
Because in this region P.E > E. The minimum total energy = -V1

Question 4.
The potential energy function for a particle executing linear simple harmonic motion is given by V(x) = kx²/ 2, where k is the force constant of the oscillator. For k = 0.5 Nm-1, the graph of V(x) versus x is shown in figure Show that a particle of total energy 1 J moving under this potential must turn back when it reaches x = ± 2m
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 2
Solution:
Here force constant k = 0.5 Nm-1 and the total energy of particle E = 1 J. The particle can go up to a maximum distance of xm, at which its total energy transformed into elastic potential energy.
We know that , \(\frac{1}{2}\) Kxm² = E
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 3
Question 5.
Answer the following :
(a) The casing of a rocket in flight burns up due to friction. At whose expense is the heat energy required for burning obtained? The rocket or the atmosphere?

(b) Comets move around the sun in highly elliptical orbits. The gravitational force on the comet due to the sun is not normal to the comet’s velocity in general. Yet the work done by the gravitational force over every complete orbit of the comet is zero. Why?

(c) An artificial satellite orbiting the earth in a very thin atmosphere loses its energy gradually due to dissipation against atmospheric resistance, however small. Why then does its speed increase progressively as it comes closer and closer to the earth?

(d) In Fig. (i) the man walks 2 m carrying a mass of 15 kg on his hands.
In Fig. (ii), he walks the same distance pulling the rope behind him. The rope goes over a pulley, and a mass of 15 kg hangs at its other end. In which case is the work done greater?
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 4
Solution:

(a) The mass of the casing of the rocket in flight is burnt by obtaining heat energy from the mechanical energy (K.E. + P.E.) of the rocket itself. It is obtained at the expense of its K.E and P.E.

(b) Work done by the conservative force in a closed path is zero. Since gravitational force is a conservative force so work done in the case of a given comet is zero.

(c) As satellite comes closer to earth, its P.E decreases. Since total energy (E = K.E. + P.E) is conserved, so its K.E increases. Hence, speed of satellite increases. But, total energy of satellite goes on decreasing due to the loss of energy against air friction.

(d) Using W = F S cos θ, where θ is the angle between F and S

θ = 90°; ∴ W = 0

Here θ=0°, when mass is lifted upward with some upward force given to the mass by man through the pulley. In (ii) case, work done is more.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Point out the correct alternative:

  1. When a conservative force does positive work on a body, the potential energy of the body increases/decreases/remains the same.
  2. Work done by a body against friction always results in a loss of its kinetic/potential energy.
  3. The rate of change of total momentum of a many-particle system is proportional to the external force/ sum of the Internal forces on the system.
  4. In an inelastic collision of two bodies, the quantities which do not change after the collision are the total kinetic energy/total linear momentum/total energy of the system of two bodies.

Solution:

  1. Potential energy decreases
  2. Kinetic energy
  3. External force
  4. Total linear momentum/total energy of two bodies.

Question 7.
State if each of the following statements is true or false. Give reasons for your answer.

  1. In an elastic collision of two bodies, the momentum and energy of each body is conserved.
  2. The total energy of a system is always conserved, no matter what internal and external forces on the body are present.
  3. Work done in the motion of a body over a closed loop is zero for every force in nature.
  4. In an inelastic collision, the final kinetic energy is always less than the initial kinetic energy of the system.

Solution:

  1. False, total momentum, and total energy of the system remain conserved. However, the linear momentum and energy of each body of the system may not be conserved.
  2. False, external force on the system can change the total energy of the system.
  3. False, in the case of non-conservative forces like friction, the work done in a closed-loop is not zero.
  4. True, there is atleast some loss of kinetic energy in an inelastic collision.

Question 8.
Answer carefully, with reasons :

  1. In an elastic collision of two billiard balls, is the total kinetic energy conserved during the short time of collision of the balls (i.e. when they are in contact)?
  2. Is the total linear momentum. conserved during the short time of an elastic collision of two balls?
  3. What are the measures to (a) and (b) for an inelastic collision?
  4. If the potential energy of two billiard balls depends only on the separation distance between their centres, is the collision elastic or Inelastic?

Solution:

  1. In this case total kinetic energy is not conserved because when the bodies are in contact during elastic collision even the kinetic energy is converted to potential energy.
  2. yes, because total momentum conserves as per the law of conservation of momentum.
  3. The answers are the same for an inelastic collision also.
  4. It is a case of elastic collision because in this case, the forces will be of conservative nature.

Question 9.
A body is initially at rest. It undergoes a one-dimensional motion with constant acceleration. The power delivered to it at time t is proportional to

  1. t1/2
  2. t
  3. t3/2
  4. t2

Solution:
we know that v = u + at & u = 0 v = at and P = F × V
∴But F = ma
hence P = ma × at = ma2t .
Thus power is proportional to ‘t’.

Question 10.
A body is moving unidirectionally under the influence of a source of constant power. Its displacement in time t is proportional to

  • t1/2
  • t
  • t3/2
  • t2

Solution:
It is proportional ‘t3/2’
We know that P = F × V
[P] = [F] [V]
[P] = [MLT-2] [LT-1] since ‘P’ & ‘M’ are constant.
L2T-3 = constants ⇒ \(\frac{L^{2}}{T^{3}}\)= constant.
L2 & T3 ⇒ L & T3/2

Question 11.
A body constrained to move along the z-axis of a coordinate system is subject to a constant force ‘F’ given
by \(\vec{F}=-\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k} N\).
What is the work done by the Force ‘F’ in moving the body 4m in the z-axis?
Solution:
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{S}}=4 \hat{\mathrm{k}}\), \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=\hat{\mathrm{i}}+2 \hat{\mathrm{j}}+3 \hat{\mathrm{k}}\)
We know that W = FS cos e = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{S}}\)
W = \([-\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k}]\) . \([4 \hat{k}]\)
= 1 Joules.

Question 12.
An electron and a proton are detected in a cosmic ray experiment, the first with kinetic energy 10 keV, and the second with 100 keV. Which is faster, the electron or the proton? Obtain the ratio of their speeds, (electron mass = 9.11 × 10-31 kg. Proton mass = 1.67 × 10-27kg. 1eV = 1.60 × 10-19J).
Solution:
Kelectron = 10 keV, Kproton = 10 keV
melectron = 9.11 × 10-31 kg and
mProton = 1.67 × 10-27 kg.
We know that K = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv², v = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 k}{m}}\)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 5
= 13.54
∴ \(\frac{V_{\text {electron }}}{V_{\text {proton }}}\) = 13.54
Electron is moving Faster.

Question 13.
A raindrop of radius 2 mm falls from a height of 500 m above the ground. It falls with decreasing acceleration (due to viscous resistance of the air) until, at half its original height, it attains its maximum (terminal) speed, and moves with uniform speed thereafter. What is the work done by the gravitational force on the drop in the first and second half of its Journey? What is the work done by the resistive force in the entire journey if its speed on reaching the ground Is 10 ms-1?
Solution:
r = 2mm = 2 × 10-3 m
Distance moved half journey s = 250 m
we know that density of water,
ρ = 103 kg/m3
∴ mass of rain drop = volume × density
m = \(\frac{4 \pi r^{3} \rho}{3}\) = \(\frac{4}{3}\) × 3.14 × (2 × 10-3)3 × 103
m= 3.35 × 10-5 kg
∴ W = mgr = 3.35 × 10 5 × 9.8 × 250 = 0.082 J
∴ work done by gravitational force in first and second half is the same and is equal to 0.082 J. If there is no resistive forces, energy of the drop on reaching ground
E1 = mgr= 3.35 × 10-5 × 9.8 × 500
= 0.164 J
because of resistive force, the energy of the drop on reaching ground
E2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv² = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 3.35 × 10-5 × 10²
= 1.675 × 10-3 J.
∴ work done by the resistive force is
W = E1 – E2 = 0.164 – 1.675 x 10-3
= 0.1623 J.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
A molecule in a gas container hits a horizontal wall with a speed of 200 ms-1 and an angle of 30° with the normal, and rebounds with the same speed. Is momentum conserved in the collision? Is the collision elastic or inelastic?
Solution:
Let us consider the mass of the molecule be ‘m’ and that of the wall be ‘M’. The wall is at rest always. Resolving the momentum of the molecule along the x-axis and y-axis we get
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 6
The x-component of momentum of molecule
mu cos θ = – m 200 cos 30° = -m\(100 \sqrt{3}\) kg m/s
y component of the molecule momentum is
= mu sin θ = m x 200 x sin 30° = m100kgm/s
Before collision:
x-component of total momentum = -100\(\sqrt{3}\) m
Y component of momentum = 100 m
After collision:
x component of the momentum = m 200 cos 30° = 100 \(\sqrt{3}\) m
Y component = m 100 sin 30° = 100 m
∴ It can be seen that momentum of system is conserved. The wall has a recoil momentum such that momentum of the wall + momentum of out going molecule equals the momentum of the incoming molecule.
Initial kinetic energy \(\left(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mu}^{2}\right)\) is the same as final KE \(\left(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}\right)\) molecule.
∴ u = v = 200 m/s thus the collision is elastic collision.

Question 15.
A pump on the ground floor of a building can pump up water to fill a tank of volume 30 m3 in 15 min. If the tank is 40 m above the ground, and the efficiency of the pump is 30%, how much electric power is consumed by the pump?
Solution:
Volume of water = 30m3
t = 15 min = 15 x 60 = 900 s
h = 40 m; η = 30%
we know that density of water
ρ =103 kgm-3
∴ mass of water pumped
m = volume x density = 30 x 103 kg
Actual power consumed
p0 =\(\frac{W}{t}\) = \(\frac{m g h}{t}\)
p0 = \(\frac{30 \times 10^{3} \times 9.8 \times 40}{900}\) = 13070 watt
If pi (required), then n = \(\frac{\mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{o}}}{\mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{i}}}\)
⇒ pi = \(\frac{\mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{o}}}{\mathrm{n}}\) = \(\frac{13070}{0.3}\) = 43567 w

Question 16.
Two identical ball bearings in contact with each other and resting on a frictionless table are hit head-on by another ball bearing of the same mass moving initially with a speed V. If the collision is elastic, which of the following (Figure) is a possible result after collision?
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 7
Solution:
Let m be the mass of each ball Total KE of the system before collision = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv²
Total KE of the system after collision is
case (i) E1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (2m) \(\left(\frac{v}{2}\right)^{2}\) = \(\frac{1}{4}\)mv²

case (ii) E2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv²

case (iii) E3 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(3m) \(\left(\frac{v}{2}\right)^{3}\) = \(\frac{1}{6}\)mv²

∴ case (ii) is only possibility since KE of the system is conserved.

Question 17.
The bob A of a pendulum released from 30° to the vertical hits another bob B of the same mass at rest on a table as shown in Fig. How high does the bob A rise after the collision? Neglect the size of the bobs and assume the collision to be elastic.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 8
Solution:
Since the collision is elastic ‘A’ will come to rest and ‘B’ will begin to move with the velocity of ‘A’. The bob ‘A’ transfers its entire momentum to the bob ‘B’ on the table. Thus bob ‘A’ does not rise at all.

Question 18.
The bob of a pendulum is released from a horizontal position. If the length of the pendulum is 1.5 m, what is the speed with which the bob arrives at the lowermost point, given that it dissipated 5% of its initial energy against air resistance?
Solution:
On releasing the bob of the pendulum from a horizontal position, it falls vertically downward by a distance equal to the length of the pendulum i.e. h = I = 1.5.m. As 5% of loss is P E is dissipated against air resistance, the balance 95% energy is transformed into KE Hence,
\(\frac{1}{2}\)mv² = 0.95 x mgh
V = \(\sqrt{2 \times 0.95 \times 9.8 \times 1.5}\) = 5.3 ms-1.

Question 19.
A trolley of mass 300 kg carrying a sandbag of 25 kg is moving uniformly with a speed of 27 km/h on a frictionless track. After a while, the sand starts leaking out of a hole on the floor of the trolley at the rate of 0.05 kg s-1. What is the speed of the trolley after the entire sandbag is empty?
Solution:
The system of trolley and sandbag is moving with a uniform speed. Clearly, the system is not being acted upon by an external force. If the sand leaks out, even then no external force acts. So there shall be no change in the speed of the trolley.

Question 20.
A particle of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with velocity v = a x3/2 where a = 5 m-1/2s-1. What is the work done by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 2 m?
Solution:
Given m = 0.5 kg.
V = ax3/2, a = 5m-1/2 s-1
initial velocity at x = 0, v1= a × 0 = 0
Final velocity at x = 2n is,
V2 = a (2)3/3 = 5 × 23/2
work done = change in KE
\(\frac{1}{2}\) m (v2² – v1²) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.5 × 25 × 23
= 50 J .

KSEEB Solutions

Question 21.
The blades of a windmill sweep out a circle of area A.

  1. If the wind flows at a velocity v perpendicular to the circle, what is the mass of the air passing through it in time?
  2. What is the kinetic energy of the air?
  3. Assume that the windmill converts 25% of the wind’s energy into electrical energy and that A = 30 m², v = 36 km/h and the density of air is 1.2 kg m-3. What is the electrical power produced?

Solution:
1. Volume of the wind flowing per sec = AV
Mass of wind flowing per sec = AVP
Mass of air passing in sec = AVPt

2. Kinetic energy of Air
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (Avpt)v²
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)Av3pt

3. Electrical energy produced =
\(\frac{25}{100}\) × \(\frac{1}{2}\)Av3pt = \(\frac{\mathrm{Av}^{3} \mathrm{pt}}{8}\)
Electrical power = \(\frac{\mathrm{Av}^{3} \mathrm{p}}{8 \mathrm{t}}\) = \(\frac{A V^{3} p}{8}\)
Now, A = 30m2,
v = 36 kmh-1 = \(\frac{36 \times 100}{3600}\) m/s = 10ms-1
ρ = 1.2 Kgms-1
Electrical power =
\(\frac{30 \times 10^{3} \times 1.2}{8}\) = 4500 W = 4.5kW.

Question 22.
A person trying to lose weight (dieter) lifts a 10 kg mass, one thousand times, to a height of 0.5 m each time. Assume that the potential energy lost each time she lowers the mass is dissipated.

  1. How much work does she do against the gravitational force?
  2. Fat supplies 3.8 × 107J of energy per kilogram which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20% efficiency rate. How much fat will the dieter use up?

Solution:
Here, m = 10kg, h = 0.5m, n = 1000
1. Work done against gravitational force w = n (mgh) = 1000 × 10 × 9.8 × 0.5 = 49000 J.

2. Mechanical energy supplied by 1 kg of fat = 3.8 × 107 × \(\frac{20}{100}\) = 0.7 × 107 J/kg
∴ Fat used up by the dieter = \(\frac{1 \mathrm{kg}}{0.7 \times 10^{7}}\) × 49000 = 6.45 × 10-3kg

Question 23.
A family uses 8 kW of power.

  1. Direct solar energy is incident on the horizontal surface at an average rate of 200 W per square meter. If 20% of this energy can be converted to useful electrical energy, how large an area is needed to supply 8 kW?
  2. Compare this area to that of the roof of a typical house.

Solution:
1. Power used by the family, p = 8kW= 8000 W
As only 20% of solar energy can be converted to useful electrical energy, the power to be supplied by solar energy =
\(\frac{8000 w}{20 \%}\) = 40000 w.
Solar energy is incident at a rate of 200 w/m² hence Area needed.
A = \(\frac{4 \mathrm{0} \mathrm{00w}}{200 \mathrm{Wm}^{-2}}\) = 200 m².

2. The area needed is comparable to the roof area of the large-sized house.

Question 24.
A bullet of mass 0.012 kg and horizontal speed 70 ms-1 strikes a block of wood of mass 0.4 kg and instantly comes to rest with respect to the block. The block is suspended from the ceiling by thin wires. Calculate the height to which the block rises. Also, estimate the amount of heat produced in the block.
Solution:
m1 = 0.012 kg, u1 = 70ms-1
m2 = 0.4 kg, u2 = 0.
After the collision, the bullet strikes in the block and both behave as a single body of mass m1 + m2 and moves with velocity V.
By conservation of momentum (m1 + m2) v = m1u1 + m2u2
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 9 = 2.04 ms-1
Let the block move to a height ‘h’
(m1 + m2)gh = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (m1 + m2) v²
h = \(\frac{\mathrm{v}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{g}}\) = \(\frac{2.04 \times 2.04}{2 \times 9.8}\) = 0.212 m
To find the heat produced, calculate energy lost (w)
w = initial KE of bullet – final KE of combination
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) m1 u1² – \(\frac{1}{2}\) (m1 + m2) v²
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 0.012(70)² – \(\frac{1}{2}\) (0.412) (2.04)²
w = 29.4 – 0.86 = 28.5 J
∴ Heat produced
H = \(\frac{\mathrm{w}}{\mathrm{j}}\) = \(\frac{28.54}{4.2}\) = 68 cal.

Question 25.
Two inclined frictionless tracks, one gradual and the other steep meet at A from where two stones are allowed to slide down from rest, one on each track. Will the stones reach the bottom at the same time? Will they reach there with the same speed? Explain. Given θ1 = 30°, θ2 = 60°, and h = 10 m, what are the speeds and times taken by the two stones?
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 10
Solution:
Assume the two stones are rest at the point ‘A’ & allowed to roll down. Since the height is same for the both the stones, the velocity at which they reach ground will be same given mass of both stones are equal.
i.e. \(\frac{1}{2}\) mV² = mgh V = \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{gh}}\)
VB = Vc = \(\sqrt{2 \times 10 \times 10}\) = 14.14 ms-1
we know that H = l sin θ, l = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\sin \theta}\)
and the acceleration at which they roll is a = g sin θ.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 11

Question 26.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 12
A 1 kg block situated on a rough incline is connected to a spring constant 100Nm-1. The block is released from rest with the spring in the unstretched position. The block moves 10cm down the incline before coming to rest. Find the coefficient of friction between the block and the incline.
Solution:
The normal reaction force of block on incline R = mg cos θ
Let the coefficient of friction be M
∴ F = MR
= μ mg cos θ
∴ Net force on block = mg sin θ – F
= mg (sin θ – μ cos θ )
we know that the block moves by distance x = 10cm = 0.1 m.
The work done by net force in moving block 0.1m is = Energy stored in the spring.
∴ mg (sin θ – μ cos θ) x = \(\frac{1}{2}\) kx²
∴ 2 mg (sin 37° – μ cos 37°) = kx
⇒ 2 × 1 × 9.8 ms-2(sin37°- μ cos37°) = 100 × 0.1m
⇒ 19.6 (0.601 – μ × 0.798) = 10
0.601 – μ × 0.798 = 0.5102
⇒ μ × 0.798 = 0.09079
∴ μ = \(\frac{0.09079}{0.798}\) = 0.1137.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 27.
A bolt of mass 0.3 kg falls the celling of an elevator moving down with a uniform speed of   7ms-1. It hits the floor of the elevator (length of elevator = 3m) and does not rebound. What is the heat produced by the impact? Would your answer be different if the elevator were stationary?
Solution:
P.E. of bolt = mgh = 0.3 x 9.8 x 3 = 8.82 J
The bolt does not rebound. So the whole of the energy is converted into heat.
Thus, heat produced = 8.82 J.
Since the value of acceleration due to gravity is the same in all inertial systems, therefore the answer will not change even if the elevator is stationary.

Question 28.
A trolley of mass 00 kg moves with a uniform speed of 36 km h-1 on a frictionless track. A child of mass 20 kg runs on a trolley from one and to the other (10m away) with a speed of 4ms-1 relative to the trolley in a direction opposite to the trolley’s motion, and jumps out of the trolley. What is the final speed of the trolley? How much has the trolley moved from the time the child begins to run?
Solution:
Let there be an observer traveling parallel to the trolley at the same speed. He will observe the initial momentum of the trolley of mass M and the child of mass m as zero. When the child jumps in the opposite direction, he will observe the increase in the velocity of the trolley by ΔV.
Let u be the velocity of the child. He will observe the child landing at velocity (u – ΔV )
Therefore, initial momentum = 0
Final momentum = M ΔV – m (u – ΔV )
Hence, M ΔV – m (u – ΔV ) = 0
∴ ΔV = \(\frac{\mathrm{mu}}{\mathrm{M}+\mathrm{m}}\) = \(\frac{4 \times 20}{20+220}\) = 0.36 m/s
∴ final speed of trolley is 10.36 ms-1 and child take 2.5s to run on trolley.
∴ trolley moves a distance of 2.5 × 10.36 = 25.9 m.

Question 29.
Which of the following potential energy curves in Figure cannot possibly describe the elastic collision of two billiard balls? Here r is the distance between the centres of balls.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 13
Solution:
The potential energy of a system of two masses varies inversely as the distance (r) between them i.e.
V(r) < \(\frac{1}{r}\) When the two balls touch each other, PE becomes zero i.e. at r – R + R = 2R , v (r) = 0. Out of the given graphs only the curve (V) satisfies these two conditions.

1st PUC Physics Work, Energy and Power One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the significance of the negative sign in w = – mgh.
Answer:
A negative sign signifies that the work is done against the gravitational force.

Question 2.
Is friction a conservative force? Give reason.
Answer:
No, because work done in a closed path against friction is not zero. Moreover, and the work done against fiction depends on the path.

Question 3.
Give the conditions under which a force is called a conservative force.
Answer:
A force is called to be a conservative force,

  • work done against the force has to be independent of the path.
  • work done against the force in a closed path has to be zero.

Question 4.
A mass m collides with the other mass m and sticks to it. What Is the nature of collision?
Answer:
Whenever a mass collides and sticks to other mass, the nature of collision is inelastic.

Question 5.
What is the relation between ergs and joule?
Answer:
1 Joule = 107 ergs.

Question 6.
A mass is moving is a circular path with a constant speed. What is the work done on 1/2th of the rotation?
Answer:
Work done is zero, since centripetal force and displacement are perpendicular to each other.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
A light body and a heavy body have same momentum. Which one will have greater kinetic energy?
Answer:
We know that KE = \(\frac{p^{2}}{2 m}\),
given p is same ∴ k E α \(\frac{1}{2 m}\)
∴ Lighter body will have greater kinetic energy.

Question 8.
A spring is cut into equal halves. How is spring constant of each half affected?
Answer:
We know that F α l
i.e. F = k l
∴ For a given force, k α \(\frac{1}{\ell}\) since extension a length. If length is halved then the spring constant doubles.

Question 9.
Does a single external force on a particle necessarily change its kintetic energy?
Answer:
Yes, a single external force cannot keep the particle is equilibrium.

Question 10.
What is the work done by earth’s gravitational force in keeping the moon in its orbit?
Answer:
Work done is zero since force and displacement are in the perpendicular direction, i.e. w = o.

Question 11.
Define ‘work’.
Answer:
Work is said to be done if the body is displaced by the application of force.

Question 12.
Write the dimensional formula of work.
Answer:
ML2T-2

Question 13.
What is the work done when the displacement is perpendicular to the force applied.
Answer:
Zero.

Question 14.
Define one Joule.
Answer:
Work done is said to be 1 joule, if a force of 1 newton displaces a body through 1 meter in the direction of a force.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
What does the area under the force-displacement curve indicate?
Answer:
The area under the force-displacement curve indicates the work done.

Question 16.
Define energy.
Answer:
The energy of a body is its capacity to do work.

Question 17.
State the law of conservation of energy.
Answer:
Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed, but can only be converted from one form to another, i.e., The total energy of a closed system remains constant.

Question 18.
Define power.
Answer:
Power is the rate of doing work.

Question 19.
What is the unit of power?
Answer:
Watt.

Question 20.
Write the dimensional formula of power.
Answer:
ML2T-3

Question 21.
Write an expression for instantaneous power in terms of force and velocity.
Answer:
Instantaneous power = Force × uniform velocity.

Question 22.
State work-energy theorem.
Answer:
The work-energy theorem states that the work done on a body is equal to the change in its kinetic energy.

Question 23.
What is a conservative force?
Answer:
A force is said to be conservative if the work done by the force does not depend on the path followed by the body but depends only on the initial and final positions of the body.

Question 24.
What is an elastic collision?
Answer:
An elastic collision is the one in which both kinetic energy and momentum are conserved.

Question 25.
Define coefficient of restitution. Write an expression for it?
Answer:
Coefficient of restitution is defined as the ratio of relative velocity after collision to the relative velocity before collision. If u1 & u2 are the velocities of 2 bodies before collision & v1 & v2 are velocities after collision then coefficient of restitution
e = \(\frac{v_{1}-v_{2}}{u_{1}-u_{2}}\)

Question 26.
Write the S.l unit of work.
Answer:
The S.I unit of work is the joule.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 27.
Give an example for conservative force
Answer:
Gravitational force.

Question 28.
What is the value of the coefficient of restitution in case of a perfectly inelastic collision?
Answer:
e = 0.

Question 29.
Name any one form of energy.
Answer:
Kinetic energy.

1st PUC Physics Work, Energy and Power Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are conservative forces? Distinguish the conservative and nonconservative forces among the following:

  1. Gravitational force
  2. Frictional force
  3. Air resistance
  4. Electrostatic force

Answer:
Conservative forces are those forces in which work done
1. in a closed path is zero and
2. is independent of path.

Conservative Forces Non-Conservative Forces
Gravitational force Electrostatic force Frictional force Air resistance

Question 2.
Two masses 10kg and 20 kg are connected by a massless spring. A force of 200 N acts on 20 kg mass. At the instant when the 10 kg mass has an acceleration 12 ms-2, what will be the energy stored in the spring? k = 2400 M/m
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 14
Answer:
We know that F = ma
F = 10 × 12 = 120 N
But F = k x = 2400 x = 120 n
∴ x = \(\frac{1}{20}\)
∴ energy stored in spring
E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) kx2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 2400 × \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2}\) = 3J

Question 3.
How are fast neutrons slowed down with the use of moderators?
Answer:
Neutrons from stable nuclei with proton. Protons available in heavy water mix with a neutron. Since their masses are comparable, the neutrons come to rest in the collision.

Question 4.
A body of mass 4kg initially at rest is subjected to a force 16 N. What is the kinetic energy acquired by the body at the end of 10s?
Answer:
Given m = 4kg, u = 0
F = 16 N, t = 10 s F = ma
16 = 4a, a = 4ms-2
We know that V = u + at = 0 + 4 × 10
V = 40ms-1

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
What is the amount of work done by

  1. a weight lifter in holding a weight of 10 kg on his shoulder for 30 s, and
  2. a locomotive against gravity, if it is traveling on a level plane?

Answer:

  1. zero
  2. zero

Question 6.
A body of mass ‘M’ at rest is struck by a body of mass ‘m’. Show that the fraction of KE of mass m transferred to the struck particle is \(\frac{4 \mathrm{m} \mathrm{M}}{(\mathrm{m}+\mathrm{M})^{2}}\)
Answer:
m1 = m, u1 = u
m2 = M, u2 = 0 V2 = ?
By conservation of momentum
m1 u1 = (m1 + m2) v2
∴ v2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{u}_{1}}{\mathrm{m}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2}}\)
k E of body struck after collision
E2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m2v2² = \(\frac{1}{2}\)m \(\left(\frac{2 m u}{m+M}\right)^{2}\)
= \(\frac{2 \mathrm{Mm}^{2} \mathrm{U}^{2}}{(\mathrm{M}+\mathrm{m})^{2}}\)
Initial K E E1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m1 u1² = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mu²
∴ Fraction of initial K E transferred is
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 15

Question 7.
How high must a body be lifted to gain an amount of potential energy equal to the kinetic energy it has. When moving at sped 20ms-1. The value of acceleration due to gravity at that place is g = 9.8 ms-2
Answer:
mgh = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
i.e. 9.8 h = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 20 × 20
h = \(\frac{200}{9.8}\) = 20.4 m.

Question 8.
Define kinetic energy. Give an example of a body possessing kinetic energy.
Answer:
The energy possessed by a body due to its motion is called kinetic energy. A bullet fired from a gun can penetrate a target due to its kinetic energy.

Question 9.
Explain potential energy with an example.
Answer:
The energy possessed by a body due to its position or configuration is called potential energy. example: The potential energy of water in dams is used to run turbines in order to produce electrical energy.

Question 10.
Derive an expression for gravitational potential energy.
Answer:
Consider a body of mass ‘m’ lying on the surface of earth. The force required to lift the body is equal to its weight mg. Let it be lifted through a height h. Work was done on the body W = Fs = mgh This work done is stored in the body as its potential energy
Ep = mgh.

Question 11.
What is a non-conservative force? Give an example.
Answer:
A force is said to be non-conservative if the work done by the force depends on the path followed by the body, for example: Frictional force, Air resistance, Viscous force.

Question 12.
Give an example of a body possessing potential energy and kinetic energy.
Answer:
A freely falling body possesses both potential & kinetic energy.

Question 13.
The momentum of a body is increased twice; How does its Kinetic energy change?
Answer:
The Kinetic energy increases by four times.

Question 14.
Write the expression for the kinetic energy of a moving body and explain the symbols.
Answer:
Kinetic energy E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(mv2)
m → mass of the body
v → velocity of the body.

1st PUC Physics Work, Energy and Power Three Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A stone is dropped from a height ‘h’ to prove that the energy at any point in its path is mgh.
Solution:
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 16
PE at ‘A’ = mgh
K E at ‘A’ = 0
∴ Total energy at A = mgh
As it starts falling at reaches the point ‘B’ it would have lost some PE and gained some KE.
we know that v² = u² + 2as
∴ V²B = 0 + 2g x
∴ VB = \(\sqrt{2 g x}\)
PE at B = mg (h – x)
KE at B = mgx
∴ Total energy at B = mgh – mgx + mgx = mgh.
On reaching the ground ‘C” the mass must have gained velocity of Vc =\(\sqrt{2 g h}\)
∴ PE at C =0
KE at C = mgh
∴ Total energy at C is mgh
Thus it is proved that the total energy at any point in its path is mgh.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
A body of mass 3 kg makes an elastic collision with another body at rest and continues to move in the original direction with a speed equal to \(\frac{1}{3}\) rd of
its original speed. Find the mass of the second body.
Solution:
Given,
m1 = 3 kg, u1 = xms-1, v1 = \(\frac{x}{3}\) ms-1
m2 = mkg, u2 = 0
Since collision is elastic, both momentum and KE is conserved.
By conservation of momentum;
m1 u1 + m2 u2 = m1 v1 + m2 v2
3x + 0 = \(\frac{3 x}{3}\) + mv2
∴ 2x = mv2 ……………. (1)
By law of conservation of KE
\(\frac{1}{2}\) m1u1² + \(\frac{1}{2}\) m2u2² = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m1 v1² + \(\frac{1}{2}\) m1 v1²
\(\frac{1}{2}\) 3x² = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 3 × \(\frac{x^{2}}{9}\) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2²
3x² – \(\frac{x^{2}}{3}\) = m2v2²
m2v2² = \(\frac{8 x^{2}}{3}\)
Dividing 2 by 1, v2 = \(\frac{4 x}{3}\)
∴ from (1) m × \(\frac{4 x}{3}\) = 2x
∴ m = \(\frac{3}{2}\) kg = 1.5 kg

Question 3.
A block of mass 2kg is pulled up on a smooth incline of angle 30° with horizontal. If the block moves with an acceleration of 1ms-2, find the power delivered by the pulling force after 4 seconds. What is the average power delivered during these four seconds?
Solution:
Resolving the forces parallel to the incline.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 17
F – mg sin θ = ma.
F = mg sin θ + ma
= 2 × 9.8 × sin 30 + 2 × 1
= 11.8 N.
The velocity after 4 seconds = u + at.
= 0 + 1 × 4
= 4 ms-1
Power delivered by force at t = 4 sec
= Force × velocity
= 11.8 N × 4ms-1
= 47 .2 W
The displacement during 4 sec
V² = u² + 2as
16 = 2S
S = 8M
Work done in 4 sec = F × s = 11.8 × 8 = 94.4 J
∴ Average power delivered = \(\frac{\text { work done }}{\text { time }}\) = \(\frac{94.4}{4}\) = 23.6 W.

Question 4.
The displacement x of a particle moving in one dimension under the action of a constant force is related to time by t = \(\sqrt{x}+3\) Where x is in meter & t in sec. Calculate the work done by force in the first 6 seconds.
Solution:
Given t = \(\sqrt{x}\) + 3
\(\sqrt{x}\) = t – 3
∴ x = (t – 3)²
The velocity of the particle given by
V = \(\frac{d x}{d t}\) = 2(t – 3) ms -1
∴ The acceleration of the particle given by
a = \(\frac{d v}{d t}\) = 2 ms-2
Force required to produce this acceleration is given F = ma = m × 2 = 2m
Where ‘m’ is the mass of the particle. Distance travelled by the particle in first 6 sec.
x = (6 – 3)² = 9 m
∴ Hence work done = F × x = 2m × 9 = 18 m Joule.

Question 5.
An inclined plane (θ) has its topmost point at a height ii. Prove that the work done to bring a mass to the ground level either vertically or along the inclined surface is equal and is mgh. Also, prove that the velocity of the mass at the lowermost point is \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{gh}}\)
Solution:
Consider path (a)
a = g sin θ
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 18
velocity on reaching ground is
V² = u² + zal
V² = 2 gsin θ l
where l = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\sin \theta}\)
v = \(\sqrt{2 g \sin \theta \frac{h}{\sin \theta}}\) = \(\sqrt{2 g h}\)
work done = change in K E
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² – 0 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 2gh x m = mgh
Consider Path (b)
a = g
velocity on reaching ground is
v² = u² + 2gh
v² = 2gh
v = \(\sqrt{2 g h}\)
work done = change in K E.
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² = mgh.

Question 6.
Define Elastic and Inelastic collisions. What are their basic characteristics?
Solution:
Elastic collision:
A collision in which there is absolutely no loss Of kinetic energy is called an elastic collision.
Characteristics:

  1. The linear momentum is conserved
  2. The total energy of the system is conserved
  3. Kinetic energy is conserved
  4. Forces involved during elastic collisions must be conservative forces.

Inelastic collision:
A collision in which there is some loss of kinetic energy is called an inelastic collision.

Characteristics:

  1. Linear momentum is conserved
  2. Total energy is conserved
  3. K E is not conserved
  4. Some or all forces involved may be nonconservative.

Question 7.
Derive an expression for the kinetic energy of a body.
Solution:
Consider a body of mass ‘m’ at rest. Let a constant force F act on the body producing an acceleration ‘a’ for a distance ‘s’. Let the velocity of the body be changed to v.
In this case, initial velocity = 0
final velocity = v.
Using, v² = u² + 2as
v² = 0 + 2as
v² = 2as
s = \(\frac{v^{2}}{2 a}\)
Work done F × s
= m a s = ma \(\frac{v^{2}}{2 a}\)
Work done = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
By definition, this work done is equal to kinetic energy.
∴ kinetic energy of the body, Ek = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv².

KSEEB Solutions

Question 8.
Distinguish between potential and b kinetic energy.
Solution:

  1. Potential energy is the energy possessed by a body due to its position or configuration while kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body due to its motion.
  2. Gravitational potential energy is given by Ep = mgh, but kinetic energy is Ek = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv².
  3. Potential energy is measured by the amount of work that a body can do when it returns to the standard position. Kinetic energy is measured by the work done on the body to change its velocity.
  4. A wound spring has potential energy while a bullet fired from a gun has kinetic energy.

Question 9.
State and prove the work-energy theorem.
OR
Show that work done by a moving body is equal to the change in K.E. of the body.
Solution:
The work-energy theorem states that work done on a body is equal to the net change in its energy. (P.E or K.E)
Proof:
Consider a body of mass ‘m’ moving with an initial velocity u. Let a constant force F acting on a body changes its velocity to v. Let s is the distance traveled.
From the equation, v² = u² + 2as,
we get v² – u² = 2as
\(\frac{1}{2}\) (v² – u²) = as
Multiplying both sides by m,we have
\(\frac{1}{2}\) m(v² – u²) = mas
\(\frac{1}{2}\) m(v² – u²) = F.s(∵ F = ma)
or \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² – \(\frac{1}{2}\) mu² = W

Question 10.
Define potential energy. Derive an expression for gravitational potential energy. Mention its unit.
Solution:
The energy possessed by a body due to its position or configuration is called potential energy. Consider a body of mass ‘m’ lying on the surface of the earth. The force required to lift the body is equal to its weight
∴ F = mg
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 19
Let it be lifted through a height ‘h’
The work done on the body is W = FS
W = mgh (∵ S = h)
This work done is stored in the body as its potential energy
∴ Ep = mgh
i.e. Gravitational potential energy = mgh
Its unit is Joule.

Question 11.
State law of conservation of energy. Explain the conservation of energy in the case of a body sliding down on an inclined plane.
Solution:
The law of conservation of energy states that “ Energy is neither created nor destroyed. But it can be transformed from one from to another’’
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 20
Consider a body of mass ‘m’ sliding down a smooth inclined plane of angle q and vertical height h. At the highest point A the body has only potential energy. Since it is at rest, kinetic energy is zero.
Total energy at A
= Potential Energy + Kinetic energy
= mgh ……………… (1)
Let the body slides down to a point D. Then it has both potential energy and kinetic energy. Let ‘x’ be the vertical distance travelled by the body.
∴ Potential energy at D is = mg (h – x) its velocity at D is v² = u² + 2as
v² = 0 + 2gsin θ. (AD)
(∵ u = 0, a = gsin θ, s = AD)
= 2g \(\frac{x}{A D}\) × AD
∵ sin θ = \(\frac{x}{A D}\) ∴ v² = 2gx
Kinetic energy of the body
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m. (2gx) = mgx
Total energy at D is = mg (h -x) + mgx
= mgh …………. (2)
At the lowest point B, potential energy = 0
Kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m. (2gh)
∵ v² = u² + 2as = 0 + 2gsin θ. (AB)
= 2g \(\frac{h}{A B}\) × AB = 2gh ∵ sin θ = \(\frac{h}{A B}\)
Kinetic energy = mgh
∴ Total energy = 0 + mgh = mgh …………… (3)
From (1), (2) and (3) it follows that total energy of the body remains constant while sliding down a inclined plane. Hence the principle.

1st PUC Physics Work, Energy and Power Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A hammer of mass M drops from height ‘h’. It strikes a rail placed vertically on the ground and drives it. Into the ground through distance D. Calculate

  1. The average resistance offered by the ground, assuming that the hammer and rail remain stuck together after impact,
  2. The time for which the rail is in motion and
  3. The loss in kinetic energy in input.

Solution:
The hammer of mass M falls freely under the gravity through a distance. Let v be the speed acquired by the hammer when it strikes the rail obviously.
v = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{gh}}\) ………… (1)
On impact, the hammer and rail are stuck together. Let v be the speed of the combination after impact. The law of conservation of momentum gives.
Mv = (M + m) v1 …………….. (2)
Where m is the mass of the rail.
Let FG be the average resistance (or resistive force) exerted by the ground. The net upward force F on the hammer rail combination is
F = FG – (M + m)g.
The combination moves through a distance ‘d’ against this net upward force. Obviously, the work done against the force F in a distance ‘d’ must equal to the kinetic energy the combination had just after impact.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 21
= [FG – (M + m) g] × d …………… (3)
By equations (1) & (2), we can rewrite equation (3) as
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 22

2. Let the hammer rail combination be moving for a time Δt, before coming to rest. If ΔP is the change in momentum,
\(\frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t}\) = FG – (M + m)g
\(|\Delta p|\) = (M + m) v1 – 0
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 23
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 31

3. The kinetic energy of the hammer rail combination just before the impact is \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Mv² and after impact, it is 1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 32
Loss in kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Mv² – \(\frac{1}{2}\)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 25

Question 2.
A small block of mass m slides along the frictionless loop-to-loop track shown in the figure

  1. If it starts from rest at P, what is the resultant force acting on it at Q?
  2. At what height above the bottom of the loop should the block be released so that the force it exerts against the track at the top of the loop equal its weight?

1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 26

Solution:
1. Point Q is at a height R above the ground. Thus, the difference in height between points P & Q is 4 R. Hence the difference in gravitational potential energy of the block between these points is 4 mg R. Since the block starts from rest at P its kinetic energy at Q is equal to its change in potential energy. By the conservation of energy.
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² = 4 mg R
v² = 8g R
At Q, the only forces acting on the block are its weight ring acting downward and the force M of the track on block acting in radial direction. Since the block is moving in a circular path, the normal reaction provides the centripetal force for circular motion.
N = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{R}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{m} \times 8 \mathrm{g} \mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{R}}\) = 8 mg
The loop must exert a force on block equal to eight times the blocks weight.

2. For the block to exert a force equal to its weight against the track at the top of the loop,
\(\frac{m v^{2}}{R}\) = 2 mg
or v2 = 2gR
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 27
The block must be released at a height of 3 R above the bottom of the loop.

Question 3.
A bullet of mass ‘m’ moving with a velocity V is embedded into a block of mass ‘x’ suspended by a thread. As a result of this collision the block along with the bullet rises to a height ‘h’ Prove that velocity of bullet was
\(\left(\frac{m+M}{m}\right) \sqrt{2 g h}\)
Solution:
let v1 be velocity of the system of block and the bullet. Applying principle of conservation of linear momentum, (M + m) v1 = mv
v1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}}{(\mathrm{M}+\mathrm{m})}\) ………. (1)
As K E of the system = P E of the system at height ‘h’
\(\frac{1}{2}\) (m + M) v1² = (m + M) gh
V1 = \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{gh}}\)
From (1)
v = \(\frac{(m+m) v_{1}}{m}\) = \(\frac{(m+M) \sqrt{2 g h}}{m}\)

Question 4.
A block of mass 200 g is released from ‘P’. if it slides down without friction till it reaches a point Q of traversing a circular path of radius 2.0 m.

  1. Find the velocity of the block at point Q and
  2. The coefficient of friction if the block comes to rest 2.0 m. from Q, Assuming the horizontal part of the path is rough. Take g – 10ms-2.

1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 28
Solution:
1. P E of the block at P = kintetic energy of block at Q
∴ mgh = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
v = \(\sqrt{2 g h}\) = \(\sqrt{2 \times 10 \times 2}\) = \(\sqrt{40 \mu}\)
∴ θ = 6.32 ms -1.

2. When the block comes to rest after travelling a distance, r = 2m from then, work done against friction = change in K E
μ mgs = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
∴ μ = \(\frac{v^{2}}{2 g r}\) = \(\frac{40}{2 \times 10 \times 2}\) = 1

Question 5.
A mass ‘m’ moving with a speed u colloids with a similar mass m at rest, elastically and obliquely. Prove that they will move in directions making an angle \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) with each other.
Solution:
Since momentum is a vector, the component along the x-axis and y-axis must separately balance each other.
On considering the components along the x-axis we have,
mu = mv1 cosθ1 + mv2cosθ2
i.e. u = v1 cosθ1 + v2 cos θ2 …………………. (1)
Similarly on considering the components along the y-axis we have,
0 = v1 sin θ1 + v2 cos θ2 ……………… (2)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 29
Being an elastic collision, kinetic energy is also conserved.
\(\frac{1}{2}\)mu² = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv1² + \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2²
u² = v1² + v2² ………………. (3)
squaring & adding (1) and (2) we get
u² = v1² + v2² + 2 v1v2 + (cos θ1cos θ2 – sin θ1sin θ2)
∴ u² = v1² + v2² + 2 v1v2 cos (θ1 + θ2)
using (3) in this equation, we get
2v1v2cos (θ1 + θ2) = 0
cos (θ1 + θ2) = 0
∴ θ1 + θ2 = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
i.e., the masses move at right angles after the collision.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
An object of mass 0.4 kg moving with a velocity of 4ms-1 collides with another object of mass 0.6 kg moving in the same direction with a velocity of 2ms-1. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, what is the loss in K E due to impact?
Solution:
m1 = 0.4 kg, u1 = 4 ms-1 m2 = 0.6kg, u2 = 2 ms-1
∴ Total K E of system before collision
ki = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m1u1² + \(\frac{1}{2}\) m2u2²
\(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.4 × 4² + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.6 × 2²
= 3.2 + 1.2 = 4.4J
∴ As collision is perfectly inelastic, the common velocity after collision v is given by
v = \(\frac{m_{1} u_{1}+m_{2} u_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\) = \(\frac{0.4 \times 4+0.6 \times 2}{0.4+0.6}\)
= 2.8 ms-1
∴ Total K E of system after collision
kf = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (m1 + m2) v² = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (1) × (2.8)²
= 3.92 J.
∴ Loss in K E = Δ K E = Δ K = Ki – Kf
= 4.4 – 3.92 J
= 0.48 J.

1st PUC Physics Work, Energy and Power Additional Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A force of 600 N displaces an object through 2 m. Find the work done if the force and displacement are

  1. Parallel
  2. At right angles.

Solution:
Work done is given by W = Fs cos θ
1. when F and s are parallel, θ = 0 and hence cos θ = 1
∴ W = Fs = 600 × 2 = 1200 J.

2. when F and s are at right angles,
θ = 90° and hence cos θ =0
∴ Work done, W = 0.

Question 2.
A sphere of radius 2mm and of density 7.5 × 103 kg m-3 falls from a height of 500m above the ground. Due to air resistance, its acceleration gradually decreases and becomes zero when it drops to half its original height. The drop then falls with a uniform terminal velocity. What is the work done by the gravitational force during the first and second half of its Journey?
Solution:
Even though the resultant force acting on the sphere is different during the first and second half of its journey, the force due to gravity remains constant throughout and is equal to the weight of the sphere. The amount of work done during the first half is given by,
W = mgh where m is the mass of the body.
But m = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3d and h = \(\frac{500}{2}\) = 250m
W = \(\frac{4 \pi}{3}\)(2 x 10-3)3 × 7.5 × 103 × 9.8 × 250
= 4\(\frac{4 \pi}{3}\) (2)3 × 7.5 × 9.8 × 250 × 10-6 J
= 615.4 × 10-3 = 0.615J
The work done remains the same during both halves.

Question 3.
A pump is used to fill a tank 6m × 3m × 2m in half an hour. If the average height to which water to be lifted from the well is 110m, find the horsepower of the engine.
Solution:
Volume of the tank = 6 × 3 × 2 = 36m3
∴ mass of water to be lifted
= V × d = 36 × 103 kg
∴ Work done = mg × h
= 36 × 103 × 9.8 × 110
Power of the pump = \(\frac{W}{t}\)
= \(\frac{36 \times 9.8 \times 1.1 \times 10^{5}}{30 \times 60}\) = 0.216 × 105W
= \(\frac{0.216 \times 10^{5}}{746}\) = \(\frac{21600}{746}\) = 28.9 HP.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
A circular well of radius 5m is filled with water to a height of 25m. It is emptied using a pump. If the efficiency of the pump is 60% and the initial level of water from the surface of the ground Is 10 m, calculate the time taken to empty it.
Solution:
If h1 and h2 are the heights of the initial and final levels of water in the well, then the average height through which water is lifted to empty it is,
h = \(\frac{h_{1}+h_{2}}{2}\) = \(\frac{10+35}{2}\) = 22.5 m
mass of water to be lifted
= volume × density = πr²Ld
Here, r = 5 m, L = 25m, d = 103 kgm-3
∴ total work to be done = mgh
= π × 5² × 25 × 103 × 9.8 × 25
= 1.73 × 107 ………………. (1)
Power of the pump used = 15 HP = 15 × 746 W
Total work done in lifting the water = 60% of the power of the pump.
If t is the time taken to empty it, the total amount of work done by the pump is
W = 15 × 746 × t.
Only 60% is used to lift the water.
∴ Amount of work done by the pump to lift water
W= \(\frac{60}{100}\) × 15 × 746 × t ………… (2)
Equating equation (1) and (2), we have,
1.73 × 107 = \(\frac{60}{100}\) × 15 × 746 × t
or t = \(\frac{1.73 \times 100 \times 10^{7}}{60 \times 15 \times 746}\)
= 2.5 × 103 S.

Question 5.
A lorry of mass 5 tons runs on a level track with a speed of 80km/hr. If the resistance due to air and friction is 80 N per ton, find the H.P. of the engine. Solution:
Total frictional force acting on the lorry is,
F = 5 × 80 = 400 N.
When a constant force is acting, then the power
P = x force × velocity
= 400 × \(\frac{80 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}\) W
= 8.89 × 103 W
= \(\frac{8.89 \times 10^{3}}{746}\) HP = 11.9 HP

Question 6.
An engine pulls a car of mass 1500 kg on a level road at a constant velocity of 5ms-1. If the frictional force is 500 N, what power does the engine generate? What extra power must the engine develop to maintain the same speed up a plane inclined to have gradient in 10?
Solution:
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power img 30
Since the car moves with a constant velocity, the power generated by the engine is just sufficient to overcome the frictional force.
P = F × V = 500 × 5
= 2500 W
= 2.5 kW
When the car moves over an inclined road, in addition to the friction, the engine must over come the component of the weight of the car along the inclined road. The component of the weight along the AB is, F = mg Sin θ
= 1500 × 9.8 × \(\frac{1}{10}\) (since Sin θ = \(\frac{1}{10}\))
∴ Extra power required = F × v
= 1500 × \(\frac{9.8 \times 5}{10}\)
= 7350 W = 7.35 kW

Question 7.
A gun of mass 5 kg fires a bullet of mass 10-2 kg with a speed of 5 x 10²ms-1. Find the kinetic energy of the bullet and the gun. Also, find the ratio of the distance moved by the gun due to recoil to that moved by the bullet.
Solution:
If m1 and m2 are the mass of the gun and the bullet and v1 and v2 are their corresponding velocities, then from the law of conservation of linear momentum,
Pi = Pf where Pi is the total initial momentum of bullet and the gun which is zero.
But P1 = m1v1 + m2 v2
m1v1 + m2 v2 = 0 or
v1 = \(\frac{m_{2} v_{2}}{m_{1}}\) = \(\frac{10^{-2} \times 5 \times 10^{2}}{5}\)
∴ Recoil velocity of the gun,
v1 = – 1 ms-1
∴ Kinetic energy of the bullet.
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) m2v2²
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10-2 × (5 × 10²)²
= \(\frac{25 \times 10^{2}}{2}\) =12.5 × 10² J

Question 8.
A labourer weighing 70kgs climbs 11 step of a stair case each 0.21 m height in 1.4. Find the power in watt and the Horse Power (g = 9.8ms 2)
Solution:
Mass of labourer m = 70kg
Total height of stair case = 11 × 0.21
h = 2.31m
Time taken to climb = 1.4seconds, g = 9.8ms-2
∴ Work done, W = mgh
= 70 × 9.8 × 2.31
= 1585 J.
∴ Power P = \(\frac{W}{t}\) = \(\frac{1585}{1.4}\) = 1132 W
But, 1 HP =746 Watts
∴ Power in Horsepower = 1.517 HP.

Question 9.
An engine is used to lift water from a well to a height of 40m to fill a tank 2m × 2m × 3m in 5 minutes. Find the power of the engine.
Solution:
Volume of the tank V = 2 × 2 × 3 = 12m3
∴ Mass of water to be lifted = v × d
= 12 × 103kg
∴ work done, W = mgh
= 12 × 103 × 9.8 × 40
∴ W = 4704 × 103J
∴ Power of the engine P = \(\frac{W}{t}\)
= \(\frac{4704 \times 10^{3}}{5 \times 60}\)
= 15.68 × 103W.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
Find the height from which body of a mass 50kg should fall in order to have the K.E of a car of mass 200kg travelling at 10ms-1 Given g = 9.8ms-2
Solution:
Mass of a body, m1 = 50 kg
Mass of car m2 = 200kg
velocity of the car v = 10ms-1 g = 9.8ms-2
P.E of the body, P.E = mgh
= 50 × 9.8 × h
= 490h
K.E of the car K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m2
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 200 × 10²
= 10,000J
But P.E of body = K.E of car
490h = 10,000
h = \(\frac{10,000}{490}\) = 20.41 m

Question 11.
A man fires 10 bullets, each of mass 20 × 10-3 Kg in every second with a gun of mass 10 Kg. If the velocity of each bullet is 300 ms-1, what force must be applied by the man to the gun to hold it in position? If the number of bullets fired per second doubles what will be a new force?
Solution:
No of bullets, N = 10
Mass of each bullet, M = 20 × 10-3kg
∴ Total mass of 10 bullets,
m = N × M
= 10 × 20 × 10-3
= 200 × 10-3kg
Velocity of each bullet = 300ms-1
From, the equation, F = ma
= \(m\left(\frac{v-u}{t}\right)\)
= 200 × \(10^{-3}\left(\frac{300-0}{1}\right)\)
= 60 N
∴ Force required by the man to the gun to hold it in position is 60N.
If the number of bullets fired per sec doubles, then force required also doubles.

Question 12.
A bullet of mass 20gm strikes a wooden plank with a velocity of 60ms-1 and emerges out in 0.01 seconds with a velocity of 30ms-1. Calculate
(i) the work done by the bullet and
(ii) the thickness of the plank.
Solution:
Given m = 20 × 10-3kg
u = 60ms-1 & v = 30 ms-1
work done = decrease in kinetic energy
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) m (u² – v²)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.02 (60² – 30²)
= 27J
From, v = u + at
30 = 60 + a (0.01)
a = \(\frac{-30}{0.01}\) = – 3000 ms-2
Retarding force, F = ma
= 0.02 × 3000 = 60N
work done, W = F × S
27 = 60 × S
∴ Thickness of the plank, S = \(\frac{27}{60}\)
= 0.45m.

Question 13.
A body of mass 0.1 kg falling freely under gravity takes 10second to reach the ground. Calculate kinetic energy & potential energy of the body, when the body has travelled for 6 seconds.
Solution:
Given: m = 0.1 kgm, u = 0,
t = 6 sec, a = g
∴ From v = u + at
v = 0 + 9.8 × 6
v = 58.8 ms-1
∴ kinetic energy of the body, when the body has travelled for 6 seconds, is
K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.1 × (58.8)²
K.E = 172.9 J
To Find Potential Energy (PE):
Distance travelled by the body in 10 sec, is
S10 = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt²
= 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 × 10²
S10 = 490m
Distance travelled by the body in 6 sec is
S6 = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt²
= 0 +\(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 × 6²
S6 = 176 .4m
∴ h = S10 – S6 = 490 – 176 .4 = 313.6m
∴ P.E = mgh
= 0.1 × 9.8 × 313.6
= 307.3 J.

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 6 Imperfect Competitive Markets

You can Download Chapter 6 Imperfect Competitive Markets Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 6 Imperfect Competitive Markets (Non-Competitive Markets)

2nd PUC Economics Perfect Competitive Markets One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is monopoly?
Answer:
It is the market where a single seller or a firm controls the supply of the commodity.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
What is monopolistic competition?
Answer:
Monopolistic competition is one of the types of imperfect competition, where there are many sellers selling heterogeneous (differentiated) products, which are not perfect substitutes.

Question 3.
What is oligopoly?
Answer:
It is one of the types of imperfect competitive market in which there are a few firms or sellers selling homogenous or differentiated goods.

Question 4.
Write the meaning of product differentiation.
Answer:
Product differentiation is one of the important features of Monopolistic competition. It refers to real differentiation in size, design, colour, shape of a product, or imaginary like brand name, trade mark, packaging, advertisement etc. Here, the products are heterogeneous.

Question 5.
Define Profit.
Answer:
Profit is the difference between Total Revenue and Total Cost. When Total Revenue is greater than Total cost, we get profit.

Question 6.
What is abnormal profit?
Answer:
When Price is greater than minimum point of Average Cost curve, we get abnormal profit.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
Define normal profit.
Answer:
When price (Average Revenue) is equal to the minimum of Average Cost curve, we get normal profit.

Question 8.
What do you mean by price rigidity?
Answer:
It means that the prices are difficult to change. It is one of the features of Oligopoly market in which the prices do not move according to the changes in demand.

Question 9.
Where do you buy electricity for home? What are the characteristics of that market?
Answer:
We buy electricity from local Electricity Company .(i.e., BESCOM- Bangalore Electricity Supply Company). The characteristics are, it is a single seller, it has control over its supply, it is price maker, no close substitutes etc.

Question 10.
Who developed the concept of Imperfect competition?
Answer:
Mrs. Joan Robinson developed the concept of imperfect competition.

Question 11.
Who popularized the concept of Monopolistic Competition?
Answer:
Prof.E.H.Chamberlin popularized the concept of monopolistic competition.

Question 12.
Give an example for selling costs.
Answer:
Advertisement costs, publicity costs, packaging costs etc.

KSEEB Solutions

2nd PUC Economics Perfect Competitive Markets Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is imperfect market? Mention its forms.
Answer:
Imperfect market is a market where we see either less competition or no competition. The forms of imperfectly competitive market are Monopoly, Duopoly, Oligopoly and Monopolistic.

Question 2.
How is monopoly different from a competitive firm?

Monopoly

Competitive Firm

(i) Existence of single seller. (i) Existence of large number of sellers.
(ii) No close substitutes. (ii) Existence of close substitutes.
(iii) Control over market price (iii) No control over market price
(iv) Super-normal profit (iv) Normal profit.

Question 3.
What are selling costs? What is their main objective?
Answer:
Selling costs are those expenses of the producer incurred on marketing of goods produced. The main objective of selling cost is to attach particular consumer to a particular brand.

Question 4.
Give two examples of monopolistic competitive industry.
Answer:
The main examples of monopolistic competitive industry are soaps, toothpaste Electronic industry etc.

Question 5.
Why is the demand curve of monopolistic competitive firm more elastic than that of a monopoly?
Answer:
The demand curve of monopolistic competitive firm is more elastic than monopoly market because of the presence of close substitutes in monopolistic competition. In monopoly market there are no close substitutes.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Can a monopolist incur loss in the short run?
Answer:
In monopoly market, the monopolist may incur losses in the short run. The firm incurs loss when its Total cost is greater than Total revenue.

Question 7.
What is Duopoly? Give an example.
Answer:
Duopoly is the market situation where there are only two sellers or firms in the market. Example – Private firm and public firm.

KSEEB Solutions

2nd PUC Economics Perfect Competitive Markets Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Briefly explain the features of monopoly.
Answer:
i. One seller and large number of buyers: Monopoly is said to exist when there is only one seller of a product. A monopolist may be the only person, a few partners or in the form of joint stock company. The demand for the monopolist is the market demand. In simple monopoly the number of buyers is assumed to be large. No single buyer can influence the price by his individual actions.

ii. No close substitute: The second condition of monopoly is that there should not be any close substitute of the product sold by the monopolist. If it is not so, the monopolist cannot charge a price according to his own desire. So he cannot be a price maker. That means, monopoly cannot exist when there is competition.

iii. Restriction on the entry of new firms: In a monopoly market, there is a strict barrier on the entry of new firms. Monopolist faces no competition. For example, in India, production of atomic energy is to be done only by Government. The private entrepreneurs are restricted from entering that market.

iv. Nature of Demand Curve: The aggregate demand of all buyers of the product of a monopolist is the demand of monopolist. We also know that the demand curve of an individual slopes downward from left to right. Since the demand curve of a monopolist is the summation of the demand curves of all the buyer of the product sold by the monopolist, demand curve of a monopolist slopes downward, it means that a monopolist can sell more of his output only at a lower price. On the contrary, if he raises the price of this product, his sales will be reduced.

v. No difference between Firm and Industry: The existence of single seller of one product rules out or eliminates the difference between the firm and the industry. The monopolist is a firm as well as an industry.

vi. Price Maker: The monopolist is a price maker which means that he sets price for his own goods agd services without any external pressure. His fixation of price is not influenced by any other factors which do not fall in his purview.

vii. Perfect knowledge: In monopoly market, the monopolists will be having perfect knowledge about the market conditions. So, they have control over the price and the quantities supplied. They also know about the demand in the market.

viii. Price discrimination or Uniform price: As the monopolist has complete control over the market supply, he can charge either different prices or uniform prices for different groups of consumers.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Draw the demand curve of monopoly market.
Answer:
The demand curve in monopoly market is the average revenue curve. A monopolist is a price maker. Here, the firm’s demand and market demand curves are same as there is no difference between a firm and industry. The monopolist can sell less quantity at higher prices and more quantity at lower prices. So, the monopolist faces downward sloping demand curve.

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 6 Imperfect Competitive Markets 1

In the above diagram, DD is the demand curve of monopoly market. It is negatively sloped. As the monopolist rises the price from OP to OP1, the quantities demanded reduces from OQ to OQ1 and vice versa.

Question 3.
What is total revenue? Draw a sketch of a TR curve for a monopoly firm.
Answer:
Total Revenue refers to the revenue or income received by the firm from the sale of its entire output. It is obtained by multiplying the total quantities sold with the price. The shape of TR . in Monopoly market is not a straight line. It is an inverted parabola. So, TR = pq (p × q).

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 6 Imperfect Competitive Markets 2

Question 4.
Define Average Revenue. Draw a sketch of AR curve for a monopoly firm.
Answer:
The AR is the revenue per unit of the output received by the monopolist firm. It is obtained by
dividing the Total Revenue from the quantities sold. So AR=TR/q where AR is the Average Revenue and TR is Total Revenue and ‘q’ is quantity sold.

When the price of a product decreases, the sales get increased and when price increases, the sales decrease. So the demand slopes downwards and the same represent AR. The AR curve may be represented as follows:

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 6 Imperfect Competitive Markets 3

In the above diagram, DD is the monopoly demand curve. The monopolist can influence the price. But the monopolist cannot control both price and quantity supplied at the same time. If the monopolist determines the price, the quantity of demand is determined by the market.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
What is MR (Marginal Revenue)? Draw a sketch of MR curve for a monopoly firm.
Answer:
The MR is the Marginal Revenue, which is additional revenue received from the sale of additional unit of output. It also refers to the change in Total Revenue due to the sale of an additional unit of output. So, it may be written as MR = ∆TR/∆q where = ∆TR is change in Total Revenue and Aq is change in quantity sold.

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 6 Imperfect Competitive Markets 4

In the above diagram, MR is marginal revenue which has negative slope. When the sales increase in monopoly market, the MR starts decreasing.

Question 7.
What are the features of Monopolistic Competition? Explain briefly.
Answer:
The main features of monopolistic competition are as follows:
a) Large number of buyers and sellers: The number of sellers in the monopolistic competition is large but when compared to perfect competition it is less. Every firm decides its own price and quantities to be produced. The number of buyers is also large.

b) Product differentiation: Product differentiation is the main feature of monopolistic competition. Product differentiation means, the products in monopolistic competition are different in quality, size, shape, colour, packaging, odour etc. So, the products sold in this market are not heterogenous.

c) Existence of selling costs: Selling costs are the unique feature of monopolistic competition. Selling costs are those costs which are incurred by the producer on marketing of products. The selling costs include advertisement, salesmanship, publicity, attracting packaging etc. The intention of incurring selling costs is to attract the consumers.

d) Free entry and exit: There is no restriction on entry of new firms and exit of old firms. The product differentiation attracts new firms into the industry.

e) Downward sloping demand curve: The demand curve in a monopolistic competition which, represents Average Revenue line, slopes downwards. Here, a single firm cannot control the entire market supply. A reduction in price leads to increase in demand and increase in Average Revenue and rise in price leads to fall in demand and decrease in Average Revenue.

f) Price Maker: As the products produced by each firm is differentiated in brand, shape, size, package, quality etc., the firms in monopolistic competition fix their own price. Therefore, every firm enjoys monopoly power on its own product.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 8.
What is Oligopoly? Write the features of Oligopoly.
Answer:
Oligopoly is one of the forms of imperfect market in which there are a few firms selling either differentiated of homogeneous products. Here, a few big firms will be controlling the market by producing significant portion of market demand. The example for oligopoly market are the industries which are producing mobiles, cars, cigarettes, tyres etc.

The features of Oligopoly market are as follows:
a) Existence of few firms: There will be small number of sellers in oligopoly market. These few sellers control the entire market supply. They may be dealing with differentiated or homogeneous products.

b) Interdependence: There will be interdependency among the firms in oligopoly market. The oligopolists depend on other firms while taking decisions in respect of price and quantities to be supplied. The sellers have to consider each others’ price and output.

c) Group Behaviour: It is one of the common features of oligopoly market. The firms recognise their interdependency and realize the importance of mutual cooperation. There is always a tendency of collusion among the firms.

d) Advertisement: In oligopoly market, advertisement plays a major role in increasing the sales. The oligopolists undertake intensive marketing strategies to increase the sale of goods. Advertisement cost is used as an effective tool to shift the demand in favour of their product.

e) Existence of homogenous or differentiated products: The firms will be dealing in similar or differentiated products in an oligopoly market. The products may be different like mobiles produced by different firms or similar like steel industry or cotton textile industries.

f) Price Rigidity: In oligopoly market, prices do not change much though there is change in quantities demanded. Generally, the firms do not change the price of their product even though other firms are changing their prices.

g) Kinked demand curve: It is the unique feature of oligopoly market. The demand curve in the oligopoly market has a kink at the level of the prevailing price. The kink is formed at the prevailing price level. It is because the segment of the demand curve above the prevailing price level is highly elastic and the segment of the demand curve below the prevailing price level is inelastic. A kinked demand curve DD with a kink at point P is given below:

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 6 Imperfect Competitive Markets 5

Question 9.
Write a note on Price rigidity in Oligopoly market.
Answer:
Price rigidity the important feature of oligopoly market. Here, price rigidity implies that prices are difficult to change. If any firm increases the price of its product to earn more profit, the other firms may not follow the same. As other firms do not follow, the firm which has increased the price loses its customers. On the other hand, if a firm reduces its price, the rival firms also reduce their price. This leads to price war and consequently, there will be increase in market demand and the firms do not get expected level of profit. So, the oligopolists not change their prices due to the fear of rivals reaction.

Reasons for Price Rigidity (Price Stability)
There are many reasons for price rigidity in oligopoly market, they are as follows:

  • Individual sellers in oligopoly market know that there may be price war.
  • The firms want to avoid any involvement in unnecessary insecurity and uncertainity.
  • The firms may stick to the present price level to prevent new firms from entering the
  • The firms may prefer non-price competition rather than price war.
  • It is the kinked demand curve analysis which is responsible for price rigidity in oligopolistic markets.

It is also seen that, if a stable price has been set through agreement or collusion, no seller would like to disturb it, for fear of unleashing a price war and thus engulfing himself into an era of uncertainty and insecurity.

KSEEB Solutions

2nd PUC Economics Perfect Competitive Markets Ten Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Describe the short-run equilibrium of a monopolistic firm with a diagram.
Answer:
Monopolistic competition is one of the types of imperfect competition in which we can see many sellers selling differentiated products, which are not perfect substitutes. Here, each seller’s market is separate from that of his rivals to some extent. The firms are limited by three factors viz., price, the nature of product and advertising costs.

Short-run Equilibrium of a Monopolistic Firm.
Under monopolistic competition, a firm is said to be in equilibrium if its Marginal Cost is equal to its Marginal Revenue, Marginal curve cuts Marginal Revenue from below and Price should be greater than or equal to minimum of AVC curve.
The short run equilibrium situations in monopolistic competition are as follows:

  • Abnormal profit or super normal profit when the Price is greater than AC.
  • Normal profit when the Price is equal to AC.
  • Losses when the Price is less than AC.

Abnormal or Super normal Profit:
In monopolistic competition, the AR and MR curves are more elastic when compared to monopoly firm. The equilibrium of a Monopolistic firm may be explained with the help of a

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 6 Imperfect Competitive Markets 6

In the above diagram output is measured along ‘X’ axis and cost, revenue and price are measured along ‘ Y’ axis. MC is the marginal cost curve, AC is the Average cost curve, AVC is the Average Variable Cost curve, AR is the Average Revenue line and MR is the Marginal Revenue Line. The firm is at equilibrium at point E, where MC=MR. The firm is earning super normal profit as follows:

Profit = II = TR – TC
= P x q – AC x q
= OP x OQ – OP1 x OQ
= OPRQ – OP1SQ
= P1PRS
So, the firm is getting P1PRS as profit.

Normal Profit under Monopolistic competition:
The normal profit is that profit which a firm earns when its price is equal to its Average cost. It is also called as economic profit. This can be explained with the help of following diagram.

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 6 Imperfect Competitive Markets 7

In the above diagram, the equilibrium point is at E where MC = MR. The equilibrium price is OP and equilibrium output is OQ. The price OP is equal to the point where AC is at minimum point. So, the firm is earning normal profit, which is represented as follows:
Profit = II = TR – TC
= P x Q – AC x Q
= OP x OQ – OP x OQ
= OPRQ – OPRQ
= O

Losses in Monopolistic Competition :
In monopolistic competition, a firm incurs losses when its price is less than AC. The losses under monopolistic competition can be explained with the help of diagram given below:

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 6 Imperfect Competitive Markets 8

In the above diagram, the firm is in equilibrium when its MC = MR. The equilibrium price is OP and the equilibrium output is OQ. The price is less than the minimum of AC. When the price is lesser than the minimum of AVC, it is called Shut down point. This shows that the firm is incurring losses as shown below.

Profit = II = TR – TC
=P x q – AC x q
=OP1 x OQ – OP1 x OQ
TC=OPRQ
TR=OP1 SQ
i.e., TC > TR

So the firm is incurring loss of P1 PRS.
The above are the equilibrium situations of firms monopolistic competition during short period of time.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Explain the short-run equilibrium under monopoly when the cost of production is positive by total revenue and total cost approach.
Answer:
A monopoly market is one of the forms of imperfect market where we see a single seller. The monopolist achieves equilibrium when his MC = MR. Monopolist, like a perfect competitive firm, tries to maximize his profit. It is also assumed that monopoly firm does not hold any stock of output produced.

The short run equilibrium of a monopoly market can be analysed under the following two different situations.

  •  When the cost of production is zero and
  •  When the cost of production is positive.

Generally production cost is positive in a monopoly market situation. Let us consider the short run equilibrium for a monopolist facing positive cost of production. This can be studied using the following two methods viz.,
(a) Total revenue and Total cost Approach.
(b) Marginal revenue and Marginal cost Approach.

Total revenue and Total cost Approach: Total revenue is nothing but the total sales receipts received by the monopolist after selling his entire output. Total cost refers to the total expenditure incurred by the producer to produce the output. According to this approach, a monopoly firm attains its equilibrium at the point where the difference between the Total revenue (TR) and the Total cost (TC) is maximum. At this point monopoly firm reaches equilibrium with maximum profit. The short run equilibrium situation using TR – TC approach can be explained with the help of the following Diagram.

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 6 Imperfect Competitive Markets 9

In the above Diagram, we measure quantity along ‘X’ axis and TR, TC and Profit are measured along ‘Y’ axis. Total revenue and Total cost curves of a monopolist firm are depicted by TR and TC curves. The profit for the monopoly firm is given by TR – TC. In the Diagram we find BD distance is the maximum. So the firm attains equilibrium at point B. The profit earned by the monopolist at this point equals the vertical distance between BD and equilibrium level of output is OQ.

When the producer producers Q1 and Q2 quantities, TR is equal TC. Here A and C are the break even points where TR = TC.

TR curve and TC curve intersect at points A and C. At these output levels of Q1 and Q2, profit is zero. Profit curve intersects the x-axis at Q1 and Q2 points. If the monopolist produces less than OQ1 and more than OQ2 levels of output, he suffers losses as his TC becomes greater than TR.

When the monopolist is between the production levels Q1 and Q2 his total revenue is greater than total cost. Then the profit curve is the difference between TR and TC and is at the maximum level. This can be stated as equilibrium of monopolist under short run when the cost of production is positive by total revenue and total cost approach.

KSEEB Solutions

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Gunataksharagalu – Samyuktaksharagalu

Students can Download Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Gunataksharagalu – Samyuktaksharagalu, Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Solutions, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Gunataksharagalu – Samyuktaksharagalu

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Gunataksharagalu - Samyuktaksharagalu 1

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Gunataksharagalu - Samyuktaksharagalu 2

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Kannada Varnamale

Students can Download Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Kannada Varnamale, Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Solutions, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Kannada Varnamale

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Kannada Varnamale 1

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Kannada Varnamale 2
Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Kannada Varnamale 3

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition

You can Download Chapter 5 The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 Theory of The Firm And Perfect Competition

2nd PUC Economics The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the meaning of market.
Answer:
Generally, the term market is a market place where goods are sold and bought. But in Economics, by market we mean a commodity whose buyers and sellers are in direct contact with one another. According to Prof.J.C.Edwards “A market is that mechanism by which buyers and sellers are brought together”.

Question 2.
Who is a price taker?
Answer:
Each firm is a price taker in a perfect competitive market.

Question 3.
What is revenue?
Answer:
Revenue refers to the money income received by a firm or producer or seller after the sale of commodities.

Question 4.
How do you calculate the Average Revenue?
Answer:
The Average Revenue can be obtained by dividing the Total Revenue by the number of units sold i.e., AR = TR/Q

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
What is supply?
Answer:
The supply in economics refers to the quantity of a product which the sellers or producers offer for sale at a particular level of price and particular period of time.

Question 6.
How do you calculate Price Elasticity of Supply?
Answer:
To calculate Price Elasticity of Supply, the following formula is used

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition 1

where ∆q is change in quantities supplied, ∆p is change in price, ‘p’ is original price and ‘q’ is original quantity.

Question 7.
MR = TR – ?
Answer:
MR = TRn – TRn-1

Question 8.
What is Price mechanism?
Answer:
The process of determination of price of goods and services through market forces viz., demand and supply is called ‘Price Mechanism’.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Give the meaning of equilibrium.
Answer:
Equilibrium refers to a position of rest. It is a position from which the producer or a firm has no tendency to move or change.

Question 10.
What is equilibrium Price?
Answer:
The equilibrium price is that level of price which is determined at the point where the demand and supply intersect (i.e., when supply and demand become equal).

Question 11.
What do you mean by Marginal Revenue?
Answer:
Marginal Revenue is the additional revenue received by the producer from the sale of additional unit of output.

Question 12.
What is Elasticity of supply?
Answer:
A proportionate change in quantities supplied in response to a proportionate change in price is called Elasticity of Supply.

KSEEB Solutions

2nd PUC Economics The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the differences between firm and industry.
Answer:

Firm

Industry

  1. Firm refers to a single individual unit of business inside an industry.
  2. It operates within an industry.
  3. There will be existence of one firm.
  4. No separate rules and regulations for a firm.
  1. Industry refers to a group of firms doing the same business.
  2. Operates within an economy
  3. There can be many firms in an industry
  4. Rules and regulations are made specifically for a particular industry.

Question 2.
State the essentials of a market.
Answer:
There are four essential requirements for existence of a market, they are as follows;

  • Existence of goods and services.
  • Existence of buyers and sellers.
  • Existence of Price
  • A place – region, a country or means of exchange – internet/telephone.

Question 3.
List the determinant elements of a market structure.
Answer:

  • Existence of a number of firms to produce a product offering a degree of competition.
  • Nature of commodities as to homegeneous or heterogeneous.
  • Freedom of entry and exit from the industry.

Question 4.
A firm in a Perfect competitive market is a price-taker. Why?
Answer:
In a perfect competitive market, each firm is a price taker as no single firm can influence the price level. The firms do not have any power over the market. The firm has to accept the existing price and sell its goods or services.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
What do you mean by shut down point?
Answer:
The shut down point is that point where short run Marginal Cost curve cuts Average Variable Cost curve at the minimum. A firm will continue to produce goods as long as the price, is more than or equal to the minimum of Average Variable Cost.

Question 6.
What is normal profit?
Answer:
The normal profit is that level of profit which is just enough to cover the explicit costs and Opportunity costs of die firm. Here, the revenue of the firm is just sufficient to cover all its cost of production.

Question 7.
When does a firm reach the break even point?
Answer:
A firm reaches its Break Even Point when its Total Revenue is equal to its Total Cost. At this point, the firm is just willing to stay in the industry. Here, we do not see any attractions for new firms to enter the industry and the existing firms also do not undertake any expansion.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 8.
State any four determinants of supply.
Answer:

  • Techniques of production,
  • Cost of production,
  • Government policy on tax, subsidies etc,
  • Objectives of the firm and
  • Climatic conditions.

Question 9.
State the law of supply.
Answer:
The law of supply states that “Other things remaining Same, a fall in price leads to fall in quantities supplied and rise in price leads to expansion in quantities supplied”.

Question 10.
If the price of potato increases from Rs.20 per kg. to Rs.25 per kg., the quantity offered for sale in the market increases from 100 kg to 120 kg. Find the price elasticity of supply.

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition 2

∆p = 25 – 20 = 5, ∆q = 120- 100 = 20, p = 20, q=100,

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition 3

Question 11.
What is invisible hand according to Adam Smith?
Answer:
The process of determination of price by the market forces demand and supply is called price mechanism and same is called as invisible hand by Adam Smith. According to Adam Smith, ‘invisible hand’ is always at work, it guides and directs both the producers and consumers towards equilibrium.

Question 12.
What is supply function?
Answer:
The relationship between the quantities supplied and the determinants of supply is called supply function. It may be written as follows:
S = f(x1, x2, x3………..xn)  or S = f(P, T, Gp, Fc……..) where S is quantities supplied, P is price, T is technology, Gp is Government policy, Fc is cost of factors of production.
Generally Supply Function is S = f(p).

KSEEB Solutions

2nd PUC Economics The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
AR and MR curves of a firm in perfect competition take the shape of a horizontal line. Explain this with a diagram.
Answer:
(i)Average Revenue: It refers to the revenue per unit of output sold. It is obtained by dividing the total revenue by the number of units of output sold.

Under perfect competition, the AR will be equal to the market price. This is because, in perfect competitive market, the seller sells his product at the same price which is prevailing in the market. If the seller sells at low price, he incurs losses or if he increases the price, he loses customers.

(ii)Marginal Revenue: The Marginal Revenue is the additional revenue which the firm earns from the sale of additional unit of output. It is obtained as MR = TRn – TRn-1

Under perfect competition, the price remains same and all the firms sell their products at the existing price. As the price remains same, if the number of units sold is increased, no doubt the Total Revenue increases but AR and MR remain the same. So, the firm’s demand curve, average revenue curve and its marginal revenue curve all coincide with the same horizontal line. This is shown in the diagram given below:

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition 4

In the diagram, TR curve increases with the increase in quantities sold. The Price is equal to AR and MR as represented by the horizontal line parallel to ‘x’ axis. In this market, price does, not change, therefore, there will be no change in AR and MR. Thus, in a perfect market, demand curve, AR and MR curves coincide with the same horizontal line.

Question 2.
Explain the Average and Marginal Revenue of a firm.
Answer:
(i)Average Revenue: It refers to the revenue per unit of output sold. It is obtained by dividing the total revenue by the number of units of output sold.

So, AR = TR/Q where, AR is Average Revenue, TR is Total Revenue and Q is quantities sold. Under perfect competition, the AR will be equal to the market price. This is because, in perfect competitive market, the seller sells his product at the same price which is prevailing in the market. If the seller sells at a lower price, he incurs losses or if he increases the price, he may lose his customers.

The AR curve of a firm is also the demand curve of the customers, because the price paid by the consumer for each unit is the average revenue from the seller’s point of view.

(ii)Marginal Revenue: The Marginal Revenue is the additional revenue’ which the firm earns from the sale of additional units of output. It is obtained as MR = TRn – TRn-1 The Marginal Revenue is the change in a firm’s total revenue resulting from the sale of an extra unit of output.
The MR is also calculated with the help of following formula

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition 5

Under perfect competition, the price remains same and all the firms sell their products at the existing price. As the price remains same, if the number of units sold gets increased, no doubt the Total Revenue increases but AR and MR remain the same. So, the firm’s demand curve, average revenue curve and its marginal revenue curve all coincide in the same horizontal line.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
With the help of a diagram, explain Total Revenue, Average Revenue and Marginal Revenue curves of a perfect competitive market.
Answer:
(i)Total Revenue: The total revenue is the aggregate revenue received by the seller from the sale of the entire output. It is obtained by multiplying the units sold with the price of the product. It may be stated as follows:
TR = p x q where, p is price and q is quantity sold.

(ii)Average Revenue: It refers to the revenue per unit of output sold. It is obtained by dividing the total revenue by the number of units of output sold.

Under perfect competition, AR will be equal to the market price. This is because, in perfect competitive market, the seller sells his product at the same price which is prevailing in the market. If the seller sells at low price, he incurs losses or if he increases the price, he loses customers.)

(iii)Marginal Revenue: The Marginal Revenue is the additional revenue which the firm earns from the sale of additional unit of output. It is obtained as MR = TRn – TRn-1

Under perfect competition, the price remains same and all the firms sell their products at the existing price. As the price remains same, if the number of units sold gets increased, no doubt the Total Revenue increases but the AR and MR remain the same. So, the firm’s demand curve, average revenue curve and its marginal revenue curve all coincide in the same horizontal line. This can be shown in diagram given below:

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition 6

In the diagram, TR curve increases with the increase in quantities sold. The Price is equal to AR and MR represented as horizontal line parallel to ‘x’ axis. In this market, price does not change, therefore, there will be no change in AR and MR. Thus, in perfect market, demand curve, AR and MR curves coincide in the same horizontal line.

Question 4.
Derive the long run supply curve of a firm.
Answer:
The long run supply curve is that part of the long run Marginal Cost curve which rises from the minimum point of the long run Average Cost curve. The long run Supply curve can be shown in the following diagram.

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition 7

In the above diagram, the quantity supplied is measured along ‘X’ axis and price is measured along ‘Y’ axis. The firm is in equilibrium at point E, as the price is equal to the long run Marginal Cost. The firm produces output of OQ1. If the price rises to P2, the long run Marginal Cost intersects at point E2 which makes the firm to increase its supply from OQ1 to OQ2. Thus, when the price rises, quantity supplied gets expanded.

Similarly, when the price falls from OP1 to OP0, the firm stops production as it is below its equilibrium or shut down point. So, the long run supply curve of a firm can be stated as that part of the curve which begins at the minimum point of LRAC and rises above the Long Run Marginal Cost curve. The long run Supply curve is from the point E1 towards E2 and so on.

Question 5.
Explain the law of supply with the help of a schedule and diagram.
Answer:
The law of supply states that the rise in price leads to a rise in supply and a fall in price leads to a fall in quantities supplied, by keeping other things constant. There is a direct proportionate relationship between price and quantities demanded. So, the supply curve slopes upwards from left to right.

(i)Supply Schedule: A supply schedule is a statement which consists of quantities supplied at different levels of price. Supply curve slopes upwards and can be represented by the linear equation QS = a + bp, where QS is quantity supplied, ‘a’ and ‘b’ are constants, ‘p’ is price. If a =10 and b = 2 then the linear supply function when p is 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, the same may be represented as follows:

QS=10+2p then we get the supply schedule as follows:

QS=10+2p

Price Quantity supplied

10+2(1)= 12

1 12

10+2(2)= 14

2 14
10+2(3) = 16 3

16

10+2(4)= 18 4

18

10+2(5) = 20 5

20

Supply Curve:
Supply Curve is a graphical representation of supply schedule. The supply curve slopes upwards from left to right to indicate that there is direct proportionate relationship between price and quantities supplied. The supply curve can be shown as follows:

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition 8

In the above diagram, quantity supplied is measured along ‘X’ axis and price is measured along ‘Y’ axis. The SS curve indicates the supply curve. This shows that there is a positive relationship between price level and quantity supplied.

KSEEB Solutions

2nd PUC Economics The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition Ten Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain how the short run and the long run supply curve of a firm is derived under perfect competition.
Answer:
(i)Short run supply curve: In a perfect competitive market, the short run supply curve is that part of its Marginal cost curve where the Marginal Cost curve is rising from the Average Variable Cost curve. As the firm is a price taker, the supply curve has the same shape as that of Marginal cost curve above AVC (Average Variable Cost). This can be represented in the following diagram:

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition 9

in the above diagram, quantity supplied is measured along ‘X’ axis and price is measured along ‘Y’ axis. The firm is in equilibrium at point E, where MR = MC. At point E1, the price P1 is equal to the AVC. This is also called as shut down point. If a firm produces beyond this point, the price will be less than the Average Variable Cost and it may incur losses. The three conditions in short run equilibrium may be expressed as P = SMC (Short run Marginal Cost), SMC is decreasing and P e” SAVC (Short run Average Variable Cost)

When the price increases from P1 to P2, the quantity supplied increases from Q1 to Q2 and the price line i.e., Average Revenue curve and SMC curve intersect at point E2. At this point, the P2 is equilibrium price which is also the Average Revenue and Q2 quantity of supply. Thus, it is evident from the diagram that when price rises the quantity supplied also rises and vice versa.

The relationship between price and quantity supplied in short run can be shown in the following diagram:

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition 10

In the above diagram, quantity supplied is measured along ‘X’ axis and price is measured along ‘Y’ axis. When the price is increased from P1 to P2, the quantity also increased from Q1 to Q2. Similarly, when the Price falls from P3 to P2, the quantity supplied also falls from Q3 to Q2. Thus, there is a direct relationship between price and quantity supplied.

(ii)Long run supply curve of a firm :
Under Perfect competition, the long run supply curve is that part of the long run Marginal Cost curve which rises from the minimum point of the long run Average Cost curve. The long run Supply curve can be shown in the following diagram.

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition 11

In the above diagram, the quantity supplied is measured along ‘X’ axis and price is measured along ‘Y’ axis. The firm is in equilibrium at point E1 as the price is equal to long run Marginal Cost. The firm produces output of OQ1. If the price rises to P2, the long Run Marginal Cost intersects at point E2 which the firm to increase its supply from Q1 to Q2. Thus, when the price rises, quantity supplied gets expanded.

Similarly, when the price falls from OP1 to OP0, the firm stops production as it is below its equilibrium or shut down point. So, the long run supply curve of a firm can be stated as that part of the curve which begins at the minimum point of LRAC and rises above the Long Run Marginal Cost curve. The long run Supply curve is from the point E1 towards E2 and so on.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
What is invisible hand? Show how the invisible hand guides the producers and the consumers towards equilibrium in a perfect competition.
Answer:
The process of determination of price by supply and demand forces is called Price mechanism and the same has been called as ‘invisible hand’ by Prof.Adam Smith. Prof. Adam Smith has introduced the concept of ‘Invisible hand’ which is responsible for equilibrium of a firm in perfect competition.

Perfect competitive market is that market where we can see large number of sellers and buyers dealing with homogenous goods. Every firm is a price taker as it cannot influence the price in the market.

Equilibrium in a Perfect Competitive Market:
Equilibrium is a position from which there will not be a tendency to move or change in any direction. At equilibrium price, the quantity demanded and supplied would be equal. According to Alfred Marshall, both supply and demand are equally important in determining the price of a product. Marshall has compared the supply and demand to the two blades of a scissors. Neither the upper blade nor the lower blade alone cuts the paper but both are required to do the task of cutting a paper. So, both supply and demand play an important role in determining price.

The equilibrium in a perfect market is determined by the market demand and market supply. Market demand is the aggregate demand arid market supply is the aggregate supply. The market demand curve slopes downwards from left to right and the market supply curve slopes upwards. The point of intersection between the demand and supply curve determines the equilibrium price. This can be illustrated with the help of the following table.

Price of Rice (Rs.) Quantity

Demanded (tonnes)

Quantity Supplied (Tonnes)

 1000

100 10

2000

90 30

3000

70 70
4000 60

90

5000 50

100

In the above table, it is shown that the price of rice per quintal is Rs.1000 and the quantity demanded is equal to 100 tonnes and the supply is 10 tonnes. When the price increases to Rs.2000, the demand becomes 90 tonnes and supply increases to 30 tonnes. When the price reaches Rs.3000, the quantity supplied and demanded are the same. Therefore, Rs.3000 is the equilibrium price and 70 tonnes rice is equilibrium quantity. This can be represented in the following diagram.

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 5 The Theory Of The Firm And Perfect Competition 12

In the above diagram, quantity is measured along ‘X’ axis and price is measured along ‘Y’ axis. OP is the original price and OQ is the original quantity. When the price is increased to OP2, the quantities demanded will be P2N and supplied will be P2M. Here, the quantity supplied is, greater than the quantity demanded. This excess supply leads to reduction of price to original level. When price falls from OP to OP1, the quantity demanded will be P1L and quantity supplied wiill be P1K. Here, the quantity demanded is more than the quantity supplied. This excess demand makes the price to rise to the original price level.
Thus the equilibrium of price is attained at point E where the Aggregate Demand is equal to aggregate supply.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
What is Perfect Competition? Explain the features of a perfectly competitive market.
Answer:
Perfect competition is a market where there will be existence of large number of buyers and sellers dealing with homogenous products. It is a market with the highest level of competition.

i) Large number of sellers: The first condition which a perfectly competitive market must satisfy is concerned with the sellers’ side of the market. The market must have such a large number of sellers that no one seller is a dominate in the market. No single firm can influence the price of the commodity sellers will be the firms producing the product for sale in the market. These firms must be all relatively small as compared to the market as a whole. Their individual outputs should be just a fraction of the total output in the market.

ii) Large number of buyers: There must be such a large number of buyers that no one buyer is able to influence the market price in any way. Each buyer should purchase just a fraction of the market supplies. Further, the buyers should not have any kind of union or association so that they compete for the market demand on an individual basis.

iii) Homogeneous products: Another prerequisite of perfect competition is that all the firms or sellers must sell completely identical or homogeneous goods. Their products must be considered to be identical by all the buyers in the market. There should not be any differentiation of products by sellers by way of quality, colour, design, packing or other selling conditions of the product.

iv) Free Entry and Free exit for firms: Under perfect competition, there is absolutely no restriction on entry of new firms into the industry or the exit of the firms from the industry when they want to leave. This condition must be satisfied especially for the long period equilibrium of the industry.

If these four conditions are satisfied, the market is said to be purely competitive. In other words, a market characterized by the presence of these four features is called purely competitive. For a market to be perfect, some conditions of perfection of the market must also be fulfilled.

v) Perfect mobility: Another feature of perfect competition is that goods and services as well as resources are perfectly mobile between firms. Factors of production can freely move from one occupation to another and from one place to another. There should be no barrier on their movement. No one can have monopoly or control over the factors of production. Goods can be sold at a place where their prices are the highest. There should not be any kind of limitation on the mobility of resources.

vi) Absence of transport cost: For the existence of perfect competition, the transport costs should not be considered. All the firms have equal access to the market. Price of the product is not affected by the cost of transportation of goods.

vii) Single Price: The market price charged by different sellers does not differ due to location of different sellers in the market. No seller is near or distant to any group of buyers.

viii) Price Taker: The firms in the perfect competitive market are price takers. That means, the producers will continue to sell their goods and services in the price existing in the market. Firms have no control over the price of the product.

ix) Absence of selling cost: Under conditions of perfect competition, there is no need of selling costs. Selling costs are the expenditures done to stimulate the sale of product or to change the shape of the demand curve. We know that under perfect competition, goods are completely homogeneous. When they cannot change the price and when their goods and completely similar, firms need not make any expenditure on publicity and advertisement.

x) Normal Profit: The firms in perfect competition will be earning normal profit. The normal profit is that profit which is just sufficient to stay in the market.

KSEEB Solutions

2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

You can Download Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

2nd PUC Chemistry The d-and f-Block Elements NCERT Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write down the electronic configuration of:

  1. Cr3+
  2. Pm3+
  3. Cu+
  4. Ce4+
  5. CO2+
  6. Lu2+
  7. Mn2+
  8. Th4+

Answer:

  1. Cr3+ : 1 s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 4s0 or [Ar] 3d3 4s0
  2. Pm3+ : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 4d10 5s6 5p6 6s0 5d0 4f4
  3. Cu+ : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s0 or [Ar] 3d10 4s0
  4. Cr3+ : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 4s0 or [Ar] 3d34s0
  5. Ce4+ : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s2 4d10 5p6 6s0 5d0 4f0 or [Xe] 4f4 5d0 6s0
  6. Co2+ : [Ar] 3d7 4s0
  7. Lu2+ : [Xe] 4f14 5d1 6s0
  8. Mn2+ : [Ar] 3d5 4s0
  9. Th4+ : [Rn] 5f0 6d2 7s2

Question 2.
Why are Mn2+ compounds more stable than Fe2+ towards oxidation to their +3 state?
Answer:
2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 0

Electronic configuration of Mn2+ is 3d5. This is a half-filled configuration and hence stable. Therefore, the third ionization enthalpy is very high, i. e., the third electron cannot be lost easily. Electronic configuration of Fe2+ is 3d6. It can lose one electron easily to achieve a stable configuration 3d5.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3
Explain briefly how the +2 state becomes more and more stable in the first half of the first-row transition elements with increasing atomic number?
Answer:
Except for Sc, all other metals display +2 oxidation state. Also, on moving from Sc to Mn,’ the atomic number increases from 21 to 25; This means the number of e in 3d orbital increases from 1 to 5
Sc2+ : d1 Ti2+ = d2 V2+ = d3 Cr2+ = d4
Mn2+ : d5
+ 2 oxidation state is attained by the loss of 2, 4s electrons by these metals since the number of d electrons in (+2) state also increases from Ti (+2) to Mn (+2), the stability of +2 state increases (as d – orbital is becoming more is half-filled) M+2 has d5 electrons (that is half-filled d shell, which is highly stable).

Question 4.
To what extent do the electronic configurations decide the stability of oxidation states in the first series of the transition elements? Illustrate your answer with examples.
Answer:
The presence of half-filled or completely filled orbitals imparts stability to a particular element/ion. The greater the number of such orbitals the more will be the relative stability. For example, let us write the different oxidation states of Mn (Z = 25) along with the electronic configurations. Mn: [Ar] 3d54s2 ; Mn2+ ; [Ar] 3d5 , Mn3+ ; [Ar]3d4, Mn4+ ; [Ar] 3d3.

+2 oxidation state of the element is likely to be the most stable because the corresponding electronic configuration of Mn2+ is highly symmetrical (all the five 3d-orbitals are half-filled).

Question 5.
What may be the stable oxidation state of the transition element with the following d electron configurations in the ground state of their atoms: 3d3, 3d5,3d8, and 3d4?
Answer:
2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 1

Question 6.
Name the oxometal anions of the first series of the transition metals in which the metal exhibits the oxidation state equal to its group number.
Answer:
Upto the element Mn, the oxidation state leading to the maximum stability corresponds to a value equal to the sum of s- and d-electrons i.e., the group number. For example,
[Sc(III)O2], [Ti(IV)O3]2-, [V(V)O3], [Cr(VI)O4]2-, [Mn(VII)O4]
However, for the remaining elements, the oxidation states are not related to their group numbers.

Question 7.
What is lanthanoid contraction? What are – the consequences of lanthanoid contraction?
Answer:
The regular decrease in atomic radii due to the filling of 4f before 5d orbitals is called lanthanoid contraction. This is because of the imperfect shielding of one electron by another in the same set of orbitals. The shielding of one 4f electron by another is less than that of one d electron by another, and as the nuclear charge increases along the series, there is fairly regular decrease in the size of entire 4f orbitals. Consequences of lanthanoid contraction.

  • Radii of third series are virtually same as those of the corresponding member of second series.
  • Third series and second series have very similar physical and chemical properties much more than that expected by usual family relationships.

Question 8.
What are the characteristics of the transition elements and why are they called transition elements? Which of the d-block elements may not be regarded as the transition elements?
Answer:
General characteristics of transition elements.

  1. Electronic configuration – (n – 1) d1-10 ns1-2
  2. Metallic character – With the exceptions of Zn, Cd, and Hg, they have typical metallic structures.
  3. Atomic and ionic size – Ions of the same charge in a given series show a progressive decrease in radius with increasing atomic number.
  4. Oxidation state – Variable ; ranging from + 2 to + 7.
  5. Paramagnetism – The ions with unpaired electrons are paramagnetic.
  6. Ionisation enthalpy – Increases due to increase in molecular charge.
  7. Formation of coloured ions – Due to unpaired electrons.
  8. Formation of complex compounds – Due to small size and high charge density of metal ions.
  9. They possess catalytic properties – Due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states.
  10. Formation of interstitial compounds.
  11. Alloy formation.

They are called transition elements due to their incompletely filled d-orbitals in the ground state or any stable oxidation state and they are placed between s and p-block elements. Zn, Cd, and Hg have fully filled d° configuration in their ground state hence may not be regarded as the transition elements.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
In what way is the electronic configuration of the transition elements different from that of the non-transition elements?
Answer:
The general electronic configuration of a d-block elements is (n – 1) d1-10 ns1-2.
Transition elements in their ground state or excited state will have a configuration of (n – 1) d1-9 ns0-2 ie. partly filled d orbitals whereas non-transition elements will have a configuration of (n – 1) d10 ns0.2  i.e completely filled d- orbitals.

Question 10.
What are the different oxidation states exhibited by the lanthanoids?
Answer:
The common stable oxidation state of lanthanoids is + 3. However, some may also exhibit + 2 and + 4 oxidation states.

Question 11.
Explain giving reasons:
(i) Transition metals and many of their compounds show paramagnetic behaviour.
(ii) The enthalpies of atomisation of the transition metals are high.
(iii) The transition metals generally form coloured compounds. .
(iv) Transition metals and their many compounds act as good catalyst.
Answer:
(a) Paramagnetism: arises from the presence of unpaired electrons, each such electron has magnetic moment associated with its spin angular momentum and orbital angular momentum. For the compounds of the first series of transition metals, the contribution of the orbital angular momentum is effectively quenched and hence is of no significance. For these, the magnetic moment,is determined by the number of unpaired electrons and is calculated by using the ‘spin’ only’ formula, i.e., µ = \(\sqrt { n(n+2) }\) B.M

(b) Enthalpy of atomisation: may be defined as the amount of heat energy needed to break the metal lattice of a crystalline metal into free atoms. Greater the magnitude of lattice energy more will be the value of enthalpy of atomisation. The transition metals have high enthalpies of atomisation because the metallic bonds present are quite strong due to the presence of large number of half-filled atomic orbitals. For more details, consult text-part.

(c) Due to the presence of unpaired electrons and d-d transitions: the transition metals are generally coloured. When an electron from a lower energy d orbital is excited to a higher energy d-orbital, the energy of excitation corresponds to the frequency of light absorbed. This frequency generally lies in the visible region. The colour observed corresponds to the complementary colour of the light absorbed. The frequency of the light absorbed is determined by the nature of the ligand.

(d) The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity: This activity is ascribed to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes. Vanadium(V) oxide (in Contact Process), finely divided iron (in Haber’s Process), and nickel (in r Catalytic Hydrogenation) are some of the examples. Catalysts at a solid surface involve the formation of bonds between reactant molecules and atoms of the surface of the catalyst.

Question 12.
What are interstitial compounds? Why are such compounds well known for transition metals?
Answer:
Interstitial compounds are those in which small atoms occupy the interstitial sites in the crystal lattice. Transition metals can accommodate small atoms like H, B, C, N, etc. in their voids in the crystal lattices and hence form interstitial compounds.

Question 13.
How is the variability in oxidation states of transition metals different from that of non-transition metals? Illustrate with examples.
Answer:
The variability of oxidation states, a characteristic of transition elements, arises due to incomplete filling of d-orbitals in such a way that their oxidation states differ from each other by unity, e.g., Fe2+, Fe3+, Cr2+, Cr3+. This is in contrast with the variability of oxidation states of non-transition elements where oxidation states normally differ by a unit of two. i.e., Sn2+, Sn4+, P3+ and P5+, etc.
in the p-block the lower oxidation states are favoured by the heavier members (due to inert pair effect), the opposite is true in the groups of J-block.For example, in group 6, Mo (VI) and W (VI) are found to be more stable than Cr (VI). Thus Cr (VI) in the form of dichromate in acidic medium is a strong oxidising agent, whereas MOO3 and WO3 are not.

Question 14.
Describe the preparation of potassium dichromate from iron chromite ore. What is the effect of increasing pH on a solution of potassium dichromate?
Answer:
Potassium Dichromates are generally prepared from chromates which in turn are obtained by the fusion of chromite ore (FeCr2O4) with sodium or potassium carbonate in free excess of air

4FeCr2O4 + 8Na2CO3 + 7O2 → 8Na2CrO4 + 2Fe2O3 + 8CO2

The yellow solution of Na2CrO4 is filtered and acidified with H2SO4 to give a solution from which orange sodium dichromate Na2Cr2O7 2H2O can be crystallised
2Na2CrO4 + 2H+→ Na2Cr2O7 + 2Na+ + H2O

sodium dichromate is more soluble than potassium dichromate. The latter is prepared by treating the solution of Na2Cr2O4 with KCl.

Na2Cr2O7 + 2KCl → K2Cr2O7 + 2NaCl (orange crystals)

(b) On increasing the PH of a solution of K2Cr2O7, it behaves like a strong oxidising agent and it oxidises iodide to iodine sulphides to sulphur, tin (II) to tin (IV) and Iron (II) salts to iron (III).

Question 15.
Describe the oxidising action of potassium dichromate and write the ionic equations for its reaction with:
(i) iodide (ii) iron(II) solution and (iii) H2S
Answer:
Potassium dichromate, in acidic medium acts as a strong oxidising agent by gaining 6e’ and forms Cr3+.
Cr2O72- + 14H+ + 6e → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O ..(1)
(i) iodides
6I → 3I2 + 6e ..(2)
(1) + (2)
Cr2O72- + 14 H+ + 6I → 2Cr3+ + 3I2 + 7H2O
(ii) iron (II) solution
6Fe2+ → 6Fe3+ + 6e ..(3)
(1) + (3)
Cr2O72- +14 H++ 6Fe2+ → 2Cr3+ + 6Fe3+ + 7H2O

(iii) H2S
3H2S → 6H+ + 3S + 6e ..(4)
(1) + (4)
Cr2O72- +14H+ + 3H2S → 6H+ + 3S + 2Cr3+ + 7H2O

KSEEB Solutions

Question 16.
Describe the preparation of potassium permanganate. How does the acidified permanganate solution react with
(i) iron(II) ions
(ii) SO2 and
(iii) oxalic acid?
Write the ionic equations for the reactions.
Answer:
Potassium permangnate is prepared by fusion of MnO2 with an alkali metal hydroxide and an oxidising agent like KNO3. This produces the dark green k2MnO4 which disproportionates in a neutral or acidic solution to give permanganate.

2MnO2 + 4 KOH + O2 → 2K2MnO4 + 2H2O
3MnO42- + 4H+ → 2MnO4 + MnO2 + 2H2O

Commercially it is prepared by the alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO2 followed by the electrolytic oxidation of manganate (VI)

2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 2

In laboralory manganese (II) ion salt is oxidised by peroxidisulphate to permanganate.

2Mn2+ + 5S2O82- + 8H2O → 2MnO4 + 10SO42- + 16H+
(i) 5Fe2+ + MnO4 + 8H+ → Mn2+ + 4H2O + 5Fe37

(ii) 2MnO42+ 10SO2 + 5O2 + 4H2O → 2Mn2+ + 10SO42- + 8H+

(iii) 5C2O42- + 2MnO4 + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 8H2O + 10CO2

Question 17.
For M2+/M and M3+/M2+ systems the Eθ values for some metals are as follows:
Cr2+/Cr -0.9V
Mn2+/Mn -1.2V
Fe2+/Fe -0.4V
Cr3+/ Cr2+ -0.4 V
Mn3+/Mn2+ + 1.5 V
Fe3+/Fe2+ + 0.8 V
Use this data to comment upon:
(i) the stability of Fe3+ in acid solution as compared to that of Cr3+ or Mn3+ and
(ii) the ease with which iron can be oxidised as compared to a similar process for either chromium or manganese metal.
Answer:
(i) From the above data, we can infer that Fe3+ is less stable than Cr3+ but more stable than Mn3+. If reducing potential is less than oxidised state will be more stable. This is so because it is easier to add an e to Fe3+ than Cr3+ but difficult to do so in case of Fe3+ than inMn3+.
(ii) Mn and Cr can be oxidised easily as compared to Fe because the reducing potential of Fe is less negative compared to Mn and Cr. Hence Fe is stable in its reduced form.

Question 18.
Predict which of the following will be coloured in aqueous solution?
Ti3+, V3+, Cu+, Sc3+, Mn2-, Fe3+ and CO2+.
Give reasons for each.
Answer:
Among the above-mentioned ions, Ti3+, V3+, Mn2+, Fe3+ and Co2+ are coloured. These ions are coloured due to the presence of unpaired electrons, they can undergo d-d transitions

KSEEB Solutions

Question 19.
Compare the stability of +2 oxidation state for the elements of the first transition series.
Answer:
The stability of the +2 oxidation state decreases from left to right except for Mn and Zn. Stability decreases towards the right due to decreasing negative value of standard reduction potential. The decrease in the -ve value of E° is due to an increase in the sum of ∆i H1 + ∆iH2 (first and second ionisation enthalpy)

Question 20.
Compare the chemistry of lanthanoids and actinoids with special reference to :
(a) electronic configuration
(b) oxidation state
(c) atomic and ionic sizes
(d) chemical reactivity.
Answer:
(a) Electronic configuration: The actinoids involve the gradual filling of 5f-subshell in their atoms. Actinium has the outer electronic configuration of 6d17s2. From thorium (Z = 90) onward 5f-subshell gets progressively filled. Because of almost equal energies of 5fand 6d-subshells, there are some doubts regarding the filling of 5fand 6d-subshells.

(b) Oxidation states Members of the actinoid family exhibit more variable oxidation states as compared to the elements belonging to lanthanoid family. This is due to the reason that there is less energy difference in 5d, 6fand 7s orbitals belonging to the actinoid family than the energy difference in 5f, 4d and 65 orbitals in case of lanthanoid family.

(c) Atomic and ionic sizes: The atomic size of lanthanoids decreases from lanthanum to lutetium. Though the decrease is not regular, in case of atomic radii, the decrease in the ionic size (M3+) is regular. Decrease in size between two successive elements is higher in actinoids due to poor screening by 5f electrons.

(d) Chemical reactivity: Actinoids are highly reactive metals especially when these are in finely divided form. Upon boiling with water, they form respective oxides and hydroxides. They combine with a variety of non-metals at moderate temperature. On reacting with hydrochloric acid, they form their respective chlorides.

Question 21.
How would you account for the following:
(i) Of the d4 species, Cr2+ is strongly reducing while manganese (III) is strongly oxidising.
(ii) Cobalt (II) is stable in aqueous solution but in the presence of complexing reagents, it is easily oxidised.
(iii) The d1 configuration is very unstable in ions.
Answer:
(i) Cr+2 is reducing in nature as its configuration changes from d4 to d3 (A stable configuration having half-filled t28 orbitals). On the other hand, Mn+3 is oxidising in nature as the configuration changes from d4 to d5 (A stable configuration having half-filled t2g to eg orbitals)
(ii) Strong ligands force Cobalt (II) to lose one more electron from 3cfsubshell and thereby induce d2sp3-hybridization.
(iii) The ions with the d1 configuration try to lose the only electron on the d-subshell in order to acquire a stable inert gas configuration.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 22.
What is meant by ‘disproportionation’? Give two examples of disproportionation reaction in an aqueous solution.
Answer:
It is found that sometimes a relatively less stable oxidation state undergoes an oxidation-reduction reaction in which it is simultaneously oxidised and reduced. This is called disproportion.
For example,
2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 4
Mn (vi) is oxidised to Mn (vii) and reduced to Mnfiv).

Question 23.
Which metal in the first series of transition metals exhibits +1 oxidation state most frequently and why?
Answer:
Cu has electronic configuration 3 d10 4s1. It can easily lose 4s1 electrons to acquire the stable 3d10 configuration. Hence, it shows + 1 oxidation state.

Question 24.
Calculate the number of unpaired electrons in the following gaseous ions: Mn3+, Cr3+, V3+, and Ti3+. Which one of these is the most stable in an aqueous solution?
Answer:
2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 5
Cr3+ is the most stable in an aqueous solution owing to a t23 g configuration.

Question 25.
Give example and suggest reasons for the following features of transition metal chemistry.
(a) The lowest oxide of the transition metal is basic while the highest is acidic.
(b) A transition metal exhibits higher oxidation states in oxides and fluorides. (C.B.S.E. Sample Question Paper 2012)
(c) The highest oxidation state is exhibited in oxoanions of a metal.
Answer:
(a) It may be noted that in the different oxides of the same element, the acidic strength increases with the increase in oxidation state of the element. MnO (Mn2+) is basic while Mn2O7 (Mn7+) is acidic in nature.
(b) Both oxygen and fluorine being highly electronegative can increase the oxidation state of a particular transition metal. In certain oxides, the element oxygen is involved in multiple bonding with the metal and this is responsible for the higher oxidation state of the metal. For detail, consult text part.
(c) This is also because of the high electronegativity of oxygen. For example, chromium exhibits oxidation state of (VI) in oxoanion [Cr(VI)O4]2- and manganese shows oxidation state of (VII) in oxoanion [Mn(VII)O4].

KSEEB Solutions

Question 26.
Indicate the steps in the preparation of:
(i) K2Cr2O7 from chromite ore.
(ii) KMnO4 from pyrolusite ore.
Answer:
(i) Potassium dichromate : (K2Cr2O7) is prepared from chromite ore (FeCl2O4) in the following steps.

step (1) Preparation of sodium chromate
4Fe Cr2O4 + 16 NaOH + 7O2 → 8Na2CrO4 + 2Fe2O3 + 8H2O

step (2) Conversion of sodium chromate into sodium dichromate
2Na2CrO4 + con H2SO4 → Na2Cr2O7 + Na2SO4 + H2O

step (3) Conversion of sodium dichromate to potassium dichromate
Na2Cr2O7 + 2KCl → 2Nacl + k2Cr2O7

potassium chloride is less soluble than sodium chloride is obtained in the form of orange coloured crystals and can be removed by filtration.

The dichromate ion (Cr2O72- ) exists in equilibrium with chromate (CrO42- ) ion at pH.
4. However, by changing the pH, they can be interconverted.

2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 6

(ii) Potassium permanganate : (KMnO4) can be prepared from pyrolusite (MnO2). The ore is fused with KOH in the presence of either atmospheric oxygen or an oxidising agent, such as KNO3 or KClO4 to give K2MnO4

2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 7

The green mass can be extracted with water and then oxidised either electrolytically or bypassing chlorine/ozone into the solution, electrolytic oxidation
K4MnO4 2K++ ↔️ MnO42-
H2O ↔️ H+ + OH
at anode manganate ions are oxidized to permanganate ions

2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 8

oxidation by chlorine
2K2MnO4 + Cl2 →  2KMnO4 + 2KCl
2MnO42- + Cl2 → 2 MnO4 + 2Cl

oxidation by ozone
2K2MnO4 + O3 + H2O → 2KMnO4 + 2KOH + O2
2MnO42- + O3 + H2O → 2MnO2 + 2OH + O2

KSEEB Solutions

Question 27.
What are alloys? Name an important alloy which contains some of the lanthanoid metals. Mention its uses.
Answer:
An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals and non-metals. An important alloy containing lanthanoid metals is mischmetal which contains 95% lanthanoid metals (Ce, La, and Nd) and 5% iron along with traces of S, C, Ca and Al. It is used in making parts of jet engines.

Question 28.
What are inner transition elements? Decide which of the following atomic numbers are the atomic numbers of the inner transition elements: 29, 59, 74, 95, 102, 104.
Answer:
Inner transition metals are those elements in which the last electron enters the f-orbital. The elements in which the 4f and the 5f orbitals are progressively filled are called f-block elements. Among the given atomic numbers the atomic numbers of the inner transition u elements are 59, 95, and 102.

Question 29.
The chemistry of the actinoid elements is not so smooth as that of the lanthanoids. Justify this statement by giving some examples of the oxidation state of these elements.
Answer:
The lanthanoids mostly exhibit +3 oxidation states in their compounds. Actinoid elements also normally show +3 oxidation states. But in their cases, 5f, 6d, and 7s energy levels are comparable and have very small energy differences in them. As a result, they can exhibit a number of oxidation states. For example,
Neptunium (Np) : +3, +4, +5, +6, +7
Plutonium (Pu) : +3, +4, +5, +6, +7
Americium (Am) : +3, +4, +5, +6.

Question 30
Which is the last element in the series of actinoids? Write the electronic configuration of this element. Comment on the possible oxidation state of this element.
Answer:
The last element in the actinoid series is Lawrencium. Lr. Its atomic number is 103 and its electronic configuration is [Rn] 5f14 6d17s2. The most common oxidation state displayed by it is +3 because after losing 3 electrons it attains a stable f14 configuration.

Question 31
Use Hund’s rule to derive the electronic configuration of Ce3+ ion, and calculate its magnetic moment on the basis of the ‘spin- only’ formula.
Answer:
Ce(Z = 58) = [Xe]54 4f15d16s2 ; Ce3+ = [Xe]54 4f4 (only one unpaired electron).
Magnetic moment (p) = \(\sqrt { n\left( n+2 \right) } =\sqrt { 3 } \) = 1·73 BM.

Question 32.
Name the members of the lanthanoid series which exhibit +4 oxidation states and those which exhibit +2 oxidation states. Try to correlate this type of behaviour with the electronic configurations of these elements.
Answer:
The lanthanoids that exhibit +2 and +4 states are shown in the given table. The atomic number of the elements is given in the parenthesis.
2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 9

  • Ce after forming Ce4+ attains a stable configuration of [Xe]
  • Tb after forming Tb4+ attains a stable configuration of [Xe] 4f7
  • Eu after forming Eu2+ attains a stable configuration of [Xe] 4f7
  • Yb after forming Yb2+ attains a stable configuration of [Xe] 4f14.

Question 33.
Compare the chemistry of the actinoids with that of lanthanoids with reference to :
(i) Electronic configuration
(ii) Oxidation states
(iii) Chemical reactivity.
Answer:
(i) Electronic configuration: The actinoids involve the gradual filling of 5f-subshell in their atoms. Actinium has the outer electronic configuration of 6d17s2. From thorium (Z = 90) onward 5f-subshell gets progressively filled. Because of almost equal energies of 5fand 6d-subshells, there are some doubts regarding the filling of 5fand 6d-subshells.

(ii) Oxidation states Members of the actinoid family exhibit more variable oxidation states as compared to the elements belonging to lanthanoid family. This is due to the reason that there is less energy difference in 5d, 6fand 7s orbitals belonging to actinoid family than the energy difference in 5f, 4d and 65 orbitals in case of the lanthanoid family.

(iii) Chemical reactivity: Actinoids are highly reactive metals especially when these are in finely divided form. Upon boiling with water, they form respective oxides and hydroxides. They combine with a variety of non-metals at moderate temperature. On reacting with hydrochloric acid, they form their respective chlorides.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 34.
Write the electronic configurations of the elements with the atomic numbers, 61, 91, 101, and 109.
Answer:
61 : [Xe]54 4f5 5d0 6s2
91 : [Rn]86 5f2 6d1 7s2
101 : [Rn]86 5f13 5d0 7s2
109: [Rn]86 5f14 6d7 7s2 .

Question 35
Compare the general characteristics of the first series of transition metals with those of the second and third series metals in the respective vertical columns. Give special emphasis on the following points:
(i) electronic configurations
(ii) oxidation states
(iii) ionisation enthalpies and
(iv) atomic sizes.
Answer:
(i) In the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd series of the transition metals the 3d, 4d, 5d orbitals are respectively filled.
We know that elements in the same vertical column generally have similar electronic configurations.
In the first transition series, two elements show unusual electronic configurations.

Cr (24): 3d5 4s1
Cu (29): 3d10 4s1

similarly, there are exception in 2nd transition series. These are

  • Mo (42) : 4d5 5s1
  • Tc (43) : 4d6 5s1
  • Ru (44) : 4d7 5s1
  • Rh (45) : 4d8 5s1
  • Pd (46) : 4d10 5s1
  • Ag (47) : 4d10 5s1.

There are exceptions in-3rd transition series also. These are

  • W (74) : 5d4 6s2
  • Pt (78) : 5d9 6s1
  • Au (79) :5d10 6s1

As a result of these exceptions, it happens many times that the electronic configuration of the elements presents in the same group are dissimilar.

(ii) In each of the three transition series the number of oxidation states shown by the elements is the maximum in the middle and the minimum at the extreme ends. However, +2 and +3 oxidation states are quite stable for all elements present in the first transition series. All metals present in the first transition series form stable compounds in the +2 and +3 oxidation states. The stabilities of the +2 and +3 oxidation states decrease in the second and the third transition series, wherein higher oxidation states are more important.

For example, [FeII (CN)6]4- [COIII (NH3)6]3+, [Ti(H2O)6]3+ air-stable complexes, but no such complexes are known for the second and third transition series such as Mo, W, Rh, In. They form complexes in which their oxidation states are high. For example WCl6, ReF7, RuO4 etc.

(iii) In each of the three transition series, the first ionisation enthalpy increases from left to right. However, there are some exceptions. The first ionisation enthalpies of the third transition series are higher than those of the first and second transition series. This occurs due to the poor shielding effect of 4f electrons in the third transition series.

Certain elements in the second transition series have higher first ionisation enthalpies than elements corresponding to the same vertical column in the first transition series. There are also elements in the 2nd transition series whose first ionisation enthalpies are lower than those of the elements corresponding to the same vertical column in the 1st transition series.

(iv) Atomic sizes generally decrease from left to right across a period. Now, among the three transition series, the atomic sizes of the elements in the second transition series are greater than those of the elements corresponding to the same vertical column in the first transition series. However, the atomic sizes of the elements in the third transition series are virtually the same as those of the corresponding members in the second transition series this is due to lanthanoid contraction.

Question 36.
Write down the number of 3d electrons in each of the following ions:
Ti2+ , V2+ , Cr3+ , Mn2+ , Fe2+ , Fe3+ , CO2+ , Ni2+ and Cu2+ .
Indicate how would you expect the five 5d orbitals to be occupied for these hydrated ions (octahedral).
Answer:
2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 10

Question 37.
Comment on the statement that elements of the first transition series possess many properties different from those, of heavier transition elements.
Answer:
The above-mentioned statement is true, because
(a) Atomic radii of the heavier transition elements (4d and 5d series) are larger than .those of the corresponding elements of the first transition series though those of Ad and 5d series are very close to each other.
(b) Melting and boiling points of heavier transition elements are greater than those of the first transition series due to stronger intermetallic bonding.
(c) Enthalpies of atomisation of 4d and 5d series are higher than the corresponding elements of the first series.
(d) Ionization enthalpies of the 5d series are higher than the corresponding elements of the 3d and 4 d series.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 38.
What can be inferred from the magnetic moment values of the following complex species?
2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 11
Answer:
Magnetic moment (μ) is given as

2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 12
For transition metals, the magnetic moment is calculated from the spin only formula Therefore
\(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) = 2.2

we can see from the above calculation that the given value is closest to n – 1. Also, in this complex,. Mn is in the +2 oxidation state. This means that Mn has 5 electrons in the d orbital. Hence, we can say that CN is a strong ligand that causes the pairing of electrons.

(ii) [Fe (H2O)6]2+
We. can see from the above calculation that µ= 5.3 is closest to the value when n = 4. Also, in this complex, Fe is in the +2 oxidation state. This means that Fe has 6 electrons in the d orbital. Hence, we can say that H2O is a weak field ligand and does not cause the pairing of e s.

(iii) K2 [Mncl4]
we can see that |X= 5.9 is closest to the value when n = 5. Also, in this computer, Mn is in the +2 oxidation state. This means that Mn has 5 electrons in the d-orbital. Hence we can say that Cl- is a weak ligand and does not cause the pairing of electrons.

2nd PUC Chemistry The d-and f-Block Elements Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Some d-block elements are given below.
(Cr, Mn, Fe, Co, Ni)
(a) Identify the element which shows maximum paramagnetic behaviour.
(b) Give a reason for the highest paramagnetic property of that element.
(c) When two electrons are lost from each atom, is there any change in the magnetic properties of each? Explain?
Answer:
(a) Cr
(b) Cr- 4s1 3d5
Mn – 4s2 3d5 .
Fe – 4s2 3d6
Co – 4s2 3d7
Ni – 4s2 3d8

Since there are six unpaired electrons in Cr, it has the maximum paramagnetic behaviour.
(c) Cr2+ →3d4
Mn2+ → 3d5
Fe2+ → 3d6
CO2+ → 3d7
Ni2+ → 3d8
when two electrons are lost, Mn2+ contains maximum number of unpaired electrons ie., Mn2+ is the ion with maximum paramagnetic behaviour. Cr2+ and Fe2+ show similar paramagnetism and so on.

Question 2.
On experimentation, it is found that, when salts of Cu+ ions are placed in a magnetic field, they are repelled by the magnetic field but that of Fe2+ ions are attracted by a magnetic field.

  1. Briefly explain the chemistry behind it.
  2. When the magnetic moment of a substance is determined, it shows a magnetic moment of 3.87 BM. How many unpaired electrons does it contain?
  3. Most of the d-block elemental ions are paramagnetic. Why?

Answer:
1. The salt of Cu+ ions is diamagnetic due to the absence of unpaired electrons while due to the presence of unpaired electrons in Fe2+, Fe2+ ions are paramagnetic and strongly attracted by the magnetic field.

2. Magnetic moment µ = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\)
But µ = 3.87 BM
ie., \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) = 3.87
n(n + 2) = (3.87)2 = 15
This is possible when n = 3
ie., The substance contains 3 unpaired electrons.

3. Most of the d block elemental ions have unpaired electrons in the (n-1) d orbitals. Due to the presence of unpaired electrons in d orbitals, the transition metal ions become paramagnetic.

Question 3.
(a) What is blue Vitriol? How is it useful in detecting the presence of water vapour?
(b) When a magnetic field is applied, certain substances are attracted by the applied field. Those are called paramagnetic substances. Which is more paramagnetic Mn2+ or Cu2+? Why?
Answer:
(a) CuSO4 5H2O is known as blue vitriol. Anhydrous copper sulphate is used for detecting the presence of water vapour. Water vapour converts white anhydrous copper sulphate to blue hydrated copper sulphate.
2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 13

(b) As the number of unpaired electrons increases, paramagnetism increases.
Mn → [Ar] 4s2 3d5 and Mn2+ → 3d5
Cu → [Ar] 4s1 3d10 and Cu2+ →3d9

Mn2+ contains five unpaired d-electrons and
Cu2+ contains an only unpaired electron.
∴ Mn2+ is more paramagnetic than 2+.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
(a) What do you observe when a dilute solution of KMnO4 is added in drops to a hot solution of dilute H2SO4? Is there any difference in observation when dilute KMnO4 is added to a mixture of hot dilute H2SO4 and oxalic acid?
(b) In the periodic table the atomic size increases down a group due to an increase in the number of shells. But 40Zn and 72HF in the 5th and 6th period respectively have almost identical radii explain?
Answer:
(a) When dilute KMnO4 is added to a mixture of hot dilute H2SO4 and oxalic acid, brisk effervescence is formed due to the formation of CO2.
2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 14
In the first case, there is no characteristic observation

(b) The 4d and 5d series of transition elements in each group have the same atomic radii. This is due to lanthanide contraction.
The steady decrease in the size of the atoms or ions from lanthanum to lutetium is known as lanthanide contraction.

As the atomic number increases in the lanthanide series, the new electron goes to the inner 4f orbitals. The shielding effect of a 4f electron is poor. As a result, the attraction of the outer electrons by the nucleus increases and this tends to a decrease in size.

Question 5.
Mn exhibits a large number of oxidation states in its compounds. Which is the highest oxidation state?
Name an industrially important compound you have studied in which Mn is in its highest oxidation state. How is that compound manufactured?
Answer:
In KMnO4, Mn exhibits the highest oxidation state of +7.
Oxygen and fluorine act as strong oxidising agents because of their high electronegativities and small sizes. Hence, they bring out the highest oxidation states from the transition metals. In other words, a transition metal exhibits oxidation states in oxides and fluorides. For example, in OsF6 and V2O5, the oxidation states of Os and V are + 6 and respectively.

Question 6.
(a) What may be the possible oxidation states of the transition metals with the following d electronic configurations for the ground state of their atoms 3d3 4s2, 3d5 4s2, and 3d6 4s2. Indicate the relative stability of oxidation states in each case.
(b) Write steps involved in the preparation of
(i) Na2CrO4 from chromite ore and
(ii) K2MnO4 from pyrolusite ore.
Answer:
(a) The most stable oxidation state for 3d3 4s2 = +5
The most stable oxidation state for 3d5 4s2 = +7, +2
The most stable oxidation state for 3d6 4s2 = +2
In a transition series, the oxidation states which ‘ lead to exactly half-filled or completely filled d- orbitals are more stable. It shows that oxidation states +2 to +7 is most stable.

(b) i. The powdered chromite ore is heated with sodium carbonate in presence of air to get yellow coloured sodium chromite.
2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements - 15
ii. Finally powdered pyrolusite is fused with KOH in the presence of air to give green coloured potassium manganate

2MnO2 + 4 KOH +O2 → 2K2MnO4 + 2H2O.

Question 7.
Write complete chemical equations for
(i) Oxidation of Fe2+ by Cr2O72- in acid medium
(ii) Oxidation S2O32- by MnO4in a neutral aqueous medium
Answer:
(i) Acidified potassium dichromate oxidises iron (II) salt to iron (III)
Cr2O72- + 14H + 6Fe2+ → 2Cr3+ + 6Fe3+ + 7H2O
(ii) In natural aqueous medium, thiosulphate
8MnO4+ 3s2O32- + H2O → 8MnO2+ 65O4 + 2OH

Question 8.
How would you account for the following situations
(i) The transition metals generally form coloured compounds.
(ii) With 3d4 configuration, Cr2+ acts as a reducing agent but Mn3+ acts as an oxidising agent (Atomic masses, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
(iii) The actinoids exhibit a larger number of oxidation states than the corresponding lanthanoids.
Answer:
(i) Colour of compounds of transition elements depends upon the unpaired electrons present in d orbitals of transition elements. If d orbitals are completely vacant as in Sc3+, Ti4+ or completely filled as in Cu2+, Zn2+, the compounds will be colourless. But if any unpaired electron is present in d-orbitals, the compound will be coloured due to d → d transition. The unpaired electron is excited from one energy level to another energy level within the same d subshell. For this purpose (d → d transition), the energy is absorbed from the visible region of radiation and reflected light will decide the colour of the compound.

(ii) Cr2+ is strongly reducing in nature. It has a d4 configuration. While acting as a reducing agent, it gets oxidised to Cr3+ (electronic configuration d3). This d3 configuration can be written as a t23 configuration, which is a more stable configuration. In the case of Mn3+ (d4) it Mn2+ (d5). This has an exactly half-filled d – orbital and is highly stable.
(iii) Actinoids show a large number of oxidation states because of the small energy gap between 5f, 6d, and 7s subshells.

KSEEB Solutions

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Kannada Sandhigalu

Students can Download Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Kannada Sandhigalu, Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Solutions, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Kannada Sandhigalu

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Kannada Sandhigalu 1

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 8 Vyakarana Kannada Sandhigalu 2

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Gadya Chapter 4 Parisara Samatholana

Students can Download Kannada Lesson 4 Parisara Samatholana Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Gadya Bhaga Chapter 4 Parisara Samatholana

Parisara Samatholana Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Gadya Chapter 4 Parisara Samatholana 1

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Gadya Chapter 4 Parisara Samatholana 2
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Gadya Chapter 4 Parisara Samatholana 3
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Gadya Chapter 4 Parisara Samatholana 4

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Gadya Chapter 4 Parisara Samatholana 5
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Gadya Chapter 4 Parisara Samatholana 6
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Gadya Chapter 4 Parisara Samatholana 7

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Gadya Chapter 4 Parisara Samatholana 8
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Gadya Chapter 4 Parisara Samatholana 9

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Gadya Chapter 4 Parisara Samatholana 10
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Gadya Chapter 4 Parisara Samatholana 11

Parisara Samatholana Summary in Kannada

Parisara Samatholana Summary in Kannada 1
Parisara Samatholana Summary in Kannada 2
Parisara Samatholana Summary in Kannada 3

Parisara Samatholana Summary in Kannada 4
Parisara Samatholana Summary in Kannada 5
Parisara Samatholana Summary in Kannada 6

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura

Students can Download Kannada Lesson 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Bhaga Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura

Bedagina Tana Jayapura Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 1

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 2
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 3

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 4
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 5
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 6
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 7

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 8
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 9
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 10
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 11

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 12
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 13
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 14

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 15
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 16
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 9 Solutions Gadya Chapter 2 Bedagina Tana Jayapura 17

Bedagina Tana Jayapura Summary in Kannada

Bedagina Tana Jayapura Summary in Kannada 1

Bedagina Tana Jayapura Summary in Kannada 2
Bedagina Tana Jayapura Summary in Kannada 3
Bedagina Tana Jayapura Summary in Kannada 4

Bedagina Tana Jayapura Summary in Kannada 5
Bedagina Tana Jayapura Summary in Kannada 6

2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 7 Introduction To Macro Economics

You can Download Chapter 7 Introduction To Macro Economics Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Economics Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Economics Question Bank Chapter 7 Introduction To Macro Economics

2nd PUC Economics Introduction To Macro Economics One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Macro economics?
Answer:
Macro-economics refers to the study of aggregates covering the entire economy, such as General price, General employment, National Income, Inflation etc.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Who traced Macro economics first?
Answer:
The mercantalists traced Macro economics first.

Question 3.
What do you mean by ‘laissez faire’ policy?
Answer:
It is the policy to leave the economic activities to market. Here the role of Government is minimum. It also refers to minimum intervention of Government in economic activities.

Question 4.
Which policy was proved wrong by the Great Depression?
Answer:
The Great depression of 1930 proved that the Classical Economic Policy was wrong.

Question 5.
Name the book written by J.M.Keynes.
Answer:
J.M.Keynes wrote ‘The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money’.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Who laid the foundation for modern Macro-economics?
Answer:
J.M.Keynes laid the foundation for Macro economics.

KSEEB Solutions

2nd PUC Economics Introduction To Macro Economics Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by nature of Macro-economics?
Answer:
The way of solution to economic problems is called nature of macro economics. The nature of macro economics explains the central essence of economy. It includes all economic activities and helps to understand how an economy functions in different situations.

Question 2.
Name any two areas of study under Macro economics.
Answer:
Areas of Macro-economics study are National Income. Aggregate employment, inflation, Investment etc.

Question 3.
Who were the pioneers in Micro and Macro economics?
Answer:
Alfred Marshall and John Maynard Keynes were the pioneers in Micro and Macro economies respectively.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
How does Macro economics depend on Micro economics?
Answer:
Usually, Macro economic variables depend on Micro economic variables in an economy. For instance, Aggregate demand function is the sum of individual demand function. Hence, Macro economics depends on Micro economics.

Question 5.
Define Macro Economics.
Answer:
According to P.A.Samuelson, Macro Economics is ‘The study of the behaviour of the economy as a whole, it examines the overall level of nation’s output, employment, prices and foreign trade’.

Question 6.
Mention any four limitations of Macro Economics.
Answer:

  1. Danger of excessive generalizations.
  2. Neglect of Micro Economics.
  3. Does not prove clear picture of an economy.
  4. Statistical and conceptual difficulties.

2nd PUC Economics Introduction To Macro Economics Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish between Micro and Macro Economics.
Answer:
Micro and Macro economics are distinguished on the following grounds:
Scope: Micro Economics studies in individual units so its scope is narrow.
Macro Economics studies in aggregates, so its scope is wider.

Method of study: Micro economics follows slicing method as it studies individual unit Macro Economics follows lumping method as it studies in aggregates.

Economic Agents: In Micro Economics, each individual economic agent thinks about its own interest and welfare.
In Macro Economics, economic agents are different among individual economic agents and their goal is to get maximum welfare of a country.

Equilibrium: Micro economics studies the partial equilibrium in the country. Macro Economics studies the general equilibrium in the economy.

Domain: Micro economics consists of theories like consumer’s behaviour, production and cost Rent. Wages, Interest, etc.

Macro economics comprises of theory of income, output and employment. Consumption function, Investment function, Inflation, etc.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Discuss the circumstances for the emergence of Macro Economic study.
Answer:
According to R.G.D.Allen, the term ‘Macro economics’ applies to the relation amongst broad economic aggregates. It is the study of aggregates such as total employment, unemployment, national income, national output, total investment, total consumption, etc.

The emergence of modern Macro economics got a turning point in 1936 when J.M.Keynes published his book, ‘The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money’. The economic thoughts before 1930, were dominated by classical economists like Adam Smith, J.B.Say, and others. They had maximum faith on Laissez Faire policy i.e., minimum intervention of Government. More scope was given to free economic activities and invisible hands to ensure equilibrium and full employment.

In 1930, USA had to face a great economic depression, which proved that the classical economic policy is wrong and necessitated the new economic policies and interpretation and analysis of Macro-economics. J.M.Keynes gave a fresh and revolutionary approach through his book ‘General Theory’. Macro economic approach came into existence during this juncture. The same was supported by neo-classical Macro economics, supply side economics and neo- Keynesian economics.

Question 3.
What are the limitations of Macro-Economics? Or ‘Although Macro-economics has gained maximum popularity, yet it is not free from limitations’. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Macro economics is the study of aggregates. It provides valuable information about different economic activities. But it is not free from defects or limitations. They main limitations of Macro economics are as follows:

  • Excessive generalization of facts: The major limitation of Macro economics is its excessive generalization of facts. What is true of an individual.component may not be true in case of aggregate.
  • To regard Aggregates as homogeneous: The main defect in Macro analysis is that it regards the aggregates as homogeneous without caring about their internal composition and structure.
  • It does not provide a clear picture: The study of Macro economics does not provide clear picture about the economy. It analyses the economy in a brief manner instead of detailed study. So it does not provide a clear picture.
  • Statistical and conceptual difficulties: The measurement of macroeconomic concepts involves a number of statistical and conceptual difficulties. These problems relate to the aggregation of micro economic variables.
  • Problem of Aggregation: The economic aggregates become immeasurable and incomparable in real terms. So, it is very difficult to provide aggregate values of a particular variable.
  • Macro economics is based on imaginary inferences: The conclusions drawn from aggregate tendency may not be true in case of individual study. For example, a general rise in price brings different situations for different sections of society.
  • Macro-economics depends on Micro economics: Macro economic variables depend on the behaviour of Micro economic variables in the economy. Aggregate demand in the economy is simply the sum of demand at the micro level.

KSEEB Solutions

2nd PUC Economics Introduction To Macro Economics Ten Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss the nature and scope of Macro-economics.
Answer:
Macro economics explains the central theme of the economy. It studies the economic activities as a whole. It is useful to understand functioning of an economy in different situations. The way of solution is called the nature of Macro economics.

The nature of Macro economics is discussed as under:

  • Macro economics deals with how to generate and spend the income through production of goods and services.
  • It deals with how to allocate the human resources and natural resources in different economic sectors to increase the level of GDP.
  • It provides information about how and what policies regarding production, income, expenditure be formulated for the growth and development of an economy.
  • It considers the formulation of relevant policies towards foreign trade for the benefit of the entire country.
  • Macro economics helps us to know how the different variables like output level, price level and employment level bear close relationship.

The scope of Macro economics:

The scope of Macro economics means the study of areas under macro-economics. The Macro-economic approach includes the wide range of economic variables like national income, aggregate employment, money general price level, aggregate demand and supply, consumption. investment, etc. They are the important components of the subject matter of Macro economics.

  • It includes Major Sectors: The economy has many interdependent sectors like household sector, producer sector, Public sector, external sector. Each sector plays a significant role in an economy.
  • Study of National Income: In Macro economics, we study National Income and the concepts of National Income. Here we study GDP, GNP, NNP, NDP, Personal Income etc.
  • General Theory of Employment: The theory of employment includes the determinants of employment and unemployment. It studies the factors like aggregate demand, aggregate supply, aggregate consumption, aggregate savings etc.
  • Theory of general price: Inflation and deflation are the important ingredients of Macro economics. It provides information about rise and fall in general price levels.
  • Demand and supply of Money: Macro economics studies the demand and supply of money and their impact on the level of employment and production. It includes monetary policies, fiscal policies, foreign policy etc.
  • Study of International Trade: The Macro economics studies international trade. The international trade deals with export, import, exchange rate and balance of payment.

Thus, the scope of Macro economics is wider and studies the factors that retard growth and those which bring the economy on the path of economic development.

KSEEB Solutions

error: Content is protected !!