2nd PUC

Students can Download 2nd PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper June 2015, Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper June 2015

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in one sentence each: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
State the total population of the world according to 2012.
Answer:
World population as per 2012 was Seven billion.

Question 2.
What is an Industry?
Answer:
The process of conversion of raw materials into finished goods employing machinery and man power is called as industry.

Question 3.
What is Water Transport?
Answer:
The method of carrying goods and passengers on boats, ships, steamers etc on water from place to place is water transport.

Question 4.
What is a Megacity?
Answer:
Megacity is a metropolitan area with a total population of more than 10 million.

Question 5.
Which State recorded the highest literacy in India?
Answer:
Kerala is the state which has recorded the highest literacy rate with 93.91%.

Question 6.
What is Irrigation?
Answer:
The supplying of water to the crops through various means like canals, tanks etc is irrigation.

Question 7.
Which is the highest coffee producing state in India?
Answer:
Karnataka is the highest coffee producing state in India.

Question 8.
Name the metal which is made of bauxite ore.
Answer:
Aluminium is the metal which is made from bauxite ore.

Question 9.
Which city of India is known as Silicon Valley?
Answer:
Bengaluru is called the silicon valley of India.

Question 10.
Which is the Headquarters of South-Western Railway?
Answer:
Mumbai (Church gate).

II. Answer any ten questions in 2 to 3 sentences each: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
Name the types of Human Economic Activities.
Answer:

• Primary activities
• Secondary activities
• Teritiary activities
• Quaternary activities.

Question 12.
Give the importance of Industries.
Answer:

• They provide employment to a lot of people.
• They help to modernize the agricultural sector by providing tractors, fertilisers, manures and scientific technology.

Question 13.
Give two examples of administration towns.
Answer:

• New Delhi
• Canberra

Question 14.
Name the types of migration.
Answer:

• Internal migration
• International migration

Question 15.
What is Green Revolution?
Answer:
Increase in food production through the introduction of high yield crop varieties and application of modem agricultural techniques is called Green Revolution.

Question 16.
Mention the types of coal.
Answer:
The types of coal are as follows.

• Anthracite
• Lignite
• Bituminous
• Peat

Question 17.
Which minerals are used for producing Nuclear Energy?
Answer:

• Uranium
• Thorium
• Plutonium

 

Question 18.
Mention the importance of Aluminium.
Answer:

• It is light weight strong and rust resistant,
• It is used in aircrafts, automobiles.
• It is mainly used in electrical industry as it is a good conductor of electricity.

Question 19.
Name the two air transports in India.
Answer:

• Internal Air transport or The Indian Airlines.
• International Air transport or The Air India.

Question 20.
Mention the advantages of Television.
Answer:

• Television educates millions of people through advertisement.
• It is a source of entertainment.
• It makes a personal appeal and transmits messages directly into the homes of the viewers.
• Events happening at different parts of the world can be seen within minutes or even seconds thanks to news coverage.

Question 21.
Name the types of pollution.
Answer:

•  Air pollution
• Water pollution
• Land pollution
• Noise pollution

Question 22.
What are the causes of Air pollution?
Ans:

• Increased use of varieties of fuels such as coal, petrol and diesel in vehicles and machines.
• Increase in emission of toxic gases from industrial activities.
• Mining activities release dust in the air.
• Important pollutants such as hydrocarbons, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide which lead to air pollution.

III. Answer any eight of the following questions in 25 to 30 sentences each: (5 x 8 = 40)

Question 23.
Explain the importance of Human Geography.
Answer:
Scope of human Geography:
As early societies became more successful in meeting their need with in permanent settlements.

• The rise of agriculture activities resource extra and manufacturing activities led to more complex economic and political boundaries were created and more settlement grew into towns and cities.
• The physical environment also changed with the influence of modem urbanize and industrialized world that we known today.
• One of the greatest challenges faced by humans today is how to manage energy resource in a sustainable fashion without inflicting permanent damage to environment in the form of land, air, water, pollution and climatic changes.

Importance of Human Geography:

• It clarifies the societies and cultures in different ^locations.
• The great diversity reflects through the fashion life.
• Which realizes carrying capacity of the Earth.
• It helps us to understand circumstances affecting people and nation.
• It is helpful to the planners, administrations, Industrialists and others. ’

Question 24.
Explain the growth of population in the world.
Answer:

• The growth of population refers to the increases in the number of inhabitants of a country during specific period.
• It is estimated that the world population reached one billion for the first time in 1804.
• Due to the impact of the industrial revolution & improvement in living standards, the rate of population growth increased two billion in 1927.
• At present estimate of 2013 the globe is inhabited by 7121 million population.
• During the begining of 20th century the world population was only 2 billion and centum ended with 6 billion. It continues to grow even in the 21st century.

Stages of Population growth:
I Three billion – July 1959
II Four billion – April 1974
III Five billion – July 1987
IV Six billion – October 1999
V Seven billion – 12th March 2012.

Question 25.
Explain the stages of Demographic Cycle.
Answer:
Demographic cycle is the process of population transformation from the countries of high birth rate and high death rates to low birth rate & low death rate countries.
Stages of Demographic cycle:
1. First stage: High birth rate and high death is found when the country is economically most backward, so the population remains stationary. India was in the stage till 1920.

2. Second stage (Early expanding): It begins with the declining of death rate while the birth rate remains unchanged. These changes due to the advancement of science & technology, basic healthcare and education etc. At present many developing countries of Asia & Africa are in this stage.

3. Third stage (Late expanding): Death rate declines and birth rate begins to fall due to access of contraceptives, urbanization, an increase in the status and women education etc India appears to be this stage.

4. Fourth stage (Low stationary): It is characterized with low birth rate and low death rate. Growth is stationary due to changing life style, high obesity and many diseases are. caused in this stage. Japan, Sweden, Belgium Denmark & Switzerland are in this stage.

5. Fifth stage(DecIining): Population begins to decline or birth rate is lower than deathrate. East European countries like Germany and Hungary and North European countries like Sweden, Norway are now in this stage.

Question 26.
Explain the world distribution of Railways.
Answer:
Europe has the highest density of rail. Network in the world. It has about 4,40,000 kms of railway track.

• Marmary is the first continental under water railway line. It is between Asia and Europe. It is about 13Kms through Bosporus strait (sea of Marama) & was opened in 2013.
• Railways are more in Russia. From Moscow major lines radiating to different parts of the Country.
• North America has one of the most extensive rail Networks accounting for nearly 40% of the World’s total.
• Chile rail route connects the coastal centres, mining centres as well as interior. Peru, Bolivia, Eurador, Colombia, Venezuela.
• In Asia rail Network is the most dense in Japan, China & India. Japan has 20,035 kms of rail routes.
• Africa has 82,000 kms of Railway route in which 18000 kms lies in South Africa alone due to the concentration of gold, diamond and copper mines. Africa has many major railway route which connects Benguela, Katanga, Zambia, Botswana, Zimbabwe.
• The Tranzam-great Churn railway is connecting the Copper mines of Zambia with the port of Dar-es-Salam of Tanzania.
• The Benguela railway links the Copper mines of Zaire with the Atlantic coast ports via Angola.
• The Blue train run for from Cape Town to Pretoria in the republic of South Africa.
• The Algeria, Senegal, Nigeria, Kenya, Ethiopia railway lines connects the port cities to interior centres.

Question 27.
Explain the factors affected on Human development Index in India.
Answer:
Factors influencing on HDI of India are discussed below:
1. Birth and Death Rate: Declining of birth rate has been much slower than that of the death rate. This results in rapid increase of population. It affects on slow economic growth of the country. It is the main cause for declining of human development index.

2. Life Expectancy: Life Expectancy has gone up 65.77 years for males 67.95 years females respectively in 2011-12. This is due to the consequence of the expansion of food security and medical facilities. It helps to raise the HDI in the country.

3. Food and Nutrition: According to the 2011 Global Hunger Index (GHI) report, India has 15th rank among the leading countries with hunger situation.

• The World Bank estimates that India is one of the highest-ranking countries in the World for the number of children suffering from malnutrition.
• It is adversely affecting the Human development.

4. Literacy: Education is the key for socio-economic progress. The Indian literacy rate grew to 74.04% in 2011 from 12% at the end of the British rule in 1947. The large proportion of illiterate females is another reason for the low literacy rate in India. Due to this there is decline in the Human development Index of the country.

5. Poverty :

• India suffers from a lot of Poverty which means that many people here do not have enough money.
• Poverty has reflected in poor quality of life, hunger, malnutrition, illiteracy and consequent low level of human development.

Question 28.
Explain the trend of population growth in India.
Answer:
The Population growth in India between 1901 and 2011 can be divided ‘into four stages as
follows.
1. 1901 – 1921 Stagnant population growth.
2. 1921 -1951 Steady growth.
3. 1951 – 1981 Rapid high growth.
4. 1981 -2011 High growth with definite signs of slowing down.

1. In the first stage: In this decade, population growth was naturally curbed with the outbreak of Plague, Cholera. Malaria, influenza and other epidemics. Thus the decade is considered as ‘the great divide in the history of Indian Census

2. In the second stage: The population can be considered as moderate The population • grow ing from about 251 million (1921) to 361 million (3951), an increase of about 110
million. The main reason was decline in death rate due to control of epidemics like Plague, Cholera etc.

3. The third stage: is very important, because of the growth rate of population is very high. The Population grew from .361 million (195 1) to 686 (1981). an increase of about 325 million The growth has been very rapid after independence. The government of India was implemented many Socio-Economical Programs in all sectors.

4. The fourth stage: It completely differs from other three stages. Here the trend of growth rate of population is gradually slowing down. We can easily justify that, the period from 1981 to 2011 is referred to as a high growth with definite signs of slowing down.

Question 29.
Explain the Canal Irrigation in India.
Answer:
India has one of the largest canal systems of the world. Canals are the second largest source of irrigation in the country.
Canals are of two types :
1. Inundation canals : taken out directly from rivers, without making any barrage or dam.

2. Perennial canals: which are taken out from the reservoirs by constructing barrage or weir to regulate the flow of water.

• Canal irrigation is widely practiced in the Sutlej Gangas plains and the deltas of the peninsular rivers.
• Nearly 79% of India’s canals irrigated area lies in Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh,Haryana, Punjab, Madhya Pradesh etc.
• Uttar Pradesh ranks first in India where canal irrigation is most extensive. Canal irrigation suffers from a number of draw-backs such as water logging, increase in water table, alkalinity of soils due to capillary action etc.

Question 30.
Explain about Rain Water Harvesting.
Answer:

• Controlling the runoff of rain water and make it to perculate to increase ground water table for future purpose.
• It involves collection and storage of rainwater at surface or in sub-surface aquifier, before it is lost as surface runoff. It not only increases water availability but also checks the declining water table.

Objectives: The following are the main objectives of rain water harvesting.

• It checks runoff water & avoid flooding.
• It replenishes the ground water table and enables the wells.
• It helps to overcome the adequancy of surface water to meet demand of water.
• If the ground water is blackish, it will reduce the salinity.
• It also reduces ground water contamination and improve water quality.
• It helps to increase agricultural product and improves ecology of an area.

Methods of Rain Water Harvesting :
1. In-situ method The method of percolating the rain at the point of its fall itself is called In-situ rainwater harvesting.
For example

• Infiltration pits: The rain water can be collected and stored in pits, dug in farm lands and used for irrigation.
• Contour bunds and trenches: The Construction of bunds, trenches or check dams.
• Roof top water harvesting : The Rain water that falls on the roofs of buildings or in courtyards is collected and stored in underground. Sumps, or wells or in drums and used for domestic purpose such as cleaning, washing etc.

2. Ex-situ method: This method of rainwater harvesting involves storing of running water. It is collected in check dams, huge percolation tanks etc. It is an expensive method.

Question 31.
Explain the importance of Agriculture in India.
Answer:
Agriculture is the most important Primary activity and the oldest occupation of human beings in India.

• Main source of livelihood: About 70% of the people directly and indirectly depend on agriculture for their Livelihood.
• Food supply: Agriculture provides food grains, fruits, vegetables, spices etc to the people and fodder for the animals.
• Provides employment facilities: Agriculture is largest sector providing highest employment.
• Source of National income: It contributes to the national income .of the country.
• Source of raw materials for Agro-based-industries ex: Raw cotton, sugar cane and Jute.
• Source of large amount of revenue to the government.
• Support to tertiary sector like transport, communication, banking, insurance etc.
• Help to internal trade like Agricultural products are transported from the area of surplus production to the area scarcity.
• Support to export, many agricutlural products produced in the country are exported i.e. tea, coffee, Jute, Tobacco etc.
• Political & Social situation in the country is determined by the agricultural production

Question 32.
Explain the production and distribution of cotton in India.
Answer:
Production and distribution of cotton in India:
Cotton is grown in different parts of the country. Gujarat, Maharastra, Andhra Pradesh and Haryana are the major cotton producing states.

1. Gujarat: Gujarat is the largest producer of cotton in India, which is due to the better yield per hectare i.e 689 kg per hectare. Bharuch, Surendemagar, Vadodara and Ahmedabad are the important cotton growing districts.

2. Maharashtra: Maharashtra ranks first in cotton growing area and it stands second in the production of raw cotton in the country. Over 80% of its cotton production comes from Khandesh, Vidarbha and Marathwada regions.

3. Andhra Pradesh: It is the third largest producer of cotton in India. The leading cotton producing districts are Guntur, Prakasam, Adilabad, Kurnool and Anantapur.

4. Haryana: Haryana stands in the fourth place of cotton production in India. It has the highest yield per hectare of cotton in the country i.e. 703 kg. Gurgoan, Hissar, Rohtak and are the major districts.

Question 33.
Explain the various types of roads in India.
Answer:
Classification of roads: In India, roads are of the following types.

1. National highways,
2. State highways,
3. District roads and
4. Village roads.

Besides these, there are border roads and International highways linking major Indian cities with the capitals of other neighbouring countries.

National highways:

• They connect the capitals of the states, industrial centres and major ports.
• They are well planned wide roads with two-lane, four-lane, and six-fane roads. Both construction and maintenance are carried out by the Central Government and National Highway Authority of India [NHAI],
• The total length of the national highways is about 71,772 km as per 2011.
• (i) The Golden Quadrilateral,
  (ii) The North South and East West corridors,
  (iii) Port connectivity with industries are all parfbf this network.

1. Golden Quadrilateral Super Highway: The Government of India has implemented a major road development project linking Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai by six-lane super high-ways. It has a total length of 5846 kms and it is called as Golden Quadrilateral Super Highway.

2. North – South and East-West corridors: This project connects Srinagar (JK) in the North with Kanyakumari (TN) in the South and Silcher (Assam) in the East with Porbandar (Gujarat) in the West covering major cities along the way. The project has a total length of 7300 km.

3. Port connectivity project: This is also included in the programmes of NHAI. This project connects the Golden Quadrilateral roads with the 13 major ports (380 km) and other projects (962 km). This is still in progress.

4. State Highways: The State Highways connect the important cities of the state with its capital, with the national highways and link with other state capitals. The State Government is responsible for the construction and maintenance of the State Highways. Now there are about 1.54, 522 km length of the state highways in the country.

5. District roads: These roads connect the production and marketing centres with the highways, railways, towns and larger villages with the district headquarters. The Zilla Parishad takes the responsibility of the development and maintenance of these roads.

6. Village roads: Roads which link the taluk headquarters with villages and the district highways are called village roads. They are mostly untarred or metalled. They are constructed and maintained by Taluk Panchayats and Village Panchayats.

7. Border roads: Border roads are constructed in the border areas of the country. They are constructed in the North and North eastern border areas adjoining Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh. These are mainly for army movement in the defence of the country.

8. International highways: Some of the national highways of the country have been linked with the international highways of the neighbouring countries.

Question 34.
Write about the causes of Water Pollution and effects of Water Pollution.
Answer:
Causes of water pollution: Water pollution is caused by natural and human sources.

• Natural sources of water pollution are due to erosion, landslides, gases, soil, minerals.
• Human excreta, waste created by animals and other living organisms and rotting vegetation are also some causes. More than natural sources, water pollution is largely caused by human activities.
• Humans pollute water through industrial, agricultural and cultural activities. Among these, industry is the worst culprit.
• Industries produce a variety of waste products including industrial wastes, polluted water wastes, poisonous gases, chemical residuals, numerous heavy metals, dust, smoke etc.,
• Most of the industrial wastes are disposed off by running water. Consequently poisonous elements reach the lakes, river and other water bodies, which destroy them.
• Reservoirs -They in turn destroy the bio-systems of the water. Major water polluting industries are leather, pulp and paper, textiles and chemicals.
• Fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides, farm wastes and mineral particles from agricultural lands are washed down and end up in rivers, lakes and tanks.
• The chemicals also infiltrate into the soil to reach the ground water.
• Addition of fertilizer increases the nitrate content of surface waters.
• Religious and cultural activities like pilgrimages, fairs, tourism, immersion of idols after pujas etc., also cause water pollution,
• Urban activities such as improper sewage disposal also cause water pollution.
• Effects of water pollution: Water pollutants adversely affect the health of humans, animals and aquatic life.
• Water pollution is a source of various water borne diseases like diarrhoea, intestinal worms, hepatitis etc.
• World health organization shows that about one fourth of the communicable diseases in India are diseases water borne.

IV. Answer any one of the following: (1 × 10 = 10)

Question 35.
Describe the non-conventional energy resources in India.
Answer:

The Power resources other than the traditional fossil and Mineral sources are known as ‘Non Conventional Power Resources’. They include Solar energy, Wind energy, Bio-gas, Sea waves, Biomass and geo-thermal etc. These reasources are inexhaustible and renewable in nature.
Importance :

• These Power resources are found in abudance, pollution free, eco-friendly and not harm to the eco-system.
• They can be very conveniently supplied to urban as well as rural areas.
• In India conventional power resources are inadequate. Recently the rate of energy consumption has been increased.
• Hence there is urgent need to harness other alternative power resources.
• Top priority has been given for the development of non-conventional power resources.
• They are capable of solving the requirements. Such as supply of energy in decentralized manner and have sustainable environment.
• Thus the development of the these power resources is very essential.

Question 36.
Explain the localization factors of industries.
Answer:
Some important factors are:

• Raw materials Industries are set up close to or in the regions where raw materials is available.
• Power Resources Power is essential for running the machinery of industries and influences much on the industrial location.
• Water supply Large quantities of water essential for the processing of raw materials or for cooling purposes. Therefore industries are usually localized near rivers or lakes.
• Climate: Industries are influenced by climate. For example Cotton textile industry requires humid climate.
• Labour Cheap and efficient labour is required to work in the industries.
• MarketNearness to market is essential for quick marketing of manufactured goods.
• Transportation It is necessary to carry raw materials to the factories and to carry finished products to the markets as well.
• Capital Development of Industries requires large capital investment.
• Government must have favourable policies such as tax exemptions electricity and sites at concessional rates, subsidies, rail-link, improved roads etc.

V. Answer any two of the following: (2 x 10 = 20)

Question 37.
Represent the following data by a Pie diagram

Types of Railway Gauges	Percentage
Broad gauge Meter gauge Narrow gauge	86 10 04
Total	100

Answer
Broad gauge = \(\frac { 86 }{ 100 }\) × 360 = 309.6
Meter gauge = \(\frac { 10 }{ 100 }\) × 360 = 36
Narrow gauge = \(\frac { 4 }{ 100 }\) × 360 = \(\frac { 14.4 }{ 360 }\)

38.
Construct a simple line graph to represent the following data.
India : Selected Statewise Rice Production (in percentage)

States	Production %
West Bengal	15.80
Andhra Pradesh	12.71
Uttar Pradesh	11.91
Punjab	10.86
Odissa	7.31
Karnataka	3.70

Answer:

Question 39.
Construct a simple bar graph to represent the following data:
India : Decadewise Sugarcane Production (in million tonnes)

Year	Production (in million tonnes)
1961	110.00
1971	126.36
1981	156.24
1991	241.04
2001	286.00
2011	310.00

Answer:

Blind Candidates only

Question 40.
Answer any two of the following questions: (2 x 10 = 20)

(a) Write the importance of Remote Sensing.
(b) Explain the functions of GIS.
(c) Explain the functions of GPS.
Answer:
(a) Remote sensing is the science and art of obtaining information about an object, area or phenomenon through the analysis of data acquired by a device that is not in contact with it. This is done by sensing and recording reflected or emitted energy and processing, analyzing and applying that information.

In much remote sensing, the process involves an interaction between incident radiation and the targets of interest. This device can be a camera or a bank of sensors operated from an airplane or a satellite. Though satellite we can collect date related agriculture, forest, urban land use, water, natural calamities etc the satellite data is based for mapping, monitoring, studying the various phenomena related to earth’s surface. –

(b)  1. Capture data: Geographical data can be collected/captured from various sources like hard copy, map through top sheet, digital data, through GPS, Secondary data through published tables.

2. Storing data: Geographical data once captured, it needs to transform from Analogy into digital format and to be stored in computer for further analysis.

3. Query: Once you have a functional GIS containing your geographical information, you can begin to ask a simple questions.

4. Analysis: There are 3 types

1. Proximity Analysis: Proximity queries find features with in a certain distance of other features.
2. Overlay Analysis: It is simplest, this could be a visual operation, but analytical operations require One or more data layers to be joined physically.
3. Network Analysis: A network is a set of edges and junctions that are Topologically connected to each other.

5. Display: Once analysis is done maps, diagrams, graphs and tables are to be designed and same has to be displayed over computer moniter.

6. Output: This is final, stage of GIS function where in the maps, data tables etc… can be printed to have hard copy as output.

(c) There are three segments of GPS:-
1. The space segments : The satellites of GPS are launched and positioned at an altitude of approximately 20200 km which is almost more than three times of the earth’s radius. The space segment consists of a constellation of 24 functioning GPs satellites located in 6 orbital plane with 4 satellites in each orbital plane. The time for the satellite to complete
one revolution around the earth is 11 hrs and 58 minutes.

2. The control segment: The control segment consists of facilities necessary for satellites especially healthy monitoring, telemetry, tracking command and control clock error ‘ computation .of satellites. There are 5 GPS stations spread over the earths surface they arc

• Hawaii
• Colorado spring
• Ascension Island
• Diego Garcia
• Kwajalein.

3. The user segment: It is a total user and supplier community, both civilian and military. The user segment consists of all earth – based GPS receivers. Receivers very greatly in size and complexity, through the basic design in rather simple. The space and control segments are largely transparent to the operations of navigation functions.

1. Navigation: In navigation, by using GPS can save countless hours in the field. Any feature, even if it is under water, can be located upto one hundred meters simply by scaling coordinates from a map, entering way points & going directly to site.

2. Remote sensing and GIS: GPS positioning can be integrated into remote – sensing methods such, as Photogrammetry and aerial scanning, magnetometry, and video technology using DGPs techniques. ,

3. Surveying/Mapping: The high precision of GPS carries phase measurements, together with appropriate adjustment algorithum, provides an adequate tool for a variety of tasks for surveying and mapping.

4. Geodesy: Geodetic mapping and other control surveys can be carried out effectively using high grade GPs equipment.

5. Military: The GPs was Primarily develped for real time military positioning. Military applications include airbone, marine and land navigation.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Accountancy Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions: –

1. All sub questions of Section – A should be answered continuously at one place.
2. Provide working notes wherever necessary.
3. 15 minutes extra time has been allotted for the candidates to read the questions.
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicates full marks.

Section – A

I. Answer any Eight questions, each question carries One mark : ( 8 x 1 = 08)

Question 1.
Mention one characteristic of Non-profit organisation.
Answer:
Non profit organisation established for service to specific group or public at large. Example : Educational institution, hospital etc.

Question 2.
State the two methods of capital accounts maintained by partnership.
Answer:

1. Fixed capital a/c
2. Fluctuating capital method.

Question 3.
What is Sacrifice ratio?
Answer:
Sacrifice ratio is the ratio sacrificed by the old partners to the new partner.

Question 4.
How is the gain ratio calculated on retirement of a partner?
Answer:
Gain ratio = New ratio – old ratio

Question 5.
What is share?
Answer:
According to Indian Companies Act, 1956 as “Ashare is the share in the share capital of the company”.

Question 6.
Name two types of Financial Statements.
Answer:

1. Income Statement
2. Position Statement

Question 7.
State any two objectives of Financial Statement Analysis?
Answer:

1. To know or judge the financial position of the concern.
2. To find the profitability of the firm.

Question 8.
What are the various types of ratios?
Answer:

1. Liquidity ratio
2. Solvency ratio
3. Turnover ratio
4. Profitability ratio.

Question 9.
Mention any two types of debentures.
Answer:
The different types of debentures are :

1. Secured debenture
2. Redeemable debentures.

Question 10.
What is cash flow statement?
Answer:
It is a type of financial statement. It provides information about the historical change in cash and cash equivalents of an enterprises.

Section – B

II. Answer any Five questions, each question carries Two marks : ( 5 x 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
What are non-profit organizations?
Answer:
Non profit organisations are those organisations which are formed to render social service and not for making profits, such as promotion of education, sports and games, science and technology etc.,

Question 12.
What is fixed capital system?
Answer:
Under the fixed capital method, the capitals of the partners are fixed, unless there is an additional capital or withdrawal of capital.

Question 13.
Give the meaning of goodwill.
Answer:
Goodwill is the value of good name or reputation of a business which attracts more customers and helps the firm to earn more profits.

Question 14.
What is realization account?
Answer:
Realisation Account is an account prepared at the time of dissolution of a firm to find the P/L on the realisation of Assets and payment of Liabilities.

Question 15.
State any two types of debentures.
Answer:

1. Registered debentures
2. Unregistered debentures.

Question 16.
Write any two assets which are shown in fixed assets.
Answer:
Building, machinery.

Question 17.
What is Trend Analysis?
Answer:
It is a financial statement analysis method that determines the direction upwards or downwards and involves computation of percentage relationship that each statement items bear to the same item in the base year.

Question 18.
What are the objectives of preparing cash flow statement?
Answer:
The important objectives for preparing Cash Flow Statement are as follows:

1. The most important objective is to fulfill by preparing Cash Flow Statement is to ascertain the gross inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents from various activities.
2. Secondly, Cash Flow Statement helps in analysing various reasons responsible for change in the cash balances during an accounting year.

Section – C

III. Answer any Four questions, each question carries Six marks : ( 4 x 6 = 24 )

Question 19.
Ashok and Darshan commenced their business with capital investments of ₹ 80,000 and ₹ 60,000 respectively. On 01-04-2013, they agreed to share profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 for the year ending 31st March 2014. They earned a profit of ₹ 24,000 before allowing:
a) Interest on capital at 6% p.a.
b) Annual Salary to Darshan ₹ 5,000.
c) Interest on drawings, Ashok ₹ 1,500 and Darshan ₹ 1,000.
d) Partners drawings, Ashok ₹ 15,000 and Darshan ₹ 10,000
You are required to prepare Profit and Loss Appropriation Account of the firm.
Answer:

Question 20.
A and B were partners in a firm sharing profits in 3 : 2 ratio. They admitted C for 3/7 share which he took 2/7 from A and 1/7 from B. Calculate new profit sharing ratio?
Answer:
Old Ratio = 3: 2 or \(\frac{3}{5}: \frac{2}{5}\)
C Admitted for \(\frac{3}{7}\)^th share in the new firm
A’s sacrifice = \(\frac{2}{7}\) => B’s sacrifice = \(\frac{1}{7}\)
New Ratio = Old Ratio – Sacrificing Ratio
\(A=\frac{3}{5}-\frac{2}{7}=\frac{21-10}{35}=\frac{11}{35}\)
\(B=\frac{2}{5}-\frac{1}{7}=\frac{14-5}{35}=\frac{9}{35}\)
A: B : C
New ratio = \(\frac{11}{35}: \frac{9}{35}: \frac{15}{35}\)

Question 21.
A, B and C are the partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1. Their capitals on 01-04-2012 were ₹ 25,000. ₹ 15,000 and ₹ 12,500 respectively.
‘A’ died on 10-01-2012 and the partnership deed provided the following:
a) Salary to ‘A’ at ₹ 200 p.,
b) Interest on capital at 5% p.a.
c) His share of goodwill, the goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 12,500.
d) His share in accrued profit upto the date of death amounted to ₹ 3,500.
Prepare A’s capital account.
Answer:
A: B : C = 2 : 2 : 1 ; \(\frac{2}{5}\), \(\frac{2}{5}\) and \(\frac{1}{5}\). A died on 1 – 10 – 12 (6 month’s interest). A’s Share = \(\frac{2}{5}\)

Question 22.
Y Ltd. issued 2,000,6% debentures of ₹ 100 each payable as follows: ₹ 25 on application; ₹ 50 on allotment and ₹ 25 on first and final call.
Answer:

Question 23.
From the following information prepare the balance sheet of Gitanjali Ltd. Invntories ₹ 14,00,000; Equity Share Capital ₹ 20,00,000; Plant and Machinery ₹ 10,00, 000; Preference Share Capital ₹ 12,00,000; Debenture Redemption Reserve ₹ 6,00,000; Outstanding Eipenses ₹ 3,00,000; Proposed-Dividend ₹ 5,00,000; Land and Building ₹ 20,00,000; Current Investment ₹ 8,00,000; Cash. Equivalent ₹ 10,00,000; Short term loan from Zaveri Ltd. (A Subsidiary Company of Twilight Ltd.) ₹ 4,00,000; Public Deposits ₹ 12,00,000.
Answer:

Question 24.
Calculate current ratio and Quick ratio from the following information:
Stock – ₹ 25,000
Debtors Z – ₹ 20,000
Bills receivable – ₹ 5,000
Advance tax – ₹ 2,000
Cash – ₹ 15,000
Creditors – ₹ 30,000
Bills payable – ₹ 20,000
Bank overdraft – ₹ 2,000
Answer:

Question 25.
The following is the Profit and Loss Account of Yamua Limited:
Statement of Profit and Loss of Yamuna Ltd., for the Year ended March 31, 2015

Additional information:
(i) Trade receivables decrease by ₹ 30,000 during the year.
(ii) Prepared expenses increase by ₹ 5,000 during the year.
(iii) Trade payables increase by ₹ 15,000 during the year.
(iv) Outstanding Expenses payable increased by ₹ 3,000 during the year.
(v) Other expenses included depreciation of ₹ 25,000.
Compute net cash from operations for the year ended March 31, 2014 by the indirect method.
Answer:

Section – D

VI. Answer any Four questions, each question carries Twelve marks : ( 4 x 12 = 48 )

Question 26.
Following is the Balance Sheet and Receipts and Payments Account of Vickey sports club.

Adjustments: a) 0/s subscription ₹ 1,800.
b) 0/s rent 900 and legal charges due ₹ 150.
c) Donations are to be capitalised
d) Depreciate sports materials by ₹ 4,000 and furniture by ₹ 600.
Prepare: a) Income and expenditure account.
b) Balance Sheet.
Answer:

Question 27.
Daya, Ka’vya and Maya were partners, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:2:1 respectively. Their balance sheet as on 3 1-3-2013 was as under.

Maya retired. The following adjustments arc to be made.
a) Stock is revalued at ₹ 28,000.
b) Reserve for doubtful debts to be brought upto 10%on debtors
c) Machinery and motor car depreciated by 5% and 10% respectively.
d) Outstanding rent to be provided for ₹ 1,100.
e) Goodwill of the firm was raised for ₹ 35,000 and it has to be retained in the books. Prepare:
i) Revaluation A/c
ii) Partners’ capital account
iii) New balance sheet of the firm.
Answer:

Question 28.
Deepika and Archana are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses equally. Their balance sheet as on 31-3-2014 was as follows:
Balance Sheet as on 31-3-2014

On the given date, they decided to dissolve the partnership firm on the following terms:
a) The assets realized as follows:
Debtors – ₹ 11,000
Bills receivable – ₹ 7,500
Stock – ₹ 30,000
Building – ₹ 20,000
Vehicle – ₹ 10,000
b) Archana took over bills payable at – ₹ 4,000, and other liabilities paid in full
c) Dissolution expenses paid – ₹ 1,000.
Prepare:
i) Realisa lion A/c
ii) Partners capital A/c
iii) Bank A/c
Answer:

Question 29.
Mandya Sugar Co. Ltd. issued 20,000 equity shares of? 10 each at a premium of ? 2 per share. The amount was payable as follows:
(a) ₹ 2 on application
(b) ₹ 5 on Allotment (including premium)
(c) ₹ 2 on first call and
(d) ₹ 3 on final call.
All the shares were subscribed and the money duly received except on final call for 1000 equity shares. The Directors forfeited these shares and re-issued them as fully paid at’ 8 per share. Pass the necessary Journal Entries for issue, forfeiture and re-issue.
Answer:
Issue of shares

Question 30.
B. Ltd. issued 1,000, 12% debentures of ₹ 100 each on April 01, 2014 at a discount of 5% redeemable at a premium of 10%. Give journal entries relating to the issue of debentures and debentures interest for the Period ending March 31, 2015 assuming that interest is paid half- yearly on September 30 and March 31 and tax deducted at source is 10%.
Answer:

Question 31.
From the following information, prepare comparative position statement (Balance sheet)

Answer:

Question 32.
From the following information, calculate the following ratios:
i) Liquid Ratio
ii) Inventory turnover ratios
iii) Return on investment

Answer:

Quick Assets = Cash + Debtors
= 40,000 + 1,00,000= 1 ,40,000
Current Liabilities = Creditors + Outstanding Expenses
= 1,90,000 + 70,000 = 2,60,000
Quick Ratio = \(\frac{1,40,000}{2,60,000}\) = 7:13 = 0.54:1

(ii)


Capital Employed = Equity Share Capital + Profit and Loss
= 2,00,000 + 1,40,000 = 3.40,000 .
Return on Investment = \(\frac{1,40,000}{3,40,000} \times 100=41.17 \%\)

SECTION – E
(Practical Oriented Questions)

V. Answer any Two questions, each question carries Five marks : ( 2 x 5 = 10 )

Question 33.
How do you treat the following in the absence of partnership deed:
(a) Interest on capital
(b) Interest on drawings
(c) Interest on loan
(d) Distribution of profit or losses
(e) Salary to partner.
Answer:
(a) No
(b) No
(c) 6% P.a
(d) Equally
(e) No.

Question 34.
Write the pro-forma of Vertical Balance Sheet of the Joint Stock Company with appropriate heads.
Answer:

Question 35.
Classify the following into capital and revenue items.
(a) Legacies
(b) Subscriptions
(c) Life membership fees
(d) Special donations
(e) Sale of old newspaper.
Answer:
(a) Capital
(b) Revenue
(c) Capital
(d) Capital
(e) Revenue

Students can Download 2nd PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 2 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Hindi Model Question Papers with Answers help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

समय : 3 घंटे 15 मिनट
कुल अंक : 100

सूचना :

• सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर हिन्दी भाषा तथा देवनागरी लिपि में लिखना आवश्यक है।
• प्रश्नों की क्रम संख्या लिखना अनिवार्य है।

I. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (6 × 1 = 6)

प्रश्न 1.
सत्कार्य में बाधा डालने से क्या बिगड़ता है?

प्रश्न 2.
बहुत-से लोग नीति और आवश्यकता के बहाने किस की रक्षा करते हैं?

प्रश्न 3.
पिता जी रसोई घर को क्या कहते थे?

प्रश्न 4.
1955 में भारत सरकार ने विश्वेश्वरय्या को किस उपाधि से विभूषित किया?

प्रश्न 5.
भोलाराम को पाँच साल से क्या नहीं मिला? .

प्रश्न 6.
‘स्लम डॉग मिलियनेर’ फिल्म किसकी पुस्तक के आधार पर बनी है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 7.
अंग्रेजी-जहाज बीच समुद्र में डूबते समय पुरुषों ने कैसे अपना धर्म निभाया?

प्रश्न 8.
गंगा मैया का कुर्सी से क्या अभिप्राय है?

प्रश्न 9.
मैसूर राज्य के विकास में विश्वेश्वरय्या के योगदान के बारे में लिखिए।

प्रश्न 10.
बरामदे में पहुँचते ही शामनाथ क्यों ठिठक गये?

प्रश्न 11.
‘टफ्स’ के पुस्तकालय के बारे में लिखिए।

II. अ) निम्नलिखित वाक्य किसने किससे कहे? (4 × 1 = 4)

प्रश्न 12.
“क्रोधी तो सदा के हैं। अब किसी की सुनेंगे थोड़े ही।”

प्रश्न 13.
“लौटकर बहुत कुछ गुबार निकल जाए तब बुलाना”

प्रश्न 14.
“जो वह सो गयीं और नींद में खरटि लेने लगी, तो?”

प्रश्न 15.
“मुझे भिक्षा नहीं चाहिए, मुझे भोलाराम के बारे में कुछ पूछ-ताछ करनी है।”

आ) निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं दो का ससंदर्भ स्पष्टीकरण कीजिए: (2 × 3 = 6)

प्रश्न 16.
“आदमी को चाहिए कि जैसा समय देखे वैसा काम करे।”

प्रश्न 17.
“एक बार जब जबान पे चढ़ जाए तो फिर कुछ अच्छा नहीं लगता।”

प्रश्न 18.
“पिता के ठीक विपरीत थीं हमारी बेपढ़ी-लिखी माँ।”

प्रश्न 19.
“पेंशन का ऑर्डर आ गया?”

III. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (6 × 1 = 6)

प्रश्न 20.
रैदास के अनुसार कभी भी क्या निष्फल नहीं जाता?

प्रश्न 21.
वस्तुएँ कब सुन्दर प्रतीत होती हैं?

प्रश्न 22.
कवयित्री को किसकी चाह नहीं है?

प्रश्न 23.
हवा को क्या हो जाने से बचाना है?

प्रश्न 24.
पितरों का तर्पण किस भूमि में होता है?

प्रश्न 25.
पीड़ित व्यक्ति को किस प्रकार चलना चाहिए?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्ही दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (2 × 3 = 6)

प्रश्न 26.
रहीम ने मनुष्य की प्रतिष्ठा के संबंध में क्या कहा है?

प्रश्न 27.
‘गहने’ कविता के द्वारा कवि ने क्या आशय व्यक्त किया है?

प्रश्न 28.
‘मानव’ ने उत्तर प्रदेश की किन विशेषताओं का वर्णन किया है?

प्रश्न 29.
‘हो गई है पीर पर्वत-सी’ गजल से पाठकों को क्या संदेश मिलता है?

इ) ससंदर्भ भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए: (2 × 4 = 8)

प्रश्न 30.
तेरी सौं मैं नेकुँ न खायौ, सखा गये सब खाइ।
मुख तन चितै, बिहँसि हरि दीन्हौ, रिस तब गई बुझाइ।
लियौ स्याम उर लाइ ग्वालिनी, सूरदास बलि जाइ.॥
अथवा
जपमाला छापा तिलक, सरै न एकौ कामु।
मन-काँचै नाचै वृथा, साँचै राँचै रामु ॥

प्रश्न 31.
वे सूने से नयन, नहीं
जिनमें बनते आँसू-मोती;
वह प्राणों की सेज, नहीं
जिनमें बेसुध पीड़ा सोती;
अथवा
तेरी रक्षा का न मोल है,
पर तेरा मानव अमोल है,
यह मिटता है, वह बनता है,
यही सत्य की सही तोल है

IV. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (5 × 1 = 5)

प्रश्न 32.
घृणा को किससे नहीं मिटाया जा सकता?

प्रश्न 33.
पेड़ की छाया को बढ़ाने का काम कौन करती है?

प्रश्न 34.
ग्लानि से भरे हुए भारवि को जाने से क्यों नहीं रोका गया?

प्रश्न 35.
शास्त्रार्थ के नियमों में किसके हृदय को नहीं बाँधा जा सकता?

प्रश्न 36.
पिता के क्रोध में किसके प्रति मंगल कामना छिपी है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिएः (2 × 5 = 10)

प्रश्न 37.
दादा जी के ‘बड़प्पन’ के संबंध में क्या विचार थे?
अथवा
मँझली भाभी पर टिप्पणी लिखिए।

प्रश्न 38.
ग्लानि और जीवन के संबंध में श्रीधर के क्या विचार हैं?
अथवा
महाकवि भारवि का चरित्र-चित्रण कीजिए।

V. अ) वाक्य शुद्ध कीजिए: (4 × 1 = 4)

प्रश्न 39.
i) मन में ऐसा शक्ति है।
ii) मेहमान लोग आठ बजे आएगा।
iii) वसंत ऋतु अच्छा लगती है।
iv) कल माताजी आ रहे हैं।
उत्तरः
i) मन में ऐसी शक्ति है।
ii) मेहमान आठ बजे आएंगे।
iii) वसंत ऋतु अच्छी लगती है।
iv) कल माताजी आ रही हैं।

आ) कोष्टक में दिये गए उचित शब्दों से रिक्त स्थान भरिएः (4 × 1 = 4)
(सत्य, सेवा, निर्णय, दर्द)

प्रश्न 40.
i) उसके पेट में ………….. हो रहा है।
ii) मनुष्य का परम-धर्म …………. बोलना है।
iii) ……………. करने से चरित्र बनता है।
iv) पंचों का …………….. सभी को मान्य है।
उत्तरः
i) दर्द
ii) सत्य
iii) सेवा
iv) निर्णय

इ) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को सूचनानुसार बदलिए: (3 × 1 = 3)

प्रश्न 41.
i) सुजान के मन में तीर्थ यात्रा करने की इच्छा थी। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
ii) उसका भाषण सुनते ही बधाई देता हूँ। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
iii) प्रतिभा को भट्टी में झोंकना हैं। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
i) सुजान के मन में तीर्थ यात्रा करने की इच्छा है।
ii) उसका भाषण सुनते ही बधाई दूंगा।
iii) प्रतिभा को भट्टी में झोंक दिया था।

ई) निम्नलिखित मुहावरों को अर्थ के साथ जोड़कर लिखिए: (4 × 1 = 4)

प्रश्न 42.
i) कंचन बरसना a) भाग जाना
ii) फूले न समाना b) शुरुआत करना
iii) नौ दो ग्यारह होना c) अत्यधिक खुश होना
iv) श्री गणेश करना d) आमदनी बढ़ना
उत्तरः
i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b.

उ) अन्य लिंग रूप लिखिए: (3 × 1 = 3)

प्रश्न 43.
i) आयुष्मान
ii) राजपूत
iii) अभिनेता
उत्तरः
i) आयुष्मती
ii) राजपूतानी
iii) अभिनेत्री

ऊ) अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द लिखिए : (3 × 1 = 3)

प्रश्न 44.
i) जो ईश्वर पर विश्वास रखता हो।
ii) जो जाना पहचाना हो।
iii) जो लोगों में प्रिय हो।
उत्तरः
i) आस्तिक
ii) परिचित
iii) लोकप्रिय

ए) निम्नलिखित शब्दों के साथ उपसर्ग जोड़कर नए शब्दों का निर्माण कीजिए : (2 × 1 = 2)

प्रश्न 45.
i) कीर्ति
ii) कन्या
उत्तरः
i) कीर्ति = अप + कीर्ति = अपकीर्ति
ii) कन्या = सु + कन्या = सुकन्या

ऐ) निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से प्रत्यय अलग कर लिखिएः (2 × 1 = 2)

प्रश्न 46.
i) मुस्कराहट
ii) परिचित
उत्तरः
i) मुस्कराहट = मुस्करा + आहट = मुस्कराहट
ii) परिचित = परिचय + इत = परिचित

VI. अ) किसी एक विषय पर निबंध लिखिए : (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 47.
i) देश प्रेम।
ii) मेरे जीवन का लक्ष्य।
iii) मोबाइल फोन : सुविधा या असुविधा।
अथवा
अपने शैक्षणिक प्रवास के अनुभव का वर्णन करते हुए अपनी माँ को पत्र लिखिए।

आ) निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद पढ़कर उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (5 × 1 = 5)

प्रश्न 48.
संसार का प्रत्येक धर्म दया और करुणा का पाठ पढ़ाता है। हर धर्म सिखाता है कि जीव पर दया-भाव रखो और कष्ट में फँसे इंसान की सहायता करो। परोपकार की भावना ही सबसे बड़ी मनुष्यता है। परोपकार की भावना रखने वाला न तो अपने-पराए का भेदभाव रखता है और न ही अपनी हानि की परवाह करता है। दयावान किसी को कष्ट में देखकर चुपचाप नहीं बैठ सकता। उसकी आत्मा उसे दुखी प्राणी के लिए कुछ करने को मजबूर करती है। अगर कोई किसी पर अत्याचार करे या बेकसर को यातना दे. तो हमारा कर्त्तव्य बनता है कि हम बेकसूर का सहारा बनें। न्याय व धर्म की रक्षा करना सदा से धर्म है। दया-भाव विहीन मनुष्य भी पशु समान ही होता है। जो दूसरों की रक्षा करते हैं, वे इस सृष्टि को चलाने में भगवान की सहायता करते हैं। धर्म का मर्म ही दया है। दया-भाव से ही धर्म का दीपक सदा प्रज्वलित रहता है।
प्रश्न:
i) संसार का हर धर्म किसका पाठ पढ़ाता है?
ii) सबसे बड़ी मनुष्यता क्या है?
iii) दयावान व्यक्ति कब चुपचाप नहीं बैठ सकता?
iv) न्याय व धर्म की रक्षा करना क्या है?
v) सृष्टि को चलाने में भगवान की सहायता कौन करते हैं?

इ) हिन्दी में अनुवाद कीजिए: (5 × 1 = 5)

प्रश्न 49.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Business Studies Model Question Paper 4 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Business Studies Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Business Studies Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

Time: 3hrs 1 5 Min.
Max Marks: 100

SECTION – A

I. Answer any ten of the following questions in a word or a sentence each.
Each questions carries one mark. (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Give one example for middle-level management position?
Answer:
Sales manager.

Question 2.
Principles of management are not.

1. Universal
2. Flexible
3. Absolute
4. Behavioral

Answer:
3.  Absolute

Question 3.
Which environment envisages the regulations to be followed by advertisers?
Answer:
Legal Environment

Question 4.
Mention the first step of planning process?
Answer:
Setting Objectives.

Question 5.
Which organizing structure is suitable for large organizations.
Answer:
Functional structure is suitable for large.

Question 6.
Transfer is an example for source of recruitment.
Answer:
Internal.

Question 7.
What do you mean by motive?
Answer:
A motive is an inner state that energizes, activates or moves and directs behavior towards goals.

Question 8.
What do you mean by financial leverage?
Answer:
The proportion of debt in the overall capital is called financial leverage.

Question 9.
Expand OTCEI.
Answer:
Over the counter exchange of India.

Question 10.
Which is the most commonly used tool of sales promotion?
Answer:
Advertising is the most commonly used tool of sales promotion.

Question 11.
Who is a consumer?
Answer:
A consumer is a person who buys any product or service for final consumption by paying a price.

Question 12.
Who is an entrepreneur?
Answer:
The person who set – up his business is called an entrepreneur.

SECTION – B

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in two or three sentences each.
Each question carrier two marks:(10 × 2 = 20)

Question 13.
Justify the importance of co-ordination by any two factors.
Answer:

1. Coordination integrates group efforts into purposeful work activity.
2. Coordination ensures unity of action.

Question 14.
What is discipline?
Answer:
Discipline is obedience to organisational rules and employment agreements which are necessary for the working of the organisation.

Question 15.
What do you mean by privatisation?
Answer:
The new set of economic reforms aimed at giving greater role to the private sector in the natural building process and a reduced role to the public sector is known as privatisation.

Question 16.
What are objectives?
Answer:
Objectives are the endpoints towards which are activities of an organisation are directed, objectives are set by the top management.

Question 17.
Give the meaning of formal organisation.
Answer:
Formal Organisation refers to the organization structure which is designed by the management to accomplish a particular task. It specifies clearly the boundaries of authority and responsibility and there is systematic coordination among the various activities to achieve organizational goals.

Question 18.
Why is staffing both a line as well as staff activity?
Answer:
Staffing is both a function of management as well as a distinct functional area of management. It is therefore referred to as both line as well as well as a staff activity. It is the essential function of the manager as well as an advisory role played by the Human Resource Department.

Question 19.
What is communication?
Answer:
According to George Terry, “Communication is an exchange of facts, ideas, opinions or emotions by two or more persons.”

Question 20.
State any two traditional techniques of managerial control.
Answer:

1. Personal observation
2. Break even analysis.

Question 21.
How do you describe marketing mix?
Answer:
Marketing mix is described as the set of marketing tools that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market. This term marketing mix is given by Neil H Borden. It is the combination of four inputs namely product, price, promotion and place.

Question 22.
State any two features of advertising.
Answer:
Advertising is an impersonal form of communication, which is paid for by the sponsors to promote some goods or services.
The important features of advertising are as follows:

1. Paid form:
advertising is a paid form of communication. The sponsor has to bear the cost of communicating with the prospects.

2. Impersonality:
There is no direct face – to – face contact between the prospect and the advertiser. It is therefore, referred to as impersonal method of promotion.

3. Identified sponsor:
Advertising is undertaken by same identified individual or company, who makes the advertising efforts and also bears the cost of it.

Question 23.
What is consumer protection?
Answer:
Consumer Protection refers to providing adequate protection to consumers against the unfair trade practices followed by the manufacturers and service providers.

It includes educating consumers about their rights and responsibilities, helps them with judicial machinery for protecting the interests of consumers and also requires the consumers to form consumer associations for protection and promotion of their interests.

Question 24.
State any two features of entrepreneurship?
Answer:

1. Systematic activity
2. Innovation

SECTION – C

III. Answer any seven of the following questions in 10-12 sentences.
Each question carrier 4 Marks: (7 × 4 = 24)

Question 25.
Briefly explain any four objectives of management?
Answer:
Every organisation is established to achieve certain objectives. Different organisations are having different objectives and management are having different objectives and management has to achieve these objectives effectively and efficiently. Management Objectives can be classified into organisational objectives, social objectives, and personal or individual objectives.

a. Organisation Objectives:
Management is responsible for setting and achieving objectives for the organisation. The main objective of any organisation is to utilise human and material resources to the maximum possible advantage, management of every organisation strives to accomplish the objectives, considering the interest of all the stakeholders, i.e., shareholders, employees, customers, and the government. The economic objectives of an organisation include

1. Survival:
Management must work to ensure the survival of the organisation by earning enough revenue to cover its costs.

2. Profit:
Earning of profit is very essential for meeting the expenses and for successful continuity of business. Therefore, management should ensure that sufficient profits are earned to cover the costs and risks of business.

3. Growth:
For the existence of business organisation for a long period, management should explore all its prospects of growth and development to remain in industry. Growth of a business can be measured in terms of increased sales, increase in the number of employees, the number of products or the increase in capital investment.

b. Social Objectives:
It involves the creation of benefit for society. As a part of society, every organisation has a social obligation to fulfill. This refers to consistently creating economic value for various constituents of society. This includes.

• Using environmental friendly methods of production.
• Creating employment opportunities particularly to the under privileged sections of society.
• Providing amenities to society, like schools and creches to employees children.
• Providing financial support to society for noble causes.
• Participating in social service projects of government and non-governmental organisations.

c. Personal (or) Individual objectives:
Organisations are made up of people who have different personal backgrounds, experiences, and objectives. It is very important to satisfy their diverse needs by getting their wholehearted support in achieving the organisational objectives. The personal objectives include

• Financial needs like salaries, incentives, and other benefits.
• Social needs like recognition in the organisation.
• Higher level needs which include personal growth and development.

Management has to take care of personal needs of its employees while also fulfilling the other objectives.

d. Management helps in achieving personal objectives:
A manager motivates and leads his team in such a manner that individual members are able to achieve personal goals while contributing to the overall organisational objectives. Through motivation and leadership the management helps individuals to develop team spirit, cooperation and commitment to group success

Question 26.
What are the four aspects of work-study developed by F. W. Taylor? Explain.
Answer:
Standardisation and simplification of work: Standardisation refers to the process of setting standards for every business activity. These standards are the benchmarks, which must be adhered to during production.

This can be done by following scientific methods of production and through work-study techniques which include time study, motion study, etc. Standardisation relates to process, raw – material, time, product, machinery, methods or working conditions.

a. Method study:
The objective of method study is to find out one best way of doing the job.

b. Work-study:
It refers to the study of movements like lifting, putting objects, sitting and changing positions, etc, which are undertaken while doing any job.

c. Time – study:
It determines the standard time taken to perform a well-defined job.

d. Fatigue study:
It determines the amount and frequency of rest intervals in completing a task.

Question 27.
Explain briefly the importance of planning?
Answer:
Planning is very important as it tells us where to go; it provides direction and reduces the risk of uncertainty by preparing forecasts. The importance of planning is explained as follows:

a. Planning provides direction:
Planning provides direction for action. Planning ensures that the goals are clearly stated so that they act as a guide for deciding what action should be taken and in which direction. Planning ensures coordination in the work of individuals and various departments of the organization.

b. Planning reduces the risk of uncertainty:
Planning is an activity which enables a manager to look ahead and anticipate changes. By deciding in advance, the tasks to be performed, planning shows the way to deal with changes and uncertain events. Changes cannot be eliminated but they can be anticipated and managerial responses to them can be developed.

c. Planning reduces overlapping and wasteful activities:
Planning serves as the basis of coordinating the activities and efforts of different divisions, departments, and individuals. It helps in avoiding confusion and misunderstanding. Planning ensures clarity in thought and action, work is carried on smoothly.

It helps to detect the inefficiency and unwanted repetition in work and to take corrective measures to minimize the wasteful activities.

d. Planning promotes innovative ideas:
Planning is the first function of management. New ideas can take the shape of concrete plans. Planning is basically the thinking function of management. It encourages managers for innovative and creative thinking. Thus, planning helps the managers to be more creative and innovative in shaping new courses of action.

e. Planning facilitates decision making:
Planning helps the manager to look into the future and make a choice from amongst various alternative courses of action. Decision making is a process of selecting the best course of action from various available alternatives after evaluating each one of them.

f. Planning establishes standards for controlling:
Planning facilitates control. It determines goals and standards for every individual and department of the organization. This makes it easy to compare the actual performance of the individuals and departments with the standards fixed. In case, there are deviations, corrective measures are taken to remove them. Thus, planning is a prerequisite of controlling.

The major limitations of planning are given below:

a. Planning leads to rigidity:
In an organization, a well-defined plan is drawn up with specific goals to be achieved within a specific time frame. These plans then decide the future course of action. The managers may not be in a position to change these plans. This kind of rigidity in plans may create difficulty. This rigidity restricts individual freedom, initiative, and creativity.

b. Planning may not work in a dynamic environment:
The business environment is dynamic. Planning anticipates future. It takes into consideration the possible changes in economic, political, legal and social dimensions. But it becomes difficult to accurately assess future trends. Competition in the market can also upset the plans. Planning cannot foresee everything and thus, there may be obstacles to effective planning.

c. Planning reduces creativity:
Planning is an activity which is done by the top management. Usually, the rest of the members just implement these plans. Middle management and other decision makers are neither allowed to deviate from plans nor are they permitted to act on their own. Thus, much of the initiative or creativity inherent in them also gets lost or reduced.

d. Planning involves huge costs:
When plans are drawn up, huge costs are involved in their formulation. These may be in terms of time and money. The cost incurred sometimes may not justify the benefits derived from the plans.

e. Planning is a time-consuming process:
Sometimes plans to be drawn uptake so much of time that there is not much time left for their implementation.

f. Planning does not guarantee success:
The success of an enterprise is possible only when plans are properly drawn up and implemented. Any plan needs to be translated into action. Managers have the tendency to depend on the previously tested and successful plans. But it is not always true that the plans which were successful early will be successful again.

Therefore, planning does not guarantee success but provides a base for analysis of future courses of action.

Question 28.
Explain briefly the steps in organizing process?
Answer:
a. Identification and Division of work:
The process of organizing starts with the identification and division of work. The work is divided into manageable activities so that duplication of work can be avoided. The burden of work can be shared among the employees.

b. Departmentalization:
It refers to the process of grouping the activities of similar nature under same departments. This helps specialization and coordination. Departments can be created generally on the following basis.

1. On the basis of function
2. On the basis of type of product manufactured
3. On the basis of territory

c. Assignment of duties:
It is necessary to define the work of different job positions and allocate the work accordingly to various employees. Once departments are formed, it is necessary to assign the work to the employees according to their skill and competencies. It is essential that a balance is created between the nature of the job and the ability of the employee.

d. Establishment of reporting relationships:
Mere allocation of work is not enough. Each individual should know from whom he has to take orders and to whom he is accountable. The establishment of such clear relationship helps to create a hierarchal structure and helps in co-ordination among various departments.

Question 29.
Explain the internal sources of recruitment.
Answer:
Internal Sources of Recruitment methods include:
1. Promotions:
Promotion is the vertical movement of an employee within the organization. It refers to the upward movement of an employee from one job to another higher one, with increase in salary, status, and responsibilities.

2. Transfers:
Transfer means lateral movement of employee in the same grade, from one job to another, without any change in his status, responsibility, and salary.

Merits of Internal Sources of Recruitment:

1. It is economical
2. It motivates the existing employees
3. Through transfer employees get training also in the form of job rotation

Demerits of Internal Sources of Recruitment:

1. No fresher new ideas will come into the organization
2. There will be limited choice.
3. Not suitable for new organization
4. Frequent transfer may reduce the productivity of the employee.

Question 30.
Explain briefly any four points which emphasize the importance of Directing.
Answer:
a. Initiating action:
Directing helps to initiate action by people in the organization towards attainment of desired objectives.

b. Integrates efforts of the employees:
Directing integrates employees efforts in the organization in such a way that every individual effort contributes to the organizational performance.

c. Guidance to Employees:
Directing guides employees to fully realize their potential and capabilities by motivating and providing effective leadership.

d. Facilitates charges:
Directing facilitates introduction of needed changes in the organization. Generally, people are resistant to change. Directing, through effecting motivation, communication and leadership help to reduce such resistance and develop required cooperation among the people in the organization.

Question 31.
These are Explain briefly any four factors affecting dividend decisions?
Answer:
Dividend is that portion of profit which is distributed to shareholders. Dividend decision involves how much profit earned by company is to be distributed to the shareholders and how much of it should be retained in the business.
The following are the factors affecting dividend decisions:

1. Amount of Earnings:
Dividends are paid out of current and past earning Therefore, earnings is a major determinant of the decision about dividend.

2. Stability Earnings:
Other things remaining the same, a company having stable earning is in a better position to declare higher dividend. A company having unstable earnings is likely to pay smaller dividends.

3. Stability of Dividends:
Companies generally follow a policy of stabilizing dividend per share. The increase in dividends is generally made when there is confidence that their earning potential has gone up and not just the earnings of the current year.

4. Growth Opportunities:
Companies having good growth opportunities retain more money out of their earnings so as to finance the required investment. The dividend in growth companies is, therefore, smaller than that in the non-growth companies.

Question 32.
Explain briefly the money market instruments?
Answer:
Money market consists of the following instruments
1. Treasury Bills:
a. Treasury bill is an instrument of short-term borrowing issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Central Government to meet its short-term requirement.

b. These are also known as Zero-Coupon Bonds.

c. They are issued at a price lower than their face value. The difference between the face value and issue price constitutes discount that is nothing but the interest receivable on them.

d. Treasury bills are negotiable instruments and are freely transferable.

2. Commercial Paper:
a. It is a short-term unsecured promissory note, negotiable and transferable by endorsement and delivery and with a fixed maturity period.

b. Commercial papers are issued by large and creditworthy companies to raise short-term funds at lower rates of interest than market rates.

c. The maturity period is usually between 15 days and one year.

d. The actual purpose of CP was to provide short-term funds for seasonal and working capital needs.

3. Call Money:
a. It is short-term finance repayable on-demand with a maturity period of one day to fifteen days.

b. Call-money us used for inter-bank transactions. Commercial banks have to maintain a minimum cash balance known as cash reserve ratio. The RBI changes this CRR which affects the amount of funds available with the commercial banks to be given as loans. So, the commercial banks raise short-term finance by this method.

c. The interest rate paid on call money loan is known as call rate. This rate is very volatile and changes from day-to-day and even from hour-to-hour.

4. Certificate of Deposit:

• These are short-term, unsecured negotiable instruments in bearer form issued by commercial banks.
• These are issued to individuals, corporations, and companies.
• The certificate has the maturity date, the fixed rate of interest and the maturity value.
• Generally, the maturity of the deposits is between three months and one year.

5. Commercial Bill:

• short-term negotiable and self-liquidating money market instruments.
• They have comparatively very low risk.
• The seller of the goods draws the bill and the buyer accepts it. On being accepted, the bill becomes a marketable instrument and is called a trade bill. When a trade bill is accepted by a commercial bank it is known as a commercial bill.
• It is nothing but a bill of exchange used to finance the working capital requirements of business organisations.

Question 33.
Explain briefly the functions performed by a label?
Answer:
The various functions performed by a label are as follows:
1. Describe the product and specify its contents:
One of the most important functions of labels is to describe the product, its usage, cautions in use, etc and specify its contents.

2. Identification of the product or brand:
The other important function performed by labels is to help in identifying the product or brand.

3. Grading of products:
Another important function performed by labels is to help grading the products into different categories. Sometimes, marketers assign different grades to indicate different features or quality of the product.

4. Helps in promotion of products:
An important function of label is to help in promotion of the products. A carefully designed label can attract attention and give reason to purchase.

5. Providing information required by law:
Label provides information required by law.

Question 34.
State any four functions of Consumer Organizations and NGOs for the protection and promotion of consumer interests.
Answer:
1. Educating the general public about consumer rights by organizing training programs, seminars, and workshops.

2. Publishing periodicals and other publications to impart knowledge about consumer problems, legal reporting, reliefs available and other matters of interest.

3. Carrying out comparative testing of consumer products in accredited laboratories to test relative qualities of competing brands and publishing the test results for the benefit of consumers.

4. Encouraging consumers to strongly protest and take an action against unscrupulous, exploitative and unfair trade practices of sellers.

SECTION – D

IV. Answer any seven of the following questions in 20-25 sentences.
Each question carrier 8 Marks: (4 × 8 = 32)

Question 35.
Explain the characteristics of Management?
Answer:
Features of Management:
a. Management is a goal oriented process:
Every organisation has a set of basic goals to achieve. Management unites the efforts of different individuals in the organisation towards achieving these goals.

b. Management is all pervasive:
Management activities are universally applicable to all organisations, social, economic and political. Hence, management is all pervasive and a universal phenomenon.

c. Management is multidimensional:
Management is a complex activity and involves three dimensions namely.

• Management of work
• Management of people (and)
• Management of operations

d. Management is a continuous process:
Management consists of a series of functions like planning, organising, staffing and controlling which are continuous and composite in nature. These functions are simultaneously performed by all managers all the time. Hence, management is considered a continuous process.

e. Management is a group activity:
An organisation is a collection of number of individuals with different needs. Every member of the group has different purpose to join the organisation. But, as members of the organisation, they work towards fulfilling the common organisation goal. This requires teamwork and coordination. Hence, management is a group activity.

f. Management is a dynamic function:
Every organisation works in an environment which keeps on changing. The external environment which consists of various social, economic and political factors keep changing. In order to be successful, an organisation must change itself and its goals according to the needs of the environment. Hence, management is a dynamic environment.

g. Management is an intangible force:
Management cannot be seen but its presence can be felt in the operations of the organisation. The effect of management is noticeable in an organisation where targets are met according to plans when employees are happy and satisfied. So management is an unseen force but reflects in the collective efforts.

Question 36.
Explain the various types of plans with necessary examples?
Answer:
In order to accomplish the targets, the management of a business organization chalks out different types of plans. The important types of plans are explained below:
Types of plans

1. Single-use plans:
A single-use plan is developed for a one-time event or project. The examples are

• Budgets
• Programmes
• Projects

2. Standing Plans:
A standing plan is used for activities that occur regularly over a period of time. The examples are

• Policies
• Procedures
• Methods
• Rules

3. The other plans include strategies and objectives.

Brief explanation of the various types of plans are as follows:
1. Objectives:

1. Objectives are the endpoints towards which the activities of an organization are directed. They are said to be the desired future position that the management would like to reach.

2. Objectives are very basic to the organization which the organization wants to achieve by its operations.

3. Objectives are set by the top management. They lay down guidelines for the activities and serves as a benchmark for measuring the performance of an organization.

4. Objectives need to be expressed in specific terms. They should be expressed in quantitative and measurable terms. They are also to be put in the form of written statements and they represent the desired results to be achieved in a given period of time.

2. Strategies:
A strategy provides the broad contours of an organization’s business. Strategies are the specific programs of action for achieving the objectives of the organization by employing the organization’s resources efficiently and effectively.

A strategy is a comprehensive plan which acts as a guideline to handle specific problems. Major strategic decisions will include decisions like whether the organization will continue to be in the same line of business, or combine new lines of activity with the existing business or seek to acquire a dominant position in the same market.

3. Policy:
Policies are general statements that guide thinking. Policies provide a basis for interpreting strategy. Policy is a guide to managerial action and decision in the implementation of the strategy. Strategies are formulated by top management. Formulation of strategy involves the following aspects:

• Determination of the long term objectives
• Adopting a course of action to achieve the objectives and
• Allocating resources necessary to achieve the objectives.

4. Procedure:
1. Procedures are routine steps on how to carry out activities. They detail the exact manner in which any work is to be performed.

2. Procedures are the guidelines to action and they are usually intended to the works which are repetitive in nature.

3. Examples of procedure include procedure for execution of the customer’s order for supply of goods and procedure for recruitment of employees in an organisation.

5. Methods:
Methods provide the prescribed ways in which a task has to be performed considering the objective. It deals with a task comprising one step of a procedure and specifies how this step is to be performed. Method has a limited scope compared to the procedure.

Examples of methods include training the employees under the job training method, remunerating the salesmen under bonus and commission method, etc.

6. Rules:
Rules are specific statements that inform what is to be done. Every organization likes to operate in an orderly way. For this purpose it is necessary for the business organization to lay down certain rules.

Rules are the specific statements which prescribe the code of behavior to the people of an organization. Rules are rigid. Their violation attracts penalty and disciplinary action. An example of a rule is ‘wear identity cards compulsorily at the work place.

7. Programmes:
1. Programmes are detailed statements about a project which outlines the objectives, policies, procedures, rules, tasks, human and physical resources required.

2. A program is a precise plan which lays down the operations to be carried out to accomplish a given task within a specified period of time.

3. Programmes are framed for the works which are non-repetitive in nature. An example for a programme includes sale of 5000 cars in the month of March 2019.

8. Budget:
Budget is a statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms. Budget is a plan which expresses the future facts and figures in quantitative terms for a specified period. Budget is considered a control device. An example for a budget is a sales budget which forecasts the sales of different products in each area for a particular period.

Conclusion:
The success of the business depends to a large extent on effective planning. Thus, the logical and scientific planning must go through the above steps.

Question 37.
Explain the different methods of on the job and off the job training method?
Answer:
Training:
Training is the process of teaching new or present employees, the basic skills they need to effectively perform their job.
Importance of training:

1. Improves employee’s ability and skills.
2. Leads to high morale among the employees.
3. The chances of accidents are very less.
4. Become more eligible for promotion.
5. Maintain industrial peace in the organization.

Methods of Training

On the job training:
It is a method, where workers learn by doing the work. The following are the important methods of on the job training.

• Apprenticeship training
• Coaching
• Internship training
• Job-rotation

Off the job training:

• Classroom lecture
• Case-study
• Vestibule training
• Computer modeling

On the job means learning while doing. The following are popular on the job training methods:

1. Apprenticeship Programmes:
Apprenticeship programmes put the trainee under the guidance of a master worker. These are designed to acquire a higher level of skill. People seeking to enter skilled jobs like plumbers, electricians, etc., are required to undergo apprenticeship training.

2. Coaching:
In this method, the superior guides and instructs the trainee as a coach. The coach or counselor sets mutually agreed upon goals, suggests how to achieve these goals periodically reviews the trainee’s progress and suggests changes required in behavior and performance. The trainee works directly with a senior manager and the manager takes full responsibility for the trainee’s coaching.

3. Internship training:
It is a joint programme of training in which educational institutions and business firms cooperate. Selected candidates carry on regular studies for the prescribed period. They also work in some factory or office to acquire practical knowledge and skills.

4. Job Rotation:
This kind of training involves shifting the trainee from one department to another or from one job to another. This enables the trainee to gain a broader understanding of all parts of the business and how the organization as a whole function. Job rotation allows trainees to interact with other employees. When employees are trained by this method, the organization finds it easy at the time of promotions, replacements or transfers.

Off the job training means learning before doing. The popular off the job methods of training include:
1. Classroom lecture/Conferences:
The lecture or conference approach is used to convey specific information effectively. The use of audio-visuals or demonstrations can often make a formal classroom presentation more interesting.

2. Case Study:
Cases represent attempts to describe, as accurately as possible the real problems faced by the managers. They are generally taken from actual experiences of the organization and its managers. Trainees study the cases to determine problems, analyse causes, develop alternative solutions, select what they believe to be the best solution and implement it.

3. Computer Modeling:
It stimulates the work environment by programming a computer to initiate some of the realities of the job. It also allows learning to take place without the risk or high costs that would be incurred if a mistake occurs in real life situation.

4. Vestibule Training:
Employees learn their jobs on the equipment they will be using, but the training is conducted away from the actual work floor. Actual work environments are created in a classroom and employees use the same materials, tools, and equipment. This is usually done when employees are required to handle sophisticated machinery and equipment.

Conclusion:
In order to perform well in an organization, an employee must have the theoretical and practical knowledge of the work. Training provides the practical knowledge that is required of an employee. Thus training is necessary to make the workers alert and active.

Question 38.
Explain the qualities of the good leader.
Answer:
a. Physical features:
Physical features like height, weight, health, appearance determine the physical personality of an individual. It is believed that good physical features attract people.

b. Knowledge:
A good leader should have required knowledge and competence. Only such person can instruct subordinates correctly and influence them.

c. Integrity:
A leader should possess high level of integrity and honesty. He should be a role model to others regarding ethics and values.

d. Initiative:
A leader should have courage and initiative. He should not wait for opportunities come to his way, rather he should grab the opportunity and use it to the advantage of organization.

e. Communication skills:
A leader should be a good communicator. He should have the capacity to clearly explain his ideas and make the people understand his ideas. He should be not only a good speaker but also a good listener, teacher, counselor, and persuader.

f. Motivation skills:
A leader be an effective motivator. He should understand the needs of people and motivate them through satisfying their needs.

g. Self-Confidence:
A leader should have high level of self-confidence. He should not loose his confidence even in most difficult times. In fact, if the leader lacks self-confidence, he cannot provide confidence to his followers.

h. Decisiveness:
Leaders should be decisive in managing the work. Once he is convinced about a fact, he should be firm and should not change opinions frequently.

i. Social skills:
A leader should be sociable and friendly with his colleagues and followers. He should understand people and maintain good human relations with them.

Question 39.
Explain briefly the functions of SEBI?
Answer:
Keeping in mind the emerging nature of the securities market in India, SEBI was entrusted with the twin task of both regulation and development of the securities market.
It also has certain protective functions:
Regulatory Functions:

• Registration of brokers and sub-brokers and other players in the market.
• Registration of collective investment schemes and Mutual Funds.
• Regulation of stockbrokers, portfolio exchanges, underwriters, and merchant bankers and the business in stock exchanges and any other securities market.
• Regulation of takeover bids by companies.
• Calling for information by undertaking inspection, conducting enquiries and audits of stock exchanges and intermediaries.
• Levying fee or other charges for carrying out the purposes of the Act.
• Performing and exercising such power under Securities Contract(Regulation)Act 1956, as may be delegated by the Government of India.

Development Functions:

1. Training of intermediaries of the securities market.
2. Conducting research and publishing information useful to all market participants.
3. Undertaking measures to develop the capital markets by adopting a flexible approach.

Protective Functions:

1. Prohibition of fraudulent and unfair trade practices like making misleading statements, manipulations, price rigging, etc.
2. Controlling insider trading and imposing penalties for such practices.
3. Undertaking steps for investor protection.
4. Promotion of fair practices and code of conduct in securities market.

Question 40.
What do you mean by Marketing mix? Explain briefly the elements of marketing mix?
Answer:
1. Marketing mix is described as the set of marketing tools that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

2. This term ‘marketing mix’ is given by Neil H Borden. It refers to aggregate of strategies formulated to achieve various marketing objectives.

3. Marketing mix is the combination of four inputs that revolve around consumer satisfaction as the focal point. These four element are product, price, promotion and the place/ physical distribution. These elements are popularly known as 4 Ps of marketing.

Element of marketing mix:
The marketing mix consists of various elements, which have been broadly classified into four categories popularly known as four Ps of marketing which are as follows:

1. Product mix :
Product means ‘anything of value’ which is offered to the market for sale. Product is one of the main elements of marketing mix. In marketing terms, product refers to anything that satisfies the needs of the consumers. It may be a good, a service or an idea. The product mix has the following important

components:
Brand, Style, colour, design, product line, Package, warranty, etc.

The concept of product also include the extended product or what is offered to the customers by way of after-sale services, handling complaints, availability of spare parts, etc,

2. Price mix:
Price represents the value of a product expressed in terms of money it is the amount of money customers have to pay to obtain the product. The price mix is concerned with fixing a reasonable price to the product or services that cover the cost and distribution expenses as well gets reasonable profits to the manufacturer.

The basic variables related to price mix include pricing strategy, pricing policy, credit – terms, discounts, allowances, etc,

3. Promotion mix:
Promotion of product and services – include activities that communicate availability, features, merits, etc, of the products to the target customer and persuade them to buy it. The promotion mix includes personal selling, publicity, advertising, and sales promotion.

Most marketing organisations, undertake various promotional activities and spend money on the promotion of their goods using promotional tools such as advertising, personal selling etc, the success of a market offer will depend on how well these ingredients are mixed to create superior value for the customers and also achieve their sale and profit objective.

4. Place:
Place or physical distribution include activities that make firm’s products available to the target customers. It is concerned with making available the goods and services at right time, at right place, in right quantity. It enables the smooth flow of goods and services from the producers to the customers.

It creates place, time and possession utilities. The place mix includes distribution channels like agents, wholesalers retailers, etc. and physical distribution which includes transport, warehousing, inventory, etc.

Conclusion:
The process of marketing involves creating a market offering, to satisfy the needs and wants of the present and potential buyers. From a number of alternatives available a firm chooses a particular combination to develop a market offering the combination of variables chosen by a firm to prepare its market offering is called as marketing mix.

SECTION – E

V. Answer any two of the following questions.
Each question carrier five marks:  (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 41.
As a manager what logical steps you follow in Planning process before executing a project?
Answer:

Question 42.
As a manager of an organization, what are the modern techniques of controlling you would like to adopt?
Answer:
Controlling is a systematic process involving the following steps:

1. Setting performance standards
2. Measurement of actual performance
3. Comparison of actual performance with standards.
4. Analysing deviations
5. Taking corrective actions

Question 43.
Draw the neat diagram of Efficiency-Desirability Matrix to check the ability and willingness of Entrepreneurs.
Answer:

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Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs. 15 Min.
Max. Marks: 70

PART-A

I. Each question carries one mark. (10 × 1 =10)

Question 1.
Name the two types of UPS.
Answer:
The two types of UPS are online UPS and standby UPS.

Question 2.
What are universal gates?
Answer:
Universal gate is a gate using which ail the basic gates can be designed. NAND and NOR are universal gates.

Question 3.
Give the formula to calculate Base address of one-dimensional array in memory.
Answer:
The formula to calculate the memory address of an array element is Base_Address + W ( Position – LB ) Where W is number of words per memory cell, position is location of array element for which memory address is calculated, LB is Lower bound (index) of an array.

Question 4.
What do you mean by access specifier ‘private’?
Answer:
Private access means a member data can only be accessed by the member function of that class only.

Question 5.
What is static memory?
Answer:
The fixed size of memory allocation and cannot be altered during runtime is called static memory allocation.

Question 6.
What is a field?
Answer:
Each column in a table is identified by a distinct header is called a field.

Question 7.
What is topology?
Answer:
It is the geometric arrangement of a computer system in network. Common topologies include a Linear bus, star, ring, and ring.

Question 8.
What is cyber law?
Answer:
The cyber law has been referred to as the Law of the Internet. Cyberlaw is the part of the overall legal system that deals with the Internet, cyberspace, and their respective legal issues.

Question 9.
What is domain affiliation?
Answer:
A domain affiliation means the type of domain whether it is commercial (.com), education (.edu) or government (.gov), etc.,

Question 10.
What is XML?
Answer:
XML is a extended Markup Language for documents containing structured information. XML is a text-based markup language becoming the standard for data interchange on the web.

PART – B

II. Each question carries two marks. (5 × 2=10)

Question 11.
Use duality theorem to derive another boolean relation from A + A’B = A+B.
Answer:

Question 12.
Give an example for a Boolean expression the sum of minterms form and product of maxterm form.
Answer:
The example for boolean expression in the sum of minterms form is X’Y’ + XY’ +XY =Z. The example for Boolean expression in the product of max terms form is x’+y’. x+y’ + x+y =z.

Question 13.
Explain polymorphism.
Answer:
The polymorphism is ability of an object to take more than one form in different instances. For example, one function name can be used for different purposes. Similarly, same operator can be used for different operations. There are two types one is the “compile-time polymorphism” and other one is the “run-time polymorphism”.

Question 14.
What is a destructor? Which operator is used with destructor?
Answer:
It is a special member function that destroys the objects that have been created by a constructor when they no longer required. The operator tilde sign (~) is used with destructor.

Question 15.
Name the streams generally used for file I/O.
Answer:
The streams generally used for file I/O is input stream, output stream, and error stream.

Question 16.
What is data mining?
Answer:
It is the process of discovering interesting knowledge, such as patterns, associations, changes, anomalies from large amounts of data stored in databases using pattern recognition technologies as well as statistical and mathematical techniques.

Question 17.
How do you modify the column name and width for existing table?
Answer:
Syntax:
Alter table tablename modify (columnname datatype (size), columnname datatype(size)..);
Example:
Alter table student modify ( studentname varchar2(50) );

Question 18.
What is topology? Mention the common topologies.
Answer:
Topology is the geometric arrangement of a computer system in network. Common topologies include a bus, star, ring and ring topologies.

PART – C

III. Each question carries three marks. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 19.
Explain Integrated Digital Electronics (IDE) port, Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) and Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) port.
Answer:
1. Integrated Digital Eelectronics (IDE) port:
IDE devices like Harddisk drives, CD-ROM drives are connected via 40-pin ribbon cable.

2. Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP):
The AGP is an advanced port designed for Video cards and 3D accelerators designed by Intel. AGP is to provide enhanced graphic accelerator cards, thus enhancing the picture quality of the screen.

3. Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) port:
This port is used for adding external devices such as high-speed hard disks, CD-ROM drives, scanners etc., These ports are expensive but does fast data transfers.

Question 20.
Explain basic gates.
Answer:
The three basic logic gates are NOT, OR and AND gate.
The NOT or inverter is a gate with only one input and one output. The standards symbol for NOT gate is
The truth table for
1. NOT gate:

The truth table for NOT gate:

2. OR gate:
The OR gate has two or more input signals but only one output. If any of the input signal is high the output is high.
The standard symbol for OR gate is

The truth table for OR gate.

3. AND gate:
The AND gate has two or more input signals with one output. When all the inputs are high, then output is high. The standard symbol of AND gate is

The truth table for AND gate:

Question 21.
Explain the memory representation of queue using one-dimensional array.
Answer:
Let Q be a linear array of size N.
The pointer FRONT contains location of front element of the queue (element to be deleted)
The pointer REAR contains location of rear element of the queue (recently added element)
The queue is empty when FRONT = 0
The queue is full when FRONT = N
To add element, REAR = REAR + 1
To delete element, FRONT = FRONT + 1

Question 22.
What is the relationship between string and pointers? Give example.
Answer:
There is a relationship between string and pointers. In C++ string means character array. When a character array is declared then only its first element address is stored. The rest of the elements can be accessed with the help pointer to character array. This is explained with the following example;

Every increment of cptr and printing the value at the location of pointer gives the next element of the character array.

Question 23.
Mention the methods of opening files within C++. Discuss anyone.
Answer:
The methods of opening file within C++ program

• Opening a file using constructor
• Opening a file using member function open() of the class Opening a file using constructor

The.syntax for opening file for output purpose only is ofstream obj(“filename”);
Example:
ofstream out(“results.dat”);

Question 24.
Explain Boyce and Codd form (BCNF).
Answer:
Boyce and Codd form (BCNF):

• When a relation has more than one candidate key, anomalies may result even though the relation is in 3NF.
• 3NFdoes not deal satisfactorily with the case of relation with overlapping candidate keys
• BCNF is based on the concept of a determinant.
• A determinant is any attribute on which some other attribute is fully functionally dependent.

A relation is in BCNF is, and only if, every determinant is a candidate key.

Question 25.
Write a short note on web servers.
Answer:
1. A web server is a computer on which a web site is hosted and a program that runs on such a computer. So the term web server refers to both hardware and software.

2. A web site is a collection of web pages stored or “hosted” on a computer that is connected to the internet. Such a computer is known as a Web Server.

3. A web server program is software that runs on the web site hosting Server computer. Its main purpose is serving web pages for requests from web browsers.

4. There are many web server programs available. The most famous and popular of them all is Apache developed by the Apache Foundation. It is free and also available for several operating systems including Windows, Macintosh, and Linux/Unix.

PART D

IV. Each question carries five marks. (7 × 5 = 35)

Question26.
Using maps simplify the expression m₁+m₃+m₅+m₆+m₇+m₉+m₁₁+m₁₃ in four variables W,X,Y,Z.
Answer:

Question 27.
Write a short note on linked list.
Answer:
Linked list is a data structure in which each element is a separate object and each element is dynamically allocated. Each element in the list is called “node”. A linked list is a dynamic data structure. The number of nodes in a list is not fixed and can grow and shrink on demand. Any application which has to deal with an unknown number of objects will need to use a linked list.
The types of linked lists:

1. Singly linked list
2. Doubly linked list
3. Circular linked list

1. A singly linked list:
The node is comprising of two items – the data and a reference to the next node. The last node has a reference to null. The entry point into a linked list is called the head of the list. The head node is reference to the first node. If the list is empty then the head is a null reference.

2. A doubly linked list:
is a list that has two references, one to the next node and another to previous

3. A circular linked list:
where last node of the list points back to the first node (or the head) of the list.

• Operations on linked lists Creating a linked list
• Traversing a linked list
• Inserting an item into a linked list
• Deleting an item from the linked list
• Searching an item in the linked list
• Merging two or more linked list

Question 28.
Write an algorithm to insert a data element at the rear end of the queue.
Answer:
Step 1: if REAR >= N -1 then
Print “Queue is overflow”
Exit
End of if
Step 2: REAR = REAR + 1
Step 3: QUEUE [REAR] = element
Step 4: if FRONT =-1 then
FRONT = 0

Question 29.
Write a short note on concepts of object oriented programming.
Answer:
Object-oriented programming (OOP) is a programming language model organized around “objects” rather than “actions” and data rather than logic of the program. Object-oriented programming method modularizes a program by creating a memory area for data and member functions together as a single entity.
The following are the basic concepts of object oriented programming.

1. Object:
An object is a combination of code and data that can be treated as a unit. An object can be considered any real time entity (existing thing) that can perform a set of related activities.

2. Class:
The class is a collection of objects that have similar properties and common behavior.

3. Data Abstraction:
The process of hiding the representation of various data items and implementation details of a function from the user program is called data abstraction.

4. Encapsulation:
It is the method of combining the data, attributes, and methods in the same entity is called encapsulation.

5. Function overloading:
Two or more functions with the same name is called function overloading.

6. Polymorphism:
Polymorphism is a Greek word that means Many Shapes. In OOP Polymorphism means the ability to take on many forms. The term is applied both to objects and to functions.

7. Inheritance:
Inheritance is the process by which new objects can acquire the properties of an existing objects of other class.

Question 30.
Explain how objects of a class can be defined?
Answer:
The objects are declared after a class is defined. The object declaration creates object of that class and memory is allocated for the created object. The object are created using the following
syntax:
classname objectname1, objectname2,
example:
student obj1, obj2;
the obj1 and obj2 are the objects of class type student.
The object names are used to access the data members through member functions by invoking member functions.
example:
obj1.getdata(5, 25);
here, metadata() is the member function of a class student and function call is give using object obj1 which assign the value 5 and 25 to the data members of the class. The memory is allocated separately for data members of each object.

Question 31.
Explain friend functions and their characteristics.
Answer.
A friend function is a non-member function and is a friend of a class. It is declared inside a class with the prefix friend and defined outside the class like any other normal function without the prefix friend. This friend function can access private and protected data members if it is a friend function of that class.

The characteristics of friend function are:

• The friend function should not be defined inside the class
• It can be declared inside a class under public, private or protected access specifier since it is a nonmember function and make no difference.
• A friend function should be defined outside the class without prefix friend
• The scope resolution operator should not be used while defining the friend’s function outside the class since it is not member function of any class.
• It should be called like any other normal function and not be called using an object with dot operator.
• The data members of class are accessed through object and dot operator with data member.

Question 32.
An example show how constructors are used with = operator.
Answer:
The constructor argument if limited to single argument then = operator can be used to pass the values to these constructors. This is explained in the following example.

Question 33.
Explain single inheritance with a suitable C++program.
Answer:

Question 40.
Write a short note on Indexed Sequential Access Method.
Answer:
Indexed Sequential Access Method (ISAM):
This method combines both the feature of sequential and random organization. Records are accessed by using an index or a table. The index stores the address of each record corresponding to a key number of the record.

The records within the file are stored sequentially but directly accessed to individual records.
An indexed sequential access method (ISAM) consists of

1. The main file storage
2. A table to maintain the index

Advantages:

• It combines both sequential and direct
• Suitable for sequential access and random access
• Provides quick access to records

Disadvantage:

• it uses special software and is expensive
• extra time is taken to maintain index
• extra storage for index files
• expensive hardware is required

Question 41.
Classify various built-in functions in SQL.
Answer:
The built-in functions are classified as Single row functions and Group functions. The single-row functions are of four types. They are numeric functions, character or text functions, date functions, and conversion functions.

1. Numeric functions:
a. ABS function- The ABS function returns the absolute value of the number you point to.

b. CEIL and FLOOR functions – CEIL returns the smallest integer greater than or equal to its argument. FLOOR does just the reverse, returning the largest integer equal to or less than its argument.

c. POWER function – To raise one number to the power of another, use POWER. In this function the first argument is raised to the power of the second.

d. SORT function – The function SORT returns the square root of an argument.

2. Character or text functions:
1. CHR function – returns the character equivalent of the number it uses as an argument.
2. CONCAT function – function combines two strings together.
3. INITCAP function – capitalizes the first letter of a word and makes all other characters lowercase.
4. LOWER and UPPER functions – LOWER changes all the characters to lowercase; UPPER does just the reverse.
5. LENGTH function – returns the length of its lone character argument.

3. Date functions:
1. ADD_MONTHS function – This function adds a number of months to a specified date.
2. LAST_DAY – LAST_DAY function- returns the last day of a specified month.
3. MONTHS_BETWEEN function – to know how many months fall between month x and
month y,
4. NEXT_DAY function – finds the name of the first day of the week that is equal to or later than another specified date.
5. SYSDATE function – SYSDATE returns the system time and date.

4. Conversion functions:

• TO_CHAR function – to convert a number into a character.
• TO_NUMBER function – it converts a string into a number.

The group functions are:

1. AVG() – Returns the average value
2. COUNT() – Returns the number of rows
3. FIRST() – Returns the first value
4. LAST() – Returns the last value
5. MAX() – Returns the largest value
6. MIN() – Returns the smallest value
7. SUM() – Returns the total value of the given column

Question 42.
What is gateway? Explain.
Answer:
A network gateway is an internetworking system capable of joining together two networks that use different base protocols. A network gateway can be implemented completely in software, completely in hardware, or as a combination of both. The key feature of a gateway is that it converts the format of the data, not the data itself.

Gateway functionality differs in many ways. For example, a router that can route data from an IPX network to an IP network is, technically, a gateway. The same can be said of a translational bridge that, converts from an Ethernet network to a Token Ring network and back again.

Software gateways can be found everywhere. Many companies use an email system such as Microsoft Exchange. These systems transmit mail internally in a certain format. When email needs to be sent across the Internet to users using a different email system, the email must be converted to another format, this conversion process is performed by a software gateway.

In enterprises, the gateway often acts like a proxy server and a firewall. Gateways also associated with router and switch.

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Karnataka 2nd PUC Business Studies Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

SECTION – A

I. Answer any ten of the following questions in a word or a sentence each.
Each questions carries one mark. (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Management is _____________

1. an art
2. a science
3. both art and science
4. neither

Answer:
3. both art and science

Question 2.
Who is known as the Father of General Management?
Answer:
Henry Fayol is known as the Father of General Management.

Question 3.
Give the meaning of ‘Rule’.
Answer:
Rule is a specific statement that informs what is to be done.

Question 4.
A network of social relationship that arise spontaneously due to interaction at work is called _________

1. Formal Organization
2. Informal Organization
3. Decentralization
4. Delegation

Answer:
2. Informal Organization

Question 5.
State any one internal source of recruitment.
Answer:
Transfer

Question 6.
Grapevine is ____________

1. Formal Communication
2. Barrier to Communication
3. Lateral Communication
4. Informal Communication

Answer:
4. Informal Communication

Question 7.
What is ‘Standard’?
Answer:
Standards are the criteria against which actual performance would be measured.

Question 8.
Give the meaning of Capital Structure?
Answer:
Capital structure refers to the mix between owners and borrowed funds.

Question 9.
The settlement in NSE is __________

1. T+5
2. T+3
3. T+2
4. T+l

Answer:
3. T+2

Question 10.
State any one marketing philosophy.
Answer:
The production concept.

Question 11.
State any one regulation which provides legal protection to the consumers.
Answer:
The consumer protection Act, 1986.

Question 12.
Who is an ‘Entrepreneur’?
Answer:
The person who set- up his business is called an entrepreneur.

SECTION – B

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in two or three sentences each.
Each question carrier two marks: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 13.
Define Management.
Answer:
According to Harold Koontz, “Management is the process of designing and maintaining an environment in which individuals, working together in groups, efficiently accomplish selected aims”.

Question 14.
What is Scalar Chain?
Answer:
The formal lines of authority from highest to lowest ranks are known as a scalar chain.

Question 15.
Give the meaning of Business Environment.
Answer:
The term business environment means the sum total of all individuals, institutions and other forces that are outside the control of a business enterprise but that may affect its performance.

Question 16.
State any two features of planning.
Answer:

1. Planning focuses on achieving objectives
2. Planning is a primary function of management.

Question 17.
Differentiate between Delegation and Decentralization by taking any two factors as a basis.
Answer:

Question 18.
What do you understand by Supervision?
Answer:
Supervision is an element of directing. It means overseeing what is being done by subordinates and giving instructions to them. It is also considered an important function to be performed by supervisor.

Question 19. What is Budgetary Control?
Answer:
Budgetary control is a technique of managerial control in which all operations are planned in advance in the form of budgets and actual results are compared with budgetary standards.

Question 20.
State the twin Objectives of Financial Planning.
Answer:

1. To ensure availability of funds whenever required.
2. To see that the firm does not raise resources unnecessarily.

Question 21.
How do you describe Marketing Mix?
Answer:
The marketing mix is described as the set of marketing tools that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market. This term marketing mix is given by Neil H Borden. It is the combination of four inputs namely product, price, promotion and place.

Question 22.
Write any two Rights of Consumers.
Answer:

1. Right to Safety
2. Right to be informed

Question 23.
State any two characteristics of Entrepreneurship.
Answer:

1. Systematic activity
2. Innovation

Question 24.
Expand KASH as explained in the context of Entrepreneurship.
Answer:
K = Knowledge
A = Attitude
S = Skills
H = Habits

SECTION – C

III. Answer any seven of the following questions in 10 – 12 sentences.
Each question carrier 4 Marks: (7 × 4 = 24)

Question 25.
Explain F.W. Taylor’s Scientific Management Principles.
Answer:
Scientific management refers to the use of scientific and standardized tools, methods and trained workers in all organisational activities in order to increase the total production with minimum cost and wastage. Following are the principles of scientific management contributed by FW Taylor.

1. Science not Rule of Thumb:
Taylor was the first person to introduce the method of scientific inquiry into the domain of management practice. He believed that there was only one best method to maximise efficiency i.e., by scientific way. Scientific management includes scientific selection of workers, placement and training, work-study motion study fatigue study, time – study, gradation of equipments and machinery, payment of wages according to work done, etc.

2. Harmony, Not discord:
There should be harmonious relationship between management and workers. Both should realise that each one is important. This avoids class-conflict. To achieve this, Taylor introduced mental revolution. Both management and workers should transform their thoughts in order to achieve harmonious relationship amongst them.

3. Cooperation, Not individualism:
There should be complete cooperation between the labour and the management instead of individualism. Competition should be replaced by cooperation. Both should realise that they need each other. To achieve this fact, the management should consult their employees while taking important decisions.

There should be a two way communication between management and workers. According to Taylor, there should be almost equal division of work and responsibility between workers and management.

4. Development of each and every person to his or her greatest efficiency and prosperity:
Industrial efficiency depends on personnel competencies. According to Taylor, efficiency could be achieved from the beginning i.e., from the time of selection of employees.

Each person must be scientifically selected. Work should be assigned according to his mental and intellectual capabilities Proper training should be given to improve his/her skill. This will contribute to their greatest efficiency and prosperity for both organisation and workers.

Question 26.
Explain any four points to explain how important the understanding of business
environment is for the managers.
Answer:
The importance of business environment can be explained in the following points:

1. Identification of opportunities:
Business environment enables the firm to identify opportunities and getting the first mover advantage. Environment provides numerous opportunities for business success. Early identification of opportunities helps an enterprise to be the first to exploit them instead of losing them to competitors.

2. Identification of threats:
The study of business environment helps the firm to identify threats and helps to know early warning signals.

3. Helps in tapping useful resources:
Environment is a source of various resources for running a business. To engage in any type of activity, a business enterprise assembles various resources called inputs like finance, machines, etc from its environment. The business enterprise supplies the environment with its outputs such as goods and services for customers etc.

Because the enterprise depends on the environment as a source of inputs and as an outlet for outputs, the enterprise designs policies that allow it to get the resources that it needs so that it can convert those resources into outputs that he environment desires. This can be done better by understanding what the environment has to offer.

4. Coping up with rapid changes:
Today’s business environment is getting increasingly dynamic. All business enterprises are facing increasingly dynamic environment. In order to effectively cope with these significant changes, managers must understand and examine the environment and develop suitable courses of action.

5. Assistance in planning and policy formulation:
Since environment is a source of both opportunities and threats for a business enterprise, its understanding and analysis can be the basis for deciding the future course of action or training guidelines for decision making.

6. Improved performance:
The future of an enterprise is closely bound up with what is happening in the environment. And the enterprises that continuously monitor their environment and adopt suitable business practices are the ones which not only improve their present performance but also continue to succeed in the market for a longer period

Question 27.
Explain any two types of plans.
Answer:
Types of plans:
1. Single-use plans:
A single-use plan is developed for a one-time event or project. The examples are

1. Budgets
2. Programmes
3. Projects

2. Standing Plans:
A standing plan is used for activities that occur regularly over a period of time. The examples are

1. Policies
2. Procedures
3. Methods
4. Rules

1. Policy:

1. Policies are general statements that guide thinking.
2. Policies provide a basis for interpreting strategy.
3. Policy is a guide to managerial action and decision in the implementation of strategy.
4. Strategies are formulated by the top management.

Formulation of strategy involves the following aspects:

1. Determination of the long term objectives
2. Adopting a course of action to achieve the objectives and
3. Allocating resources necessary to achieve the objectives.

2. Procedure:
1. Procedures are routine steps on how to carry out activities. They detail the exact manner in which any work is to be performed.

2. Procedures are the guidelines to action and they are usually intended to the works which are repetitive in nature.

3. Examples of procedure include procedure for execution of the customer’s order for supply of goods and procedure for recruitment of employees in an organisation.

Question 28.
Explain any four important tests used for the selection of employees.
Answer:
After screening the applications, eligible candidates are asked to appear for selection tests. The following tests are usually conducted to measure the intelligence, aptitude, proficiency, personality, etc.

a. Intelligence tests:
These tests are used to judge the mental capacity of the applicant. Intelligence tests evaluate the ability of an individual to understand instructions and make decisions.

b. Aptitude tests:
Aptitude means the potential which an individual has for learning new skills. Aptitude test indicate the person’s capacity and his potential for development.

c. Trade or proficiency tests:
These tests are designed to measure the skills already acquired by the individuals. They measure the level of knowledge and proficiency in the area of profession or technical training.

d. Personality tests:
These tests probe for the overall qualities of a person as a while. They provide clues to a person’s emotional reactions, maturity level, value system, etc.

e. Interest tests:
These tests identify the areas in which a candidate has special concern, fascination, involvement, etc. These tests suggest the nature of job liked by a candidate which may bring him job satisfaction.

Question 29.
Explain briefly the steps involved in Controlling Process.
Answer:
Controlling is a systematic process involving the following steps:

1. Setting performance standards:
The first step in the controlling process is setting up of performance standards. Standards are the criteria against which actual performance would be measured. Standards can be set in both quantitative as well as qualitative terms.

2. Measurement of Actual Performance:
Once performance standards are set, the next step is measurement of actual performance. It is generally believed that measurement should be done after the task is completed.

3. Comparing actual performance with standards:
This step involves comparison of actual performance with the standard. Such comparison will reveal the deviation between actual and desired results. Comparison becomes easier when standards are set in quantitative terms.

4. Analysing deviations:
Some deviation in performance can be expected in all activities. After identifying the deviations that demand managerial attention, these deviations need to be analysed for their causes. These causes may be unrealistic standards, defective process, inadequacy of resources, structural drawbacks, etc. It is necessary to identify the exact cause of deviation, failing which an appropriate corrective action might not be possible.

5. Taking corrective action:
The final step in the controlling process is taking corrective action. No corrective action is required when the deviations are within acceptable limits. When the deviations go beyond the acceptable range, it demands immediate managerial attention. Corrective action might involve training of employees if the production target could not be met.

Question 30.
Explain any four factors that affect the Working Capital requirements of a business.
Answer:
The factors affecting the working capital requirement of a business are as follows:

a. Nature of Business:
The basic nature of business influences the amount of working capital required. A trading organization usually needs a smaller amount of working capital compared to a manufacturing organization. Similarly, service industries which usually do not have to maintain inventory require less working capital.

b. Scale of Operations:
for organizations which operate on a higher scale of operation, the quantum of inventory and debtors required is generally high. Such organizations, therefore, require large amount of working capital as compared to the organizations which operate on a lower scale.

c. Business Cycle:
Different phases of business cycles affect the requirement of working capital by a firm. In case of a boom, the sales and production are likely to be larger and therefore larger amount of working capital is required. Working capital requirement will be less during the period of depression as the sales and production will be small.

d. Seasonal Factors:
Most business have some seasonality in their operations. In peak season, because of higher level of activity, larger amount of working capital is required. When the level of activity is less, working capital requirement will be less.

31. Briefly explain any four differences between Capital Market and Money Market.
Answer:

Money Market	Capital Market
It is a market where short-term funds are borrowed and lent.	It is a market where long-term funds are borrowed and lent.
The participants in the capital market are financial institutions, banks, corporate entities, and foreign investors.	The participants in the money market are RBI, banks, financial institutions, and finance companies.
Individuals can take part in the trading of capital market	Individuals cannot directly trade in the money market.
The instruments involved for transaction are treasury bills, calls money, certificate of deposit, commercial papers, commercial bills, etc.	The major players are companies, Individual investors, Institutional Investors, foreign investors, banks and financial institutions.

Question 32.
Explain any four factors that affect the fixation of price of a product.
Answer:
1. Cost of the product:
Cost of the product includes the cost of producing, distributing and selling the product. The cost sets the floor price at which the product may be sold. The firm aims at earning a margin of profit over and above the costs. Total costs are the sum total of the fixed, variable and semi-variable costs for the specific level of activity.

2. The Utility and Demand:
While the product costs set the lower limits of the price, the utility provided by the product and the intensity of demand of the buyer sets the upper limit of the price, which a buyer would be prepared to pay. According to the law of demand, consumers usually purchase more units at a low price than at high price. The price of a product is also affected by the elasticity of demand of the product. If the demand of a product, is inelastic, the firm can fix higher prices and vice versa.

3. Extent of competition in the market:
Price is affected by the nature and the degree of competition. If less competition is there in the market, prices can reach the upper limit. Thus, competitors prices and their anticipated reactions must be considered before fixing the price of a product.

4. Government and legal regulations:
In order to protect the interest of public against unfair practices in the field of price fixing, Government can intervene and regulate the price of commodities. Government can also declare a product as essential product and regulate its price.

Question 33.
Explain any two advantages and any two limitations of Advertising.
Answer:
Advertising is the most commonly used tool of promotion. It is an impersonal form of communication, which is paid for by sponsors to promote some goods or service.

Merits of Advertising:
1. Mass Reach:
Advertising is a medium through which a large number of people can be reached over vast geographical area.

2. Enhancing customer satisfaction and confidence:
Advertising creates confidence amongst prospective buyers as they feel more comfortable and assured about the product quality and hence feel more satisfied.

Limitations of advertising:
1. Less Forceful:
Advertising is an impersonal form of communication. It is less forceful than personal selling as there is no compulsion on the prospects to pay attention to the message.

2. Lack of feedback:
The evaluation of the effectiveness of the advertising message is very difficult as there is no immediate feedback mechanism of the message that is delivered.

Question 34.
State any four responsibilities of consumers while purchasing , using and consuming goods and services.
Answer:
The following are the responsibilities of the consumer:

1. Awareness of Rights:
A consumer must be fully aware of various rights available to him while purchasing the products or availing of any services, such as right to safety, right to be heard etc.

2. Quality Conscious:
A consumer must be cautious in respect of quality of the product like AGMARK, BIS, HALLMARK, etc.

3. Not to be misled by false advertisements:
Normally, the seller exaggerates the quality in their products, but the consumer must compare the actual quality with that stated in the advertisement. He should not be misled through false advertisement in order to safeguard his interest.

4. Cautious Consumer:
A consumer must be honest in his dealings, choose only from legal goods and services and discourage unscrupulous practices like black-marketing, hoarding, etc.

5. Ask for cash memo:
A consumer must ask for a cash memo on purchase of goods or services. This would serve as a proof of the purchases made.

SECTION – D

IV. Answer any four of the following questions in 20 – 25 sentences each.
Each question carrier 8 marks: (4 × 8 = 32)

Question 35.
Explain the Characteristics of Management.
Answer:
Features of Management:

a. Management is a goal oriented process:
Every organisation has a set of basic goals to achieve. Management unites the efforts of different individuals in the organisation towards achieving these goals:

b. Management is all pervasive:
Management activities are universally applicable to all organisations, social, economic and political. Hence, management is all pervasive and a universal phenomenon.

c. Management is multidimensional:
Management is a complex activity and involves three dimensions namely.

1. Management of work
2. Management of people (and)
3. Management of operations

d. Management is a continuous process:
Management consists of a series of functions like planning, organising, staffing and controlling which are continuous and composite in nature. These functions are simultaneously performed by all managers all the time. Hence, management is considered a continuous process.

e. Management is a group activity:
An organisation is a collection of number of individuals with different needs. Every member of the group has different purpose to join the organisation. But, as members of the organisation, they work towards fulfilling the common organisation goal. This requires team work and coordination. Hence, management is a group activity.

f. Management is a dynamic function:
Every organisation works in an environment which keeps on changing. The external environment which consists of various social, economic and political factors keep changing. In order to be successful, an organisation must change itself and its goals according to the needs of the environment. Hence, management is a dynamic environment.

g. Management is an intangible force:
Management cannot be seen but its presence can be felt in the operations of the organisation. The effect of management is noticeable in an organisation where targets are met according to plans, when employees are happy and satisfied. So management is an unseen force but reflects in the collective efforts.

Question 36.
What is Organizing? Explain its importance.
Answer:
Organising is the process of identifying and grouping the work to be performed, defining and delegating authority and responsibility and establishing relationships for the purpose of enabling people to work most effectively together in accomplishing objectives.

The following points highlight the importance of organizing:

a. Benefits of specialization:
Organizing leads to a systematic allocation of jobs amongst the work force. This reduces the workload as well as enhances productivity. Right man is placed for the right job. Repetitive performance of a specific job on regular basis helps worker to gain experience and leads to specialization.

b. Clarity in working relationships:
The establishment of working relationships and clarifies lines of communication and specifies who is to report to whom. This further helps in fixation of responsibility and also specifies the dimensions of authority which an individual can exercise.

c. Optimum utilization of resources:
Organising leads to the proper usage of all material, financial and human resources. The proper assignment of jobs avoids overlapping of work and also makes possible the best use of resources. Avoiding duplication of work prevents confusion and minimizing the wastage of resources.

d. Adaptation to change:
The process of organizing allows a business enterprise to accommodate changes in the business environment. It allows the organization structure to be suitably modified. It provides stability to the organization.

e. Effective administration:
Organising provides clear description of jobs and related duties. This helps to avoid confusion and duplication. Clarity in work relationship enables proper execution of work. Thus, it provides effective administration in the enterprise.

f. Development of personnel:
organizing stimulates creativity amongst the managers. Effective delegation allows the managers to reduce their workload by assigning routine jobs to their subordinates. This reduction in the work load allows the manager to develop new methods and ways of performing tasks for the growth of an organization. It also develops ability among the subordinates to deal effectively with the challenges.

g. Expansion and growth:
Organising helps in the growth and diversification of an enterprise by enabling it to deviate from existing norms and taking up new challenges.

Conclusion:
Thus, organizing is a process by which the manager brings order out of confusion, removes conflict among people over work or responsibility sharing and creates an environment suitable for team work.

Question 37.
Explain the four methods of ON-the -job and any four methods of off-the -job Training.
Answer:
Training:
Training is the process of teaching the new or present employees, the basic skills they need to effectively perform their job.

Importance of training:

1. Improves employee’s ability and skills.
2. Leads to high morale among the employees.
3. The chances of accidents are very less.
4. Become more eligible for promotion.
5. Maintain industrial peace in the organization.

Methods of Training

On the job-training
It is a method, where workers learn by doing the work. The following are the important methods of on the job training:

1. Apprenticeship training
2. Coaching
3. Internship training
4. Job-rotation

Off the job training

1. Classroom lecture
2. Case-study
3. Vestibule training
4. Computer modeling

On the job means learning while doing. The following are the popular on the job training methods:
1. Apprenticeship Programmes:
Apprenticeship programmes put the trainee under the guidance of a master worker. These are designed to acquire a higher level of skill. People seeking to enter skilled jobs like plumbers, electricians, etc., are required to undergo apprenticeship training.

2. Coaching:
In this method, the superior guides and instructs the trainee as a coach. The coach or counselor sets mutually agreed upon goals, suggests how to achieve these goals periodically reviews the trainees progress and suggests changes required in behavior and performance. The trainee works directly with a senior manager and the manager takes full responsibility for the trainee’s coaching.

3. Internship training:
It is a joint programme of training in which educational institutions and business firms cooperate. Selected candidates carry on regular studies for the prescribed period. They also work in some factory or office to acquire practical knowledge and skills.

4. Job Rotation:
This kind of training involves shifting the trainee from one department to another or from one job to another. This enables the trainee to gain a broader understanding of all parts of the business and how the organization as a whole functions. Job rotation allows trainees to interact with other employees.

When employees are trained by this method, the organization finds it easy at the time of promotions, replacements or transfers.

Off the job training means learning before doing. The popular off the job methods of training include:
1. Class room lecture/Conferences:
The lecture or conference approach is used to convey specific information effectively. The use of audio-visuals or demonstrations can often make a formal classroom presentation more interesting.

2. Case Study:
Cases represent attempts to describe, as accurately as possible the real problems faced by the managers. They are generally taken from actual experiences of the organization and its managers.

Trainees study the cases to determine problems, analyse causes, develop alternative solutions, select what they believe to be the best solution and implement it.

3. Computer Modeling:
It stimulates the work environment by programming a computer to initiate some of the realities of the job. It also allows learning to take place without the risk or high costs that would be incurred if a mistake occurs in real life situation.

4. Vestibule Training:
Employees learn their jobs on the equipment they will be using, but the training is conducted away from the actual work floor. Actual work environments are created in a class room and employees use the same materials, tools and equipment. This is usually done when employees are required to handle sophisticated machinery and equipment.

Conclusion:
In order to perform well in an organization, an employee must have the theoretical and practical knowledge of the work. Training provides the practical knowledge that is required of an employee. Thus training is necessary to make the workers alert and active.

Question 38.
Suggest suitable measures to improve communication effectiveness.
Answer:
Perfect and complete communication does not take place many times due to certain obstacles which are known as barriers to communication. Following are the barriers to effective communication:

1. Physical barriers:
Internal structure of the organization and layout of office machines and equipments creates physical barriers in communication. Physical barriers include:

1. Distance
2. Noise
3. Physical arrangement

2. Semantic barriers:
The use of difficult and multiple uses of languages, words, figures, and symbols create semantic barriers. Some semantic barriers are:

1. Language
2. Jargons.

3. Organisational barriers:
These arise from the organizational goals, regulations, structure, and culture. Organisational barriers include:

1. Poor planning
2. Structure complexities
3. Status differences
4. Organisational distance
5. Information overload
6. Timing

4. Psychological barriers:
These are the barriers to effective communication created due to lack of interest in the people for whom the communication is meant. People do not pay attention to the communication in which they are not interested. Examples for psychological barriers are:

• Perception
• Filtering
• Distrust
• Emotions
• Viewpoint

Following are the ways to overcome barriers to effective communication:

1. Clarity of ideas:
The problem to be communicated to subordinates should be clear in all aspects. The entire problem should be studied in depth, analysed and stated in such a manner that is clearly conveyed to subordinates.

2. Communicate according to the needs of receiver:
The level of understanding of receiver should be crystal clear to the communicator. Manager should adjust his communication according to the education and understanding levels of subordinates.

3. Consult others before communicating:
Before actually communicating the message, it is better to involve others in developing a plan for communication. Participation and involvement of subordinates may help to gain ready acceptance and willing cooperation of subordinates.

4. Be aware of languages, tone, and content of message:
The contents of the message, tone, and language used, manner in which the message is to be communicated are the important aspects of effective communication. The language used should be understandable to the receiver and should not offend the sentiments of listeners.

5. Convey things of help and value to listeners:
While conveying message to others, it is better to know the interests and needs of the people with whom you are communicating. If the message relates directly or indirectly to such interests and needs it certainly evokes response from communicate.

6. Ensure proper feedback:
The communicator may ensure the success of communication by asking questions regarding the message conveyed. The receiver of communication may also be encouraged to respond to communication. The communication process may be improved by the feedback received to make it more responsive.

7. Communicate for present as well as future:
Generally, communication is needed to meet the existing commitments to maintain consistency; the communication should aim at future goals of the enterprise also.

8. Follow up communications:
There should be regular follow up and review on the instructions given to subordinates. Such follow up measures help in removing hurdles if any in implementing the instructions.

9. Be a good listener:
The manager should be a good listener. Patient and attentive listening solves half of the problems. Managers should also give indications of their interest in listening to their subordinates.

Question 39.
Explain the steps involved in the Screen based Trading and Settlement Procedure of Securities.
Answer:
The procedure for purchase and sale of securities on a stock exchange involves the following steps:

a. Selection of a broker:
The first step is to select a broker who will buy or sell securities on behalf of the investor as trading of securities can be done only through a broker registered under SEBI.

b. Opening Demat Account:
The investor has to open a demat account or beneficial owner account with a depository participant for holding and transferring securities in the demat form. He will also have to open a bank account for cash transactions in the securities market.

c. Placing the Order:
The investor then places an order with the broker to buy or sell securities. Clear instructions have to be given to the broker on the number of shares, price etc. An confirmation slip is issued to the investor by the broker on placing the order.

d. Executing the Order:
According to the instructions of the investor, the broker will go on¬line and buys or sells the securities. Then, he issues a contract note and a copy of it is sent to the investor. A unique order code number is assigned to each transaction by the stock exchange is printed on the contract note.

e. Settlement:
Now, the investor has to deliver the shares sold or pay cash for the shares bought. This should be done immediately after receiving the contract note or before the day when the broker shall make payment or delivery of shares to the exchange. This is called the pay-in-day.

Question 40.
Explain any eight functions of Marketing.
Answer:
Marketing is concerned with exchange of goods and services from producers to consumers in such a way that maximises the satisfaction of customers’ needs. The various functions of marketing include:

1. Gathering and Analysing marketing information:
One of the important functions of a marker is to gather and analyse market information. This is necessary to identify the needs of the customers and take various decisions for the successful marketing of the product and services.

2. Marketing planning:
Another important area of work of a marketers is to develop appropriate marketing plans so that the marketing.objectives of the organisation can be achieved A complete marketing plan covering aspects like plan for increasing production, promotion of the products etc, and action programmes to achieve these objectives are to be developed.

3. Product Designing and Development:
The design of the product contributes to making the product attractive to the target customers: A good design can improve performance of a product and also give it a competitive advantage in the market.

4. Standardisation and Grading:
Standardisation refers to producing goods of Predetermined specifications, which helps in achieving uniformity and consistency in the output. Standardisation ensures the buyers that goods confirm to the pre-determined standards of quality, price, and packaging.

Grading is the process of classification of products into different groups, on the basis of some of the important characteristics such as quality, size, etc., Grading ensures that goods belong to a particular quality and helps in realising higher prices for high quality output.

5. Packaging and Labeling:
Packaging refers to designing and developing the package for the products. Labeling refers to designing and developing the label to be put on the package. Packaging and labeling have become so important in marketing that these are considered as the pillars of marketing. Packaging protects the products and also acts as an effective promotion tool.

6. Branding:
brand name helps in creating product differentiation. It provides basis for distinguishing the product of a firm with that of the competitor. Branding also helps in building customer’s loyalty and promotes sales of a product.

7. Customer support services:
These include after sales services, handing customer complaints, procuring credit services, maintenance services, technical services and consumer information. All these services aim at providing maximum satisfaction to the customers. Which is the key to marketing success in modern days.

8. Pricing of product:
Price of product refers to the amount of money customers have to pay to obtain a product the marketers have to properly analyse the factors determining the price of a product and then take several other decision such as setting the pricing objectives, determining the pricing strategies, determining the price and changing the prices etc.

9. Promotion:
It involves informing the customers about the firms product, its features etc, and persuading them to buy these products. The four important methods of promotion include advertising, personal selling, publicity and sales promotion. Deciding the budget for promotion, promotional tools to be used etc, are important decisions to be taken by a marketer in this area.

10. Physical Distribution:
The two major areas under this function include

1. Decision regarding channels of distribution.
2. Physical movement of the product from the place of its production to the ultimate consumer’s place.

Managing Inventory, storage, and warehousing, transportation, etc, are key areas under this physical distribution function.

Conclusion:
The modern functions of marketing emphasises more on customer satisfaction. Customer satisfaction itself leads to survival and growth of an organisations. From the view point of management function, the above activities are referred to as the functions of marketing.

SECTION – E

V. Answer any two of the following questions.
Each question carrier five marks: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 41.
Assuming that you are manager of an organization, draw the neat diagram of different Levels of Management to specify that authority – responsibility relationships create different levels of management.
Answer:

Question 42.
Draw the neat diagram of Maslow’s Need Hierarchy.
Answer:

Question 43.
As an exploited consumer, write a complaint letter to your nearest District Consumer Forum claiming reasonable redressal.
Answer:
Bangalore
1^st March, 2019

From
xxxx
No. 74, I cross,
M.L. Layout Bangalore – 560 086

To
The Registrar
Karnataka State Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission
Cunningham Road
Bangalore
Dear Sir,

Sub: Complaint regarding service of two wheeler-Regarding
On 1^st February, 2019, I had bought a kinetic Honda Two wheeler [Model No.] I made this purchase at Mahalakshmi lay out Raveesh showroom on 1^st February, 2019 by paying an amount of Rupees
[Bill Enclosed]
Unfortunately, the two-wheeler is not working properly and the Pick-up is not proper. The brake – systems are also not up to the mark.

To resolve the problem, I approached the show – room authorities who in turn guided me to the authorized service centre. But, the service centre authorities are not ready to do the needful free – of – cost though the warranty period is still on for the vehicle

I look forward to your reply and a resolution to my problem. I am enclosing herewith the receipts, warranty card details, model details of the vehicle bill and other details of the vehicle] Please lodge a complaint against the seller and kindly ensure that timely action is taken in this regard.

Thanking you
Yours faithfully
xxxx

Enclosures:
1. Bill
2. Warranty card
3. Model details

Students can Download 2nd PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Accountancy Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions: –

1. All sub questions of Section – A should be answered continuously at one place.
2. Provide working notes wherever necessary.
3. 15 minutes extra time has been allotted for the candidates to read the questions.
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicates full marks.

Section – A

I. Answer any Eight questions, each question carries One mark : ( 8 x 1 = 08 )

Question 1.
What are the books of accounts maintained by non-profit organisation?
Answer:

1. Cash book
2. ledger
3. Journal.

Question 2.
Mention one circumstance under which fixed capital may change.
Answer:

1. For additional capital
2. Permanent withdrawal of capital.

Question 3.
Why is Sacrifice ratio calculated?
Answer:
Sacrifice ratio is calculated in order to distribute the goodwill brought in cash by the new partner on account of admission.

Question 4.
Who is an executor?
Answer:
Executors are the legal representatives of a deceased partner in a partnership firm.\

Question 5.
State the different types of shares that can be issued by public limited company.
Answer:

1. Equity shares
2. Preference shares.

Question 6.
State any two merits of Financial Statements. ..
Answer:

1. Basis for taxation policies
2. Basis for granting of credit.

Question 7.
State any two uses of Financial Statement Analysis? ‘
Answer:

1. It is useful to prospective investors who would like to know the earning capacity of the firm.
2. It helps the top management in measuring the success of the company’s operations.

Question 8.
What are the various types of ratios?
Answer:

1. Liquidity ratio
2. Solvency ratio
3. Turnover ratio
4. Profitability ratio.

Question 9.
What are debentures?
Answer:
A debenture is an instrument issued by the company under its common seal acknowledging its debts to the holder and promising to repay the debt after a certain period of time with interest at regular intervals.

Question 10.
Mention any one objective of cash flow statements.
Answer:
It show inflow and outflow of cash and cash equivalents from various activities.

Section – B

II. Answer any Five questions, each question carries Two marks : ( 5 x 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
What are Legacies?
Answer:
Legacies are gifts or donations received by non-profit organizations, under a will on the death of a donor.

Question 12.
Give the meaning of fluctuating capital system.
Answer:
Under the fluctuating capital method, the capitals of the partners fluctuate from year to year.

Question 13.
Name any two factors affecting goodwill.
Answer:

1. Profits of the firm
2. Turnover of the firm

Question 14.
Give the journal entry for the asset taken over by partner in case of dissolution of partnership firm.
Answer:
Partner capital account Dr.
To Realisation A/c

Question 15.
What do you mean by forfeiture of shares?
Answer:
Forfeiture of shares means cancellation of the rights of the shareholder on the shares held by him for non payment of allotment money or call money or both, on such shares.

Question 16.
Name any two types of financial statements.
Answer:

1. Income Statement
2. Position Statement

Question 17.
Write any two objectives of Ratio analysis.
Answer:

1. It is useful for making projections and estimates for the future.
2. To know the area of business, which needs more attention.

Question 18.
Give the meaning of Cash Equivalents.
Answer:
Cash equivalents are short term, highly liquid investments that are easily convertible into cash and which are subject to an insignificant risk of change in value. In other words, cash equivalents are held for the purpose of meeting short term cash commitments rather than for investment or any other purpose. An investment held for short-term maturity, say three months can be regarded as cash equivalent. Some examples of cash equivalents are treasury bills, commercial papers, etc.

Section – C

III. Answer any Four questions, each question carries Six marks : ( 4 x 6 = 24 )

Question 19.
Pramod and Vinod are partners in a firm. Pramod’s drawings for the year 2014-2015 are given as under:
₹ 4,000 on 01.06.2014
₹ 6,000 on 30.09.2014
₹ 2,000 on 30.11.2014
₹ 3,000 on 01.01.2015
Calculate interest on Pramod’s drawings at 8% p.a. for the year ending on 31.03.2015 under product method.
Answer:

Calculation of Interest
Interest ⇒Total product x Interest rate x 1/12 ⇒ 93000 x 1/12

Question 20.
Vani, Rani and Soni are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4: 3: 2. Soni retires from the firm. Vani and Rani agreed to share equally in future.
Calculate Gain Ratio of Vani and Rani.
Answer:
Calculation of Gain Ratio
Gain Ratio = New Ratio – old ratio

Question 21.
X, Y and Z are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 2 :1. Their capital balances on 01. 04. 2015 stood at ₹ 90,000, ₹ 60,000 and ₹ 40,000 respectively. Mr. Y died on 31.12. 2015. Partnership deed providers the following :
(a) Interest on capital at 10% per annum.
(b) Salary to Mr. Y ₹ 2,000 per month.
(c) Y’s share of goodwill.
(d) His share of profit up to the date of death on the basis of previous year’s profit.
(i) Total goodwill of the firm is ₹ 54,000.
(ii) Profit of the firm for the year 2014-2015 is ₹ 30,000.
You are required to ascertain the amount payable to executors of Y by preparing executor’s account.
Answer:
Y’s Executor’s Account

Question 22.
A. Ltd. issued 10,000,10% debentures of ₹ 1 00 each at a premium of 5 % payable as follows:
₹ 10 on Application;
₹ 20 along with premium on allotment and balance on first and final call. Record necessary Journal Entries.
Answer:

Question 23.
From the following information prepare the balance shcet of Jam Ltd. Inventories ₹ 7,00,000; Equity Share Capital ₹ 16,00,000; Plant and Machinery ₹ 8,00,000; Preference Share Capital ₹ 6,00,000; General Reserves ₹ 6,00,000; Bills payable Rs 1,50,000; Provision for taxation ₹
2,50,000; Land and Building ₹ 16,00,000; Non-current Investments ₹ 10,00,000; Cash at Bank ₹ 5,00,000; Creditors ₹ 2,00,000; 12% Debentures ₹ 12,00,000.
Answer:

Question 24.
Handa Ltd. has inventory of 20,000. Total liquid assets are 1,00,000 and quick ratio is2: 1. Calculate current ratio.
Answer:

Question 25.
From the information given below you are required to calculate the cash paid for the inventory:

Particulars	₹
Inventory ¡n the beginning Credit Purchases Inventory ln the end Trade payables ¡n the beginning Trade payables in the end	40,000 1,60,000 38,000 14,000 14,500

Answer:

Cash paid for Inventory amounts to ₹ 1,59,500

Section – D

VI. Answer any Four questions, each question carries Twelve marks : ( 4 x 12 = 48 )

Question 26.
Following are the Balance Sheet and Receipts and Payments Account of Ganesh Education Trust, Udupi.


Adjustments:
(i) Subscription outstanding ₹ 5,000.
(ii) Subscription received in advance ₹ 5,000.
(iii) Salary prepaid ₹ 2,500.
(iv) Capitalise 50% of entrance fees and 100% of donations
(v) Depreciate Building by 10% p.a.
Prepare: a) Income and expenditure A/c for the year ending on 31.03.2015
b) Balance Sheet as on 31.03.2015.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure A/c for the year ending 31.3.2015

Question 27.
Ajay and Vijay are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. Their Balance Sheet as on 31.03.2015 was as follows :

On 01.04.2015, Mr. Sanjay is admitted into partnership on the following terms:
(a) He should bring ₹ 20,000 as capital for th share and ₹ 12500 towards goodwill.
(b) Depreciate machinery and furnitures by 10% p.a. each.
(c) Appreciate buildings by 20% p.a.
(d) Increase R.B.D. on Debtors to ₹ 3,000.
(e) Prepaid insurance ₹ 1,000 Prepare:
(i) Revaluation account
(ii) Partners’ capital accounts
(iii) Opening balance sheet of new firm as on 0,1.04.2015.
Answer:

Question 28.
Ashith, Ashik and Ashin are partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1 on 31.3.2015 then balance sheet was as follows:

i) They decided to dissovie the firm on the above date and the assets reatisea as follows:
Machinery – ₹ 20,000
Debtors – ₹ 24000
GoodwiJi – ₹ 12,000
Bills receivables – ₹ 2,000
Stock – ₹ 18,000
Balance Sheet as on 3 1-3-2015
In addition to this one unrecorded asset investment was also realised for ₹ 5,000
ii) Creditors were settled at ₹ 21,400 in full settlement, Bank loan was paid in full. The dissolution expense amounted to ₹ 600.
Prepare:
i) Realisation A/c
ii) Partners capital A/c
iii)BankA/c
Answer:

Question 29.
Akash Co.Ltd. issued 40000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each at a premium of ₹ 2 per share to the public, payable as follows:
₹ 3 on application,
₹ 4 on Allotment (including premium)
₹ 3 on first call
₹ 2 on final call.
All the shares subscribed and the money duly received except on final call on 800 shares. The Directors forfeited these shares and re-issued them as fully paid up at ₹ 7 per share.
Pass the necessary Journal Entries related to the above information.
Answer:

Question 30.
Following are the balance sheets of Alpha Ltd., as at March 31, 2014 and 2015:

you are required to prepare a comparative Balance Sheet.
Answer:

Question 31.
X. Ltd. issued 5,000, 15% debentures of ₹ 100 each January 01, 2014 at a discount of 10%, redeemable at a premium of 10% in equal annual drawings in 4 years but of capital.
Give journal entries both at the time of issue and redemption of debentures. (Ignore the treatment of loss on issue of debentures and interest).
Answer:

Question 32.
The following are the profit and Loss account and balance sheet of Sharathi Trading Co. Ltd. for the year ended on 31.03.2015:

From the above information calculate,
(a) Gross profit ratio.
(b) Current ratio
(c) Stock Turnover ratio
(d) Liquidity ratio
(e) Operating ratio.
Answer:

Note :
Operating cost = Cost of goods sold + operating expenses
2,50,000 + (75000 + 60000) = 3,85,000

Section – E
(Practical Oriented Questions)

V. Answer any Two questions, each question carries Five marks: ( 2 X 5 = 10 )

Question 33.
Classify the following items into capital and Revenue
a. X-Ray plant purchased by a hospital.
b. Interest received.
c. Sale of old sports materials.
d. Carriage paid on goods purchased.
e. Donation received for constructing a swimming Pool. .
Answer:
a. Capital
b. Revenue
e. Capital
d. Revenue
e. Capital

Question 34.
Prepare Executors Loan Account with imaginary figures showing the repayment in two annual equal installments along with interest.
Answer:

Question 35.
Write the Proforma of cash flows from operating activities under Direct method.
Answer:
Cash flows from operating Activities (Direct method)

Students can Download 2nd PUC Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper June 2019, Karnataka 2nd PUC Accountancy Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper June 2019

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions: –

1. All sub questions of Section – A should be answered continuously at one place.
2. Provide working notes wherever necessary.
3. 15 minutes extra time has been allotted for the candidates to read the questions.
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicates full marks.

Section-A

1. Answer any Eight questions, each question carries One mark : (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Give an example for specific donation.
Answer:
Legacies.

Question 2.
In order to form a partnership there should be atleast.
(a) One person
(b) Two persons
(c) Seven persons
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Two persons

Question 3.
State any one method of valuation of goodwill.
Answer:
The important methods of valuation of good will are as follows
(a) Average profit methods
(b) Super profit method or any other method

Question 4.
General reserve is transferred to continuing partners capital account (State True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Equity shareholders are
(a) Creditors
(b) Owners
(c) Customers of the company
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Owners

Question 6.
Expand D.R.R.
Answer:
DRR – Debenture redemption reserve.

Question 7.
Capital Reserve is shown under _______ head in the balance sheet of a company.
Answer:
Reserves and surplus – Equities and liabilities head.

Question 8.
Give any one objective of Financial Statement Analysis.
Answer:
Two objectives of financial statement:

1. To present a true and fair view of the financial performance, i.e., profit/loss of the business
2. To provide information about cashflows

Question 9.
Quick ratio is also known as
Answer:
Liquid ratio.

Question 10.
What do you mean by cash flows?
Answer:
A cash flow statement is a statement showing inflows (receipts) and out flows (payments) of caash during a particular period.

Section – B

II. Answer any Five questions, each question carries Two marks : (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
What is not for profit organisation?
Answer:
Non profit organisation are those orgainsations which are formed to render social service and not for making profits, such as promotion of education, sports, and games, science and techonology etc.

Question 12.
State any two features of partnership.
Answer:
The features of partnership are

1. Partnership is an agreement between two or more persons to do business and to share its profit or loss in agreed ratio.
2. Partnership may be carried on by all or by any of them acting for all.

Question 13.
Goodwill of the firm is valued at two years purchase of average profits of last 4 years. The total profits for the last 4 years are ₹ 80,000. Calculate the goodwill of the firm.
Answer:
Goodwill = Average profit of last 4 years × No. of years of purchase = Rs. 20,000 × 2 years = Rs. 40,000.
Average profit = \(\frac{\text { Total profit }}{\text { No. of years }}=\frac{80,000}{4}\) = 20,000

Question 14.
Give the journal entry for the asset taken over by a partner on dissolution of firm.
Answer:
Partner capital account Dr.
To Realisation A/c

Question 15.
Mention any two features of company.
Answer:
The features of a company are

1. Company is an artificial person created by law
2. A company has perpetual legal existence different and distinct from that of its member.
3. Enjoys limited liability.

Question 16.
Write any two limitations of financial statements.
Answer:
The limitations of financial statements are –
(a) Doesn’t reflect current situation
(b) Non-monetary factors are ignored
(c) It records only historical costs.

Question 17.
List any two tools of financial statement analysis.
Answer:
The two tools of financial statement analysis are

1. Common size statements.
2. Comparative statements.

Question 18.
Investing activities.
Answer:
It is an important item in the cash flow statement related to sales and purchase of long-term fixed assets like land and building, plant and machinery, furniture etc.

Section-C

III. Answer any Four questions, each question carries Six marks : (4 x 6 = 24)

Question 19.
Anil and Sunil are partners, started business on 1.4.2017. They share profits and losses equally. They invested capital ₹ 2,00,000 and ₹ 1,60,000 respectively. For the year ended 31.3.2018, they earned a profit of 80,400 before following adjustments.
(a) Interest on capital at 10% p.a.
(b) Interest on drawing Anil – ₹ 2,000 Sunil – ₹ 1,600
(c) Annual salary payable to Anil – ₹ 6,000
(d) Annual commission payable to Sunil ₹ 4,000
Prepare Profit and loss appropriation account for the year ended 31.3.2018.
Answer:
In the books of Anil and Sunil

Question 20.
Arun, Varun and Kiran are equal partners in a partnership firm. Varun retires from the firm. Arun and Kiran decided to share the profits in future in the ratio of 4:3.
Calculate gain ratio.
Answer:
Calculation of Gain Ratio of Arun and Kiran

∴ Gain Ratio = 5:2

Question 21.
Mahesh, Mohan and Naresh are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 :2 :1. Their capitals on 1.4.2017 was 1,00,000, 80,000 and 50,000 respectively. Mahesh died on 1.10.2017 and the partnership deed provides the following:
(a) Interest on capital at 10% p.a.
(b) Mahesh entitles for a monthly salary of ₹ 4,000.
(c) Mahesh’s share of goodwill. The total goodwill of the firm is ₹ 50,000
(d) His share of profit upto the date of death, on the basis Of previous year’s profit. Previous year profit is ₹ 20,000.
Prepare Mahesh’s Executors Account.
Answer:

Question 22.
Sunlight Ltd., issued 20,000 10% Debentures of ₹100 each payable.
₹ 10 per debenture on application
₹ 40 per debenture on allotment
₹ 50 per debenture on first and final call
All the debentures were subscribed and money duly received
Pass the journal entries in the books of the company.
Answer:

Question 23.
Following information is related to Akash Ltd.,

Prepare statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31.3.2017 as per Schedule III of Company Act 2013.

Question 24.
Calculate current ratio and Quick ratio from the following information :

Answer:

Question 25.
The following is the statement of Profit and loss of Moon Ltd., Statement of Profit or loss for the year ended 31.3.2017

Additional Information :
(a) Trade receivable decreased by ₹ 20,000 during the year
(b) Prepaid expenses increased by ₹ 4,000 during the year
(c) Trade payable increased by ₹ 10,000 during the year
(d) Outstanding expenses increased by ₹ 1,000 during the year
(e) Other expenses includes depreciation ₹ 20,000.
Compute Net cash flow from operations for the year ended 31.3.2017 by indirect method.
Answer:

Section – D

VI. Answer any four questions, each question carries Twelve marks : 4 × 12 = 48

Question 26.
The following is the Balance Sheet and Receipts and payments account of Karawali Sports club, Karwar.


Adjustments:
(a) Subscription outstanding for the year 2017-18 is ₹ 5,000.
(b) Subscriptions received in advance for 2018-19 ₹ 2,000.
(c) Depreciate sports materials by ₹ 8,000
(d) Outstanding salary for 2017-18 ₹ 4,000
(e) Capitalize, 1/2 of the entrance fees.
Prepare:
(i) Income and expenditure account for the year ended 31.3.2018
(ii) Balance Sheet as on 31.3.2018.
Answer:

Question 27.
Anand and Vinod are partners in a firm, sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. Their balance sheet as on 31.3.2017 was as follows:


On 1.4.2017 Pramod was admitted into partnership on the following terms:
(a) He should bring ₹ 50,000 as capital and ₹ 20,000 towards goodwill for 1/5 share of profits in future.
(b) Depreciate furniture at 10% p.a. and appreciate building by 20% p.a.
(c) Provision for doubtful debts increased by ₹ 3,000
(d) Goodwill is to be withdrawn by the old partners.
Prepare:
(i) Revaluation account
(ii) Partners capital account
(iii) Balance sheet of the firm after admission.
Answer:

Question 28.
Vinay and vaibhav and Naveen are partners is a firm, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2:1 respectively. Their balance sheet as on 31.3.2018 was as under

The firm was dissolved on the above date. The assets realised as under :
(a) Debtors realised 10% less than book value, stock realised 15% more than book value. Building realised ₹ 60,000.
(b) Creditors and Bills payable were paid in full.
(c) Furniture was taken over by Vinay for ₹ 25,000
(d) Machinery was taken over by Vaibhav for ₹ 40,000
(e) Cost of dissolution amounted to ₹ 3,000.
Prepare:
(a) Realisation account
(b) Partners’ Capital Account and
(c)BankA/c
Answer:

Question 29.
Murdershwar Tiles Ltd., issued ₹ 50,000 equity shares of 10 each at a premium of ₹ 2 per share. The amount payable was as under:
₹ 2 on application
₹ 6 on allotment (including premium)
₹ 4 on first and final call. ‘
All the shares were subscribed and the money was duly received except first and final call on 5,000 shares. The directors forfeited these shares and reissued them as fully paid up at ₹ 7 per share.
Pass the journal entries regarding issue, forfeiture and re-issue of forfeited shares.
Answer:

Question 30.
Sahyadri Ltd., issued 5000, 12% debentures of? 100 each on 1.4.2017 at a discount of 10% redeemable at a premium of 10%.
Give journal entries relating to the issue of debentures and debenture interest for the year ending 31.3.2018 assuming that interest was paid half yearly on 30th September and 31st March. Tax deducted at source is 10%.
Answer:

Question 31.
The following are the balance sheets of Samudra Ltd., as on 31.3.2017 to 31.3.2018


Prepar comparative balance sheet
Answer:

Question 32.
The following are the Summarised Profit and loss a/c for the year ended 31.3.2018 and balance sheet as on that date.


Calculate:
(a) Inventory turnover ratio
(b) Trade receivable turnover ratio
(c) Trade payable turnover ratio
(d) Gross profit ratio
(e) Net profit ratio
(f) Operating ratio.
Answer:

Section – E
(Practical Oriented Questions)

V. Answer any Two questions, each question carries Five marks : (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 33.
How do you treat the following in the absence of partnership deed?
(a) Sharing of profit
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Interest on drawing
(d) Interest on advances from partners
(e) Remuneration to partners for firms work.
Answer:
(a) Interest on capital – Nil
(b) Interest on drawing – Nil
(c) Interest on loan – 6%P.a
(d) Distribution of Profit or losses – Equally
(e) Salary to partner – Nil

Question 34.
Write the pro-forma of balance sheet of a company with main heads only.
Answer:

Question 35.
Write the pro-forma of cash flows from operating activities under direct method.
Answer:

Students can Download 2nd PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs. 15 Min.
Max. Marks: 70

PART-A

I. Each question carries one mark. (10 × 1 =10)

Question 1.
What is microprocessor?
Answer:
It is a program controlled semiconductor device (1C), which fetches, decode and executes instructions.

Question 2.
Write the standard symbol for AND gate.
Answer:

Question 3.
What are data structures?
Answer:
A data structure is a systematic way of organising, storing and accessing data.

Question 4.
Is it possible to access data outside a class?
Answer:
Yes, the public members can be accessed by member functions of the class and nonmember function (outside the class) of the class.

Question 5.
How do we initialize a pointer?
Answer:
The initialisation of pointer:
Pointervariable = &variable;
For example;
int a, *ptr;
ptr = &a;

From the above, address of variable ‘a’ is assigned to variable ‘ptr’.

Question 6.
What is normalization?
Answer:
Normalization is the process of reorganizing data in a database by eliminating duplication and ensuring data dependencies.

Question 7.
Expand ARPANET.
Answer:
The Advanced Research Projects Agency Network

Question 8.
What are cookies?
Answer:
A cookie is an HTTP header that consists of text-only data saved on your computer. Cookies are used by Web sites to keep track of their visitors.

Question 9.
What is the URL?
Answer:
Uniform Resource Locator

Question 10.
Define domain.
Answer:
A domain name is a unique name that identifies a website on the internet.

PART-B

II. Each question carries two marks. (5 × 2=10)

Question 11.
What are the fundamental products for each of the input word
Answer:
ABCD = 0010, ABCD = 0110, ABCD = 1110
Write SOP expression.
ABCD = 0010, ABCD =0110, ABCD = 1110. Write SOP expression.
The SOP expression for ABCD = 0010
\(\overline{\mathrm{A}} \overline{\mathrm{B}} \mathrm{C} \overline{\mathrm{D}}\) = m₂
The SOP expression for ABCD =0110,
\(\overline{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{B} \mathrm{C} \overline{\mathrm{D}}\) = m₆
The SOP expression for ABCD = 1110
\(A B C \bar{D}=M_{14}\)

Question 12.
Draw a general K-map for 4-variables A, B, C, and D.
Answer:

Question 13.
Explain data encapsulation.
Answer:
The data encapsulation is a technique that combines data and functions into a single unit called class. Here, data can be accessed through member function only present inside the class. Data encapsulation enables data hiding or information hiding.

Question 14.
Why are constructors needed in a program? Justify.
Answer:
The objects are not automatically initialized when created. The explicit call to initialization member function can only initialize the object. This method proves to be inconvenient when large number of objects need to be initialized by giving separate function calls. This problem can be overcome by automatically initializing objects when they are created using constructor.

Question 15.
Differentiate between ifstream class and ofstream class.
Answer:

• The ifstream class supports input operations whereas ofstream class supports output operations on file.
• The ifstream class inherits functions from is tream whereas stream class inherits functions from ostream.
• The inherited member functions of ifstream are get(), getlineQ, read(), seekgQ and tellgO whereas ofstream member function are put(), write(), seekp() and tellp().

Question 16.
What is relational algebra?
Answer:
Relational algebra is a formal system for manipulating relations. Operands of this algebra are relations (a set of tuples). Operations of this algebra include the usual set operations and special operations defined for relations. The Fundamental operations of Relational algebra are Select, Project, Union, Set different, Cartesian product.

Question 17.
What are the logical operators in SQL?
Answer:
The logical operators in SQL are ALL, AND, ANY BETWEEN, EXISTS, IN, LIKE, NOT, OR, IS NULL, UNIQUE.

Question 18.
What is a SIM card?
Answer:
A Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) card is a portable memory chip used mostly in cell phones. These cards hold the personal information of the account holder, including his or her phone number, address book, text messages, and other data.

PART – C

III. Each question carries three marks. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 19.
Explain the characteristics of motherboard.
Answer:
1. Physical characteristics, which in combination are called the form factor like XT, AT Baby AT and ATX motherboard;

2. The chipset used, which defines the capabilities of the motherboard such as an AMD, Intel, NVidia, SiS, or VIA chipset;

3. The processors the motherboard supports; Different processors use different sockets or slots.

Question 20.
Draw the logic gate diagram to implement NOT gate using NAND and NOR gate.
Answer:
Logic gate diagram to implement NOT gate using NAND

Logic gate diagram to implement NOT gate using NOR

Question 21.
Explain the memory representation of queue using arrays.
Answer:

• Let Q be a linear array of size N
• The pointer FRONT contains location of front element of the queue (element to be deleted)
• The pointer REAR contains location of rear element of the queue (recently added element)
• The queue is empty when FRONT = 0
• The queue is full when REAR = N To add element, REAR = REAR + 1
• To delete element, FRONT = FRONT +1

Question 22.
What is new operator in C++? Give example.
Answer:
The new operator in C++ allocates memory dynamically.
Syntax:
pointervariable = new datatype;
Example:
ptr = new int;

Question 23.
Mention the types of file organisation. Explain anyone.
Answer:
The different types of file organsiation are sequential or serial organization, Direct Access or Random organization, Indexed sequential Access Method (ISAM).

Sequential or serial organization:
In sequential access, records within a file are read or written in sequential order i.e., in the same order they are organized in the file. In sequential or serial access, the information can be retrieved in the same sequence in which it is stored. The data records are arranged one after the other. The records are stored on the basis of order of the record.

In sequential organization, the data records are stored in a predetermined order based on the key fields. There is a definite relationship between logical position and physical position. The key field organizes the records

Question 24.
Give the different notations for the E-R diagram.
Answer:
The different notations for E-R Diagram

Question 25.
Write the advantages of WWW.
Answer:
Advantages of WWW:

• Availability of mainly free information
• Reduces the costs of information
• The same protocol of communication can be used for all the services
• Provide rapid interactive communication
• Provides the exchange of huge volumes of data

Question 26:
What are the steps involved in hosting a webpage?
Answer:
The steps involved in hosting a webpage are

1. Selecting type of web hosting services
2. Installation of web applications
3. Domain registration
4. Developing web content and
5. Uploading HTML files

PART-D

IV. Each question carries five marks. (7 × 5 = 35)

Question 27.
State and prove De Morgan’s theorem algebraically.
Answer:
DeMol’gan’s Theorems:
a. (A + B) = A* B
b. A*B = A + B
Proof of DeMorgan’s Theorem (b):
For any theorem X = Y, if we can show that X Y = 0, and that X + Y = 1, then by the complement postulates, A A = 0 and A + A = 1, X = Y. By the uniqueness of the complement, X = Y. Thus the proof consists of showing that (A*B)*( A + B) = 0; and also that (A*B) + ( A + B) = 1.


Question 28.
What are the operations performed on linear data structures?
Answer:
The various operations performed on linear data structures are
1. Traversal:
The process of accessing each data item exactly once to perform some operation.

2. Insertion:
The process of adding a new data item into the given collection of data neats.

3. Deletion:
The process of removing existing data item from the given collection of data items.

4. Searching:
The process of finding the location of a data item in the given collection of data items.

5. Sorting:
The process of arrangement of data items in either ascending or descending order.

6. Merging:
The process of combining the data items of two structures to form a single structure.

Question 29.
Write an algorithm to insert an element into the array.
Answer:
A is an array
N is number of elements (size)
Element is a data element
Pos is location of element to be inserted.
Insertion (A, N, Element, Pos)
Step 1: for i = N-l downto Pos repeat step 2
Step 2: A(i+1] = A[i]
End for
Step 3: A [Pos] = Element
Step 4: N = N + 1

Question 30.
Explain the advantages of OOP.
Answer:
The advantages of OOP are
1. OOP provides a clear modular structure for programs. Large problems can be reduced to smaller and more manageable problems.

2. In OOP, data can be made private to a class such that only member functions of the class can access the data. This principle of data hiding helps the programmer to build a secure program.

3. Implementation details are hidden from other modules and other modules has a clearly defined interface.

4. It is easy to maintain and modify existing code as new objects can be created with small differences to existing ones.

5. With the help of polymorphism, the same function or same operator can be used different purposes. This helps to manage software complexity easily.

6. In OOP, programmer not only defines data types but also deals with operations applied for data structures.

7. It is easy to model a real system as real objects are represented by programming objects in OOP.

8. With the help of inheritance, we can reuse the existing class to derive a new class such that the repetition of code is eliminated and the use of existing class is extended. This saves time and cost of program.

Question 31.
Illustrate with an example of how an array of objects can be defined.
Answer:
The arrays can be used as data members and objects as well. For example,



in the above example, data members are name, Regno, and fees are data members. The getdata() and printdataQ are the members functions of the class student and obj is an array of objects of type class student. The for loop is used to pass value to data members. for all the objects and another time for loop is used to print the data values of data members of the class.

Question 32.
Explain the features of copy constructor.
Answer:
The features of copy constructors are

• copy constructor is a special type of parameterized constructor.
• It is normally used to copy one object into another.
• They are normally used to initialize object with values of already existing object.
• Copy constructors should have at least one argument of the same class and must be passed as a constant reference type.
• The copy constructor cannot be invoked explicitly but can be equated to an already existing object in the declaration itself.

For example:
x a1; _ _ _ default constructor invoked
X a2 = a1; _ _ _ copy constructor invoked.
The C++ compiler creates default copy constructor automatically.

Question 33.
Write a C++ program to find the volume of a cone, cube, and cylinder using overloaded function.
Answer:


Question 34.
What are the types of inheritance? Explain any two.
Answer:
The different type of inheritances is Single inheritance, Multiple Inheritance, Hierarchical Inheritance, Multi-level inheritance, and Hybrid inheritance.
1. Single inheritance:
A derived class with only one base class is called single inheritance. For example, If A is base class then class 6 derive from base class A.

2. Multilevel inheritance:
A class can be derived from another derived class which is known as multilevel inheritance. For example, The derived class C inherit B class whereas B is derived from class A.

Question 35.
Explain the Codd’s rules for database management.
Answer:
Dr. Edgar Frank Codd was a computer scientist while working for IBM he invented the relational model for database management. Codd proposed thirteen rules (numbered zero to twelve) and said that if a Database Management System meets these rules, it can be called as a Relational Database Management System. These rules are called as Codd’s 12 rules
Rule Zero:

• The system must qualify as relational, as a database, and as a management system.
• The other 12 rules derive from this rule. The rules are as follows :

Rule 1:
The information rule:
All information in the database is to be represented in one and only one way, namely by values in column positions within rows of tables.

Rule 2:
The guaranteed access rule:
All data must be accessible. This rule is essentially a restatement of the fundamental requirement for primary keys. It says that every individual value in the database must be logically addressable by specifying table name, column name and the primary key value of the row.

Rule 3:
Systematic treatment of null values:
The DBMS must allow each field to remain null (or empty). The NULL can be represented as “missing information and inapplicable information” that is systematic, distinct from all regular values, and independent of data type. Such values must be manipulated by the DBMS in a systematic way.

Rule 4:
Active online catalog based on the relational model:
The system must support an online, inline, relational catalog that is accessible to authorized users by means of their regular query language

Rule 5:
The comprehensive data sublanguage rule:
The system must support at least one relational language that

1. Has a linear syntax
2. Can be used both interactively and within application programs,
3. Supports data definition operations, data manipulation operations, security and integrity constraints, and transaction management operations.

Rule 6:
The view updating rule:
All views that can be updated theoretically, must be updated by the system.

Rule 7:
High-level insert, update, and delete:
This rule states that insert, update, and delete operations should be supported for any retrievable set rather than just for a single row in a single table.

Rule 8:
Physical data independence:
Changes to the physical level (how the data is stored, whether in arrays or linked lists etc.) must not require a change to an application based on the structure.

Rule 9:
Logical data independence:
Changes to the logical level (tables, columns, rows, and so on) must not require a change to an application based on the structure.

Rule 10:
Integrity independence:
Integrity constraints must be specified separately from application programs and stored in the catalog. It must be possible to change such constraints as and when appropriate without unnecessarily affecting existing applications.

Rule 11:
Distribution independence:
The distribution of portions of the database to various locations should be invisible to users of the database. Existing applications should continue to operate successfully.

Rule 12:
The non subversion rule:
If the system provides a low-level (record-at-a-time) interface, then that interface cannot be used to subvert the system, for example, bypassing a relational security or integrity constraint

Question 36.
Write the differences between order by and group by commands with example.
Answer:
SQL ORDER BY – clause is used in a SELECT statement to sort results either in ascending or descending order.

The syntax for using SQL ORDER BY clause to sort data is:
> SELECT column-list FROM table_name ORDER BY column1, column2,.. column [DESC]];
For Example: If you want to sort the employee table by salary of the employee, the SQL query would be.
> SELECT name, salary FROM employee ORDER BY salary;
By default, the. ORDER BY Clause sorts data in ascending order. If data to be sorted in descending order, the command would be as given- below
> SELECT name, salary FROM employee ORDER BY name, salary DESC;
SQL GROUP BY Clause –
The SQL GROUP BY Clause is used with the group functions to retrieve data grouped according to one or more columns.
The basic syntax of GROUP BY clause is given below. The GROUP BY clause must follow the conditions in the WHERE clause and must precede the ORDER BY clause if one is used.
> SELECT column1, column2 FROM table_name WHERE [ conditions ]
GROUP BY column1, column2
ORDER BY column1, column2
For Example: If you want to know the total amount of salary spent on each department, the query would be:
> SELECT dept, SUM (salary) FROM employee GROUP BY dept;
The group by clause should contain all the columns in the select list expect those used along with the group functions.
> SELECT location, dept, SUM (salary) FROM employee GROUP BY location, dept;

Question 37.
Give the measures of preventing virus.
Answer:
The different measures for preventing virus are
1. Always use licensed software.

2. Password protect your PC to prevent unattended modification.

3. Install quality antivirus:
The users should install professional, business-grade antivirus software on their PCs. Pro-grade antivirus programs update more frequently throughout the, protect against a wider range of threats (such as rootkits), and enable additional protective features (such as custom scans).

4. Install real-time anti-spyware protection Use of professional (or fully paid and licensed) anti-spyware programs are required to prevent infections and fully remove those infections already present.

5. Disable autorun:
Many viruses work by attaching themselves to a drive and automatically installing themselves. As a result, connecting any network drives, external hard disks, or even thumb drives to a system can result in the automatic propagation of such threats. The users can disable the Windows autorun feature to avoid.

6. Don’t click on email links or attachments:
Users should never click on email attachments without at. least first scanning them for viruses using a business-class anti-malware application. As for clicking on links, users should access Web sites by opening a browser and manually navigating to the sites.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2016, Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2016

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Section-A

I. Answer any TEN of the following questions: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
What is a life table?
Answer:
Life table is a tabular presentation of numerical data describing the mortality experience of a cohort.

Question 2.
Define an ‘Index number’.
Answer:
Index number is a statistical measure, designed to show an average change in a variable or group of related variables with respect to time, geographical area or income group etc.

Question 3.
Write the formula for computing Marshall-Edgeworth’s quantity Index number.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is a histogram?
Answer:
The graph of actual values of time series is called Histogram.

Question 5.
What are the values that a Bernoulli variate can take?
Answer:
0,1.

Question 6.
Name the distribution for which standard deviation and variance are equal.
Answer:
Standard Normal distribution.

Question 7.
What is confidence coefficient?
Answer:
The probabilty that the confidence interval contains the parameter is called confidence coefficient (1 – α).

Question 8.
Define critical region.
Answer:
The set of all those values of the test statistic, which leads to the rejection of the bull hypothesis, is called critical region (w).

Question 9.
Write the degrees of freedom while testing independence of attributes in a 2 x 2 contingency table.
Answer:
1 degrees of freedom.

Question 10.
What is chance cause of variation?
Answer:
A small amount of variation for which no specific cause can be observed in the quality of the product, this variation is called as ‘chance causes’.

Question 11.
Define ‘Solution’ in an LPP.
Answer:
A set of real value X = (x₁,x₂,……….x_n), which satisfies the constraints A X(≤ = ≥)b, is called a solution.

Question 12.
What is a two-person zero sum game?
Answer:
In a game of two players, the gain of one player is the loss of the other is called two – person zero – sum game.

Section – B

II. Answer any TEN of the following questions : (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 13.
There was a reord of 4000 live births in a city in a year. The number of neonatal deaths was 100. Calculate the neonatal mortality rate.
Answer:
Neo-natal mortality rate. (N. M. R)

N.M.R = \(\frac { 100 }{ 4000 }\) × 1000 = 25.

Question 14.
Write any two limitations of index numbers.
Answer:

• Many formulae are ased and they give different answers for the index.
• As the customs and habits change from time to time, the uses of commodities also vary.

Question 15.
If P^L₀₁ = 105 and P^P₀₁ = 125, then find P^DB₀₁.
Answer:

Question 16.
Mention all the components of a time series.
Answer:

• Secular trend
• Seasonal variation
• Cyclical variation
• Irregular/Random variation.

Question 17.
Define interpolation and extrapolation.
Answer:
‘Interpolation’ is the technique of estimating the value of the dependent variable (Y) for any intermediate value of the independent variables (X). Extrapolation is the technique of estimating the value of dependent variable (Y) for any value of the independent variable (X) which is outside the range of the given series.

Question 18.
For a chi-square variate with 9 degrees of freedom, obtain mean and mode of the distribution.
Answer:
Given : n = 9; Mean = n = 9; Mode = (n – 2) = 9 – 2 = 7.

Question 19.
Write the values of β₁, and β₂ in a t-distribution.
Answer:
For a t-distribution β₁, = 0 (Non – skewed) and β₂ > 3 (Lepto Kurtic).

Question 20.
Compute SE(p₁ – p₂), given n₁ = 80, n₂ = 40, P₁ = 0.8 and P₂ = 0.4
Answer:

Here P₁= P₀₁ ; P₂ = P₀₂ and Q₀₁ = 1 – P₀₁ = 1 – 0.8 = 0.2, Q₀₂ = 1 – P₀₂ = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6

Question 21.
Define Null and Alternative hypothesis.
Answer:
Null hypothesis is a hypothesis, which is being tested for possible rejection, assuming that it is true. (H₀) null hypothesis is rejected, is called alternative hypothesis (H₁).

Question 22.
Compute the lower and upper control limits for X̄-chart when X̄₁ =40, σ₁ = 6 and A = 1.342
Answer:
L.C.L = X̄¹ – Aσ¹ = 40 – (1.342 × 6) = 31.948 U.C.L = X̄¹ + Aσ¹ = 40 + (1.342 × 6) = 48.052

Question 23.
The objective function and two solutions of an LPP are Max Z = 200x: + lOOy and A(0,18); B (12,0). Find the optimal solution.
Answer:
Z_A = 200(0)+100(18)= 1800, Z_B = 200 (12)+100(4) = 400
Z_B is maximum and so, the optimal solution is at B: n = 12, y = 0.

Question 24.
Define pure and mixed strategy in a game.
Answer:
Pure strategy of a player is the pre-determined decision / Rule to adopt a specified course of action irrespective of the course of action of the opponent.

Mixed strategy of a player is his pre-decision to choose his course of action according to certain pre-assigned probabilities.

Section – C

III. Answer any EIGHT of the following questions : (8 x 5 = 40)

Question 25.
Compute the net reproduction rate from the following data :

Answer:

W.S.F.R – Women specific fertility rate

W.S.F.R(15 -19) = \(\frac { 1250 }{ 50,000 }\) × 100 = 25

N.R.R = 5 × 120 = 600.

Question 26.
Calculate weighted GM price index number for the year 2014 from the following data.

Answer:

Question 27.
What is a consumer price index number? Write any four of its uses.
Answer:
Cost of living index number/consumer price index number is the index number of the cost met by a specified class of consumers in buying a basket of goods and services.
Uses:

• It is commonly used in fixation of salary, dearness allowances to the employees.
• They are used by govt, in formulation of price policy, wage policy and general economic policies.
• They are used in evaluation of purchasing power of money and deflating the money.
• They are used for comparing cost of living of different classes of people.

Question 28.
Compute 4 – year moving averages from the following data :

Answer:
Let X and Y be the year and profit.

Here
4YMT-4 yearly moving total.
4YCMT – 4 yearly centered moving total.
4YCMA – 4 yearly centered moving average.

Question 29.
Interpolate the number of workers earning wages Rs. 775 per day from the following table.

Answer:
Let X and Y Wages and no.of workers.
Here the no. of Known values of Y are n = 15 , so prepare leading differences upto Δ₄

Here ‘Y’ value to be determine for X = 775. The Newton’s formula of interpdation is.

= 50 + 125 + 46.875 + 4.6875 – 1.5625
Y₇₇₅ = 225 are the number of workers earns wages ₹.775 per day.

Question 30.
40% of the buttons manufactured by a firm are found to be defective. In a random sample of six buttons, find the probability of getting.
(i) exactly 4 defective buttons
(ii) more than one defective button.
Answer:
Let X be the number of buttons manufactured is a Binomial.
Variate with parameters n = 6 and p = 40% = 0.4, so q = 1 – p = 0.6. Then the probability mass function is:
p (x) = ⁿC_x p^x q^n-x= 0, 1, 2 ……. n.
= ⁶C^x (0.4)^x (0.6)^6-x; x = 0, 1, 2 6.
(i) P(exactly 4 defective buttons) = p(x = 4)
= ⁶C₄ (0.4)⁴ (0.6)^6-4 = 15 × 0.0256 × 0.36 = 0.1382

(ii) P(more than 1 defective button) =p(x > 1) = 1 -p(x = 0)
= ⁶C₀ (0.4)⁰ (0.6)^6-0 = 1.1. 0.466 = 0.0466.

Question 31.
There are 20 marbles in a box, out of which 12 are red coloured and the rest white coloured. A child picks 6 marbles at random. Find the probability that the child gets 4 red coloured marbles.
Answer:
Let x be the number of red coloured marbles picked is a Hypergeometric variate with the parameters a = 12 (Red), b = 20 – 12 = 8 (White) and n – 6 (picked, then the p.m.f is:-)

Question 32.
Among 400 randomly -selected persons of a city, 280 like ice-cream. Test at 1% level of significance that 50% of the people in that city like ice-creams.
Answer:
Linking ice-cream is an attribute, so use test for proportion.
Given: n = 400, x = 280 (ice cream liked)
∴ Sample proportion : p \(\frac{x}{n}=\frac{280}{400}\) and
P₀ = 0.5 (50% people like ice cream): α = 1%
H₀: 50% people like ice cream (i.e., P₀ = 0.5)

H₁ : people liking ice cream differ from 50% (i.e., P₀ ≠ 0.5 ) {two tailed test ±K)
under H₀ the test statistic is :

At α = 1% the two tail crtical values are ±K = ± 2.58
Here Z_cal lies in Rejection Region (R.R)
∴ H₀ is rejected and H₁ is aceepted.
conclusion: P₀ ≠ 0.5 : people liking ice cream differ from 50%.

Question 33.
From the following, test whether mean of the first population is greater than the mean of the second population. (Use α = 5%)

Answer:
Given: n₁ = 10, n₂ = 12, x̄₁ = 62, x̄₂ = 55, S₁² = 16 and S₂² = 25 (S² sample variance). Here n₁, n₂ < 30 use small sample, t-test for equality of means, α = 5%

H₀: Means of first and second population are same (i.e., µ₁, = µ₂)
H₁ : Mean of first population is greater than mean of second population (i.e., µ₁ > µ₂) {upper tail test ±k}
under H₀ the t-test statistics is:-

At α = 5% for (n₁ + _2-2) = 10 + 12 – 2 = 20 d.f the upper tail critical value k = 1.73
Here t_cal lies in rejection region (R.R)
∴ H₀ is rejected and H₁ is accepted.
Conclusion: Mean of first population is greater than second population (µ₁ > µ₂)

Question 34.
Twenty rolls of different types of cloth contained the following number of defects in each roll : 2, 4, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 2, 3, 6, 4, 8, 2, 4, 5, 2, 3, 1, 2, 4.
Calculate the control limits for C-chart.
7; SC
Answer:
Standard is not known, for c-chort we need \(\overline{\mathrm{C}}=\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{C}}{k}\) = C – no. of defects and k = 20 rolls.
∴ C̅ = \(\frac { 75 }{ 20 }\) = 3.75. The control limits are:-
C.L = C = 3.75;
L.C.L = \(\overline{\mathrm{C}}-3 \sqrt{\overline{\mathrm{C}}}=3.75-3 \sqrt{3.75}\) = 3.75 – 5.8094 = -2.0594 = 0
U.C.L = \(\overline{\mathrm{C}}+3 \sqrt{\overline{\mathrm{C}}}=3.75+3 \sqrt{3.75}\) = 9.5594.

Question 35.
For the following transportation problem, find the initial basic feasible solution by Matrix Minima Method and obtain the cost associated with the solution.

Answer:
By matrix minimum method, the first allocation is made at the least cost cell as below:

Here Σa ₁ = 560 = Σb_j T.R is balanced.
Lest cost is 4 at (3, 3), allocated as: X₃₃ = min (110,330) = 110, ‘C’ is satisfied So, delete and replace 330 by (330 -110) = 220

Next least cost is 5 at (2, 1) allocate as: X₂₁ = min (100, 80) = 80. 1 is satisfied and delete. Replace 100 by (100 – 80) = 20.
Next reduced table is:

The least cost in the reduced cost matrix is 8. Allocate as:- X₂₂ = min (20, 150) = 20. B is satisfied and delete, replace 150 by (150 – 20) = 130.

Next allocate at (1,3) as X₁₃ = min (350,220) = 220. Ill satdisfied and the last allocation of the remaingcell is: X₁₂ = min (350-220,130) = min (130,130)= 130.
The suggested initial basic feasible solution and its cost is:-

Question 36.
A machine costs Rs. 8,000. Its maintenance cost and resale value per year are given

Determine the optimal replacement age of the machine.
Answer:
Given: P = 8000, the given data can be written as bellow:

From the above table the A(n) – Annual average maintenance cost is minimum for the year n = 5 is the optimal replacement age of the machine. A(5) = ₹ =2976.

Section – D

IV. Answer any TWO of the following questions : (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 37.
From the following data calculate the Standardised Death rate. Hence find the locality with healthier population.

Answer:
Let A, B – be the Age specific death rates of locality A and locality B and Ps be the standarc population.


For locality A: As (OR (< 20) = \(\frac { 81 }{ 9000 }\) × 1000 = 90, similarly can be calculated for other age groups.
For locality B: A.S.D.R (< 20) = \(\frac { 80 }{ 8000 }\) × 1000 = 10, similarly can be calculated for other age

groups.
Conclusion: Here S.D.R. (A) < S.D.R (B), so locality A is healthier population than localite B.

Question 38.
For the following data, compute Fisher’s price Index number. Show that Fisher’s Index number satisfies Time reversal and Factor reversal tests

Answer:
Expenditure – Base year = p₀ q₀, current year – p₁ q₁

Question 39.
Find a parabolic trend of the form Y = ax + bx + cx² for the following time series.

Answer:
Let x and y be the year and students strength.

Here X̄ = middle most year = 2012
From the normal equation: na + b Σx + c Σx² = Ey
5a + b.0 + c.10 = 53; 5a + 10c = 53 ………. (1)
From: a Σx + b Σx² + c Σx³ – Σxy; a.0 + b.10 + c.0 = 0
10 b = 0 ∴ b = 0.
And from: a Σx² + b Σx³ + c Σx⁴ = Σx²y; a. 10 + b.0 + c.34 = 120
i. e., 10a + 34c = 120 …….(2)
From (1) and (2)

∴ c = 1. put c = 1 in (1) we get 5a +10 (1) = 53, 5a = 53 – 10
a = \(\frac { 43 }{ 5 }\) = 8.6.
The fitted parabolic trend equation is: ŷ = a + bx + cx²
ŷ = 8.6 + 0x + 1x²; ŷ = 8.6 + x²

Question 40.
Fit a Poisson distribution to the following data and test the goodness of fit at 5% level of significance

Answer:
Let X be the number of mistakes is a poisson variate with λ is obtained as below:- let f be the no of pages, then from the frequency disribution:



The fitted theoretical and observed frequency distribution is:- (Approximated)

χ² -TEST: H₀: poisson distribution is good fit (0_i = E_i)
H₁: poisson distribution is not a good tit (0_i ≠ E_i
Under H₀, the χ²-test statistic is:-

Here λ is estimated from the data and so d.f. will be (n – 1 – 1) = (n – 2)

∴ χ_cal² = 1-8309
At α = 5% for (n – 2) = 6 – 2 = 4d.f the upper tail critical value k₂ = 9.49.
Here χ_cal² lies in acceptance region.
∴ H₀ is accepted
Conclusion: Poisson distribution is good fit (0_i = E_i).

Section – E

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 41.
The distribution of monthly income of Rs. 5,000 workers of a factory follows Normal distribution with mean Rs. 10,000 and standard deviation Rs. 1,000. Find the probability of the number of workers.
(i) having income more than Rs. 9,000
(ii) having income in between Rs. 8,500 and Rs. 12,000.
Answer:
Let x be the monthly income is a normal variate with the parameters μ= 10,000 and σ = 1,000 and N = 5000. Then S N.V is


(i) P(income more than ₹9000) = P(X > 9000)

No. of workers = 0.8413 × 5000 = 4206.5

(ii) P(income between ₹ 8500 and ₹ 12,000) = p(8500 < x < 12000)


= Area from (-1.5) to ∞ – Area from 2 to ∞
= 0.9332 – 0.0228 = 0.9104
No. of Workers = 0.9104 × 5000 = 455.2.

Question 42.
Samples of electric lamps manufactured by two firms gave the following results :

Test at 5% level of significance whether the average life of bulbs manufactured by firm A is les than the average life of bulbs manufactured by firm B.
Answer:
Given: n₁, = 120, n₂ = 160, x̄₁ = 2540, x̄₂ = 2600 S₁ = 96, S₂ = 108, α = 5%
H₀: average life of firm A and firm B is same (i.e., μ₁ = μ₂)
H₁ : Average life of firm A is less than firm B (i.e., μ₁ < μ₂) {Lower tail test}
Under H₀, the test statistic is:


At α = 5% the lower tail critical value -k = – 1.65
Here Zcal lies in rejection region (R.R)
∴ H₀ is rejected and H₁ is accepted.
conclusion: Average life of lamps of firm A is less than firm B lamps (i.e., μ₁ < μ₂).

Question 43.
A normal variate has variance 100. Twenty random observations of the variate has variance 144. Test at 1% level .of significance whether the variance of the population is 100.
Answer:
Given: σ² = 100: n = 20, S² = 144, a = 1%
H₀: population variance is 100 (i.e., σ² = 100)
H₁ : population variance differs from 100 {i.e., σ² ≠ lOO) (two tailed test)
Under H₀, the χ² – test statistic is:-


At α = 1% for (n – 1) = 20 – 1 = 19 d.f the two tail critical values are k₁ = 6.84 and k₂ = 38.6
Here χ_cal² lies in acceptance region (A.R)
∴ H₀ is accepted.
Conclusion: Population variance = 100 (i.e., σ² = 100).

Question 44.
The demand for an item is 7,000 units per year. The cost of placing an order is Rs. 300 per year. The holding cost is Rs. 10 per unit per year. The shortage cost is Rs. 3 per unit per year. Find
(i) Economic Order Quantity
(ii) Minimum annual average inventory cost.
Answer:
Given: R = 7000, c₃ = 3000, c₁ = 10 and c₂ = 3
c₂ is given, so use EOQ model II
(i) Economic Order Quantity: EOQ =

= 648.074 × 2.0816= 1349.03 items/year

(ii) Min. Annual average invertory cost:

= 6480.74 × 0.4804 = ₹ 3113.35 / year.