2nd PUC

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Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in a sentence each. (10 × 1=10)

Question 1.
What is Diarchy?
Answer:
Diarchy is Dual government.

Question 2.
Which Act, attempted to establish Federation
in India?
Answer:
1935 Act attempted to establish ‘Federation in India’.

Question 3.
Give an Example to Direct Election.
Answer:
Lok Sabha, Vidhana Sabha elections.

Question 4.
Expand U.P.A.
Answer:
United Progressive Alliance.

Question 5.
Who led the mass in the entry of Kalaram temple?
Answer:
Dr B.R. Ambedkar.

Question 6.
What is economic exploitation?
Answer:
Exploitation which leads to economic in-equality is called economic exploitation.

Question 7.
What is prepoll alliance?
Answer:
Alliance with other like minded political parties before going to election is called prepoll alliance.

Question 8.
Who said, “On this earth, there is enough for everyone’s need; but not for greed”.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi said this.

Question 9.
Name the present President of Syria.
Answer:
Bashar-al-Assad.

Question 10.
What is Apartheid?
Answer:
Discrimination on the basis of colour is called Apartheid.

II.Answer any ten of the following in 2 to 3 sentences: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
How many Articles and schedules are there in the Act of 1935?
Answer:
The 1935 act contained 321 articles and 13 schedules.

Question 12.
Define Civil Service.
Answer:
According to E.A. Gladden – “Civil Service is a regulated administrative system organised as a service of inter-related officers”.

Question 13.
Name any two Acts which relate to women protection.
Answer:

1. ProtectionagainstDomesticViolenceAct2005.
2. Abolition of Child Marriage Act 2005.

Question 14.
What is the meaning of Nation-building?
Answer:
Nation-building is the process of uniting people with a sense of nationalism, building of nation power and national institutions, achieving socio-economic, educational and scientific developments, National reconstruction and all-round development.

Question 15.
What is state sponsored terrorism?
Answer:
When states deliberately support terrorist groups which may lead to violation of human rights, it is called state sponsored terrorism.

Question 16.
Write two instances when coalitions are. formed.
Answer:

1. When no single party gets absolute majority.
2. When political parties have made pre-poll alliances.

Question 17.
What is Brain drain?
Answer:
When the well educated ones and bright students go abroad for higher studies and gainful employment opportunities, it is called brain drain

Question 18.
When was the League of Nations signed and come into effect?
Answer:
The League of Nations was signed in 1919 and came into effect in 1920.

Question 19.
What is National Power?
Answer:
The sum total of the strengths and capabilities of the state harnessed is called National Power.

Question 20.
What are Perestroika and Glasnost?
Answer:
Perestroika means restructuring and Glasnost means openness. It was introduced by the then President of USSR Mikhail Gorbachev.

Question 21.
When and where was the first NAM Summit held?
Answer:
The 1^st NAM Summit was held at Belgrade, Yugoslavia in 1961.

Question 22.
Name any two military alliances.

1. North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)
2. WARSAW Pact.

III. Answer any 8 of the following in 15 to 20 sentences: (8 × 5=40)

Question 23.
Write a note on Interim Government.
Answer:
The Interim Government of India was formed on 2nd September 1946. The constituent Assembly had 389 members. It was drawn from the newly elected Constituent Assembly of India. It had the task of assisting the transition of India and Pakistan from British rule to independence.

It remained in force until 15th August 1947, when India became independent. The Constituent Assembly became a sovereign body and performed the role of legislature for the new State. It was responsible for framing the constitution and making ordinary laws as well.

Question 24.
Give reasons for language as a basis for States re-organisation.
Answer:
Language as a basis for re-organisation is important because of the following reasons.

• Language is closely related to culture and customs of people.
• Spread of education and literacy can occur only through medium of mother tongue.
• To a common citizen, democracy can be real only when politics and administration are conducted, in their language.
• Linguistic states can provide education, administration and judicial activity in their mother tongue. Therefore, it was assumed that free India would base its boundaries on linguistic principles.

Question 25.
Explain the features of indirect elections.
Answer:
Features of Indirect Elections are:
Selection of best candidates:
In this method, candidates are elected by intelligent voters. At the first instance, General public elects their representatives to the electoral college and at the second instance, the elected representatives in turn judiciously elect the final representatives of legislature or head of the nation. This method involves double election. Elected representatives act wisely with political acumen.

1. Prevents unhealthy campaigning:
It avoids all sorts of evils like dirty propaganda tricks and instigation of people lover petty issues to divide. them. F or example in the election of the President of India the average voters are kept outside but only elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament participate. These intelligent and responsible members keep away from all sorts of party gimmicks.

2. Peaceful voting:
In this method, there is no scope for illegal activities or fights during the election as it happens in the direct election. In the electoral process, only small members of enlightened voters peacefully exercise their votes judiciously. The elections are conducted according to well defined norms and values.

3. Little scope for emotions:
Elected representatives are not carried away by passions or sentiments nor can be influenced like an average voter. There is no chance for misusing sensitive issues for political gains. The higher level leaders are elected by people’s representatives who act with a sense of responsibility.

4. Suitable to developing nations:
Since majority of the voters are ignorant, not educated and intelligent, only a small group of politically educated and wise voters elect responsible and public spirited representatives.

Question 26.
What are the five functions of a Deputy Commissioner?
Answer:
The Deputy Commissioner (DC) is the head of the District. He also acts as the District Magistrate, Superintendent of Police (SP), District Treasury Officer, Deputy Director of Pre University Education, Social Welfare Officer, Deputy Director of Public Instruction, District Medical. Officer, Deputy Registrar and other functions under the jurisdiction of the Deputy Commissioner. The Deputy Commissioner performs the following functions.

1. Law and order and Magisterial powers:
Deputy Commissioner enjoys magisterial powers. Being the District Magistrate, he maintains law and order and performs other judicial functions in the district.

2. Revenue functions:
It includes maintenance of Land Records and its assessment, collection of Land Revenue and other public dues and settlement of land disputes. Assistant Commissioners and Tahsildars work under the overall supervision and control of the Deputy Commissioner.

3. Development Functions:
It includes Public f Health, Educational Rural Development, Social Welfare (Scheduled Caste and [ Scheduled Tribe) and Welfare of Backward Classes and Minorities and Protection of Weaker sections of the Society.

4. Regulatory Functions:
It includes control, regulation and distribution of Food and Civil Supplies and essential commodities. He also controls the matters relating to excise, stamps and registration.

5. Electoral Functions:
Deputy Commissioner is the District Election Officer and he is in charge of elections to Parliament, State Legislature and Local bodies.

Question 27.
Discuss the political implications of labour Movement.
Answer:
Political Implications: To meet the demands of work and to provide welfare programmes, the Government has taken some measures. They are:
1. Constitutional measures:
Part IV of the Indian Constitution which deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy directs State Governments to adopt socialist measures like equal pay for equal work for both men and women and to provide leave facilities for pregnant women for both prenatal and postnatal care. The concurrent list empowers the Governments to legislate on workers welfare.

2. Government of India has made legislation on personal Labour Laws as follows:
The Labour Laws of 1970 have fixed the wages of workers appointed on contract basis. Workmen compensation Act of 1923, Salary Payment Act of 1936, Weekly Holiday Act of 1942, Minimum Wages Act of 1948, Employees Provident Fund Act of 1952, Bonus Act of 1965 are some of the important labour acts.

Some Prominent Labour Organisations are,

3. All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC):
With the belief in socialistic pattern of society, this started in 1920. It was working as a Labour Union and came under the grip of Communists after independence. It aims at nationalization of industries, protection of labour rights and labour welfare etc.,

4. Indian National Trade Union Congress(INTUC):
Because of ideological differences, some congressmen came out of AITUC and started INTUC in May 1947, with the support of Congress Party on non-violent philosophy.

5. Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS):
Founded by Dattopanth Thengdi for upholding the patriotic spirit among the labour population during 1955 on the birthday of Sri Bal Gangadhar Tilak. It is not affiliated to any international trade union confederation. An estimated 5860 labour unions are affiliated to BMS and it is one of the largest central Trade Unions of India according to the 2002 statistics of Ministry of labour.

6. Centre for Trade Union (CITU):
Communist leaders like S.A. Dange and EMS. Nambood- aripad took the stand to oppose the imperialistic attitude of the trade union In 1964, Marxists started CITU because of the differences between leftists and rightists in AITUC. West Bengal, Kerala and Tripura are the strong hold of Marxists.

7. Other major organizations:
Hindu Mazdoor Sabha, (HMS) Hind Mazdoor Panchayath (HMP), United Trade Union Congress (UTUC) and other organizations are also struggling hard to protect the interests of labourers. In total Labour Movements are trying to improve the welfare and standard of living of workers.

The success of these movements can be seen through Governmental Programmes. As Karl Marx said, “Unite the workers of the world, you are going to lose shackles of the slavery, but nothing else”. The celebration of May day throughout the world on 1 st of May every year proves the significance of labour force and the movement.

Question 28.
What are the causes for Environment Movement?
Answer.
Causes for Environmental Movement are as follows.
To protect the Environmental degradation:
The Government of India has taken measures for economic development including industrial and technological development. This has led to industrialization, urbanization and their adverse effects like loss of cultivable land, and also on the fertility of the soil.

1. To protect Mo-diversity:
Deforestation for fuel and construction purposes has left the wildlife and birds to become orphan. Hence Chipco, Appico and Save Western Ghats Movements started.

2. Environment education and consciousness:
Living amidst environment, formal education in (j schools, colleges and non-governmental organizations have created awareness and consciousness among human beings. Programmes, rallies and Jathas have gone a long way in this direction.

3. To curb environment decay:
The greediness of the people to excavate and exploit resources have resulted in soil erosion, drying up of rivers and reservoirs, pollution of air, water and sound etc. To maintain equilibrium and to pressurize the people in power to take measures, these movements emerged.

Question 29.
Explain the causes for caste based inequality.
Answer:
1. Caste based inequality:
Inequality means denying opportunities and privileges to some classes, making discrimination on the basis of caste, religion, gender, birthplace etc., Discriminating people on the grounds is prevalent in caste is caste based inequality. From the ancient period, caste based inequality in Hindu Society. Hindu society was divided into four varnas and the contents of Manu Smriti were followed.

In modern society, inequality is based on the available privileges for upper and lower castes, which also has contributed to social inequality. Varna System was based on the professions such as Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vysyas and Sudras. Gradually it got converted into caste based discrimination by the law of Manu. Later on, inequality prevailed in Hindu society.

2. Social Distance:
Due to lack of interaction individual among different castes, their cultures, traditions, folkways, mores, food habits, social intercourse and so on are not known to others and not appreciated or acknowledged. Hence, it is called a closed society. It has leads to strong caste bias amongst them.

3. Illiteracy and conservation:
Illiteracy and ignorance among people make them conservative and moulds them to narrow mindedness and superstitions. They believe in old customs and traditions. Such people are very orthodox in their nature. They oppose strongly to any change in society and consider their own caste as superior and others as inferior.

4. Sense of prestige:
The strong desire of the people belonging to a particular cast enhances the prestige of their own, to get benefits and privileges from the society. Other castes which get neglected remain unprivileged and suffer from social status inequality.

5. Marriage restrictions:
In this closed society, only endogamous marriages are accepted. Elders do not honour marriages fixed outside their subsects. In such a situation, strong caste feeling develops and leads to inequality.

Question 30.
Explain the various provisions of UAPA passed in 2008.
Answer:
This Act was passed by the Parliament in 2008. The UAPA (Unlawful Activities Prevention Act) replaced POTA. It contains the following main provisions. Terrorist Act is defined in section 15 of the Act as “Any act which threatens the unity, integrity, sovereignty of India or with intent to strike terror in the people or any section of people in India or in any foreign country”.

1. Those persons who have the intention of aiding, abetting or committing a terrorist act shall be punishable with imprisonment for 10 years and fine.

2. Punishment for raising funds for terrorist acts is 5 years which may extend to life imprisonment and liable for fine.

3. It prescribes punishment for recruitment of persons for terrorist acts and their training. The punishment is 5 years which may extend to imprisonment for life and liable for fine.

4. Every offence punishable under this Act shall be deemed to be a cognizable offence. If the investigation cannot be completed within 90 days, the court may extend the detention period up to 180 days.

5. If there are sufficient grounds for detention of an accused person under the Act, no bail is granted. Further, no bail shall be granted to a foreigner who has entered the country illegally except in very exceptional circumstances and for reasons to be recorded in writing.

6. The Central Government has the power to freeze, seize or attach funds or other financial assets or economic resources of the terrorist groups.

Question 31.
How Globalisation is helpful in higher education?
Answer:
Globalisation is the process of integrating the j economy of a country with world economy. The strongest manifestation of globalization has been the increasing economic integration among countries in trade and investment. An important attribute of globalisation is the increasing degree of openness, which has three
dimensions.

The chain of reforms that took place with regard to business, manufacturing and financial industries targeted at strengthening the economy of the country to more proficient levels. It allows people in search of jobs and education at global level. Hence mobility is made simple and easy. Several in the market companies | introduce the best quality of goods at the lowest price.

This leads to healthy competition in the economic field. It removes and restrictions. Now people can get jobs education at higher levels as per they desire. Today more companies many global institutions help them to get the concept of global village and reduce the gap among the countries. All countries come together under one roof, people can communicate with each other exchanging their culture, habits, lifestyle etc.,

Question 32.
Discuss the origin of the BRICS nations t regional cooperation.
Answer:
It is important to note that BRICS is the acronym for an Association of five major emerging national economies like Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. The group was originally known as ‘BRIC’ before the inclusion of South Africa in 2010. The BRICS members are either developing or are newly industrialized and are distinguished by their large fast growing economics and significant influence on regional and global affairs. All five are G-20 members. Presently, South Africa holds the chair of the BRICS group.

Summit level meetings:
The leaders of RIC Countries. Russian President Valdmir Putin, Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and Chinese President Hu-Jinatao-held the first summit in St.Petersburg on July 17, 2006, as part of the G-8 Summit conference program. Later, Brazil jointed the summit meeting.

The Foreign Ministers of the. initial four BRIC national met in New York in September 2006. They singled out agriculture the prevention of natural calamities and elimination of their aftermath and promotion of healthcare as primary areas. A fullfledged diplomatic meeting was held in Yekaterinburg.

The summit focussed on the means of improving the global economic situation and reforming financial institution. In the aftermath of the Yekaterinburg summit, the BRIC nations announced the need for a new global reserve currency, which would have to be “diversified, stable and predictable”.

Question 33.
Explain the Disarment policy.
Answer:
Major concern of India’s foreign policy in the post cold war period is disarmament and arms race in the world. As a leader of NAM, India established beyond doubt that arms race is at the expense of human development. Expenditure on arms and ammunitions depletes and distorts economic progress, programs for removal of poverty, eradiction of diseases, spread of education and easy availability of basic needs.

India is not a signatory to the NPT (Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty) CTBT(Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty) and also to other nuclear or war treaties. India conducted nuclear tests at Pokran in 1974 (Smiling Buddha) and 1998 (Sakti-I and Sakti-II). Though India is one among the major nuclear powers in the world, it is only for civil use and development, not for armed or nuclear race.

The ultimate goal is comprehensive and complete disarmament of all forms of nuclear, chemical and conventional weapons. India established Indira Gandhi Prize . for Peace, Disarmament and Development, to recognize the persons, who work for the promotion of disarmament and peace in the world.

In 2013, German Chancellor Angela Merkel won this award for her commitment to universal peace and disarmament. Millions of people all over the world are aware that a nuclear war will turn our earth into a graveyard of human race and wipe out its achievements.

As a result, 2013 Noble Prize for Peace was awarded to the Organisation for Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW), the international group in which India is one of the founder members, for its continuous efforts towards disarmament.

Question 34.
How the recent visits of leaders influence on the Indo-China relations?
Answer:
Business leaders from China visited India and signed many Memorandum of Understandings (MOUs) with Indian Companies. As a member of BRICS, China decided to stop Staple Jammu and Kashmir residents. This gesture resumed the defence, business and trade ties between the two nations in April 2011. Chinese Premier Wen Jiabao and the Indian Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh set a goal to increase bilateral trade between the two countries.

China became India’s largest trade partner in 2012. Dr. Singh expressed his concern to strengthen the bilateral relations of both the countries with visiting Chinese Premier Li Keqiang and the President Jinping in May 2013. Dr. Singh visited China in October 2013. The historic visit of Heads of the States in the same year heralded a new era in Indo-China relations.

IV. Answer any 2 of the following in 30 to 40 sentences: (2 x 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Describe the electoral reforms in India.
Answer:
The success of parliamentary democracy depends upon the political stability which lies in the pure and honest electoral system. Democracy is the will of the people and their opinion is sacred. Hence it is said that the “Voice of the people is voice of the God”. It ensures impartial, free and fair elections through ballot papers but not bullets. In this regard, many committees were appointed by the successive Governments. The most important among them are:

1. V.K Tarkunde Committee (1974 -75)
2. Dinesh Goswami Committee (1990)
3. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer Committee (1994)
4. Wanchoo Committee
5. Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998)
6. Justice Kuldeep Singh Committee (2002)
7. Law Committee Reports.

On the basis of recommendations of these committees, the respective Governments have implemented the following reforms.

1. Elector’s Photo Identity Card (EPIC):
The Elector’s Photo Identity Card was introduced by the Chief Commissioner T. N.Sheshan (1990-1996) to conduct free and fair elections to remove the evil practices like corruption and impersonation (bogus voting) etc. It was introduced in India in the year 1993. Arrangements were made to issue EPIC to U prevent impersonation of electors.

Initially, it was difficult to issue identity cards to all the voters due to some technical problems. But, during the term of M.S Gill, the possession of EPIC by the voters was made compulsory. It is an official document issued by the Election Commission to all the eligible voters. It consists of information of voter’s age, name, photo, gender, address, constituency, date of issue etc.

2. Electronic Voting Machine (EVM):
The Electronic Voting Machine is one of the important innovations of modern technology. It has replaced the system of ballot box and ballot papers with the most effective Electronic Voting Machine. The EVMs were introduced for the first time in 1998 in the Legislative Assembly Elections of some States and it was successful. Later during the 14th Lok Shaba elections, they were used all over India.

EVM consists of a Controlling Unit and a Balloting unit which are interconnected with a cable. The balloting unit is kept in the place where voters exercise votes. The Controlling Unit is with the Polling Officer. After the voters prove their identity, by pressing the blue button on the balloting unit against the candidate’s symbol, they cast their vote. With the beeping sound the voting procedure is completed.

Uses of Electronic Voting Machine

1. EVM can be easily operated and saves time.
2. It is simple to the voter to cast vote.
3. Quick and accurate results.
4. Economic and eco-friendly.
5. Avoids invalid votes.
6. Control of irregularities.

Question 36.
How illiteracy is an impediment to democracy? Explain its remedies.
Answer:
Illiteracy means inability of a person to read and write in any language. Amartya Sen described illiteracy as one of ‘unfreedoms’. According to the census report of 2001, a person who can read and write with understanding in any language may be called a literate person and a person who can only read but cannot write is not a literate person.
Illiteracy is a curse on human development.

Illiteracy is both a curse and an impediment to democracy. Illiterates are easily exploited and abused by politicians and vested interests to realize their goals. The successful working of democracy depends upon political awareness which can be acquired through education their goals. The successful working of democracy depends upon political awareness which can be acquired through education.

2011 census report recorded the literacy rate in Kerala at 94%, Karnataka at 75.36% and Bihar at 61.80%.

1. Lack of Political Awareness:
Illiteracy would contribute for political apathy. Illiterate masses due to their ignorance and indifferences do not take part in the political process. They are not able to understand the importance of vote, they do not understand the ideologies of political parties, their manifestos and the performance of ruling party, election rules and process.

2. Low Percentage of votes:
Since the first general election, the percentage of polling has not crossed 60%. This is due to illiteracy and lack of political awareness. Political legitimacy cannot be achieved to a full extend by low percentage of polling. Money and Muscle Power: The nexus between politicians and businessmen is noticeable.

The politicians are tactful enough to get votes from the poor people who are illiterate through dubious means Rigging and booth capturing and threatening the voters using muscle power have led to criminalization of politics.

3. Politics of Populism:
The voters in India are attracted by politics of populism. Illiteracy and poverty force them to depend upon the facilities of the Government. They fail to understand that the populist programmes bring them into mainstream of the Society. Indulgence in politics of populism makes the people depend on the Government for everything without becoming creative individuals. This becomes an impediment to national development.

4. Emergence of Dictatorship:
When people are not politically conscious, show apathy to vote, an ambitious leader transforms democracy into dictatorship.

Question 37.
What is Crony capitalism? Explain the nature of crony capitalism.
Answer:
Crony capitalism is a negative term used to refer to the business dealings carried out by the Government officers in a capitalist economy. As Warren Buffet opined “The crony capitalism is a term describing an economy in which success in business depends on close relationships between business people and government officials. It may be exhibited by favouritism in the distribution of legal permits, government grants special tax breaks or other forms”.
Nature:
1. Favourites Political authorities:
Crony capitalism is a system in which close associates of the people in power who enact and execute policies get favours that have large economic implications.

2. Cronies get capital and reward:
Cronies are rewarded with the ability to charge higher prices for their output than would prevail in a competitive market, Punnelled to the enterprises of cronies through government controlled banks.

3. Protection of assets:
Crony capitalism allows government to guarantee a subset of asset holders that their property rights will be protected. As long as their assests are protected, these assest holders will continue to invest as if there were universal protection of property rights.

4. Share in the rents generated by the asset holders:
The members of the government or members of their families, share the rents generated by the assest holders. This may take the form of jobs, co-investments, or even transfer of stock. Crony capitalism goes hand in hand with corruption.

5. The concentration of Economics Power:
A few busines groups which are cronies, influence state policies and pool their assets in private corporate sectors. Such concentration gives birth to crony capitalism. Crony capitalism is an economic phenomenon with political consequences.

In crony capitalism, the government must be able to make deals in closed doors without public review and approval, Personal connections of particular assest holders and government actors continue so long as
that particular government is in power. When the government is replaced, those personal connections vanish.

Question 38.
Describe India-ASEAN areas of co-operation.
Answer:
The ASEAN was established on 8th August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the founding fathers of ASEAN. Indian-ASEAN areas of co-operation are:

1. Functional Co-operation:
ASEAN-India functional co-operation is diverse and includes co-operation across a range of sectors, such as trade, science & technology, agriculture, environment, Human Resource development, space science, new and renewable energy, information and communication technology, telecommunications, transport and infrastructure, tourism, culture, health and pharmaceuticals.

2. Economic Co-operation:
The ASEAN- India FTA will see tariff liberalization of over 90 percent of products traded between the two dynamic regions including the so-called “special products” such as palm oil (crude and refined), coffee, black tea and pepper. Tariffs on over 4,000 product lines will be eliminated at the earliest by 2016.

ASEAN – India Trade in Goods Agreement was signed on 13th August 2009 at the ASEAN – India Economic Ministerial Meeting in Bangkok.

3. Peace and Security Co-operation:
ASEAN and India commemorated the 20th anniversary of dialogue level partnership and the 10th anniversary of Summit-level partnership with a Commemorative Summit in New Delhi under the theme ‘ASEAN – , India Partnership for peace and shared prosperity in December 2012.

4. Tourism Sector :
The 4^th ASEAN – India Tourism Ministers Meeting was held in Vietnam in January 2013. ASEAN-India tourism website (www. Indiaasean.org) was launched. ASEAN and India are also working on enhancing private sector engagements. Details on the re-activation of the ASEAN- India business Council (AIBC), the holding of the ASEAN-India Business Fair (AIBF) are being worked out by officials.

At the third ASEAN-India Summit, the. parties concerned signed a partnership for peace, progress and shared prosperity. At the sixth Summit, India announced setting up of an India the ASEAN green fund. At seventh Summit, India annouced contribution of US $ 50 million to ASEAN-India co-operation fund.

At the 11^th ASEAN – India summit, Prime Minister Manmohan Singh welcomed India’s ‘Look East’ policy and the decision to set up a separate mission for the Association of ASEAN. The past three years have witnessed remarkable progress in the implementation of the plan of Action.

V. Answer the following in 15 to 20 sentences: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39.
Write a note on Chief Secretary of State.
Answer:
Chief Secretary is the head of the Secretariat in every state. He is in charge of the administrative setup. His authority includes all departments of the Secretariat. By reason of his experience and standing, he is able to ease out difficulties and frictions to give general guidance to other officers. Thus he gives leadership to the administrative set up of the state. He maintains rapport between the State government and the Union government and other State governments.

Functions:
The Chief Secretary performs the following functions:

• He is the Principal Adviser to the Chief Minister.
• He acts as the Cabinet Secretary and attends cabinet meetings.
• He exercises general supervision and control over the entire Secretariat.
• He looks after all matters beyond the purview of other secretaries.
• As chief of all the secretaries, he presides over a large number of committees and is a member of many others.
• He is the secretary by rotation, of the zonal council of which the state is a member.
• He has control over the staff attached to the ministers.
• He is the bridge between that State and Central or other state Governments.
• He receives confidential communication from the Government of India and conveys them to the Chief Minister.

As the heed of dying administrative Machinery, Chief of the Civil Services, Mentor and conscience keeper of Civil services, he plays a significant role in the state administration.

OR

Write a note on the first General Elections.
Answer:
First General Elections [1951-52]:
India became a Sovereign Democratic Republic after the Constitution was adopted on 26th January 1950. General elections to the first Lok Sabha were held in India from October 1951 to February 1952, on j the basis of Universal Adult Franchise. With this India emerged as the world’s largest Democracy. The holding of General elections was a bold implementation of the faith in man and democracy.

The first general elections was the most gigantic political experiment in the history of democracy. It was world’s largest free elections.

Question 40.
How Youth Movements have led to the creation of the institution of Lokpal?
Answer:
Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan was the pioneer of the total revolution and he inspired youth during the 1970’s to revolt against the corrupt administration He travelled all over India to fight against the evil. During the 1980s, All Assam Student’s Union (AASU) fought against the corruption which threatened North Eastern States.

Today, the mood of the country especially the mood of youth is against corruption on war footing. The war against corruption is perceived as the mother of all wars. Anti corruption movement gathered moment when Anna Hazare kick started the movement and gave a call to the youth to join him in a fight against corruption under the banner of India against corruption (IAC).

The overall effect of the youth movements against corruption has resulted in the creation of the institution of Lokpal.

OR

Explain the role of India in resolving Lankan ethnic problems.
Answer:
From the mid-1950s and to early 1980s there was hardly any dispute between the two countries on the matters of security and sovereignty. There had been negotiated settlements of bilateral issues, e.g. the question of jurisdiction over Kachathivu island in the middle of the Palk Straits. One of the main disputes between India and Sri Lanka has been regarding the political status of Tamil people of Indian origin, who were taken to Sri Lanka by the British as plantation labourers. There are four groups of Sri Lankan Tamil population,

1. ancient Families in the Jaffna Peninsula
2. professional elite Tamils in urban areas,
3. non-Hindu Tamils and
4. Tamil immigrant labour.

He long-standing problem of accepting the Tamil speaking population of Sri Lanka as its citizens and giving them regional autonomy could not be solved. The majority of Sinhalese demanded Tamils should return to India, they deny citizenship to Tamils by enacting the Ceylon citizenship act of 1948.

This has disentitled Tamils franchise and other rights. In 1965, Indian Prime Minister Lai Bahadur Shastri and SriLankan Prime Minister Mrs Sirimao BandaraNaike signed an agreement about Tamils citizenship but in vain. The 1981 agreement between Indira Gandhi and Sirimao Bandaranaike was not implemented due to Tamils refusal to proposals India.

Bilateral relations:
The Government of President Chandrika Kumaratunga (1994) strived to promote better relationships between Sinhala and Tamil ethnic groups so as to find political solution to the Tamil demands. In December 1998, India and Sri Lanka signed the Free Trade Agreement. The Government of President Mahinda Rajapaksha also worked in this direction.

The bilateral trade agreements in 2000 resulted in a marked improvement in the Indo-Sri Lankan trade between 2004 and 2010. S.M. Krishna the then External Affairs Minister visited Sri Lanka in January, met the President and reviewed the comprehensive agenda of bilateral relations.

The high level delegation led by the President of Sri Lanka visited India In the same year and laid the foundation to University of Buddhist and India studies at Sanchi. Again in 2013, a bilateral meeting was held and an agreement was signed to combat Inter National Terrorism and Illicit, drugs trafficking.

The ethnic conflict which continued for over 30 years and tom the island nation, ended in May 2009. As per the 13^th Amendment of the India Sri Lanka Accord of 1987 elections were held to the Northern Provincial Council in September 2013, and with this, a new facet of Democracy has begun.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper June 2017, Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper June 2017

Time: 3 hrs 15 min
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in one sentence each: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Which country is considered as world’s largest democracy?
Answer:
India is considered as world’s largest democracy.

Question 2.
Which Act transferred power from company to crown?
Answer:
1858 Act transferred power from company to crown.

Question 3.
Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
Answer:
Sri Achal Kumar Joti is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India.

Question 4.
Expand ‘EPIC’.
Answer:
Electors Photo Identity Card.

Question 5.
Who started the Newspaper ‘Mookanayaka’?
Answer:
Dr. B.R.Ambedkar started ‘Mookanayaka’.

Question 6.
Which day is celebrated as ‘World Environment Day’?
Answer:
June 5^th of every year is celeberated as the ‘World Environment Day’.

Question 7.
Who said ‘On this earth there is enough for everyone’s need, but not for greed’?
Answer:
Mahathma Gandhi.

Question 8.
Who holds the financial powers during the times of national emergency?
Answer:
President of India.

Question 9.
Name the Dictator of Libya.
Answer:
Colonel Muhammar Gaddafi.

Question 10.
Who was called as “Bangabandhu”?
Answer:
Shaik Mujjibur Rahman

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in two or three sentences each: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
Who were the Signatory of ‘Poona Pact’? And when?
Answer:
Mahathma Gandhi and Dr.B.R.Ambedkar signed the ‘Poona Pact’ on 24^th September 1932.

Question 12.
Define Regional Party? Give an example.
Answer:
The parties which restricted to a particular state or area identifies itself with the regional language, culture, religion are called regional parties. Ex: Telegu Desam, DMK, Shiva Sena.

Question 13.
Name any four Varna’s that preveiled in ancient India.
Answer:
Brahmana, Kshatriya, Vyshya, Shudra.

Question 14.
Name any two institutions established to prevent corruption in India.
Answer:
Lokayuktha, central Bureau of Investigation.

Question 15.
What is coalition Government? Give an example.
Answer:
Different Political Parties with different idealosies forms the government, it is called coalition government. Ex: UPA and NDA.

Question 16.
What is ‘Brain-drain’?
Answer:
The immigration of highly educated, trained more salary and opportunities to other countries is called ‘Brain-drain’.

Question 17.
Name any two permanent members of the UN Security Council.
Answer:
America and Russia.

Question 18.
What is Union List? Give an example.
Answer:
The list of subjects on which central government has power to frame the laws is called Union List.
Ex : Defence, External Affairs, Currency.

Question 19.
Write any two objectives of the UNO?
Answer:

1. To maintain international peace and security.
2. To uphold the human rights all over the world.

Question 20.
Write any two principle of ‘Panch Sheel’?
Answer:

1. Mutual Non- aggeression.
2. Peaceful Co- existance.

Question 21.
When and where didi the 1^st ‘NAM’ summit was held?
Answer:
The first ‘NAM’ Summit was neld in 1961 is Belgrade of Yogoslavia.

Question 22.
Name any two groups of Tamil people in Sri Lanka.
Answer:

1. Ancient Tamils in Jaffna peninsula.
2. Tamil immigrant labour.

III. Answer any 8 of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 23.
Explain the provisions of Indian Independence Act, 1947.
Answer:
Provisions:
1. The Act Provided that on 15^th August 1947, the appointed date, two independent dominions, India and Pakistan, would be set up and the Act provided for complete transfer of power.

2. The dominion of India got the territories of Bombay, Madras, UP, Central Provinces, Bihar, Assam, Delhi, Ajmer, Coorg, etc., and the rest of India except Sindh, Baluchistan, West Punjab, East Bengal, Northwest Frontier Province and Sylhet in Assam, which became the territories of Pakistan. For demarcating the boundaries, a Boundary Commission was formed with Sir Cyril Radcliffe as the Chairman.

3. The Crown was no longer the source of authority.

4. The Governor-General and provisional Governors were to act as constitutional head. They lost extra-ordinary powers to legislate.

5. The office of the Secretary of State was abolished.

6. From 15^th August 1947, the British Crown lost all rights of Paramountcy over India and the Indian states were free to join either Indian Union or Pakistan.

7. The power in each dominion was transferred, to the Constituent Assembly which became fully sovereign from 15^th August 1947 and were absolutely free to frame the constitution. The Constituent Assemblies had a dual role i.e. Constituent and Legislative. They functioned as Central Legislature, till the new Legislatures were formed.

8. Until the new Constitution was framed, the Act of 1935 would govern the Centre and the Provinces with necessary modifications.

Question 24.
What is ‘Patel scheme’? Explain.
Answer:
Sardar Patel took charge of the Indian states Department and V.P. Menon became secretary on 5^th July 1947. They dealt with matters arising between central Government and the Indian states. The biggest individual factor in the above spectacular event was the personality of Sardar Patel.

The success of Integration is attributed to his astute statesmanship, intense patriotism and. great administrative skill. He handled the Kings of Princely states with patience, tact, and sympathy. He was a man of Iron will. The integration of states is his greatest contribution to independent India.

Question 25.
Write short notes on mandatory disclosure of antecedents of the candidates.
Answer:
The candidates have to disclose their personal details of criminal, education and property while filing their nominations.

1. Criminal antecedents:
To curb criminalization of politics, the Supreme Court of India in 2002, gave directions to Election Commission to implement and Parliament also amended the Representation of People’s Act of 1951 in December 2002.

Through this Act, submission of details regarding criminal antecedents are made compulsory for all the candidates along with their nomination papers. The details of cases pending against them in the courts and whether they were convicted or acquitted.

The recent decisions of the Supreme Court made it clear that the candidates having criminal records are debarred from contesting elections and members of legislature would lose their membership. In this regard, the Election Commission has framed rules to restrict the candidates from contesting elections. Disqualification for criminal offences is provided, in RP Act of 1951.

a. As per the Act, a person is disqualified from contesting elections only on conviction by a court of law.

b. Cases filed six months before election would lead to disqualification.

c. Cases in which candidates have been accused with the offence and sentenced for 2 or more years are disqualified to contest the elections.

d. With the offence proved by a court of law, a person is not eligible to contest elections for a period of 6 years. The availability of detailed information about the candidates through, media, enables the public to select and elect the candidates having clean records with, service motto.

2. Educational Antecedents:
The candidate has to file an affidavit to give information relating to his educational qualifications. Being representative of the people, one has to be educated and able to take part actively in the proceedings of the Legislature, administration and in law-making processes. Though the constitution has not mentioned any minimum educational qualifications for the candidates, this disclosure enables the voters to elect qualified persons.

3. Property Antecedents :
Contesting an election is an expensive affair and persons with good education but dearth of funds may hesitate to contest whereas people with money power get elected and may amass more wealth. This leads to corruption. To curb this, the Election Commission has made it mandatory to declare the details of movable and immovable properties of the candidates and their families. This disclosure helps the voter to assess the honesty or otherwise of the candidates.

Question 26.
Write the functions of UPSC.
Answer:
Article 315 provides for the establishment of the Union Public Service Commission. UPSC is an independent constitutional body entrusted with the work of recruitment on the basis of merit.

1. Composition:
At present, the UPSC is composed of a Chairman and 10 members. Members are appointed by the President. It provides for half of the members of the Commission to be administrators with a minimum of the 10 years experience in government service. Nothing is mentioned regarding the qualifications of the remaining members.

2. Tenure:
A member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a period of 6 years or till he attains the age of 65 years, whichever comes earlier. Chairman or members of the commission are not eligible for re-appointment after retirement. The Chairman of the UPSC is also not eligible for further employment under Central or State Governments, however, a member of the UPSC may be appointed as a Chairman of the UPSC or the state Public Service Commission.

3. Removal:
The Chairman and members of the UPSC can be removed from the office only by on order of the President, on the ground of misbehaviour proved by the Supreme Court. All these provisions have been made to make the Commission an independent and impartial body.

Functions:
Article 320 of the Indian Constitution enumerates the functions of the UPSC :

1. To conduct examinations for appointment to the services of the Union and All India Service.
2. To assist two or more states, on request for joint recruitment for any services.
3. To advise the government on matters relating to the methods of recruitment, promotions, transfers, disciplinary actions, and inter-service matters.
4. To present annual report regarding its working to the President.
5. To exercise such additional functions as provided by an act of Parliament.
6. To serve all or any needs of the State Government on request by the Governor and with the approval of the President.

Question 27.
Write short notes on any two movements of spearheading for the conservation of environment in India.
Answer:
Causes for Environmental Movement are as follows.

1. To protect the Environmental degradation:
The Government of India has taken measures for economic development including industrial and technological development. This has led to industrialization, urbanization and their adverse effects like loss of cultivable land, and also on the fertility of the soil.

2. To protect Mo-diversity:
Deforestation for fuel and construction purposes has left the wildlife and birds to become orphan. Hence Chipco, Appico, and Save Western Ghats Movements started.

3. Environment education and consciousness:
Living amidst environment, formal education in schools, colleges, and non-governmental organizations have created awarness and consciousness among human beings. Programmes, rallies, and Jathas have gone a long way in this direction.

4. To curb environment decay:
The greediness of the people to excavate and exploit resources have resulted in soil erosion, drying up of rivers and reservoirs, pollution of air, water and sound, etc. To maintain equilibrium and to pressurize the people in power to take measures, these movements emerged.

Question 28.
What are the causes for Backward Class Movements?
Answer:
1. Social discrimination:
These communities faced social discrimination like superior and inferior throughout the years. They were not allowed to come to the mainstream. Hence they started agitation to get the facilities and their due share in the post-independence period.

2. Economics Exploitation:
Exploitation leads to economic inequality among the backward classes. Many of these communities were Below Poverty Line (BPL) and were poverty-stricken. To get these facilities, they united together and started agitation.

3. Educational backwardness:
Upper caste monopolised the field of education and denied access to these communities. As education is fundamental for self-development these backward communities are against the upper caste and organised agitation.

4. Denial of Political representation:
A few communities dominated political field and other backward classes were totally neglected. During 1920, the agitation started in Mysore Province by Backward classes to get political participation to Non-Brahmins led by Sri Kantharaje Urs.

5. Unification:
It is difficult to achive anything without any unity and integrity. Hence Backward classes who are more than 350 in number were unorganised and scattered. To unit them and to fight for their cause, movement was started.

Question 29.
Why ‘Illiteracy’ is an impediment to Democracy? Discuss.
Answer:
Illiteracy means the inability of a person to read and write in any language. Amartya Sen described illiteracy as one of ‘unfreedoms’. According to the census report of 2001, a person who can read and write with understanding in any language may be called a literate person and a person who can only read but cannot write is not a literate person.

Illiteracy is a curse on human development. Illiteracy is both a curse and an impediment to democracy. Illiterates are easily exploited and abused by politicians and vested interests to realize their goals. The successful working of democracy depends upon political awareness which can be acquired through education.
The % of literacy in 1951 and 2011 overall.

2011 census report recorded the literacy rate in Kerala at 94%, Karnataka at 75.36% and Bihar at 61.80%.

1. Lack of Political Awareness:
Illiteracy would contribute for political apathy. Illiterate masses due to their ignorance and indifferences do not take part in the political process. They are not able to understand the importance of vote, they do not understand the idealogies of political parties, their manifestos and the performance of ruling party, election rules, and process.

2. Low Percentage of votes:
Since the first general election, the percentage of polling has not crossed 60%. This is due to illiteracy and lack of political awareness. Political legitimacy cannot be achieved to a full extend by low percentage of polling.

3. Money and Muscle Power:
The nexus between politicians and businessmen is noticeable. The politicians are tactful enough to get votes from the poor people who are illiterate through dubious means Rigging and booth capturing and threatening the voters using muscle power have led to criminalization of politics.

4. Politics of Populism:
The voters in India are attracted by politics of populism. Illiteracy and poverty force them to depend upon the facilities of the Government. They fail to understand that the populist programmes bring them into mainstream of the Society.

Indulgence in politics of populism makes the people to depend on the Government for everything without becoming creative individuals. This becomes an impediment to national development.

5. Emergence of Dictatorship:
When people are not politically conscious, show apathy to vote, an ambitious leader transforms democracy into dictatorship.

Question 30.
Write the various provisions of ‘UAPA’, passed in 2008.
Answer:
The Act was passed by the Parliament in 2008. The UAPA replaced POTA. It contains the following main provisions. The words “Terrorist Act” are defined in section 15 of the Act. “Any act which threatens the unity, integrity, sovereignty of India or with intent to strike terror in the people or any section of people in India or in any foreign Country.

1. Those persons who have the intention of aiding, abetting or committing a terrorist act shall be punishable with imprisonment for 10 years and fine.

2. Punishment for raising funds for terrorist acts is 5 years which may extend to life imprisonment and liable to fine.

3. Prescribe punishment for recruitment of persons for terrorist act and their training. The punishment is 5 years which may extend to imprisonment for life and liable to fine.

4. Every offence punishable under this Act shall be deemed to be a cognizable offences. If the investigation cannot be completed within 90 days, the court may extend the detention period up to 180 days.

5. If there are sufficient grounds for detention of an accused person under the Act, no bail is granted. Further, no bail shall be granted to a foreigner who has entered the country illegally except to a foreigner who has entered the country illegally except in very exceptional circumstances and for reasons to be recorded in writing.

6. The Central Government has the power to freeze, seize or attach funds or other financial assets or economic resources of the terrorist groups.

Question 31.
Explain the political implications of Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalisation is the process of integrating the economy of the country with world economy. It is a movement towards greater interaction. Integration and interdependence among people and organisation across borders. The strongest manifestion of Globalisation has been the increasing economics integration among the countries in trade and investment.

An important attribute of globalization is the increasing degree of openness, which has three dimensions, ie., international trade, international investment, and international finance. It involves creation of networks and activities transcending economic, social and geographical boundaries.

The Economy of India had undergone significat policy shifts in the beginning of the 1990’s. This new model of economic reforms is commonly known as the liberalization, privatizaton, and globalisation(LPG) model.

The chain of reforms that took place with regard to business, manufacturing and financial industries targeted at the strengthening the economy of the country to a more proficient level. These economic reforms had influenced the overall economic growth of the country in a significant manner.

In brief, the salient points of Glabalisation are

• Efficiency
• Transfer of technology
• Concept of a global village
• Mobility of labour force
• Global competion resulting in better performance
• Outsourcing and
• Optimum utilization of human resources.

The political implications of globalisation are as follows.

1. Power subjugation:
The effects of globalisation brought lots of changes in the world economy. For small countries it is inevitable to accept the economic decisions of strong countries. Hence it affects the soverignty of a country in totality.

2. Affects the Soverignty:
As a result of globalisation in the fields of economy, trade, transportation, etc., the sovereign countries are bound by decisions of strong countries. Hence it affects the soverignty of a country in totally.

3. Cultural Invasion:
Culture is a complex whole and exclusive to each country. The influence of globalisation in the name of cultural exchange not only invades but also degenerates the youth who are the architects of the future.

4. Enslavement of Lifestyle:
Globalisation has largely affected the younger generation. Food habits, general behaviour, mutual relationships, respect to elders, human values and ultimately the whole generation has become slave in the clutches of globalisation.

5. Elimination of subsidies:
The major impact of gloablisation is the curtailment of subsidies to all sectors including agriculture in a phased manner. The worst-hit are the peasants who are the backbone of the country.

6. Political Instability:
The impact of globalisation mainly is economic depression, boom or even recession which directly affects the political stability of a country.
Hence development comes to a standstill.

Thus globalisation as a process of integrating the economy of the country with world economy has gone a long way.

Question 32.
Write briefly on the composition, role, power, and functions of the UN Security Council.
Answer:
The Security Council is often described as the enforcement wing (world executive body). It is the most powerful organ of the UNO. Its main A responsibility is to maintain world peace and security. It consists of 15 members. Five of them are permanent members (UK, USA, Russia, France, and China) while the other ten are non-permanent members.

Permanent members have ‘Veto-Power’. Ten Non-permanent members are represented by the elected representatives who are elected by the General Assembly for a term of two years.

The Security Council is entrusted with the responsibility of maintaining international peace and security. It has the power to discuss, investigate and make recommendations in this regard. The member states are called upon to settle disputes by peaceful means. It is empowered to decide the measures to be taken to restore international peace.

It also recommends the person to be appointed as Secretary General to the General Assembly. A military committee has been set up to assist the Security Council.

The UN has its own Peace Keeping Force. Each member of the Security Council has one vote. The decisions of the Security Council are binding on all UN members. Mr. Ban- ki-Moon took over office on 1^st January 2007. On 21^st June 2011, he was unanimously re-elected by the General Assembly and will continue to serve until 31^st December 2016.

Question 33.
Write a note on Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
The basic principles of Indian foreign policy are Non-Alignment. After the II world war, the world was divided into two military blocs, one led by the USA and another by USSR. Many countries of the world became the allies of these two military blocs. But India was not aligned to any of the military blocs.

India was the first country to speak of non-alignment and major contributor to the emergene of Non-Align Movement. Jawaharlal Nehru Prime Minister of India, Gen. Sukarno President of p Indonesia Josif Broz Tito President of Yugoslavia, Kwame Nkrumah Prime Minister of Ghana and Gamal Abdel Nasser leader of Egypt were the founders of this movement.

This first summit of NAM which was held at Belgrade, Yugoslavia in 1961 with 25 member countries. At present, it has 128 members. Recent NAM summit concluded in August 2012 at Tehran, Iran Venezuela will host the next 17^th summit in 2015.

Question 34.
Explain the Kashmir issue in India and Pakistan relations.
Answer:
In India’s perspective Kashmir is an integral part of the republic of India and to Pakistan, it is a disputed territory. The argument of Pakistan on Kashmir is that, since the partition of the country was done on religious basis and majority of, population are Muslims, Kashmir should be part of Pakistan. This argument failed to recognize the following facts:-

1. Partition was done of the British Indian Provinces & and not of the Indian princely states.
2. National Conference was the only major political party in Kashmir, which was affiliated to Congress. It was opposed to Pakistan and had faith in secular politics.
3. The Indian princely states had the freedom to join either India or Pakistan.
4. India was a secular state consisting of a multi-religious population.

So, Kashmir formally decided to join India after the invasion of its territory by Pakistani tribals supporterd by the Pakistan Army.

IV. Answer any 2 of the following in 30 to 40 sentences: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Explain the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India.
Answer:
Democratic system in India provides for impartial, free and fair elections. The framers of Indian constitution clearly made provisions for an statutory body called Election Commission to conduct elections in India. Article 324 to 329 in part XV deals with the composition, powers, and functions of the Election Commission.

The Election Commission conducts elections to the office of the President, Vice President Union Parliament, Legislature of State, Union territories and Local bodies.

1. Composition of Election commission:
Article 324 provides for the office of the Election Commission of India. It consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and the other Election Commissioners. Till 1993, it was a single-member body but later on, it became a three-member body during the Prime Ministership of Sri P.V. Narasimha Rao.

2. Appointment and Removal:
According to Art 342 (2), Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the advice of Union Cabinet. The term of office is 6 years or till they reach the age of 65 years.

Article 324 (6) makes provisions for the salaries, allowances and other privileges to the Chief Election Commissioners, Election Commissioners, and the Personnel. The Parliament determines their salaries from time to time.

3. Removal:
According to Article 324(5), the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners can be removed from their office in the same manner as the Judges of Supreme Court, on the grounds of misbehavior and incapacity to discharge their constitutional obligations.

4. Power and functions:
According to Article 324 (1), the Election Commission does the following.

• Prepares electoral roll and its periodical revision.
• Holds elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and offices of President and Vice President.
• After the announcement of elections, it decides the time table.
• It conducts by-elections to vacant seats.
• It grants recognition to political parties as National and State parties.

According to Election Emblem Act 2000.

5. For National party:

1. 6% of valid votes in 4 or more States in LokSabha or Vidhana Sabha election and 4 LokSabha seats in any State or States or
2. Minimum 2% of Lok Sabha seats in 3 States.

6. For State party:

1. 6% of valid votes in Lok Sabha or Vidhana Sabha elections from the State and two Vidhana Sabha seats, or

2. 3% seats of total Vidhana Sabha seats in the States or success at least in three constituencies.

• It scrutinizes the nomination papers.
• It allots symbols to political parties and independent candidates.
• It appoints officers and other staff members to conduct election and make necessary arrangements.
• It can order for re-poll in any constituency or any polling booth.
• It can withhold the election results on valid grounds.
• The President or the Governor acts on the advice of the Election Commission at the time of disqualification of members of the house.
• It enforces the code of conduct for the candidates and political parties i.e. the election expenses and submission of accounts after election, environmental protection against noise pollution, etc., during elections.
• As per the Representation of People’s Act (RPA) of 1950 and 1951, Election Commission of India conducts the process of election.

Question 36.
Discuss the hindrances and the remedial measures in Nation-Building.
Answer:
1. Poverty:
Large sections of our societies live in the villages and their major occupations is Agriculture. They rely upon monsoon which quite irregular. Hence the output is very low. As a result, more than 1/5^th of the total population is living BPL. Poverty denies access to good health, sanitation facilities and basic infrastructure necessary for personality development.

2. Population Explosion:
Census reports of 2011 prove that India is overpopulated (1.2 billion). Though a resource, it is not properly utilized to strengthen the nation. Population explosion has led to unemployment, housing shortage of food and other basic amenities.

3. Regional Imbalance:
All the regions of our country are not evenly developed. This leads to separatist tendencies that curbs national development e.g. Marathawada and Vidharbha in Maharashtra, Telengana region in AP, Korapat and Kalahandi regions in Odisha, North Eastern Region and Gorkha hill areas.

4. Social and political disturbances:
In India social and political disturbances have become common in recent years causing tension, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, and Kerala have become communally sensitive states. Likewise, caste conflicts, terrorism, the centre-state, and inter-state disputes have affected nation’s march towards development.

5. Political Crisis:
The coalition politics and the emergence of too many political parties, regional and sectarian feelings have created political crisis cm many occasions. The vested interests have prevented the Parliament and State Legislatures to enact necessary laws for the development of the nation. Money power and muscle power have led to the growth of leaders without principles for whom it has become a gainful employment.

Question 37.
Discuss the importance and political implications of liberalisation.
Answer:
Liberalization is the “willingness to respect or accept behaviour or opinion different from one’s own; open to new ideas”. Liberalization is the process of liberating the economy from various regulatory mechanism and eleimination of customs and tariffs. Economic liberalization is the policy of relaxation over economic and trade policies. Importance of Liberalization are as follows:-

1.Consumer-friendly:
This leads to lower costs and prices for consumers to get the gods and services according to his wishes. There are many number of companies which bring lot of quantity products for consumer’s interests and demands. In liberalised economy, consumer gets more benefits.

2. Free from Government regulations:
Government provides free movement of trade and commerce where any private company can easily carry on their business activities without any restrictions. The companies need not undergo procedural delay by government.

3. Promotes competitions:
Liberalisations extends competition within different company’s trade firms. Basically they keep the standards and cheaper prices for consumers. Competition promoters efficiency and avoids wastage of resources.

4. Promotes world business class:
Liberalization makes new changes is an advance technology and logistics for better services. That can be useful to save time, energy and money. It promotes the high quantity of products and supplies the same in time.

Political implications of liberalization are as follows:-

1. Risk of brain drain:
In the name of liberalised policy citizens knock at the door of international opportunities, with their knowledge and skill. The developing nations face lots of problem from such brain drain.’

2. Reduces dependency on labour:
AS the process itself is capital intensive, it reduces dependency on labour and cuts opportunities for jobs.

3. Risk of environmental degradation:
The incessant industrial activity at the global level generates lot of wastage leading to environmental degradation.

4. Regulates the price of certain commodities:
The price of certain commodities like-life saving drugs, fertilizers, etc., are automatically controlled by the world trade forums and associations.

5. Risk of financial instability:
Flexibility (laxity) of monetary and fiscal policies of the Government may lead to financial crisis like recession and depression.

Question 38.
Explain the establishment and area of Co-operation of SAARC.
Answer:
In the rapidly changing global environment regional integration in South Asia has assumed a new strategic significance. As a largest economy of the South Asian region it is imperative and right time for India to inculcate an environment of trust among SAARC partners. India stands to gain substantially form greater economic intergration in the region.

1. Summit level cooperation:
India has participated in all the summit-level meeting. During the 16^th SAARC summit held in New Delhi on 3^rd and 4^th April 2007, the leaders recognized collectively in fulfilling this in a better way with the rest of the world. The Prime Minister of India Mr. Rajiv Gandhi attended the first SAARC summit held in Bangladesh in 1985.

He emphasized the core issue of economics development in the South Asian region with joint efforts. India is committed to fastening the sense of a South Asian Identity through the SAARC process, enhancing mutual confidence in multiple areas in trying to leverage India’s rapid economic growth into win-win arrangements with her neighbours.

The change perhaps started in about 2002 in India, has gained momentum since India acquired the Chairmanship of SAARC in April 2007. Among several factors that are perhaps responsible for this positive movement, the more important one is the acceleration in economic growth in all major regional economics specially India.

2. SAARC Regional Centres:
India is having two regional centres:-

• SAARC Documentation centre (SDC) in New Delhi.
• SAARC Disaster Management Centre (SDMC) in New Delhi.

3. SAARC development Fund (SDF):
India has been 6ne of major contribution to the SAARC Development Fund. The Fund has the areas of action social, economic and infrastructure. India has offered US $100 million for the SAARC fund to be utilized for projects in other SAARC countries.

4. Economic co-operation:
The Agreement on SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement (SAPTA) was signed in 1993 and four rounds of trade negotiations have been concluded. The Agreement on South Asian Free Trade Area (S AFTA) was signed. Creation of Export Promotion Zones and Special Economic Zones in each SAARC member country as pointed out by industrial bodies which enhances investment and will thus encourage Intra-SAARC investments.

5. People-to-people Countries:
For strengthening cooperation in information and media-related activities of the Association, the heads of National Television and Radio Organisations of member countries meet annually. The SAARC Audio-Vissual exchange (SAVE) Committes disseminates information both on SAARC and its member States through regular Radio and TV programme.

6. Educational Cooperation:
India proposed to create a centre of excellence in the form of a South Asian University (SAU), which can provide world class facilities and professional facualty to students and researchers drawn from each country of the region. The south asian university is established in India.

V. Answer any two of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39.
Prepare a report of ‘Teacher’s Day’ celebration in your college.
Answer:
1. Teacher’s Day celebration :
Teacher’s day a memorable occasion for the nation and student community, in particular, is celebrated every year on 5^th September, the birthday of Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, our second president. In our college it is a regular feature and this year also it was celebrated. Under the guidance of the teachers, our student volunteers had decorated the college grounds and erected a stage by the previous evening only.

On the day of the function, we had invited a few eminent educationists to grace the occasion and our college. Dean had kindly consented to preside over. The programmes started on schedule by 5.00 P.M. after the invocation and prayer we had extempore speech contests for the degree students and pre-university students separately.

Our culture club secretary welcomed and garlanded the guests. A high tea was arranged for the guests. There were speeches by some of our esteemed dignitaries on the role of teachers in moulding the society and the ways to improve the present educational system. The winners of the speech contests were given citations and some books by our chief guest.

The programme ended with sweet distribution after the vote of thanks.

OR

Explain the role and function of Deputy Commissioner.
Answer:
The Deputy Commissioner (DC) is the head of the District. He also acts as the District Magistrate, Superintendent of Police (SP), District Treasury Officer. Deputy Director of Pre University Education, Social Welfare Officer, Deputy Director of Public Instruction, District Medical Officer, Deputy Registrar and other functions under the jurisdiction of the Deputy Commissioner.

The Deputy Commissioner performs the following functions.

1. Law and order and Magisterial powers:
Deputy Commissioner enjoys magisterial powers. Being the District Magistrate, he maintains law and order and performs other judicial functions in the district.

2. Revenue functions:
It includes maintenance of Land Records and its assessment, collection of Land Revenue and other public dues and settlement of land disputes. Assistant Commissioners and Tahsildars work under the overall supervision and control of the Deputy Commissioner.

3. Development Functions:
It includes Public Health, Education, Rural Development, Social Welfare (Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe) and Welfare of Backward Classes and Minorities and Protection of Weaker sections of the Society.

4. Regulatory Functions:
It includes control, regulation, and distribution of Food and Civil Supplies and essential commodities. He also controls the matters relating to excise, stamps, and registration.

5. Electoral Functions:
Deputy Commissioner is the District Election Officer and he is in charge of elections to Parliament, State Legislature and Local bodies.

Question 40.
Analyse the effects of De-monetisation of Rs.500/- and Rs.1000/- notes.
Answer:
The decision for the demonetisation of ₹ 500 and ₹1000 notes taken by the Narendra Modi Government was a landmark step in Independent India. Sri Modi announced the bank w.e.f. 8^th November 2016, to effectively control black money. This sudden move had also affected the subversive activities of the infiltrations aided by the Pakistan Government.

The main objective of the move was to prevent cash hoarding and to bring black money into circulation and punish those who are not paying their taxes property. Unfortunately, this resulted in a lot of problems for the common man. There were not enough new notes available and banks were not capable of handling this sudden work pressure and cash crunch.

They were doling out new notes for limited value only. Public could withdraw only 2,000/-. many businesses also suffered. Small vendors were the worst hit. But gradually things have become normal, this is a good move for the future financial stability of the country.

OR

Write a note on movement of ‘India Against Corruption’ (IAC)
Answer:
Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan the pioneer of the total revolution, inspired youth during the 1970’s to revolt against the corrupt administration and travelled all over India to fight against the civil. During the 1980s, All Assam Student’s Union (AASU) fought against the corruption which threatened North Eastern States.

Today, the mood of the country especially the mood of youth is against corruption on war footing. The war against corruption is perceived the mother of all wars. Anti-corruption movement gathered moment when Anna Hazare kick-started the movement and gave a call to the youth to join him in a fight against corruption under the banner of India against corruption. (IAC)

1. Youth against corruption:
Independent India has seen scams like-Bofors, Fodder scam, Share Market scam, etc., where billions of rupees of public money has been swindled by unscrupulous people. In spite of exposure of these scams, corruption still persists in all walks of life including education, health, administration, and politics.

The overall effect of the youth movement against corruption is the creation of the institution of Lokpal, passing of Acts like Right to Information (RTI), Right to Education (RTE), Sakaal, introduction of transparency in election funding, etc.,

Students can Download 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Paper 5 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Model Question Paper 5 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in one word or a sentence each: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Which act allowed separate electorates to Muslims for the first time during British rule?
Answer:
The Indian Councils Act of 1909 allowed a separate electorate to Muslims.

Question 2.
Article’370 of the Indian Constitution is related to which state?
Answer:
Article 370 of the Indian Constitution is related to Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 3.
Which organ is considered as permanent executive?
Answer:
Civil servants are considered as permanent executive.

Question 4.
Where KPSC is situated?
Answer:
KPSC is situated at Bengaluru.

Question 5.
Name the economist who described “Illiteracy is one of unfreedom”.
Answer:
The economist Amartya Sen.

Question 6.
Which is the root word of corruption?
Answer:
It is derived from the Latin word “rumpire” meaning “to break”.

Question 7.
What is “Laissez-faire”?
Answer:
“Laissez-faire” is the other word for “Liberalisation”.

Question 8.
Which is the strongest organ of the UN?
Answer:
Security Council is the strongest organ of the UN.

Question 9.
What is meant by Bi-polarity?
Answer:
Distribution of power, where, two powerful states have a major influence at global level.

Question 10.
What is perestroika?
Answer:
Perestroika means “restructuring”.

II. Answer any 10 of the following questions in 2-3 sentences each: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
What is “Patel Scheme”?
Answer:
Sardar Patel took charge of the Indian states Department and V.P. Menon became secretary on 5^th July 1947. They dealt with matters arising between central Government and the Indian states. The biggest individual factor in the above spectacular event was the personality of Sardar Patel.

The success of Integration is attributed to his astute statesmanship, intense patriotism and great administrative skill. He handled the Kings of Princely states with patience, tact and sympathy. He was a man of Iron will. The integration of states is his greatest contribution to independent India.

Question 12.
What is meant by Leftist parties? Give an example.
Answer:
Parties who have belief in revolutionery idiology and want to bring drastic changes in the existing system eg.: CPI.

Question 13.
Who established ‘Bahishkrit Hitaka- rani Sabha’?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar established ‘Bahishkrit Hitakarani Sabha’.

Question 14.
Write a short note on ‘ Saalu marada Thimmakka’.
Answer:
Achievement of Saalu Marada Thimmakka:
Thimmakka and Bikkalu Chikkaiah, a childless couple of Hulikal village of Magadi Taluk, Ramanagara District, started planting Banyan saplings by the road side between Kudur and Hulikal. They reared, cared and guarded them with their meagre earning with sheer love and affection.

The Government of Karnataka has taken the responsibility of these 248 trees. This great achievement of Saalu Marada Thimmakka is recognised and honoured by awarding Rajyothsava and National Awards. A seminar paper was presented in the UN on her contribution to environment. To create awamess among people, ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on 5^th June every year.

Question 15.
What is Gender based inequality?
Answer:
When discrimination is made on the basis of gender denying equal opportunities to the fairer sex, it is called gender based inequality.

Question 16.
Name any two eminent persons who played a key role in the national integration.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhiji, VallabhaBhai Patel.

Question 17.
Name any two acts enacted to curb Terrorism.
Answer:

1. Terrorist And Disruptive Activities Prevention t Act(TADA)in 1987.
2. Prevention Of Terrorism Act [POTA] in 2001.

Question 18.
Give the meaning of Crony capitalism’.
Answer:
Crony capitalism is a negative term used to refer to the business dealings carried out by the Government Officers in a capitalist economy.

Question 19.
Why ‘Amphictyonic League’ was established in ancient Greece?
Answer:
Amphictyonic League was established in the early 6^th century BC with a view to regulate interstate relations to avoid wars and to promote unity among nations.

Question 20.
Name the two pairs of sister cities between India and China.
Answer:
Delhi and Beijing, Bangalore and Chengdu are the two pairs of sister cities between India and China.

Question 21.
What is Apartheid?
Answer:
Apartheid is discrimination on the basis of skin color.

Question 22.
Name the two factors which caused close ties between India and Soviet Russia.
Answer:
Factors for Indo-USSR close ties.

1. India and USSR considered the peaceful settlement of disputes between states as most crucial for the future of the human race.
2. Both believed in national freedom and social equality as pre-requisite of just world order.
3. Support to liberation movements across the world recognized by both countries.

III. Answer any eight of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 23.
Write the provisions of Indian Independence Act 1947.
Answer:
Provisions:
1. The Act Provided that on 15th August 1947, the appointed date, two independent dominions, India and Pakistan, would be set up and the Act provided for complete transfer of power.

2. The dominion of India got the territories of Bombay, Madras, UP, Central Provinces, Bihar, Assam, Delhi, Ajmer, Coorg, etc., and the rest of India except Sindh, Baluchistan, West Punjab, East Bengal, northwest Frontier Province and Sylhet in Assam, which became the territories of Pakistan. For demarcating the boundaries, a Boundary Commission was formed with Sir Cyril Radcliffe as the Chairman.

3. The Crown was no longer the source of authority.

4. The Governor-General and provisional Governors were to act as constitutional heads. They lost extra-ordinary powers to legislate.

5. The office of the Secretary of State was abolished.

6. From 15^th August 1947, the British Crown lost all rights of Paramountcy over India and the Indian states were free to join either Indian Union or Pakistan.

7. The power in each dominion was transferred to the Constituent Assembly which became fully sovereign from 15^th August 1947 and was absolutely free to frame the constitution. The Constituent Assemblies had a dual role i.e. Constituent and Legislative. They functioned as Central Legislature, till the new Legislatures were formed.

8. Until the new Constitution was framed, the Act of 1935 would govern the Centre and the Provinces with necessary modifications.

Question 24.
Write about the integration of Junagadh and Hyderabad provinces with the Indian union.
Answer:
1. Junagadh:
The Nawab of Junagadh declared accession to Pakistan much against the wishes of the people of the state. They were in favor of joining India. After the declaration of accession, they rose in rebellion against the Nawab. As a result, he fled to Pakistan. A Plebiscite was held in which the people voted to accede to Indian Union. Later Junagadh was merged with Saurashtra.

2. Hyderabad :
Hyderabad, the largest of the Princely States was surrounded by Indian Territory. Its ruler the ‘Nizam’ wanted an independent status. He made a ‘Standstill Agreement’ with India in November 1947 to maintain the status quo which existed before 1947. But the Indian Government felt that an independent Hyderabad would pose security threats.

In the meantime, there was a movement against the oppressive rule of the Nizam. The peasantry and the women joined in large numbers. His paramilitary forces named Razakars, raped, maimed, looted, murdered and targeted the non Muslims. To end this anarchy, the Indian army entered into Hyderabad in September 1948. This police action is known as ‘Operation Polo’. The Nizam surrendered and it was followed by complete accession of Hyderabad into Indian Union.

Question 25.
Explain any five features of Indian Political Party System.
Answer:
Nature :
The nature of Indian party system can. be traced back to the Indian National Movement. Indian National Congress (INC) was founded by A.O. Hume in 1885. It was a forum to unite the people of India to fight against British Imperialism. Due to ideological differences, Muslim League was founded in 1906.

Other parties like Hindu Maha Sabha, Communist Party of India, Forward Block and Praja Socialist Party, etc., emerged in the successive years. Later, in the post-independence period, Jan Sangh, Janatha Party, Bharatiya Janatha Party, Janata Dal, Nationalist Congress Party, according to the needs of the time and they started to work to get power, etc were floated.

1. Extra Constitutional growth :
There is no reference in the Constitution of India about M how many political parties are to exist in the country. According to Article 19 of the Constitution, all citizens can have the freedom to form associations or unions. Political parties are established on the basis of this liberty. Hence, political parties have no constitutional base.

2. Prevalence of Multi-party system :
India is a divergent country with many religions, tribes, languages, culture, and traditions. This heterogeneity leads to the emergence of many political parties to protect their interests in the mainstream of the country.

3. Spilt and merger :
It is a common phenomenon in the Indian party system. Various reasons contributed for this split like ideological differences, egoism, power hunger, etc.

4. End of single-party era:
India was under Congress rule till 1977. The happenings between 1975-1977, forced small parties to unite and fight against Congress and capture power and put an end to the single-party era.

5. Dissident activities:
Meanness of leaders like personal attitudes, favoritism, nepotism leads to dissident activities. Repetition of such happenings instigates leaders to go against the ideology of the party and paves way to political instability.

6. Defection:
Elected members of the Legislature change their parties often for personal benefits or differences of opinion and other reasons. It ruins the values of democracy and destabilizes the government.

7. Leader worship:
Most of the political parties in India emphasize the leaders rather than the ideologies of the parties. The leader decides the destiny of the political party e.g. Jawaharlal Nehru and Indira Gandhi of Congress, A.B. Vajpayee of BJR Leaders with charisma dominate the whole party.

8. Alliances without principles:
Political parties are formed with principles of democracy and secularism but they ignore them for want of power and make unholy alliances.

9. Dominance of Regional parties:
The presence of regional parties during the first general elections did not influence the voters and they were rejected. During 1980s, they emerged very strong and dominated the political scenario, e.g. DMK, ALADMK, Telugu Desam, Shiv Sena, National Conference, AGP, JD(S), RJD, SJP, BJD and other parties playing a significant role during the formation of Governments.

10. Religious, Lingual and Regionalism:
The basis of political parties in India is religion, language, regionalism and the like. e.g. Muslim league, Akalidal, Shiv Sena, DMK, AIADMK, Maharashtra Ekikaran Samiti (MES) Telangana Rashtriya Samiti (TRS) and others. In spite of the rules of the Election Commission, such political parties exist.

11. Leftist and Rightist Parties:
Party system in India consists of Leftist and Rightist ideologies, e.g. CPI, CPI (M), Forward Block, RPI and Socialist parties who have belief in revolutionary ideology and drastic changes in the system form the left front. Parties like Congress, BJP, SP, NCP, BSP, RJD, JD (U), JD (S) and others who believe in moderate changes in the system form the right front.

12. The era of coalition:
When no single political party secures absolute majority like minded political parties come together and join as a single largest group to form a coalition Government. The era of coalition started during 1977 when Janata Party came to power headed by Sri Morarjee Desai as Prime Minister at the center along with other parties. This was followed by National Front, United Front, NDA, UPA, etc.

Question 26.
Write about the organization of State Public Service Commissioner.
Answer:
The Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a Public Service Commission for each state or two or more states jointly, Accordingly, the Karnataka Public Service Commission was set up consisting of a Chairman and such other members to be determined by the Governor of the state from time to time.

At least half of the Members of the Commission should have Administrative experience with a minimum of 10 years service of the state. The remaining members must be men representing varied interests of the community. At present, there is a Chairman and nine members.

1. Appointment:
The Chairman and the members of the KPSC are appointed by the Governor, on the recommendations of the State Cabinet.

2. Term:
The Chairman and the members of the KPSC are appointed for a period of six years or till they attain the age of 62 years whichever is earlier. The members of the KPSC are not eligible P for reappointment to hold office in the KPSC after retirement.

3. Removal:
The Chairman and other members of the State Commission can be removed under the same circumstances as applicable to the Chairman and members of the UPSC.

Functions:

1. To conduct competitive examinations for the recruitment of candidates to state services.
2. To conduct departmental exami- nations for promotions.
3. To prepare rules of recruitment, promotion and transfer of civil servants from one service to another.
4. To advise the State Government on all matters relating to problems of Civil Services in the state.
5. To submit annual reports regarding its working to the state Governor.

Question 27.
Explain any five functions of the Deputy Commissioner.
Answer:
The Deputy Commissioner. (DC) is the head of U the District. He also acts as the District Magistrate Superintendent of police (SP), District Treasury Officer. Deputy Director of Pre University Education, Social Welfare Officer, Deputy Director of Public Instruction District Medical Officer, Deputy Registrar and other functions under the jurisdiction of the Deputy Commissioner. The Deputy Commissioner performs the following functions.

1. Law and order and Magisterial powers:
Deputy Commissioner enjoys magisterial powers. Being the District Magistrate, he maintains law and order and performs other judicial functions in the district.

2. Revenue functions:
It includes maintenance of Land Records and its assessment, collection of Land Revenue and other public dues and settlement of land disputes. Assistant Commissioners and Tahsildars work under the overall supervision and control of the Deputy Commissioner.

3. Development Functions:
It includes Public Health, Educational Rural Development, Social Welfare (Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe) and Welfare of Backward Classes and Minorities and Protection of Weaker sections of the Society.

4. Regulatory Functions:
It includes control, regulation, and distribution of Food and Civil Supplies and essential commodities. He also controls the matters relating to excise, stamps, and registration.

5. Electoral Functions:
Deputy Commissioner is the District Election Officer and he is in charge of elections to Parliament, State Legislature and Local bodies.

Question 28.
Write a short note on Mandal Commission.
Answer:
The Union Government appointed one more Commission headed by Sri B.P. Mandal in 1979. It submitted its report in 1980 and came into effect on 7^th August 1990. It identified 3743 Castes and Communities as Backward which formed 52% of the total population. Some of the recommendations of the Commission are :

1. The Other Backward Classes (OBC’s) have to be provided 27% reservation in employment. It encompasses the services that come under the jurisdiction of both Central and State governments including technical and professional institutions.

2. If the OBCs are selected in open competition, they should not be brought under 27% reservation and have to be treated as general. This also applies to promotion.

3. In case of backlog, it should be preserved for three years.

4. The maximum age limit should be enhanced for an appointment like that of SCs and STs.

Question 29.
Write the political implications of Human Rights movement.
Answer:
Political Implications:
1. National Human Rights Commission:
The Commission came into existence on 8^th January 1994 consisting of a Chairman who is retired or sitting Chief Justice of India along with the members. The Commission has to prepare a list of human rights and get the approval by the government. Whenever a violation is committed, systematic inquiries are to be conducted and transparency should be maintained with the help of judiciary.

The commission has to enact new laws whenever the existing laws do not enact new laws when ever the existing laws do not cater to the needs of the inquiry. While doing so, it has to respect the prevailing international laws, contracts, and resolutions.

2. State Human Rights Commission:
As per the Human Rights act of India, each state is authorized to establish a State Human Commission consisting of a Chairman who is retired or sitting Supreme Court judge or Chief Justice of High Court along with members. As per the direction of the Act, the Commission was set up in Karnataka in 2005 in the same model to that of national level.

3. Child rights:
Violation of Human rights particularly on child rights are seen everywhere. The Deputy Commissioner is authorized to look into the details of exploitation on children. Measures are to be taken to register the complaints through ch i Id helpline in matters related to child labour, child abuse, encouraging begging and others.

4. Creating Awareness:
Speedy disposal of the grievances registered in the commission at the different levels proves that people are definitely aware of the movements and its achievements. Human Rights Movements have gone a long way in providing peaceful and happy life by creating awareness and remedies for the grievances.

Question 30.
“Communalism is the major threat to Indian democracy”. How?
Answer:
Communalism is an ideology of the followers of one particular religion considers the followers of other religions as inferior. Particular religion is witnessed as a homogenous and distinct group, disrespecting other religions. Communalism as a threat to Indian Democracy.

1. Threat to National Integrity:
Hostility among various religious groups is a serious threat to national unity and integrity in India. Partition of subcontinent on religious differences in 1947 has adversely affected social harmony in India. This is continued among both religious communities and leads to communalism in democratic Government.

2. Threat of Nationalism and Patriotism:
Communalism leads to various forms of religious fundamentalism and orthodox. Religious fundamentalists exploit their community people. breeds bigotry and religious identity. In such a social environment, national and patriotic feelings are marginalized and even forgotten. Therefore, communalism endangers nationalism and patriotism.

3. Impediment to National Development:
Lack of National outlook, secular attitude, and holistic approach sometimes lead to their selfish ends of few religious leaders. Through their provocative speeches and writings create communal disturbances that naturally affect the national development programmes.

4. Weak Political Leadership:
Political parties and leadership have failed to arrest and contain communalism in India. Communal politics emerged by Political parties which influenced by caste and communal considerations of voters and creates opportunities to indecisive and weak political leadership.

5. Threat to National sovereignty:
A Nation which experiences chronic internal conflicts and socio-religious divisions may become a weak country. Gradually it may lead to foreign invasion and threat to sovereignty. “United we stand, divided we fall” is the dictum to be remembered by the people and political leaders of India. Otherwise, our national sovereignty may disappear.

Question 31.
List out the features of a coalition government.
Answer:
The term coalition is derived from the Latin words ‘Co’ which means together and ‘alescere’ which means to grow up. It is an act of coalescing or uniting into one body or a union of parties. When different political forces join together, coalition is formed. Coalition politics is a system of governance by a group of political parties or by several political parties. A coalition Government means the formation of a Government by a Group or alliance of political parties.

Features:

1. Coalition is the product of multiparty system.
2. It is a democratic arrangement.
3. It challenges single-party dominance and in which smaller parties come together to defeat bigger ones in elections and snatch power.
4. Coalition may be a pre-poll arrange mentor a post-poll arrangement.
5. Alliance partners prefer to have a Common Minimum Programme (CMP) for governance.
6. During national emergency or crisis, a national Government is formed through coalition.
7. Coalition deteriorates the supreme status of the Prime Minister who heads the Government.
8. A person agreeable not only to the big party but also to the alliance partners becomes the leader of the house and naturally heads the Government.
9. Coalition partners are always free to cease their relations and fight on one’s own identity.
10. Around 70 coalitions have been formed in our country since 1937, and it is said that coalitions are politically unstable.

Question 32.
What are the causes of the rise of identity politics?
Answer:
Identity politics is defined by one’s own identity based on race, ethnicity, gender, language religion. It is the politics of recognition and a movement to claim recognition. A person may have multiple identities but he perceives only a single identity at a time. Movements of lesbians, black civil rights, wave of feminists, etc., have brought legitimacy to identity politics.
Causes for the rise of identity politics are as follows:

• Maladministration leads to the poor economic growth of a particular region or geographical backwardness of the people of a particular ethnic identity.
• The rise of regional parties has created the local awareness of language or region.
• Extreme poverty, exploitation, lack of opportunity and threat to existing group privileges to the ethnic groups.
• Ethnic groups’ fear of assimilation resulting in cultural dilution.
• Rise in standard of living, literacy and aspiration, socio-political awareness have led to identity politics.
• Lack of share in natural resources, fear of loss of land, political power and economic growth.
• Fear of losing scope in educational employment fields.Fear of losing ethnic identities like language and culture.

Question 33.
Discuss about the Kashmir issue between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Kashmir Issue:
In India’s perspective Kashmir is an integral part of the Republic of India and to Pakistan. It is a disputed territory. The argument of Pakistan on Kashmi5r is that, since the partition of the country was done on religious basis and majority of population are Muslims, Kashmir should be part- of Pakistan. This argument failed to recognise the following facts:

• Partition was done of the British Indian provinces and not of the Indian princely states. Jammu and Kashmir was a princely state even though the population was largely M us- lim (77%).
• National Conference was the only major political party in Kashmir, which was-atfiIiated to Congress, it was opposed to Pakistan and had faith in secular politics.
• The Indian princely states had the freedom to join either India or Pakistan.
• India a secular state consisted of multi-reli-gious population.

So the Kashmiris formally decided to join India after the invasion of its territory by Pakistani tribal’s supported by the members of Pakistan Army.

In October 1947, Kashmir was invaded by tribal infiltrators of Pakistan. This forced the Maharaja to seek Indian military help. India reacted positively after ‘Instrument of Accession’ was signed on 26,^th October 1947. To resolve the crisis, the Constituent Assembly of India made a special provision through Art. 370, to provide a separate constitution to the state along with other provisions.

In 1951, the Constituent Assembly met in the state to frame a Constitution. In February 1954, the accession of the state to India was ratified by the constitution, legalising it. In November 1956. it adopted a constitution legalising the status of as a unit of the Indian Union.

Question 34.
Write a note on the doctrine of‘Panchasheel’.
Answer:
Panchsheel continues to be another fundamental principle of Indian foreign policy. An agreement signed between Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Chinese Prime Minister Zhow-en-Lai on April, 29^th 1954, sought to govern the relationship between India and China on the basis of five principles.

• Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
• Mutual non-aggression.
• Mutual noninterference in each other’s internal affairs.
• Equality and mutual benefits.

It is a principle of peaceful co-existence with other countries, it guided the basis of relationship between 1954-57 marked by numerous visits and exchanges. This period is described as Sino-Indian honeymoon.

IV. Answer any 2 of the following in 30 to 40 sentences: (2 x 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Explain the functions of Election Commission of India.
Answer:
Democratic system in India provides for impartial, free and fair elections. The framers of Indian constitution clearly made provisions for an independent, statutory body called Election Commission to conduct elections in India. Article – 324 to 329 in part deals with the composition, powers, and functions of the Election Commission. The Election Commission conducts elections to the office of the President, Vice President Union Parliament, Legislature of State, Union territories and Local bodies.

1. Composition of Election commission:
Article 324 provides for the office of the Election Commission of India. It consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and the other Election Commissioners. Till 1993, it was a single-member body but later on, it became a three-member body during the Prime Ministership of Sri P.V. Narasimha Rao.

2. Appointment and Removal:
According to Art. 342 (2), Chief Election Commissioner and other ‘ Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the advice of Union Cabinet. The term of office is 6 years or till they reach the age of 65 years. Article 324 (6) makes provisions for the salaries, allowances and other privileges to the Chief Election Commissioners, Election Commissioners, and the Personnel. The Parliament determines their salaries from time to time.

3.Removal:
According to Article 324(5) the Chief ‘Election Commissioner and other Election. Commissioners can be removed from their office in the same manner as the Judges of Supreme Court, on the grounds of misbehavior and incapacity to discharge their constitutional obligations.
Power and functions:
According to Article 324,
1. the Election Commission does the following.

• Prepares electoral roll and its periodical revision.
• Holds elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and offices of President and Vice President.
• After the announcement of elections, it decides the time table.
• It conducts by-elections to vacant seats.
• It grants recognition to political parties as National and State parties.

According to Election Emblem Act 2000

For National party:

1. 6% of valid votes in 4 or more States in LokSabha or VidhanaSabha election and 4 LokSabha seats in any State or States or
2.  Minimum 2% of Lok Sabha seats in 3 States.

For State party:

• 6% of valid votes in Lok Sabha or VidhanaSabha elections from the State and two VidhanaSabha seats, or
• 3% seats of total Vidhana Sabha seats in the States or success at least in three constituencies.
• It scrutinizes the nomination papers.
• It allots symbols to political parties and independent candidates.
• It appoints officers and other staff members to conduct election and make necessary arrangements.
• It can order for re-poll in any constituency or any polling booth.
• It can withhold the election results on valid grounds.
• The President or the Governor acts on the advice of the Election Commission at the time of disqualification of members of the house.
• It enforces the code of conduct for the candidates and political parties i.e. the election expenses and submission of accounts after election, environmental protection against noise pollution etc., during elections.
• As per the Representation of People’s Act (RPA) of 1950 and 1951, Election Commission of India conducts the process of election.

Question 36.
Explain the essentials of Nation building.
Answer:
The process of Nation-building started with the attainment of independence. The leaders of. modem India initiated the process in the right direction as they worked out the details in an orderly and systematic way. However, during implementation, they had to face numerous problems associated with national reconstruction resulting in a slow process.

The process of nation-building is an offshoot of the concept of nation-states. The idea of nation-states emerged after the signing of the treaty of West Phalia (1648) by Western Countries. The people of the common religious and traditional backgrounds living in a definite territory with like-mindedness and ‘we’ feeling form the nation. Common language, culture, and history aspirations help common people to form nationality.

1. Components to community support:
To realise the process of nation-building, collective support and endeavor of the people are essential. The quality of the people reflects the quality of a nation. Disciplined work culture and patriotic feelings also contribute to nation-building. In a democracy, people are the kingmakers. Hence, they are expected to elect competent and honest representatives. They formulate a sound public opinion on important national issues. As J.S. Mill said ‘Eternal vigilance is the price of democracy’.

2. Good Governance:
Good governance ensures accountability, transparency, efficiency, responsibility, and responsiveness. In addition, the use of technology has given rise to e-Governance. India is one of the leading countries in the world in the adoption of the system of e-governance.

3. Committed Leadership:
History depicts many examples of committed leadership. Eg.: US President F. D. Roosevelt solved the crisis of Economic depression by adopting the New Deal Policy and US became a superpower at global level after the II World War.

In India Nehru’s leadership largely contributed to the process of nation-building. He formulated goals for nation-building and introduced the planning system, adopted industrialization policy and socialistic pattern of society. He had vision and farsightedness for the transformation of India. Hence Nehru is called the Architect of Modem India.

4. Political culture:
Political Culture constitutes a set of values, attitudes, and behavior towards a political system. It requires an ideal political behavior for national reconstruction. Leaders have to embody the principles of national interest, public service, probity, and statesmanship.

5. Power Sharing:
To realize the goal, political power needs to be shared among all sections of society. The concentration of political power in the hands of a few people and some families leads to the emergence of authoritarianism and dictatorship.

As H.J. Laski rightly puts it “ A decision which affects all must be decided by all” To attain this reservation is provided to the SCs and STs and women at different levels of Government. It ensures social justice which is the foundation of socio-economic democracy.

6. Universal Education:
For the development of national universal education is of paramount importance. It enables the person to understand his potentiality and strengthens dignity. As Gandhi said, “Education is the light of life”. It encourages people to develop the spirit of inquiry the ability to analyze the national problems and to work for national progress.

Education also equips the people to shun fanaticism, parochialism, communalism, casteism and religious fundamentalism. The Right To Education Act 2009 implemented in 2010 is a step in this direction.

7. National Character:
Nationalism and patriotism are the foundations to build a national character. Each country has its distinct national character which denotes one’s nativity-as the conservatism of UK, ‘Land of Liberty’ of US, Ethnicity of Africa, Aboriginal of Australia, cultural diversity of India.

Love and respect for one’s country and national symbols such as national flag, national anthem, and national monuments are the prerequisites. One has to acquire knowledge about the history of his motherland and its contributions to human civilizations. Realizing the significance of national character, the makers of the Indian constitution have asserted the supremacy of popular sovereignty in the preamble reading with the expression.” We the people of India”.

8. Mass Media:
Mass Media is regarded as the Fourth Estate in democracy as it plays a vital role in nation-building. It highlights the omissions and commissions of the government and acts as a bridge between the government and the public. It is an effective instrument of political socialization. modernization and development. In India, the ‘Freedom of Expression’ is a fundamental right under Art. 19 of the Constitution.

9. Responsible Intelligentsia:
The contribution of intellectuals is recognized all over the world. Research and innovations in important areas of human life have contributed to national development.

In India the development in the field of social sciences, M.N. Srinivas, Amartya Sen, S.Shettar, Gail Omvedt, Kancha, Ilaya, Vandana Shiva, S.N. Balagangadhara, AshishNandy, Rajiv Malhotra and others. In Science and Technology Sir M. Vishveshwaraiah, Sir C.V. Raman, Dr. Raja Ramanna, Dr. M.G.K. Menon, Dr. CNR Rao. Dr. U.R. Rao, Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam, and others have greatly contributed for India’s present position at global level.

10. National Integration:
It is the process of uniting the people emotionally, psychologically and politically, Sardar Vallabha Bai Patel, Vinoba Bhave, Lai Bahadhur Shastri, J.B. Kriplani, Acharya Narendra Dev played a key role in the national integration. November 19^th is being observed as National integration day, the birthday of Smt. Indira Gandhi.

Question 37.
Discuss the importance and political implications of Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalisation is the process of intergrating the economy of the country with world economy. It is a movement towards greater interaction. Integration and interdependence among people and organisation across borders. The strongest manifestation of Globalisation has been the increasing economic integration among the countries in trade and investment.

An important attribute of globalization is the increasing degree of openness, which has three dimensions, ie., international trade, international investment, and international finance. It involves creation of networks and activities transcending economic, social and geographical boundaries.

The Economy of India had undergone significant policy shifts at the beginning of the 1990s. This new model of economic reforms is commonly known as the liberalization, privatization and global- isation(LPG) model.

The chain of reforms that took place with regard to business, manufacturing and financial industries targeted at strengthening the economy of the country to a more proficient level. These economic reforms had influenced the overall economic growth of the country in a significant manner.

In brief, the salient points of Globalisation are:

1. Efficiency.
2. Transfer of technology
3. Concept of a global village
4. Mobility of labour force
5. Global competition resulting in better performance
6. Outsourcing and
7. Optimum utilization of human resources.

The political implications of globalisation are as follows.
1. Power subjugation:
The effects of globalisation brought lots of changes in the world economy. For small countries it is inevitable to accept the economic decisions of strong countries. Hence it affects the soverignty of a country in totality.

2. Affects Sovereignty:
As a result of globalisation in the fields of economy, trade, transportation, etc., the sovereign countries are bound by decisions of strong countries. Hence it affects the sovereignty of a country totally.

3. Cultural Invasion:
Culture is a complex whole and exclusive to each country. The influence of globalisation in the name of cultural exchange not only invades but also degenerates the youth who are the architects of the future.

4. Enslavement of Lifestyle:
Globalisation has largely affected the younger generation. Food habits, general behavior, mutual relationships, respect to elders, human values and ultimately the whole generation has become slave in the clutches of globalisation.

5. Elimination of subsidies:
The major impact of globalisation is the curtailment of subsidies to all sectors including agriculture in a phased manner. The worst-hit are the peasants who are the backbone of the country.

6. Political Instability:
The impact of globalisation mainly is economic depression, boom or even recession which directly affects the political stability of a country. Hence development comes to a standstill.

Thus globalisation as a process of integrating the economy of the country with world economy has gone a long way.

Question 38.
Explain the basic concepts of International Relations.
Answer:
The core concepts of International Relations pertaining to politics are as follows:
1. State Sovereignty:
Jean Bodin has described the concept of Sovereignty in his work “De Republica”. He emphasizes on the state Sovereignty within their territorial jurisdiction. No State can dictate others and all States are equal in matters of status, dignity, and honour. For instance, India under British imperialism lost its sovereignty and gained its state hood only in 1947. Iraq during the Gulf war in 1990, is an example for aggression on the Sovereignty.

2. National Interests:
It is the action of the State in relation to other States. As Frankel opined, it refers to the aspiration of the state. The determinants of national interest are qualities of personalities and ideals of the decision-makers.

3. Power Blocs:
With the beginning of the cold war, two power blocs emerged, i.e., USA and USSR. President of U S. Harry S. Truman believed in the spread of democracy whereas the Warsaw Pact under Soviet policy sought the spread of Communism. Capitalistic ideology spread in UK, France, Germany, and Communist ideology spread in Poland, Bulgaria, Rumania, and Hungery.

4. Polarity:
Polarities in international relations refer to the arrangement of power within the international system. The concept arose from bi-polarity during the cold war between the two superpowers. The disintegration of the USSR has led to uni-polarity with the United States as the superpower. With rapid economic growth in 2010, China became the world’s second largest economy. Combined with the respectable international position, China has emerged as a major power in the multi-polar world.

5. Balance of Power:
The concept of Balance of Power refers to relative power position of States as actors in international relations, with its emphasis on the cultivation of power and the utilization of power for resolving the problems. Morgenthau used the term ‘Balance of Power’ as approximately equal distribution of power. It is an inseparable part of power politics.

V. Answer any two of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39.
Write the main points of Nepalese ‘Magna Carta’.
Answer:
Nepal witnessed a popular movement in 2006. The movement was aimed at restoring democracy. At the same time, the King reinstated the old Nepal House of Representatives, with an assurance of permanent peace and multi party democracy. The King called upon the Seven Party Alliance (SPA) to bear the responsibility of taking the nation on the path of national unity and prosperity.

The popular Government assumed office on 18^th May 2006 and withdrew all the privileges given to the King unanimously. The bill included.

1. Imposing tax on the royal family and its assets.
2. Ending the Raj Parishad, a Royal Advisory council.
3. Eliminating Royal references from army and Government titles.
4. Declaring Nepal a secular country and not the Hindu Kingdom.
5. Scrapping the National Anthem until a new one is composed.
6. Eliminating the King’s position as the supreme commander of the army.

This is popularly known as ‘Nepalese Magna Carta’. Nepal became a Federal Democratic Republic with a President, a Prime Minister and a Council of Ministers in office to run the Government.

OR

Question
Mention the main provisions of State Reorganisation Act of 1956.
Answer:
States Re-organisation Act – 1956 The states reorganisation committee was constituted in December 1953 with Justice Fazl Ali, K.M. Panikkar and Hridayanath Kunzru as members, to examine the issue and recommend the principles for reorganisation keeping in view the objectivity and indiscrimination. The commission reported in 1955. The recommendations were discussed and debated and finally, the state reorganisation act was passed in November 1956.

The objective of this Act explains “The states of India, as they exist today have been formed largely as a result of historical accidents and circumstances and hence there was a demand for the reorganization of the component units of the Indian Union on a more rational basis, after taking into account, not only the growing importance of regional languages but also financial and administrative considerations.” The main features of the Act are:

1. Abolishing the distinction between parts A, B, C, and D states.

2. Establishment of two categories of units

• States
• Union territories.

3. The abolition of Rajpramukhs.

4. The Act provided for the creation of 14 states and 6 Union Territories.

After 1956, the acceptance of the Principle of linguistic states did not mean that all states immediately became linguistic. There was ‘bilingual’ Bombay state consisting of Gujarati and Marathi speaking people. After a popular agitation, the separate states of Maharashtra and Gujarat were created in 1960.

In Punjab also, there were two linguistic groups Hindi speaking and Punjabi speaking. The Punjabi speaking people demanded a separate state. The Sikh communalists led by AkaliDal and Hindu communalists, led by Bharatiya Jan Sangh used the linguistic issue to promote communal politics.

The SRC had also refused to accept the demand on the ground that it would not solve the language or communal problem of Punjab. After several powerful movements finally in 1966, Punjab was divided into Punjab and Haryana.

Yet, it is not the end of reorganization of states. Language alone did not remain the sole basis of reorganisation of states. Regional culture and complaints of regional imbalance have led to the demands of smaller states. Vidarbha in Maharashtra, Harith Pradesh in Uttar Pradesh and Gorkhaland in West Bengal are demanding statehood. The bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh into Telangana and Seemandhra is declared and divided also in 2013.

Earlier, it was felt that linguistic states may foster separation and thus weaken national unity. But, linguistic state reorganisation has removed some major sources of grievances, which could have led to divisive tendencies. It has only strengthened National unity.
At present, there are 29 States and 7 Union territories in India.
For list of states

Sr. No.	State.
1.	Andhra Pradesh
2.	Arunachal Pradesh
3.	Assam
4.	Bihar
5.	Chhattisgarh
6.	Goa
7.	Gujarat
8.	Haryana
9.	Himachal Pradesh
10.	Jammu & Kashmir
11.	Jharkhand
12.	Karnataka
13.	Kerala
14.	Madhya Pradesh
15.	Maharashtra
16.	Manipur
17.	Meghalaya
18.	Mizoram
19.	Nagaland
20.	Odisha
21.	Punjab
22.	Rajasthan
23.	Sikkim
24.	Tamil Nadu
25.	Telangana
26.	Tripura
27.	Uttar Pradesh
28.	Uttarakhand
29.	West Bengal

Union Territories:

Sr. No.	Union Territories
1.	Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2.	Chandigarh
3.	Dadra and Nagar Haveli
4.	Daman and Diu
5.	Delhi (NCT)
6.	Lakshadweep
7.	Puducherry

Question 40.
Discuss the role of India in the establishment of SAARC.
Answer:
During the 1960’s and 70s the tendency towards regional arrangements became much more prominent despite many hurdles. The emergence of Bangladesh and the Simla Agreement of 1972, became the turning points towards regional cooperation. President Zia-ur-Rahaman discussed the issue of regional co-operation with the new Indian Prime Minister, Moraji Desai.

He had also informally discussed the idea of regional co-operation with the leaders of South Asian countries during the regional and international meetings. Several factors seem to have influenced President Zia-Ur-Rahaman regarding the establishment of a regional organisation in South Asia during 1975-1979.

For Zia-Ur-Rahaman’s successful contribution in the process of Regional Organisations in South Asia, he is called as the founding father of SAARC. Between 1980 and 1983, four meetings at the Foreign Secretary level took place to establish the principles of organisation and identify areas for co-operation. Several Foreign Ministers level meetings were held between 1983 and 1985.

The first meeting of Foreign Ministers in New Delhi was held on the 1^st and 2nd of August 1983. In her inaugural address, the then Prime Minister of India Mrs. Indira Gandhi described South Asia as a troubled region and said “I am glad we are making a beginning, we have our political differences, but economic co-operation will give a strong impetus to closer friendship and greater stability in South Asia.

With unity, we can hope to move ahead for future freedom, peace, and prosperity.” She also warned that we should be ever vigilant against the attempts of external powers influencing our functioning. SAARC marks the establishment of an Association to promote and develop co-operation. Finally, the first Summit meeting of the Heads of States or Governments of South Asian countries was held at Dhaka on the 7^th and 8^thof December 1985.

Its members are 8 countries of South Asia, namely Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. Ip 2010, Afghanistan became the 8th member of SAARC. Six observers of SAARC are China, Japan, European Union, Republic of Korea, United States and Iran.

OR

Write the features of Civil Services.
Answer:
Features of Civil Services:-
1. Professional body:
As Herman Finer puts it, Civil Service is a professional body of officials who are, permanent, paid and skilled. It is a whole time job and career service.

2. Hierarchy:
As per the scaler system, each civil servant has to obey his immediate superior, where higher ranking administrative officers with discretionary powers supervise their subordinates. The authority runs from above and helps to make administration stable.

3. Political Neutrality:
Civil Servants refrain always from political activities. They perform their duties without being aligned to any one political regime.

4. Anonymity:
Civil servants work behind the screen and remain anonymous even though they work for the Government. Recognition for good work or censure for any omission goes only to the concerned minister and not to. the civil servants.

5. Impartiality:
The Civil Servants have to apply the laws of the state while performing the duties without showing any favor, bias or preference to any groups or sections of the society.

6. Service motto:
They have to work for the welfare of society. They must be humble and service minded towards the public and not authoritative.

7. Permanent:
Civil Servants are called permanent executives. They discharge duties until they attain the age of superannuation. Both at the central and in Karnataka State Services, the age of retirement is sixty years. Even though disciplinary action is taken as per rules, there is security of service.

8. Jurisdiction of Law:
Every Civil Servant has to function within the prescribed jurisdiction of law. If they cross the limit, they are met with disciplinary actions.

9. Special Training:
Once the candidates are selected for top civil services, they are deputed to in-service training to acquire special skills in administration, like the Lai Bahadur Shastry Academy of Administration located in Mussoorie for the training of the newly appointed IAS officers. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Police Academy located in Hyderabad trains the newly appointed IPS officers.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2016, Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2016

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

PART – A

Answer all the following questions. Each question carries one mark. (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
What is DHTML?
Answer:
DHTML refers to web content that changes each time it is viewed. A DHTML web page can react to user input without sending requests to the webserver.

Question 2.
Define e-commerce.
Answer:
The e-commerce is defined as buying and selling of products or services over electronic systems such as the internet and other computer networks.

Question 3.
Define Local Area Networking.
Answer:
The LAN is defined as a computer network covering a small physical area like a home, office, or small group of buildings such as a school or an airport.

Question 4.
Define the term ‘topology’ of computer networks.
Answer:
It is the geometric arrangement of a computer system in a network. Common topologies include a linear bus, star, ring, and ring.

Question 5.
Define data mining.
Answer:
It is the process of discovering interesting knowledge, such as patterns, associations, changes, anomalies from large amounts of data stored in databases using pattern recognition technologies as well as statistical and mathematical techniques.

Question 6.
How do you initialize a pointer variable?
Answer:
Ex:
int *intptr, a=10;
intptr = &a;

Question 7.
What is the significance of scope resolution operation in C++?
Answer:
The operator :: known as scope resolution operator helps in defining member function outside the class.

Question 8.
Name any one non-linear data structure.
Answer:
The examples for non-linear data structures are trees and graphs.

Question 9.
Write the standard symbol of XOR gate.
Answer:

Question 10.
Expand ISA.
Answer:
Industry Standard Architecture

PART – B

Answer any five questions. Each question carries two marks. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
Prove (X+Y) (X+Z) = X + YZ using algebraic method.
Answer:
LHS: = (X+Y) (X+Z)
= XX + XZ + XY + YZ
= X + XZ + XY + YZ
= X + (1 + Z +Y) YZ
= X + YZ
= RHS

Question 12.
Give the general syntax for defining classes and objects.
Answer:
The syntax of a class definition:

Syntax:
classname objectname1, objectname2, …. ,objectname……………. n;
For example, Largest ob1,ob2; //object declaration will create two objects ob1 and ob2 of largest class type.

Question 13.
What are minterms and maxterms?
Answer:

• A minterm is a special product of literals, in which each input variable appears exactly once.
• A maxterm is a sum of literals, in which each input variable appears exactly once.

Question 14.
Mention any two antivirus software.
Answer:
The two antivirus software are Norton Antivirus and Kaspersky Antivirus.

Question 15.
Write the syntax for delete and insert commands in SQL.
Answer:
1. Syntax for delete:
DELETE from tablename WHERE condition;

2. Syntax for insert:
INSERT INTO tablename (col1, col2, …) VALUES (val1, val2….);

Question 16.
Write any two rules for constructors.
Answer:
The rules for writing a constructor functions are

• They should be declared in the public section.
• They are invoked automatically when the objects are created.
• They should not have return types, therefore they cannot return values.
• They cannot be inherited.
• They can have default arguments.
• Cannot refer to addresses.
• These cannot be static.
• An object of a class with a constructor cannot be used as a member of a union.

Question 17.
Write any two member functions belonging to offstream class.
Answer:
The seekp() and tellp() functions belongs to ofstream class.

Question 18.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of ISAM?
Answer:
The advantages of disadvantages of index sequential access method are
Advantages:

• It combines both sequential and direct
• Suitable for sequential access and random access
• Provides quick access to records

Disadvantages:

• It uses special software and is expensive
• Extra time is taken to maintain index
• Extra storage for index files
• Expensive hardware is required

PART – C

Answer any five questions. Each question carries three marks: (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 19.
What is web hosting? Mention various web hosting services.
Answer:
Web hosting is the business of housing, serving and maintaining files for one or more web sites and provide fast connection to the internet. The different web hosting services are shared hosting and free hosting.

Question 20.
What is meant by shareware? Write its limitations.
Answer:
Shareware is software that is distributed free on a trial basis with the understanding that the user may need or want to pay for it later. The limitations are:

• Source code is not available
• Modifications are not allowed.

Question 21.
Explain relational data model with an example.
Answer:
Relational Database Model:
Dr. E.F.Codd first introduced the Relational Database Model in 1970. This model allows data to be represented in a ‘simple row-column format’.

Properties of the relational database model:

• Data is presented as a collection of relations.
• Each relation is depicted as a table.
• Columns are attributes that belong to the entity modeled by the table (ex. In a student table, you could have a name, address, student ID, major, etc.).
• Each row (“tuple”) represents a single entity.
• Every table has a set of attributes that taken together as a “key” (technically, a superkey”) uniquely identifies each entity.

Question 22.
Give the functions of the following:
Answer:

1. get ()
2. getline()
3. read()

1. get() function is used to read a single character from the associated stream.
2. getline () function is a string I/O function that is used to read a whole line of text to text files.
3. read() function is used to read binary data from a file.

Question 23.
Explain the use of new and delete operators in pointers.
Answer:
a. The new operator in C++ is used for dynamic storage allocation. This operator can be used to create an object of any type.
General syntax of the new operator in C++:
The general syntax of a new operator in C++ is as follows:
pointer variable = new datatype; In the above statement, new is a keyword and the pointer variable is a variable of type datatype.

For example:
int * a = new int;
In the above example, the new operator allocates sufficient memory to hold the object of datatype int and returns a pointer to its starting point. The pointer variable holds the address of memory space allocated.

b. The delete operator in C++ is used for releasing memory space when the object is no longer needed.
General syntax of delete operator in C++:
delete pointer_variable;
For example, delete cptr;
In the above example, delete is a keyword and the pointer variable cptr is the pointer that points to the objects already created in the new operator.

Question 24.
What is stack? Write an algorithm for POP operation.
Answer:
stack is an ordered collection of items in which items may be inserted and deleted at one end.
Algorithm for POP operation
PUSH(STACK, TOP, ITEM)
Step 1: if TOP = 0 then
PRINT “stack is empty”
Exit
End of if
Step 2: ITEM = STACK[POP]
Step 3: TOP = TOP -1
Step 4: Return

Question 25.
Draw the logic diagram and truth table for 2 input XOR gate.
Answer:

Truth table:

Question 26.
Expand UPS. Explain the types of UPS.
Answer:
Uninterruptible Power Supply. There are two types of UPS namely offline UPS and online UPS.

1. Offline UPS:
This type of UPS have module to switch between using battery or using bypass main power source. When main power source is off, then the UPS will switch from main power source to the battery source in less than 4 ms delay time.

2. Online UPS:
This type of UPS is better than Offline, because no matter main power source is on or off, output always come from battery source.

PART – D

Answer any seven of the following questions. Each question carries Five marks: (7 × 5 = 35)

Question 27.
Write an algorithm to insert an element into a queue.
Answer:
Step 1: if REAR >= N -1 then
Print “Queue is overflow”
Exit
End of if
Step 2: REAR = REAR+ 1
Step 3: QUEUE [REAR] = element
Step 4: if FRONT =-1 then
FRONT = 0.

Question 28.
Write an algorithm for insertion sort method.
Answer:
Step 1: for i = 1 to n-1 Repeat step 2
Step 2: for j = i downto 1 Repeat step 3
Step 3: is ( a[j] < a[j-1])? then
temp = a[j]
A[j] = a[j-1]
A[j-1] = temp [ end of j loop]
[ end of i loop]

Question 29.
Using K map, simplify the following expression in four variables:
F(A,B,C,D) = m₁ + m₂ + m₄ + m₅ + m₉ + m₁₁ + m₁₂ + m₁₃
Answer:

The simplified boolean function is BC’ + C’D + AB’CD + A’B’CD’

Question 30.
Write the rules to be followed in writing the constructor function in C++.
Answer:
The rules for writing a constructor functions are

• They should be declared in the public section.
• They are invoked automatically when the objects are created.
• They should not have return types, therefore they cannot return values.
• They cannot be inherited.
• They can have default arguments.
• Cannot refer to addresses.
• These cannot be static.
• An object of a class with a constructor cannot be used as a member of a union.

Question 31.
Describe briefly the use of friend function in C++ with syntax and example.
Answer:
A friend function is useful when a function to be shared between the two classes bymaking a function as a friend to both the classes, thereby allowing a function to access private and protected data members of both classes.
syntax for declaration of friend function:
class classname
{
public:
friend returntype function name (arguments);
}

Question 32.
Explain defining objects of a class with syntax and a programming example.
Answer:
The objects are declared after a class is defined. The object declaration create object of that class and memory is allocated for the created object. The object are created using the following syntax:
classname objectname1, objectname2,……………;
for example
student obj1, obj2;
the obj1 and obj2 are the objects of class type student.
The object names are used to access the data members through member functions by invoking member functions.
For example:
obj1.getdata(5, 25);
here, getadata() is the member function of a class student and function call is give using object obj1 which assign the value 5 and 25 to the data members of the class. The memory is allocated separately for data members of each object.

Question 33.
Define object oriented programming. Write the limitations of object oriented programming.
Answer:
Object oriented programming is a programming methodology based on objects, instead of just functions and procedures. These objects are organized into classes, which allow individual objects to be group together.
Limitations:
1. Size:
Object Oriented programs are much larger than other programs. In the early days of computing, space on hard drives, floppy drives and in memory was at a premium. Today we do not have these restrictions.

2. Effort:
Object Oriented programs require a lot of work to create. Specifically, a great deal of planning goes into an object oriented program well before a single piece of code is ever written. Initially, this early effort was felt by many to be a waste of time. In addition, because the programs were larger (see above) coders spent more time actually writing the program.

3. Speed:
Object Oriented programs are slower than other programs, partially because of their size. Other aspects of Object Oriented Programs also demand more system resources, thus slowing the program down.

4. Not suitable for all types of problems:
There are problems that lend themselves well to functional-programming style, logic -programming style, or procedure-based programming style, and applying object-oriented programming in those situations will not result in efficient programs.

5. Not all programs can be modeled accurately by the objects model. If you just want to read in some data, do something simple to.it and write it back out, you have no need to define classes and objects. However, in some OOP languages, you may have to perform this extra step.

6. The objects often require extensive documentation.

Question 34.
Explain network securities in detail.
Answer:
Network security refers to any activities designed to protect network and related activities. It protects the usability, reliability, integrity, and safety of network and data. Good network security identifies a variety of threats and stops them from entering or spreading on network.

The network security concerns with allowing only legal or authorized users and programs to gain access to information resources like databases. It also ensures that properly authenticated users get access only to those resources that they are supposed to use. Many network security threats today are spread over the Internet. The most common include:

• Viruses, worms, and Trojan horses
• Spyware and adware
• Zero-day attacks also called zero-hour attacks
• Hacker attacks Denial of service attacks
• Data interception and theft
• Identity theft

A network security system usually consists of many components. Ideally, all components work together, which minimizes maintenance and improves security. Network security components include:

• Anti-virus and anti-spyware.
• Firewall, to block unauthorized access to your network.
• Intrusion prevention systems (IPS), to identify fast-spreading threats, such as zero-day or zero-hour attacks.
• Virtual Private Networks (VPNs), to provide secure remote access.

The network security makes use of a variety of resources like user name, password, encrypted smart cards, biometrics, and firewalls to protect resources.

Question 35.
Describe any five logical operators available in SQL.
Answer:
The five logical operators available in SQL are

Question 36.
Write the differences between manual and electronic data processing.
Answer:
The difference between manual and electronic file systems.

Manual File System	Electronic File System
1) Process limited volume of data	1) process a large volume of data
2) uses paper to store data	2) use of mass storage devices in the computer itself
3) the speed and accuracy is less	3) more speed and greater accuracy
4) cost of processing is high since more human-oriented	4) cost of processing less because computer performs repetitive task
5) occupies more space	5) little space is sufficient
6) Repetitive tasks reduces efficiency and human feel bore and tiredness	6) Efficiency is maintained throughout and won’t feel bore and tiredness.

Question 37.
Explain briefly the types of inheritance.
Answer:
1. Single inheritance:
A derived class with only one base class is called single inheritance. For example, If A is base class then class B derive from base class A.

2. Multilevel inheritance:
A class can be derived from another derived class which is known as multilevel inheritance. For example, The derived class C inherit B class whereas B is derived from class A.

3. Hierarchical inheritance:
When the properties of one class are inherited by more than one class, it is called hierarchical inheritance. For example, classes B, C, and D are derived from base class A.

4. Hybrid inheritance:
It is the combination of hierarchical and multilevel inheritance. For example, The derived class D derive from the classes B and C whereas both the classes B and C are derived from base class A.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Accountancy Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions: –

1. All sub questions of Section – A should be answered continuously at one place.
2. Provide working notes wherever necessary.
3. 15 minutes extra time has been allotted for the candidates to read the questions.
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicates full marks.

Section – A

I. Answer any Eight questions, each question carries One mark : ( 8 × 1 = 08 )

Question 1.
Government grant is treated as …………….. receipt.
Answer:
Revenue Receipt

Question 2.
State the minimum number of persons required to form a partnership.
Answer:
2 persons

Question 3.
Accumulated profits are transferred to all partners’ capital account including new partner [True / False].
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Amount due to deceased partner is settled in the following manner ………….
[a] Immediate full payment
[b] Transferred to loan account
[c] Partly Paid in cash and balance transferred to loan account
[d] All of the above
Answer:
All of the above

Question 5.
Profit on forfeited shares is transferred to account
Answer:
Capital reserve

Question 6.
Name any one method of redemption of debentures.
Answer:
Payment is lump sum or any ether one

Question 7.
Write one objectives of financial statements.
Answer:
To provide information about economic resources and obligations of a business or any other one.

Question 8.
Comparative statement analysis is also known as …………
[a] Dynamic analysis
[b] Horizontal analysis
[c] Vertical analysis
[d] External anlysis.
Answer:
[b] Horizontal analysis

Question 9.
Expand E.P.S
Answer:
E.P.S = Earnings per share

Question 10.
Give an example for cash inflows from financing activities.
Answer:
Cash proceeds from issuing shares (equity or / and preference) or any other.

Section – B

II. Answer any Five questions, each question carries Two marks : ( 5 × 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
What is Capital Fund? 2 marks
Answer:
Capital fund is the difference between the assets and liabilities of the not for profit organization. It is aggregate capital items like legacies, entrance fees and lite membership fees.

Question 12.
Write any two contents of partnership deed.
Answer:
Contents of partnership deed.

1. Name and addresses of the firm.
2. Name and address of all the partners or any other

Question 13.
State any two methods of valuation of goodwill.
Answer:
The important methods of valuation of goodwill are as follows

1. Average profits method
2. Super profits method or any other

Question 14.
Give the journal entry for a liability taken over by a partner on dissolution of firm.
Answer:

Question 15.
What is Oversubscription?
Answer:
It is a situation, when applications for more shares of a company are received than the number offered to the public for subscription.

Question 16.
Write any two limitations of financial statements.
Answer:

1. Do not reflect current situation
2. Assets many not realize or any other.

Question 17.
State any two uses of financial statement analysis.
Answer:
Uses of financial analysis

1. Help the financial manger to take better decision.
2. Helps the management is measuring the success of the companies operations or any other.

Question 18.
Mention any two activities which are classified for preparation of cash flow statement as per AS – 3
Answer:
Two activities for the preparation of cash flow statement are :

1. Operating activities
2. Investing activities or
3. Financing activities

Section – C

III. Answer any Four questions, each question carries Six marks : ( 4 × 6 = 24 )

Question 19.
Mahesh, a partner in firm withdrew the following amounts during the year ended March 31,
May 01, 2017 – ₹ 10,000
September 30, 2017 – ₹ 8,000
November 01, 2017 – ₹ 7,000
January 31,2018 – ₹ 12,000
Calculate interest on his drawings at 9% p.a. under product method.
Answer:
Calculation of Interest in Drawings under product month

Interest = Total products x Ratio of interest x \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) = \(2,17,000 \times \frac{9}{100} \times \frac{1}{12}\)
= ₹ 1627.50 or ₹ 1,628

Question 20.
Ankit, Suchit and Chandru are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3 : 2 Ankit retires from the firm. Suchit and Chandru agreed to share in the ratio of 5 :3 in future. Calculate gaining ratio of suchit and Chandru.
Answer:
O.RS Ratio = Anikita -4 : Suchita – 2 : Chandra – 2
NPSR = Suchita – 5 : Chandra – 3
Share of Gain = New Share – Old share

Question 21.
A, B and C are the partners in a business sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1 respectively. Their Balance Sheet as on 31st March 2017 was as follows:

C died on 30 th Sept, 2017. The partnership deed provides the following:

1. The deceased partner will be entitled to his share of profit up the date of death calculated on the basis of previous year’s profit.
2. He will be entitled to his share cf goodwill of the firm calculated on the basis of three years purchase of average of last four years profit. The profits for last four years arc given below;
   2013-14 ₹ 80,000 ; 2014-15 ₹ 50,000; 2015-16 ₹ 40,000 and 2016-17 ₹ 30,000.
3. Interest on capital is to be allowed at 12% p.a.
   Prepare C’s Executors account.

Answer:

Question 22.
Anand Co., Ltd, issued 10,000,10% debentures at ₹ 100 each payable as :
₹ 20 on application
₹ 50 on allotment and }
₹ 30 on first and final call
All the debentures were subscribed and money duly received.
Pass necessary journal entries.
Answer:

Question 23.
From the following particulars, prepare a statement of profit and loss for the year ending 31st March 2017 as per the schedule III of the companies Act of 2013:

Answer:

Note to Accounts : Employee benefit expenses

Question 24.
From tbe following particulars, Calculate current ratio and quick ratio:

Answer:

Question 25.
Praful Ltd, arrived at a net income of ₹ 5,00,000 for the year ended March 31,2018. Depreciation for the year was ₹ 2,00,000. There was a profit of ₹ 50,000 on asset sold which was transferred to statement of profit and loss. Trade receivables increased during the year ₹ 40,000 and Trade payables also increased by ₹ 60,000.
Compute the cash flow from operating activities by the indirect method.
Answer:
Cash Flows from operating activities (Indirect method)

Section – D

VI. Answer any Four questions, each question carries Twelve marks : ( 4 × 12 = 48 )

Question 26.
Following are the Balance Sheet and Receipts and Payments Account of Golden Sports Club, Vijayapur:

Adjustments:
(a) Outstanding subscriptions for 2018 ₹ 1,000.
(b) Outstanding salary as on 3 1-03-2018 ₹ 5,OO0
(c) Half of the entrance fees to be capitalised.
(d) Depreciate sports materials @ 20% per annum
Prepare (i) Income and Expenditure account for the year ending 31-03-2018 and (ii) Balance Sheet as on that date.
Answer:

Question 27.
Raja and Rani are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. Their balance sheet as on 3 1.03.2018 was as follows:

On 01.04.2018 they admitted Mantri as a partner and offer him 1/5th share in the future profits on the following terms:
a. Mantri has to bring in ₹ 30,000 as his capital and ₹ 10,000 towards goodwill. Goodwill is to be withdrawn by the old partners.
b. Depreciate Machinery by 5%
c. Appreciate buildings by 10%
d. PBD is maintain at 4,000 and Investments are to be revalued at ₹ 25,000
Prepare : (i) Revaluation Account, (ii) Partners Capital Accounts and
(iii) Balance Sheet of the firm after admission.
Answer:

Question 28.
Tanu and Sonu are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. They decided to dissolve their firm on 31.03.2018. Their Balance Sheet was as follows:

The following information is available :
a. Machinery were given to creditors in full settlement of their account and stock were given to bills payable in full settlement.
b. Investments are taken over by Soqu at book value. Sundry Debtors book value of ₹ 50,000 were taken over by Tanu at 10% less and remaining debtors realised ₹ 51,000.
c. Sonu paid realization expenses of ₹ 1,000 and she was to get a remuneration of ₹ 2,000 for completing the dissolution process.
Prepare:
(a) Realisation A/c }
(b) Partners’ Capital Accounts and
(c) Bank A/c
Answer:

Question 29.
Sun India Ltd., issued 20,000 shares of ₹100 each at a premium of ₹ 10 each. The amount was payable as follows:
₹ 20 on application
₹ 50 on allotment [including premium]
₹ 40 on first and find call.
All the shares were subscribed and money duly received except the first and final call money on 1,000 shares. The directors forfeited these shares and re-issued them as fully paid @ ₹ 90 per share.
Pass the journal entries relating to issue, forfeiture and re-issue of shares in the books of the company.
Answer:

Question 30.
Give journal entries for the following:
a. Issue of ₹ 2,00,000 12% debentures of ₹ 100 each at par and redeemable at par.
b. Issue of ₹ 50,000,10% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a premium of 5% but redeemable at par.
c. Issue of ₹ 3,00,000,8% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 5% repayable at par.
d. Issue of ₹ 100,000, 9% debentures of ₹ 100 each at par but repayable at a premium of 5%.
Answer:
In the Books of Company

Question 31.
From the following balance sheets of LG Industries Ltd., compute the Trend percentages using 31.3.2016 as base year.

Answer:

Question 32.
From the following particulars calculate :
a. Inventory turnover ratio
b. Trade receivable turnover ratio
c. Trade payable turnover ratio
d. Gross profit ratio
e. Operating ratio
f. Net Profit ratio

Particulars	₹
Revenue from operations	10,00,000
Gross profit	2,00,000
Average inventory	1,00,000
Net credit revenue from operations	6,00,000
Average Trade Receivables	1,50,000
Net Credit Purchases	5,00,000
Average Trade payables	2,50,000
Operating expenses	1,00,000
Net profit	1,00,000

Answer:
From the following particulars calculate :

Section – E
(Practical Oriented Questions)

V. Answer any Two questions, each question carries Five marks: ( 2 × 5= 10 )

Question 33.
Write two partners capital accounts under fluctuating capital system with 5 imaginary figure.
Answer:

Question 34.
Write proforma of Balance Sheet of a company with main heads only.
Answer:
Balance Sheet as at 31 st March 20

Question 35.
Prepare comparative income statement of profit and loss with five imaginary figures
Answer:
Comparative Statement of profit and loss for the year ended March 31, 2014 and 2015.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Geography Model Question Paper 2 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs
Max. Marks: 100

Section – A

I. Answer the following in one sentence each: ( 1 × 10 = 10 )

Question 1.
What is life expectancy?
Answer:
The average period that a person may except to live is known as life expectancy.

Question 2.
What are Tertiary occupations?
Answer:
It includes all kinds of services, retail, entertainment, banking, education, health care, transportation and communication. ‘

Question 3.
Which contienent has the highest density of rail network in the world?
Answer:
Europe has the highest density of rail network in world.

Question 4.
What is city?
Answer:
A densely populated area of considerable size in a city which is larger than town. An urban center with 1 lakh and more population is called city.

Question 5.
What are the inland waterways?
Answer:
The movement of goods, passengers, through rivers, canals, lakes is known as inland waterways.

Question 6.
Which are the methods of rain water harvesting?
Answer:

• In – situ method
• Ex – Situ method.

Question 7.
What is subsistence farming?
Answer:
The production of crops for the purpose of domestic consumption and not for commercial use is called subsistence farming.

Question 8.
Name the atomic minerals in India?
Answer:

• Uranium
• Thorium
• Plutonium

Question 9.
Define the knowledge – based industry?
Answer:
Information technology is the fastest growing industry therefore it is known as knowledge based industry’.

Question 10.
Which is the milk pipeline in India?
Answer:
Gujarath, that is from Anand dairy to Ahmedabad.

Section – B

II. Answer any Ten of the following questions in two or three sentences each: (2 × 10 = 20

Question 11.
Write a short note on food gathering?
Answer:
Gathering of products from nature to fulfill their basic needs like food, clothing and shelter. In some parts of the world, the people lead a simple life depending upon the nature for their livelihood like collect the wild fruits root, nuts, leaves for the food, bark of trees, leaves and grass for clothing, branches of tree, bamboo, leaves for making their homes for ex> few nomadic tribes in the world.

Question 12.
Give any four reasons, why “coniferous forest” is most suitable for the lumbering
Answer:

1. Single variety of trees are distributed in Large area
2. Wood is utilized for the manufacturing of wood pulp, paper and building materials
3. Modem scientific technology has helped in cutting the trees easily.
4. Adequate transport facilities are available.

Question 13.
Define city and million city?
Answer:

• city:- The urban center with 1 lakh and more population is called city.
• Million city: – Total population of 1 million and above the urban area is known as million city.

Question 14.
Name the four important programmes to control poverty and malnutrition?
Answer:

1. Sarva shikshana Abhiyana
2. Anna Bhagya Yojana
3. Ksheera bhagy a Yojana
4. Coolygagikalu and Ba maralishalege.

Question 15.
Mention the four advantages of plant tissue culture in India?
Answer:

1. Rapid multiplication, means thousands of plants can be produced within a year starting from a single explant.
2. Round the year multiplication as per demand.
3. Easy transport due to miniaturization.
4. Selective multiplication of desired plants,

Question 16.
Mention the factors necessary for thermal electricity?
Answer:

1. There must be coal, petroleum or natural gas in abundance
2. Large space required for the construction of thermal plant
3. Abundance supply of water.

Question 17.
What are the uses of minerals?
Answer:

1. Minerals supports metallic industries such as Iron, steel and aluminium etc.
2. Many non – metallic minerals are essential for man act.
3. Using of cement and chemical fertilizer.

Question 18.
Why Mumbai is known as Manchester of India?
Answer:
Mumbai is the Leading cotton textile center of India. So it is known as Manchester of India and the “Cotton Police of India”

Question 19.
Mention the advantages of Radio? ‘
Answer:

1. It rely more and rapid information about isolated areas.
2. It has a profound role to play in the fore casting of weather.
3. It plays the direction of air craft, shipping and warning of unsual events such as hurricanes, snowfall and rainfall as well as floods.

Question 20.
Name the important international airports of India?
Answer:

• Mumbai – Sahara
• Delhi – Indira Gandhi International
• Kolkata – Subash Chandra Bose
• Chennai – Anna
• Bangalore – Kempegowda International Airport
• Hyderabad – Rajiv Gandhi international Airport

Question 21.
Define the concept of land degradation?
Answer:
Pressure on agricultural land increase not only due to the limited availability but also by deterioration of quality of agricultural land due to soil erosion water logging and salinization and alkalization which is called Land degradation.

Question 22.
What are the causes of deforestation?
Answer:

• Expansion of agriculture
• Construction of roads, Railway and industries
• Establishment of human settlements, mining activities etc.

Section – C

III. Answer any eight of the following in 20 – 30 sentence each: ( 5 × 8 = 40 )

Question 23.
Human geography is the study of man environment relationship. Justify
Answer:
Human geography studies the inter relationship between the physical and cultural environment. It emphasises on human creations and developments by the natural influences like relief, Drainage, soils, climate in which temparature, rainfall, humidity, wind etc vegetation, land forms are the elements of physical environment.

where as cultural environment such as houses, villages, cities, road, rail networks, industries etc’ these are created by human being through their activiites by human being through their activities based on the opportunities provided by the physical environment.

Thus, the physical environment has been greatly modified by human beings; at the same human life is also influenced by nature. Human being were able to develop technology through their struggle with the environment and better understanding a natural laws.

Question 24.
What is human development? Discuss the measurement of human development?
Answer:
Meaning of Human development:
Human development is “development that enlarges people’s choice and improves their lives”. Standard of living & where people can live meaningful lives. Such as healthy, able to develop their talent, Participate in the activities of society etc.

Measurements of Human Development:
Human development is measured with –

I. The Human development Index.
II. The Human poverty Index.

I. The Human development index: It is measured in three dimensions.

• Health: Good health results of higher life expectancy means the people have a greater chance of living longer and health.
• Education: Based on the literacy rate development and status of a persons decides.
• Decent standard of living: It is measured in terms of purchasing power (in US dollars).

II. The Human poverty index: It measures the short fall in human development in following indices.

• The probability of not surviving till the age of 40.
• The adult illiteracy rate.
• The number of people who are not able drink pure water.
• The number of small children who are under weight.

Question 25.
What is migration? Explain the important causes of migration?
Answer:
The movement of people from one place to another place is knowm as Migration.
Causes of Migration : Migration is caused by a variety of factors including economic, social and political factors. Some of them are briefly discussed below.

• Marriage : Every girl has to migrate to her husband’s place after marriage, thus the entire female population of India has to migrate over short or long distance.
• Employment : The agricultural base of rural areas does not provide employment to all the people living here. In contrast, urban areas provide vast scope for employment in industries, trade, transport & services. Hence people like to migrate towards the urban areas.
• Education : Educational facilities are very low in the rural areas especially those of higher education and rural people have to migrate to the urban centers for this purpose.
• Lack of security : Large number of people have migrated out of Jammu and Kashmir and Assam during the last few years due to disturbed conditions there. In this situation, people would like to migrate towards well secure areas.

Question 26.
Describe the importance of pipelines?
Answer:

• Pipelines have become more popular for transporting certain products for lpng distances.
• USA has a large network of pipelines. They are transporting natural gas, petroleum and refined products.
• BIG INCH is the famous pipelines which carries pertroleum from Gulf of Mexico to the north-east states.
• About 17% of all commodities is carried through pipelines in USA.
• In Europe pipeline system was laid to distribute refined products from sea ports to inland markets.
• In Africa, Pipe lines are found in Nigeria and other countries to carry crude oil and natural gas production.
• In NewZealand Milk is being supplied through Pipelines from farms to factories.
• China has one of the most impressive networks of pipelines.
• India has good network of pipelines connecting oil ports and gas fields, refineries and markets.
• Turkmenistan in Central Asia. Asia has extended pipelines to Iran and also parts of china.

Question 27.
Explain the controlling measures of migration?
Answer:
The Controlling measures of Migration are :

• Expand the civic amenties to villages as well as cities. It can control Rural to Urban migration.
• Develop transport facilities between the city and surrounding rural areas.
• Create more employment opportunities in the surrounding rural areas of the city.
• Develop satellite towns around big cities with all basic amenities.
• Encourage labourers to live in the satellite towns rather than in big cities.
• Develop Industrial areas outside the cities.

Question 28.
Discuss the factors which has the affected on human development index in India?
Answer:
Factors influencing on HDI of India are discussed below:

• Birth and Death Rate : Declining of birth rate has been much slower than that of the death rate. This results in rapid increase of population. It affects on slow economic growth of the country. It is the main cause for declining of human development index.
• Life Expectancy : Life Expectancy has gone up 65.77 years for males 67.95 years females respectively in 2011-12. This is due to the consequence of the expansion of food security and medical facilities. It helps to raise the HDI in the country.
• Food and Nutrition : According to the 2011 Global Hunger Index (GHI) report, India has 15th rank among the leading countries with hunger situation.
  • The World Bank estimates that India is one of the highest-ranking countries in the World for the number of children suffering from malnutrition.
  • It is adversely affecting the Human development.
• Literacy : Education is the key for socio-economic progress. The Indian literacy rate grew to 74.04% in 2011 from 12% at the end of the British rule in 1947. The large proportion of illiterate females is another reason for the low literacy rate in India. Due to this there is decline in the Human development Index of the country.

Question 29.
Explain the development and distribution of other types of irrigation?
Answer:
Sprinkler Irrigation :

• The spraying of water to the crops through the pipe with nozzles under great pressure is called‘Sprinkler irrigation’.
• In this method water consuming is less but provides more moisture to the plants.
• The adoption of this system is more expensive.
•  It is more popular in Punjab, Harayana, Rajasthan, Karnataka and Gujarat.

Drip Irrigation :

• A newly developed irrigation system, orginally developed in Israel is becoming popular in areas with water scarcity. This source of irrigation was introduced in India in the seven-ties.
• In 2005, the area under drip irrigation was 6.3 Lakh hectares.
• In this system a small amount of water passes through pipe falls drop by drop just at the position of roots or a limited area around the plant.

Question 30.
Give an account of water conservation and management?
Answer:
Water Conservation refers to the action taken to use water effeciently. It involves the controlling, protecting, managing & planning for the wise use of our scarce water resources.

The following strategies can be adopted for conservation of water.

• Reducing run-off losses : It can be achieved by using contour cultivation, terrace fanning, mulching, water storage structures like farm ponds.
• Reduction of irrigation losses : It can be reduced by drip and sprinkler irrigation, use of lined or covered canals to reduce seepage.
• Re-use of water : The treated waste water can be used for watering .gardens, washing vehicles and floors of the building. It helps in saving fresh water.
• Prevention of wastage of water : Preventing by closing taps when not in use, repairing any leakage from pipes and using small capacity flush in toilets.

Question 31.
Explain the condition for growth and give reasons for the concentration of coffee cultivation in south India?
Answer:
Conditions for Growth:

• Coffee is a tropical crop. So, it requires hot & humid climate.
• It requires high temperature ranging from 15°C to 30°C.
• Rainfall varying from 150 to 200 cms is necessary & it should be well distributed throughtout the year.
• Coffee plants require deep fertile soil, humus & nitrogenous contained soils are suitable, so cleared up forest land is most suitable for coffee cultivation.
• Coffee plants require shade, because sunrays & strong winds are harmful to coffee plants.
• Hill slopes are suitable for cultivation of coffee plants to avoid stagnant of water.
• Dry weather is necessary’ at the time of ripening of harries.
• Use of manures and fertilizers are required for coffee cultivation.
• Use of pesticides and insecticides are very essential, because coffee plant is susceptible to pests & diseases.
• It requires abundant supply of cheap & skilled labour for various operations.

Reasons for the concentration of coffee in South India :
The Coffee plant was first introduced in lndia by a muslim Fakir, Bababudan Sahib who brought some seeds from Mecca during 17th Century and planted the seedlings in Chandragiri Hills now. It is called Bababudan Hills in Chikmangalur district of Karnataka. Then it was spread to the neighbouring districts of TamilNadu, Kerala & other parts if the country.

Question 32.
Explain the important stratergies to achieve green revolution in India?
Answer:
The important stratergies are as noted below:

• High yielding varieties : Which results of short maturing period, double cropping, short stems, resistance to wind damage etc.
• Use of Irrigation : An assured and regular supply of water to crops not only adds to production but also assures stability in production.
• Use of chemical fertilizers : The HYV seeds need a heavy dose of fertilizers along with irrigation to give high yield.
• Use of Insecticides & Pesticides : In order to meet the loss of 10% crop. It requires use of proper doses of insecticides, pesticides & weedicides.
• Role of Public institutions : The national seeds corporations have to setup to promote services to the farmers.
• Guaranteed Minimum Prices : Support Price Policy for food grains was adopted in 1964 all over the country.
• Facilities of agricultural credit: Now Co-operatives, Commercial banks, and regional rural banks extend loans to the farmers on easy terms.
• Rural electrification : It is very essential in modem agricultural system to lift water by tubewell, sprinkler, irrigation etc.
• Rural roads and Marketing : These are very important to connect the villages to the neighbouring markets and urban centres.
• Soil testing : Its main purpose is to know what type of fertilizers and seeds will be more fruitful in different regions.
• Multiple cropping programme : It aims at maximizing production per unit of land and per unit of time by taking two or three crops in a year.
• Farm of Mechanization : It saves on human labour & Quickens farm operations, there by adding to efficiency & productivity.
• Agricultural Universities : Engaged in agricultural research and pass on this information to the farmers.

Question 33.
Explain the Imports and exports of India?
Answer:
Imports of India : Imports trade of India refers to buying goods from foreign countries and bringing them to home country.
The main items of Imports of India are :

1. Petroleum crude and products :

• It is the most important materials of Indian.Imports.
• In 2006-2007 India imported rupees 2,58,572 crores worth of crude oil and other petroleum products.
• It contributed 23% of our total imports.

2. Pearls precious and semi precious stones :
India imported rupees 33,881 crores worth of precious stone.

3. Capital goods :
In 2006-2007 India imported rupees 2,51,136 crores worth of capital goods.

4. Fertilizers :
India is a major importer of chemical Fertilizers. It is because the country is agrarian and the Internal production of fertilizers is insufficient. Potash fertilizers are largely imported.
Exports of India : Export trade of India refers to the sale of goods and services by India to other countries of the world.

The main items of our exports are as follows :

1. Agricultural and Allied products: Products such as cereals, pulses tobacco, spices, nuts and seeds, oil meals, caster oil etc.
   During 2011-2012 exports income is about US dollar 13300.63 million.
2. Ores and minerals: Export of ores and minerals like Iron ore, Manganese, Micca was estimated at US dollar 4700.29 million during 2011-12.
3. Gems and Jewellery: India imports gems and precious stones in their raw form and exports them after proper cutting and polishing.
4. Electronic goods: Items under this group of consists of machinery, iron, steel and other engineering items.
5. Petroleum products: Export of petroleum products increased to US dollar 34667.02 million.

Question 34.
Mention the processes that induce land degradation in India?
Answer:

• The land serves as storage of water and materials for plants and other living micro macro organisms.
• Pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited availability but also by deterioration of quality of agriculture land due to soil erosion, water logging, salinisation and alkalisation which is called degradation.
• The land degradation ultimately affect on agricultural productivity.
• In addition to degradation by natural process such as gullied or ravenous land deserted or coastal sands, barren rocky area land degradation is caused by man.
• These have caused water logged and marshy areas, land affected by salinity and alkalinity.
• Degraded shifting cultivation area and under plantation crops, degraded forests, degraded pastures and mining and industrial waste lands.

Section – D

IV. Answer any one the following: ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 35.
Discuss the Importance, distribution and production of coal in India?
Answer:
Importance :

• Coal constitutes about 70 percent of the total commercial power consumed in India.
• Coal is a source of energy and raw material for many chemical industries.
• It provides many by products i.e., tar napthaline, ammonia gas, coal gas, benezol etc.
• These are used in the manufacture of synthetic fibres, rubber, plastic, explosives, dyes and insecticides.

Distribution :

• Currently the leading producer of coal in India are Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and
• Madhya Pradesh.

These four states contributes 84.33 percent of the India’s coal production.

1. Chhattisgarh : It is having first place in the production of coal in India.

• It produces 31.3 percent coal of India.
• Major coal fields of the state are located in the Northern part of the state i.e, Surgija, Bilasapur and Korba.

2. Jharkhand : Jharkhand is the second larg¬est producer of coal in India.

• It produces more than 20.3 percent of coal in 2011-2012.
• Jharia, Bokaro, Giridhi, Karnapur, Ramagarh are very important.
• Jharia is one of the oldest and richest coal fields of India. It has been recognised as the “Store house of the best metallurgical coal” in the country.

3. Odisha : It is the third largest producer of the coal and contributing 19.5 percent of the total coal production of the country.
Most of its coal deposits in Dhenkanal, Sambalapur and Sundaragh districts.

4. Madhya Pradesh : Jharkhand is the second largest producer of coal in India.
The main coal depoists are located in Sindhi, Shahdol, Betul, Narasingour and Chhindwara districts.

5. Andhra Pradesh :

• It produces about 9.7 percent of coal.
• It is found in Adilabad, Karimnagar, Warangal districts.

6. Maharashtra : The coal deposits of the state occur in Wardha valley, Ballarpur, Warora in Chandrapur district.

7. West Bengal :

• It has 4.48 percent of the total production of the country.
• Burdwan, Bankura, Purulia, Daijeeling and Jalpaiguri are the chief coal producing districts.

Production : The total reserves of all grade coal in India is 283.50 billion tonnes.

• India is producing 560.90 million tonnes of coal in 2012-13.
• So India ranks third among the coal producing countries of the world next to China and USA.
• It contributes 10.2 percent of the total world’s production of coal.

Question 36:
Give an account of auto mobile industry in India?
Answer:
The term “Automobile” is applied to any self-propelled vehicle powered by an Internal combustion engine & designed to transport passengers and goods over roads and highways.
Development :

• At present, India has above 40 million passenger vehicles.
• More than 3.7 million Automotive vehicles are produced annually, making the country the second fastest growing automobile market in the world after China.
• According to the society of Indian automobile manufacturers, annual vehicles sales are projected to increase to 4 million by 2015.

Location Factors:
The main factors favour the growth of automobiles industry are:

• Large supply of Iron & Steel, wood, glass, aluminium and fuels.
• Highly skilled labour.
• High degree of scientific and engineering skill.
• Large amount of capital.
• A large home market.

Distribution :

• Mumbai, Chennai, Jamshedpur, Jabalpur and Kolkata are the chief centres of automobile Industry.
• These centres produce almost all sorts of vehicles including trucks, buses, passengers, three wheelers and two wheelers.
• Motor cycles are also manufactured at Faridabad and Mysore.
• Scooters are also manufactured at Lucknow, Satara, Pune, Kanpur & Odhav (Ahmedabad district).

Production :

• In 2012-13, Automobile industry of India produced 20.6 million vehicles.
• India is the largest producer of two wheelers.

Section – E

IV. Answer any one the following: ( 10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 37.
Construct a pie – diagram using the following data India : Area under selected Kharif crops [in Lakh hectere]
Answer:

Crops	Area
Cereals	35
Pulses	16.4
Oil seeds	12.0
Commercial crops	11.0
Others	5.1

Question 38.
(a) Construct a line – graph by using following data
Karnataka ; Selected districts wise area under rice [in hectares]
Answer:

District	Area
Bellary	1,22,72 1
Davanagere	1,30,208
Mysore	1,23,803
Raichur	1,64,925
Shimoga	1,31,070
Mandya	88,657

(b) Construct a single bar graph by using following data India : Selected state wise rice production [in %]

District	Production
West bengal	15.80
Andra Pradesh	12.71
Uttar Pradesh	11.91
Punjab	10.86
Orissa	7.31
Tamil nadu	7.08
Karnataka	3.70

Answer:

Question 39.
(a) Explain the secondary source of data?
Answer:
Meaning – The data those have been collected and analyzed already by some departments, organizations, NGO’s etc… are called Secondary data.

Types of Secondary sources of data:

1. Published sources – There are 5 types

1. International publications: In this publications-year books, monographs and reports are published by different agencies of the united nations.
2. Government publication: These publications comprise the census of India published by office of the register general of India.
3. Semi Government publication : In this category the publications and reports of corporations, boards, urban development authorities etc …
4. Private publication : The research reports, surveys, year-books and monographs are published.
5. Newspapers and Periodicals : The daily news papers and periodicals or magazines are easily accessible.

2. Unpublished sources – There are 3 types.

1. Government Documents : The reports, papers, findings, monographs and documents are prepared a$d maintained as unpublished records at different levels of Government.
2. Government Records : The corporations, boards, district councils and civil departments prepare and maintain the periodical reports and the development plans.
3. Private Documents : The companies, trade unions, different political and non-political organizations and resident welfare associations are having unpublished reports and records.

(b) Explain the functions of GIS?
Answer:

• Capture data : Geographical data can be collected/captured from various sources like hard copy, map through top sheet, digital data, through GPS, Secondary data through published tables.
• Storing data : Geographical data once captured, it needs to transform from Analogy into digital format and to be stored in computer for further analysis. ,
• Query : Once you have a functional GIS containing your geographical information, you can begin to ask a simple questions.
• Analysis : There are 3 types
  1. Proximity Analysis : Proximity queries find features with in a certain distance of other features.
  2. Overlay Analysis : It is simplest, this could be a visual operation, but analytical operations require One or more data layers to be joined physically.
  3. Network Analysis : A network is a set of edges and junctions that are Topologically connected to each other.
• Display : Once analysis is done maps, diagrams, graphs and tables are to be designed and same has to be displayed over computer moniter.
• Output: This is final, stage of GIS function where in the maps, data tables etc…. can be printed to have hard copy as output.

(c) Explain the applications of GPS?
Answer:
Applications of GPS

• Navigation : In navigation, by using GPS can save countless hours in the field. Any feature, even if it is under water, can be located upto one hundred meters simply by scaling coordinates from a map, entering way points & going directly to site.
• Remote sensing and GIS : GPS positioning can be intergrated into remote – sensing methods such, as Photogrammetry and aerial scanning, magnetometry, and video technology using DGPs techniques.
• Surveying/Mapping : The high precision of GPS’ carries phase measurements, together with appropriate adjustment algorithum, provides an adequate tool for a variety of tasks for surveying and mapping.
• Geodesey : Geodetic mapping and other control surveys can be carried out effectively using high grade GPs equipment.
• Military : The GPs was Primarily develped for real time military positioning. Military applications include airbone, marine and land navigation.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2016, Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2016

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in one sentence each: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
State the average life expectancy of the world.
Answer:
68.09 years

Question 2.
What are primary activities?
Answer:
Primary activities such as food gathering, hunting, lumbering, animal rearing, fishing, agriculture & mining etc.

Question 3.
What is transportation?
Answer:
Transport is the carrying of Goods & Passengers from one place to other by Human Animals and different kinds of vehicles

Question 4.
Which is the largest mega city in the world?
Answer:
Newyork is the largest mega city in the world.

Question 5.
In which year was family planning program introduced in India?
Answer:
The family planning program introduced in India in the Year 1952

Question 6.
What is the name of Bhakra Reservoir?
Answer:
Govind Sagar.

Question 7.
Mention two important beverage crops of India.
Answer:
Tea and coffee are important beverage crops of India

Question 8.
Why is Jharia famous for?
Answer:
Jharia is “store house of the best Metallurgical coal.”

Question 9.
Name important agro-based industries of India.
Answer:

• Cotton textile industries
• Jute industries
• Sugar industries

Question 10.
On which river bank is Kolkata Port located?
Answer:
On the Hoogly river 148 Km from the sea

II. Answer any 10 of the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences each: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
What are the different types of fishing?
Answer:
The different types of fishing are:

• Fresh water fishing
• Coastal fishing and
• Open sea fishing

Question 12.
Write a short note on food gathering.
Answer:
Gathering of products from nature to fulfill their basic needs like food, clothing and shelter. In some parts of the world, the people lead a simple life depending upon the nature for their livelihood like collect the wild fruits roots, nuts, leaves for the food, bark of trees, leaves and grass for clothing, branches of trees, bamboo, leaves for making their homes for example few nomadic tribes in the world.

Question 13.
Mention important pattern of rural settlements.
Answer:
There are 5 important pattern of rural settlements.

1. Uniform Pattern
2. Clustered Patttem
3. RANDOM Pattern
4. Dispersed Pattern
5. Hamlets Pattern.

Question 14.
Give any four causes for high birth rate in India.
Answer:
Immigration : is used for in-migration from across the international border where.
Emigration : is used for out-migration from one country to another.

Question 15.
What are the uses of sugarcane?
Answer:

• Sugarcane is the main source of Sugar, Gur and Khandsari.
• It provides raw materials for manufacturing Alcohal.

Question 16.
Name the two important Gold producing regions of karnataka.
Answer:

• Hutti gold field in Raichur districts and Bellary gold field in Tumkur in Karnataka.
• Ramagiri in Ananthpur district and Jonnagiri in Kurnool in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 17.
What are the geographical factors necessary for Hydro-electricity?
Answer:

• The regular and uniform supply of water is essential.
• The water should fall from a sufficient height.
• It requires huge capital investment to purchase machines.
• A ready available market should be there.

Question 18.
Why is Mumbai known as ‘Manchester’ of India?
Answer:
Mumbai is the leading cotton textile center of India. So it is known as “Manchester of India”.

Question 19.
Mention four important types of roads in India.
Answer:

• National Highways
• State Highways
• District roads and
• Village roads

Question 20.
Mention the importance of satellites.
Answer:
A satellite can be defined as a body that orbits the earth or other planet which has been sent from the Earth into space theses are of vital importance to life on earth.
1. The 20th century is also known as space age. With the advancement in science and technology artificial satellites has marked a new era in the history of global telecommunication.

2. The Geo-stationary satellites are positioned at a height of about 36,000 km in the sky.

3. Radio and Television networking over entire India are done through satellite technology. So, it is popularly called as ‘space age communication technique’.

4. The world’s first artificial satellite, the sputnik. I was launched by the soviet union in 1957.

5. Very recently India has launched a satellite IRS P-2 into the orbit successfully from the country’s space port at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.

6. Satellite construction and launching is carried out as a part of the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). The ISRO centre is located at Bangalore,

7. The satellite launching centres are located near Hassan in Karnataka.

8. National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA) Hyderabad is responsible for reception, processing of data from remote sensing satellites

Question 21.
What are the effects of air pollution?
Answer:

• Diseases are selacted to respiratory.
• Nervous and Circulatory systems.
• Urban smog, acid rain.
• Global wanning.

Question 22.
What are the causes of noise pollution?
Answer:

• It is caused by from factories, demolition works.
• Noise from sirens landspeakers used in various festivals etc.
• The biggest Noise Pollution is produced by traffic and
• The sea traffic. The Noise Pollution is confined to the harbour due to loading and unload¬ing activities being carried.

III. Answer any eight of the following questions in 25 to 30 sentences each: (5 × 8 = 40)

Question 23.
Explain the scope of Human Geography.
Answer:
Scope of human Geography:
As early societies became more successful in meeting their need within.permanent settlements.
1. The rise of agriculturing activities resource extra and manufacturing activities led to more complex economic and political boundaries were created and more settlement grew into towns and cities.

2. The physical environment also changed with the influence of modem urbanize and industrized world that we known today.

3. One of the greatest challenges faced by humans today is how to manage energy resource in a sustainable fashion without inflicting permanent damage to environment in the form of land, air, water, pollution and climatic changes.

Importance of Human Geography:

• It clarifies the societies and cultures in different ^locations.
• The great diversity reflects through the fashion life.
• Which realizes carrying capacity of the Earth.
• It helps us to understand circumstances affecting people and nation.
• It is helpful to the planners, administrations, Industrialists and others.

Question 24.
Discuss the distribution of population in the world.
Answer:
The population of the world is unevenly distributed. The distribution of population is expressed in terms of density. The density is the ratio between the numbers of people in to the size of land.

Distribution of population of the world has been divided into three regions.
1. Area of high density: The three principal high density zones are:
(a) Eastern, Southern and South – Eastern part of Asia.
(b) North – Western part of Europe.
(c) North – Eastern part of USA and South Eastern part of Canada.

2. Area of high density: The population moderately dense in tropical regions of the world and moist temperature regions of the Argentina South-East Africa and Eastern Australia.

3. Area of low density: The areas which are nearest to the North and South poles hot and cold desertes and high rain fall zones near the equator have very low density of population.

• Asia is the most populous continent. It accounts about ‘61 percent’ of the world population.
• Africa is second most populated continent with 13 percent.
• Europe has 12 percent.
• South America 8.5 percent.
• Northern America 5 percent.
• Oceania is the least – populated region which has 0.5 percent.
• Antarctica is uninhabited permanently.

Question 25.
Write a note on sex ratio and age structure of the world.
Answer:
The ratio between male and female population is called sex ratio. It is usual measured as “the number of females per thousand males.

• On an average, a sex ratio of the world was 986 females per 1000 males during 2010 it
• The highest sex ratio in the world has been recorded in ‘Latria and Estonia’ it was 1174 & 1170 per thousand.
• The lowest sex ratio was found in UAE which is only 468 females per thousand males.
• As per the united nations list in 139 countries females are more than the males. Where as 72 countries males are more than females.

Age structure:
Age structure represents the number of people in different age groups. It includes both male & female population.

• About 65.8% of population belongs to the age group of 15-65 years who are ‘adults’ .
• Above 65 years of age group is only 8%. They are called ‘aged’.
• Remaining about 26.2% is below the age group of 15 year called ‘infants’.
• Dependency ratio – The population ratio between the ages of 15 & 64 (Aults) and below 15,(infants) & above 64 (aged).

Question 26.
Write a note an the air routes of the world.
Answer:
1. The North America – The Greatest air traffic is found in USA with internal and international flights. It has the top airports like Attanta, Chicago, Los Angeles, Dallas.

2. South America – It has far air routes.
The Major international airports are:
Rio-de-Janeiro, Brasilia, Saopaulo, Santiago and Buenos Aires.

3. Africa – It is served by 2 international Airlines.
(a) The East African air route through London, Rome, Cairo, Nairobi and Johannesbrug.
(b) SriLanka and South East Asia and the Central air route connects Paris, Capetown, logos.

4. Australia – It is a well developed internal and external air services. Sydney is an important international airport.

5. Asia – China has external links with other countries of the world. Its enroute location is between Europe, Asia, Australia and Africa.

6. The Russian International Air Routes: Russia and other countries of former Soviet Union are well connected by air service. All Countries of the World connects each other through airlines of different comers.

Question 27.
What are the problems caused with rapid growth of population? .
Answer:
The Rapid growth of population has led to a number of problems as follows:- ‘
1. Unemployment and Under employment : It has been increasing from year to year. It has badly affected on young educated people both in rural and urban areas.

2. Shortage of food & -Malnutrition : A large number of people are poorly fed. Malnutrition is prevailing throughout the country. It is fatal for the development of the country.

3. Burden on Civic & Social Amenities : Education, health and medical, housing, drinking water, electricity and problems increases.

4. Low per capita income : The increase in per capita income is only 15% annually. Low per capita income has a direct impact on the economic condition of the people.

5. Increase of Unproductive population : Below 15 years (Infants) and above 60 years (old age) are unproductive. They are dependent on earning persons. Thus rapid growth has increased dependents rather than producers.

6. Others : Slow in economic development, mass poverty, low standard of living, political unrest and the social problems like theft robbery, immortality, corruption and the growth of slums, environment pollution are also directly related to the popualtion explosion.

Question 28.
Describe the effects of migration.
Answer:
The Effects of Migration can be classified into two namely:-
1. Positive effects.
2. Negative effects.

1. Positive effects of Migration :

• Migration controls the high density of population.
• It helps the people to get employment.
• It reduces the problem of scarcity of Labour.
• Migration leads to the change in the demographic structure of a region.
• It helps to reduce the inequality of the society.

2. Negative effects of Migration :

• It affects on density and distribution of population.
• Large-scale migration from rural to urban centres results in creation of slums.
• It also leads to many social problems such as debauchery and immoral activities.
• Their will be pressure on civic amenties, like electricity etc.
• Migration causes ethnics, religious and language problems.
• It will effects on the job opportunities of local people.

Question 29.
Discuss the present situation of Tank Irrigation in India.
Answer:
Tanks are natural or man hollows or depressions into which rain water is collected.

• Usually they are built by individuals or groups of farmers by raising bunds across sea-sonal stream.
• Tank irrigation is widely practiced in Andhra Pradesh (29.8%), TamilNadu and Karnataka states.
• Tank irrigation is an ancient method of irrigation in the country. But the area under tank irrigation has decreased in recent years due to some draw backs.
• The area under tank irrigation decreased from 4.6 million hectare in 1960 – 61 to 1.56 . million hectre in 2007 – 08.
• It accounts for only 3.2% of the total irrigated area in India. Tank irrigation is suffering from certain inherent drawbacks
  • Tanks get silted up soon.
  • Most of the tanks are non-perennial’and become dry during winter and summer seasons.
  • They occupy large fertile areas which could have been used for cultivation.

Question 30.
Discuss about the rain water harvesting.
Answer:
1. Controlling the runoff of rain water and make it to perculate to increase ground water table for future purpose.

2. It involves collection and storage of rainwater at surface or in sub-surface aquifier, before it is lost as surface runoff. It not only increases water availability but also checks the declining water table.

Objectives :
The following are the main objectives of rain water harvesting.

• It checks runoff water & avoid flooding.
• It replenishes the ground water table and enables the wells.
• It helps to overcome the adequancy of surface water to meet demand of water.
• If the ground water is blackish, it will reduce the salinity.
• It also reduces ground water contamination and improve water quality.
• It helps to increase agricultural product and improves ecology of an area.

Methods of Rain Water Harvesting :
1. In-situ method The method of percolating the rain at the point of its fall itself is called In-situ rainwater harvesting.
For example –

• Infilteration pits : The rain water can be collected and stored in pits, dug in farm lands and used for irrigation.
• Contour bunds and trenches : The Construction of bunds, trenches or check dams.
• Roof top water harvesting : The Rain water that falls on the roofs of buildings or in courtyards is collected and stored in underground. Sumps, or wells or in drums and used for domestic purpose such as cleaning, washing etc.

2. Ex-situ method : This method of rainwater harvesting involves storing of running water. It is collected in check dams, huge percolation tanks etc. It is an expensive method.

Question 31.
Give an account of the distribution and production of sugarcane in India.
Answer:
Distribution of sugarcane in India : The distribution of sugarcane cultivation in India is uneven. Sugarcane is grown in almost in all the stats of the country. But it is mainly concentrated in Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, TamilNadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Bihar, Haryana & Uttaranchal.
1. Uttar Pradesh : Uttar Pradesh occupies first place both in terms of production & area under sugarcane in the country.

• The largest concentration is upper Ganga-Yamuna doab & Rohilkhand areas which together produce about 70% of the sugarcane produced in the state.
• Its share is about 36.02% under total production.

2. Maharashtra : Maharashtra is in second place both in area & production of sugarcane in the country.

• The production of sugarcane comes from Kolhapur, Pune, Ahmednagar, Nasik.
• Its share is about 22.89% under total production.

3. TamilNadu : TamilNadu is the third largest producer of sugarcane in India.

• It has highest yield per hectare in India.
• Arcot, periyar, salem, Tiruchirapalli & Coimbatore are the important sugaecane growing industries
• Its Shares is about 10.98% under total production

4. Karnataka : Karnataka is fourth largest sugarcane producing state in India.

• Most of the sugarcane is grown with the help of irrigation
• Belgaum, Mysore, Mandhya, Bijpur, Shimoga & Chitradurga are the important sugarcane producing districts.
• Its Shares is about 10.85% under total production

5. Andhra pradesh : Andhra pradesh is in fifth place of sugar cane production in India

• West & East Godavari, vishakapatnam & Nellore are the important sugarcane producing districts.
• Its Shares is about 4.68% under total production

6. Others : Gujarat, Bihar, Haryana etc
Production:

• India is second largest produces of Sugarcane next to Brazil. –
• The total cultivated area under sugarcane was reported as 5.09 million hectares in 2011-12.
• Theproductionis357.67million tonnes in 2011-12.

Question 32.
Explain the condition for growth and give reasons for the concentration of coffee cultivation in South India.
Answer:
Conditions for Growth:

• Coffee is a tropical crop. So, it requires hot & humid climate.
• It requires high temperature ranging from 15°C to 30°C.
• Rainfall varying from 150 to 200 cms is necessary & it should be well distributed through out the year.
• Coffee plants require deep fertile soil, humus & nitrogenous contained soils are suitable, so cleared up forest land is most suitable for coffee cultivation.
• Coffee plants require shade, because sunrays & strong winds are harmful to coffee plants.
• Hill slopes are suitable for cultivation of coffee plants to avoid stagnant of water.
• Dry weather is necessary’ at the time of ripening of harries.
• Use of manures and fertilizers are required for coffee cultivation.
• Use of pesticides and insecticides are very essential, because coffee plant is susceptible to pests & diseases.
• It requires abundant supply of cheap & skilled labour for various operations.

Reasons for the concentration of coffee in South India:
The Coffee plant was first introduced in lndia by a muslim Fakir, Bababudan Sahib who brought some seeds from Mecca during 17th Century and planted the seedlings in Chandragiri Hills now. It is called Bababudan Hills in Chikmangalur district of Karnataka. Then it was spread to the neighbouring districts of TamilNadu, Kerala & other parts if the country.

Question 33.
Explain the development of Railways in India.
Answer:

• The first railway line in India was from Bombay (V.T) to Thane, a distance of 34 km, opened on 16th April, 1853.
• It was followed by a railway line in 1856, from Madras to Arkonam (70 km).
• A Railway line in 1874 from Kolkata to Raniganj (180 km).
• Then gradually railway lines were constructed to link different parts of the country.
• At the time of Independence, the length of the railway line was 54,96 km.
• During post-Independence period, because of the Five year plans, the Indian railway has recorded spectacular progress.
• There were 43 steam, 4,963 diesel and 3585 electric locomotives 55,065 coaches 2,11,763 wagons.
• The trains moved everyday through more than 7,030 stations.
• On an average they carried 17 million passengers and 2.8 million lakh tones of freight everyday.
• At present all the rail operations in India are managed by Ministry of Indian railways.
• The country’s railways is about 64,460 km of length which is fourth largest railway network in the world and first in Asia.
• It has transported 7651 million passengers and 921 million tonnes of frieght annually.
• The Network operates 28 states and 3 union territories.

Question 34.
Explain about urban waste disposal in India.
Answer:

• Urban centres are known for large amount of waste generation. It is a serious problem in India.
• In metropolitan cities likes Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore etc.
• About 90 percent of the solid waste is collected and disposed.
• The waste may be treated as resources and utilized for generating energy and compost.
• Untreated wastes permanently releases toxic bio gases to the atmosphere including methane.
• These wastes should be treated as resources and utilized for generating energy and compost

IV, Answer any one of the following questions : (1 × 10 = 10)

Question 35.
Explain the distribution and production of Iron-ore in India.
Answer:
Importance:

• The Iron and Steel industry is described as a basic Industry.
• Iron and Steel supplied by this industry such as machineries, irrigation projects, ship building, power projects, construction of bridges, buildings, transport equipment, machine tools and so on.
• The Production and Consumption of Iron and Steel is an index level of the economic develpoment of a country.

Distribution:
There are nine major Iron and Steel industries in India.

• Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO), Jamshedpur: It was established in 1907. It was the first largest steel plant of the country.
• Vishveswariah Iron and Steel Co. Ltd (VISL) Bhadravathi 11 was first established in 1923 by the princely state of Mysore located at Bhadravathi in Shimoga district of Karnataka.
• India Iron and Steel Company Ltd (IISCO) Bunpur:- It was established in 1919 at Bumpur in West Bengal. It was the second largest integrated steel plant after Tata Iron and Steel Ltd.
• Hindustan Steel Company Ltd, Rourkela:- It was completed with the German collaboration. The steel plant was comminssioned in 1955.
• Bhilai Steel Plant: It has the largest steel production plant of the public sector. It is located at Bilai near Raipur in Chhatisgarh.
• Durgapur Steel Plant: The steel plant in Durgapur in West Bengal was established with British collaboration and was commissioned in 1956.
• Salem Steel Plant: It is located at Salem in TamilNadu and the production was started from 1982.
• Vishakapatnam Steel Plant: Established by National Ispat Nigam Ltd in Andhra Pradesh.
• New Steel Plants Some private sectors plants are.
• Jindal Vijaynagar Steel Ltd (JVSL) This steel plant is located at Tomagal, Bellary district in Karnataka.
• Essar Steel Ltd (ESL) It is situated at Hazira in Gujarat.
• Ispat Insutries Ltd (IIL) It is situated at Dovi, Ratnagiri district of Maharashtra.
• Neelachal Ispat Nigam Ltd (NINL)It is a new steel plant located at Dubai, Odisha.
• Mini Steel Plants Presently, 199 lincensed electric ore furnace units with an installed capacity of 7.8 million tonnes have been commissioned and hence started commercial production.

Question 36.
Explain the Industrial Regions of India.
Answer:
Industrial region refers to the continuous development of industrial landscape over a large area by concentration of a number of factories of different industries. In short, it is a wide area of manufacturing industries.

1. Mumbai-Pune Industrial regions: It is the biggest and most important industrial region of the country. Opening of the Bhorghat to Pune in 1830, opening of steamer service through Suez Canal in 1843, opening of first railway line of 32 km in 1853 between Mumbai and Thane etc. Supports lot of development of industries in this region by the British who got the Mumbai island as marriage gift of Catherine Braganza’s dowry, in 1661.

2. Kolkata-Hooghly Industrial region: It is an old and important industrial region of the country. Kolkata is the main centre for Hooglgly basin, port, rich hinterland of Ganga and Brahmaputra plain, Assam and Bengal tea plantations, coal and iron ore region of Chotanagapur plateau. Cheap labour from Weat Bengal Bihar, Orissa states, efficient transport by rail, road and waterways etc. are the important facilities supported to develop this region.

3. Ahmedabad-Vadodara Industrial region: It is thrid largest industrial region of the country. It is located in Gujarat and includes the areas around the Gulf of Khambhat and important industrial centres like Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Koyali, Baruch and Surat etp. Ahmedabad is the main centre for cotton.textiles, woollen and silk, textiles, paper, petrochemicals milk products, Engineering, diesel engines, oil refining etc., are the other important industries of this region.

4. Madurai-Coimbatore-Bangalore Indusrial regions: This region lies in Tamil nadu and Karnataka states. The Important centres are Bangalore, Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai, Sivakasi, Tiruchirapalli, Salem, Mysore, Mandya, Bhadravathi etc. The region has diversified Industries like cotton textiles, silk, sugar, leather, chemicals, machinery, rubber, electrical equipments telephone, railway coaches, Information Technology’, BioTechnology etc.

5. The Chotanagapur Plateau Industrial regions: This region is located in the states of Bihar, parts of Jharkhand and West Bengal. This region is called the Ruhr of India on account of the growth of a number of iron and steel plants and various engineering industies. Jamshedpur, Bokaro, Chittaranjan, Sindri, Durgapur, Hazaribagh etc are the important industrial town in this region.

6. The Mathura-Delhi-Saharanpur-Ambala Industrial regions: This region covers Uttar Pradesh, parts of Haryana and Delhi. It includes Agra, Saharanpur, Faridabad, Ambala, Delhi, Modinagar, Ghaziabad, Ferozabad, Noida, Meerut, Mathura, Panipat etc. Delhi is the most important centre for the Industries of cotton textiles, glass, chemicals, automobiles, engineering, paper, soap, vanaspati, sugar and oil refineries. The region is facing the problem of environmental pollution.

V. Answer the following questions: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 37.
Construct a Pie-Diagram using the following data :

Types	percentages
Single lane	21
Double lane	54
Four/six/eight lane	25
Total	100

Answer:
Sinle lane = \(\frac { 21 }{ 100 }\) × 360 = 75.6

Double lane = \(\frac { 54 }{ 100 }\) × 360 = 194.4

Four/six/eight = \(\frac { 25 }{ 100 }\) × 360 = \(\frac { 90 }{ 360 }\)

Question 38.
(a) construct a line-graph by using the following data of selected district-wise population (in lakh) Of Karnataka in 2011.
Answer:

District	Population
Belgium	47.8
Bagalkot	18.9
Bijapur	21.8
Bidar	17.0
Raichur	19.3
Dharwad	18.5

(b)
Construct a single-bar graph by using the following data of selected state-wise rice production in India in percentage :
Answer:

District	production
West bengal	15.80
Andhra Pradesh	12.71
Uttar Pradesh	11.91
Punjab	10.86
Orissa	7.31
Tamilnadu	7.08
Karnataka	3.70

For Blind Students only

Question 39.
Answer any two of the following : (2 x 10 = 20)

(a)
Write the importance of remote sensing.
Answer:
Remote sensing is the science and art of obtaining information about an object, area or phenomenon through the analysis of data aquired by a device that is not in contact with it. This is done by sensing and recording reflected or emitted energy and processing, analyzing and applying that information.

In much remote sensing, the process involves an interaction between incident radiation and the targets of interest. This device can be a camera or a bank of sensors operated from an airplane or a satellite. Though satellite we can collect date related agriculture, forest, urban land use, water, natural calamities etc the satellite data is based for mapping, monitoring, studying the various phenomena related to earth’s surface.

(b)
Explain the function of GLI.S
Answer:
1. Capture data : Geographical data can be collected/captured from various sources like hard copy, map through tophosheet, digital data, through GPS, Secondary data through published tables.

2. Storing data : Geographical data once captured, it needs to transform from Analogy into digital format and to be stored in computer for further analysis.

3. Query : Once you have a functional GIS containing your geographical information, you can begin to ask a simple questions.

4. Analysis : There are 3 types

1. Proximity Analysis: Proximity queries find features with in a certain distance of other features.
2. Overlay Analysis: It is simplest, this could be a visual operation, but analytical operations require One or more data layers to be joined physically.
3. Network Analysis: A network is a set of edges and junctions that are Topologically connected to each other.

5. Display: Once analysis is done maps, diagrams, graphs and tables are to be designed and same has to be displayed over computer moniter.

6. Output: This is final, stage of GIS function where in the maps, data tables etc…. can be printed to have hard copy as output.

(c)
Explain the functions of GPS.
Answer:
There are three segments of GPS:-
1. The space segments : The satellites of GPS are launched and positioned at an altitude of approximately 20200 km which is almost more than three times of the earth’s radius. The space segment consists of a constellation of 24 functioning GPs satellites located in 6 orbital plane with 4 satellites in each orbital plane. The time for the satellite to complete one revolution around the earth is 11 hrs and 58 minutes.

2 . The control segment: The control segment consists of facilities necessary for satellites especially healthy monitoring, telemetry, tracking command and control clock error ‘ computation .of satellites. There are 5 GPS stations spread over the earths surface they arc –

• Hawaii
• Colorado spring
• Ascension Island
• Diego Garcia
• Kwajalein.

3. The user segment: It is a total user and supplier community, both civilian and military. The user segment consists of all earth – based GPS receivers. Receivers very greatly in size and complexity, through the basic design in rather simple. The space and control segments are largely transparent to the operations of navigation functions.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Economics Model Question Paper 2 with Answers, Karnataka 2nd PUC Economics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Economics Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

Time: 3 hrs 15 minutes
Max. Marks: 100

PART-A

I. Choose the correct answer (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 1.
The scarce resources of an economy have
(a) Competing usages
(b) Single usages
(c) Unlimited usages
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Competing usages

Question 2.
In perfect competition buyers and sellers are
(a) Price makers
(b) Price takers
(c) Price analysts
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Price takers

Question 3.
market structure which produces heterogeneous.products is called
(a) Monopoly
(b) Monopolistic competition
(c) Perfect competition
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Monopolistic competition.

Question 4.
In 1936, British economist J.M.Keynes published his celebrated book.
(a) Wealth of Nations
(b) Theory of Interest
(c) General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money.
(d) Theory of Employment
Answer:
(c) General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money.

Question 5.
The taxes on individual and firms are
(a) Direct taxes
(b) Indirect taxes
(c) Fixed taxes
(d) Non-tax revenues
Answer:
(a) Direct taxes

II. Fill in the blanks (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 6.
Wants satisfying capacity of commodity is______
Answer:
Utility.

Question 7.
In a perfectly competitive market, equilibrium occurs when market demand_____market supply.
Answer:
Equals

Question 8.
cY shows the dependence of consumption on______
Answer:
Income

Question 9.
Non-paying users of public goods are known as______
Answer:
Free riders

Question 10.
______is the record of trade in goods and services and transfer payments.
Answer:
Current account

III. Match the following (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 11.

Answer:
1 -e; 2-a; 3 -b; 4-c; 5 -d.

IV. Answer the following questions in a sentence or a word each. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 12.
To which side does a supply curve shift due to the technological progress?
Answer:
The supply curve shifts to the right due to the technological progress.

Question 13.
What is monopoly?
Answer:
It is a market with one seller or firm with many buyers.

Question 14.
Write the meaning of autonomous consumption.
Answer:
The consumption which is independent of income is called as autonomous consumption.

Question 15.
What are public goods?
Answer:
Public goods are the goods and services provided by the government and which cannot be provided by the market mechanism. Example, roads, defence, etc.

Question 16.
What do you mean by open economy?
Answer:
An open economy is one which interacts with rest of the world through various channels.

PART-B

V. Answer any NINE of the following in 4 sentences each. (2 × 9 = 18)

Question 17.
What do you mean by inferior goods? Give example.
Answer:
The inferior goods are those goods for which the demand increases with the fall in income of consumer and vice-versa. That is, there will be a negative relationship between income of consumer and demand for inferior goods. Here, the income of consumer and demand move in opposite directions. Example: low-quality goods.

Question 18.
State the law of demand?
Answer:
Law of demand states that other things being equal, there is a negative relation between demand for a commodity and its price. In other words, when price of the commodity increases, demand for it falls and when price of the commodity decreases, demand for it rises, other factors remaining the constant.

The law can be explained in the following manner, i.e. “Other things being equal, a fall in price leads to expansion in demand and a rise in price leads to contraction in demand”.

Question 19.
Write the meaning and formula of marginal product.
Answer:
Marginal product of an input is defined as the change in output per, unit of change in the input when all other inputs are held constant. It is the additional unit of output per additional unit of variable input. It is calculated by dividing the change in output by change in input labour. The formula is
MP_L = ∆TP_L/∆L.

Question 20.
Mention the conditions needed for profit by a firm under perfect competition.
Answer:
The following conditions needed for profit by a firm under perfect competition:

• The price P must be equal to MC
• Marginal cost must be non-decreasing at q₀
• The firm to continue to produce, in the short run, price must be greater than the average variable cost and in the long run, price must be greater than the average cost.

Question 21.
Define equilibrium price and quantity.
Answer:
Equilibrium price is the price at which equilibrium is reached in the market.
The equilibrium quantity is defined as the quantity which is bought and sold at equilibrium price. Therefore, price and quantity will be at equilibrium when
Q^d(p*) = q^s(p*)
p* denotes the equilibrium price and Q^d (p*) and q^s(p*) denote the market demand and market supply, respectively.

Question 22.
State the meaning of average revenue and marginal revenue.
Answer:
Marginal revenue of a firm is defined as the increase in total revenue for a unit increase in the firm’s output. It is obtained by dividing the change in total revenue (∆TR) by change in quantity (∆q). Thus,
MR = ∆TR/∆q.
Average revenue:
We calculate average revenue, by dividing total revenue by the quantity sold. The following formula used:
AR = TR/q.

Question 23.
What are the four factors of production? Mention their rewards.
Answer:
The four factors of production are land, labour, capital and organisation. The rewards of these factors of production are as follows:

1. Land gets rent
2. Labour gets wages
3. Capital gets interest
4. Organisation gets profit.

Question 24.
Distinguish between stock and flow. Give example.
Answer:

Stock	Flow
• It is that quantity of economic variable which is measured at a particular point of time. • Examples are capital, inventory, wealth, foreign exchange reserves, etc.	• It refers to that quantity of economic variable measured over a period of time. • Examples are net investment, salary, national income, etc.

Question 25.
Give the meaning of CRR and SLR.
Answer:
The cash reserve ratio (CRR) is a certain percentage of bank deposits which a commercial bank is required to keep as cash reserves with itself.

The statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) refers to the ratio of deposits which the commercial banks have to maintain a certain percentage of their total deposits and time deposits with themselves in the form of liquid assets, as per the directions of RBI.

Question 26.
Write the meaning of excess demand and deficient demand.
Answer:
If the equilibrium level of output is more than the full employment level, it is due to the fact that the demand is more than the level of output produced at full employment level. This situation is called excess demand.

If the equilibrium level of output is less than the full employment of output, it is due to fact that demand is not enough to employ all factors of production. This situation is called deficient demand.

Question 27.
Give the meaning of investment multiplier. Write its formula.
Answer:
Investment multiplier is the ratio of the total increment in equilibrium value of final goods output to the initial increment in autonomous expenditure. Its formula is
Investment Multiplier = ∆Y/∆A= 1/1-c.
Where, ∆Y is the total increment in final goods output, ∆A is initial increment in autonomous expenditure and c is size of the multiplier.

Question 28.
Write the difference between public provision and public production.
Answer:
The difference between public provision and public production are as follows:

Public Provision	Public Production
• A set of facilities financed by the government through its budget. • These are used without any direct payment. Examples are free education, mid-day meals, etc.	• When the goods produced directly by the government, it is called public production. • These are used with direct payment. Examples are electricity, water supply, etc.

Question 29.
Mention the three linkages of open economy.
Answer:
The three linkages of open economy are as follows:

• Output market linkage
• Financial market linkage
• Labour market linkage.

Question 30.
What is the difference between current account and capital account?
Answer:
The difference between current account and capital account are as follows:

Current Account	Capital Account
• It is the record of trade in goods and services, and transfer payments. • It consists of factor and non-factor incomes apart from gifts, remittances, and grants.	• It is the record of all international transactions of assets. • It includes money, stocks, bonds, government debt, etc.

PART-C

VI. Answer any SEVEN of the following questions in 12 sentences each. (4 × 7 = 28)

Question 31.
Briefly explain the production possibility frontier.
Answer:
The production possibility frontier is a graphical representation of the combinations of two commodities (cotton and wheat) that can be produced when the resources of the economy are fully utilized. It is also called as production possibility curve (PPC) also known as transformation curve.

It gives the combinations of cotton and wheat that can be produced when the resources of the economy are fully utilized. This can be graphically represented as follows.

As per the above graph, the points lying strictly below the production possibility curve represents a combination of cotton and wheat that will be produced when all or some of the resources are either underemployed or are utilized in a wasteful fashion.

Question 32.
Explain the in difference map with the diagram.
Answer:
A family of indifference curves is called as in difference map. It refers to a set of indifference curves for two commodities showing different levels of satisfaction. The higher indifference curves show higher level of satisfaction and lower indifference curve represent lower satisfaction. A rational consumer always chooses more of that product which offers him a higher level of satisfaction which is represented in higher indifference curve. It is also called ‘monotonic preferences’.

The consumer’s preferences over all the bundles . can be represented by a family of indifference curves as shown in the following diagram.

In the given diagram, we see the group of three indifference curves showing different levels of satisfaction to the consumer. The arrow indicates that bundles on higher indifference curves are preferred by the consumer to the bundles on lower indifference curves.

Question 33.
Explain isoquant with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
An isoquant is the set of all possible combinations of the two inputs that yield the same maximum possible level of output. Each isoquant represents a particular level of output and is labelled with that amount of output. It is just an alternative way of representing the production function.
The concept of isoquant can be explained with the help of following diagram:

The given diagram generalizes the concept of isoquant. In the above diagram, labour is measured in OX axis and capital is measured in OY axis. There are 3 isoquants for the three output levels, viz. q=q₁ q=q₂ and q=q₃. Two input combinations (L₁, K₂) and (L₂, K₁) give us the same level of output q₁.

If we fix capital at K₁ and increase labour to L₃, output increases and we reach a higher isoquant q=q₂. When marginal products are positive, with greater amount of one input, the same level of output can be produced only using lesser amount of the other. Therefore, isoquant curves slope downwards from left to right (negatively sloped).

Question 34.
Write a brief note on returns to scale.
Answer:
The returns to scale can happen only in the long run as both the factors (labour and capital) can be changed. One special case, in the long run, occurs when both factors are increased by the same proportion or factors are scaled up.

a. Constant returns to scale:
When a proportional increase in all inputs results in an increase in output by the same proportion, the production function is said display constant returns to scale.

b. Increasing returns to scale:
When proportional increase in all inputs results in an increase in output by a larger proportion, the production function is said to display increasing returns to scale.

c. Decreasing returns to scale:
When a proportional increase in all inputs results in an increase in output by a smaller proportion, the production function is said to display decreasing returns to scale.

For example, if in a production process, all inputs get doubled. As a result, if the output gets doubled, the production function exhibits constant returns to scale, if output is less than doubled, exhibits decreasing returns to scale and if it is more than doubled, exhibits increasing returns to scale.

Question 35.
Explain the determinants of a firm’s supply curve.
Answer:
A firm’s marginal cost curve is a part of its marginal cost curve. Any factor that affects a firm’s marginal cost curve is a determinant of its supply curve. Following are the two factors determining a firm’s supply curve:

a. Technological progress:
The organisational innovation by the firm leads to more production of output. That means to produce a given level of output, the organisational innovation allows the firm to use fewer units of inputs. It is expected that this will lower the firm’s marginal cost at any level of output, i.e. there is a rightward shift of the MC curve. As the firm’s supply curve is essentially a segment of the MC curve, technological progress shifts the supply curve of the firm to the right. At any given market price, the firm now supplies more quantity of output.

b. Input prices:
A change in the prices of factors of production (inputs) also influences a firm’s supply curve. If the price of input (e.g. wage) increases, the cost of production also increases. The consequent increase in the firm’s average cost at any level of output is usually accompanied by an increase in the firm’s marginal cost at any level of output, which leads to an upward shift of the MC curve. That means the firm’s supply curve shifts to the left and the firm produces less quantity of output.

Question 36.
Write a short note on profit maximization of a firm under the following conditions

1. P=MC
2. MC must be none decreasing at q₀.

Answer:
A firm always wishes to maximize its profit. The firm would like to identify the quantity q₀, the firm’s profits are less at q₀ For profits to be maximum, the following conditions must hold at q₀.

1. The price P must equal MC (P = MC):
Profit is the difference between total revenue and total cost. Both total revenue and total cost increase as output increases. As long as the change in total revenue is greater than the change in total cost, profits will continue to increase.

The change in total revenue per unit increase in output is the marginal revenue and the change in total cost per unit increase in output is the marginal cost.

Therefore, we can conclude that as long as marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost, profits are increasing and as long as marginal revenue is less than marginal cost, profits will fall. It follows that for profits to be maximum, marginal revenue should be equal to marginal cost.

For the perfectly competitive firm, we have established that the MR=P. So the firm’s profit-maximizing output becomes the level of output at which P = MC.

2. Marginal cost must be non-decreasing at q₀:
It means that the marginal cost curve cannot slope downwards at the profit-maximizing output level. This can be explained with the help of diagram:

In the given diagram, at output levels q₁ and q₄ the market price is equal to the marginal cost. However, at the output level q_1, the marginal cost curve is downward sloping. The q₁ is not profit-maximizing output level.

If we observe all output levels left to the q₁ the market price is lower than the marginal cost. But the firm’s profit at an output level slightly smaller than q₁ exceeds that corresponding to the output level q₁ Therefore, q₁ cannot be a profit-maximizing output level.

Question 37.
Explain the role of the government (state) and household sector in both developed and developing countries.
Answer:
1. Role of government:
In both the developed and developing countries, apart from capitalist sector, there is the institution of state. The role of the state includes framing laws, enforcing them and delivering justice. The state here refers to the government which performs various developmental functions for the society as whole.

It undertakes production, apart from imposing taxes and spending money on building public infrastructure, running schools, providing health services, etc. These economic functions of the state have to be taken into account when we want to describe the economy of the country.

2. Role of household sector:
By household we mean a single individual who takes decisions relating to her own consumption or a group of individuals for whom the decisions relating to consumption are jointly determined. Households consist of people. These people work in firms as workers and earn wages.

They are the one who work in government departments and earn salaries or they are the owners of firms and earn profits. Therefore, the market in which the firms sell their products could not have been functioning without the demand coming from the households. Further, they also earn rent by leasing land or earn interest by lending capital.

Question 38.
Write a note on externalities.
Answer:
An externality is a cost or benefit conferred upon second or third parties as a result of acts of individual production and consumption. But the cost or benefit of an externality cannot be measured in money terms because it is not included in market activities.

In other words, externalities refer to the benefits or harm a firm or an individual causes to another for which they are not paid or penalized. They do not have any market in which they can be bought and sold. There are two types of externalities viz.,

1. Positive externalities
2. Negative externalities.

For example, let us imagine that there is chemical fertilizer industry. It produces the chemical fertilizers required for agriculture. The output of the industry is taken for counting GDP of an economy. This is positive externality.

While carrying out the production, the chemical fertilizer industry may also be polluting the nearby river. This may cause harm to the people who use the water of the river. Hence their health will be affected. Pollution also may kill fish and other organisms of the river. As a result, the fishermen of the river may lose their livelihood. Such harmful effects that the industry is inflicting on others, for which it will not bear any cost are called negative externalities.

Question 39.
Write the meaning of transaction motive and speculative motive of demand for money and liquidity trap.
Answer:
a. Transaction motive:
Transaction motive demand for money refers to holding money to carryout transactions. If we receive our income weekly and make payments on the first day of every week, we need not hold any cash balance throughout the rest of the week. But our expenditure patterns do not normally match our receipts. People earn incomes at discrete points in time and spend it continuously throughout the interval.
The transaction demand for money is represented as follows:
M^d_T = k. T
Where, T is the total value of transactions in the economy over unit period and k is a position fraction.

b. Speculative motive:
Some people hold cash to invest on shares, debentures, gold, immovable properties, etc. The speculative demand for money refers to the demand for money that people hold as idle cash to speculate with the aim of earning capital gains and profits. The speculative demand for money can be written as follows:
\(M_{s}^{d}=\frac{r_{\max }-r}{r-r_{\min }}\)
Where, r is the market rate of interest and r_max and r_min are the upper and lower limits of r, both positive constants. It clearly states that as r decreases from r_max to r_min, the value of speculative demand for money decreases from zero to infinity.

Question 40.
Write a note on balance of trade.
Answer:
Balance of trade is the difference between the value of exports and value of imports of goods of a country in a given period of time. Export of goods is entered as a credit item in balance of trade. Import of goods is entered as a debit item in balance of trade. It is also called as trade balance. Balance of that is said to be in balance when exports of goods are equal to the imports of goods, i.e. balanced balance of trade.

Surplus balance of trade arises if country’s exports of goods are more than its imports. Deficit balance of trade arises if a country’s imports of goods are more than its exports. Balance of trade is narrow concept and it may not show the international economic position of an economy. It gives partial picture of international transactions and it is less reliable. It does not include net invisibles, i.e. the difference between the value of exports and value of imports of invisibles (services) of a country in a given period of time.

Question 41.
Explain the law of diminishing marginal utility with the help of a table and diagram.
Answer:
One of the most important propositions of the cardinal utility approach to demand was the Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility. German Economist Gossen was the first to explain it. Therefore, it is called Gossen’s First Law.

According to Alfred Marshall, “The additional benefit which a person derives from a given increase of a stock of a thing diminishes, other things being equal, with every increase in the stock that he already has”.

This law simply tells us that, we obtain less and less utility from the successive units of a commodity as we consume more and more of it.

Assumptions of the Law of DMU

1. Uniform quality and size of the commodity:
The successive units of the commodity should not differ in any way either in quality or size.

2. Suitable quantity of consumption:
The Commodity units should not be very small, e.g. milk should be in glasses and not in spoons.

3. Consumption within the same time:
Consumption must be continuous. There should not be so much difference in time between the consumption of successive units.

4. No change in the price of the commodity or its substitutes:
The law is based on the assumption that the commodity’s price is not changed with successive units. The price of the substitutes is also kept at the same level.

5. Utility can be measured in cardinal numbers, i.e. 1, 2, 3, 4, …….

6. Consumer must be rational, i.e. every consumer wants to maximize his satisfaction.

The basis of this law is that every want needs to be satisfied only up to a limit. After this limit is reached the intensity of our want becomes zero. It is called complete satisfaction of the want. Therefore, we consume more and more units of a commodity to satisfy our need, the intensity of our want for it becomes less and less.

Therefore, the utility obtained from the consumption of every unit of the commodity is less than that of the units consumed earlier. This can be explained with the help of the following table.

Units of Apples	Total Utility (TU)	Marginal Utility (MU)
1	30	30
2	50	20
3	65	15
4	75	10
5	80	5
6	82	2
7	82	0
8	80	-2

Suppose a man wants to consume apples and is hungry. In this condition, if he gets one apple, he has very utility for it. Let us say that the measurement of this utility is equal to 30 utils. Having eaten the first he will not remain so hungry as before. Therefore, if he consumes the second apple he will have a lesser amount of utility from the second apple even if it was exactly like first one.

The utility he got from the second apple equals 20 units, the third, fourth, fifth and sixth apples give him utility equal to 15, 10, 5 and 2 units respectively. Now, if he is given the seventh apple he has no use for it. That means the utility of the seventh apple to the consumer is zero.

It is just possible that if he is given the eighth apple for consumption, it may harm him. Here the utility will be
negative, i.e. -2. Therefore, we are clear that the additional utility of the successive apples to the consumer goes on diminishing as he consumes more and more of it.

The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility can be explained with the help of the following diagram.

In the diagram, the horizontal axis shows the units of apples and the vertical axis measures the MU and TU obtained from the apple units. The total utility curve will be increasing in the beginning and later falls. The marginal utility curve is falling from left down to the right clearly tells us that the satisfaction derived from the successive consumption of apples is falling.

The marginal utility of the first apple is known as initial utility. It is 30 utils. The marginal utility of the seventh apple is zero. Therefore, this point is called the satiety point. The marginal utility of the eighth apple is -2. So, it is called negative utility and lies below the X-axis.

PART-D

VII. Answer any Six of the following questions in 20 sentences each. (6 × 4 = 24)

Question 42.
Explain the market equilibrium with the fixed number of firms with the help of diagram.
Answer:
Under perfect competition, market is said to be in equilibrium when quantity demanded is equal to the quantity supplied. Here, with the help of market demand curve and market supply curve, we will determine where the market will be in equilibrium when the number of firms is fixed.
This can be illustrated with the help of the following diagram.

The given diagram illustrates equilibrium for a perfectly competitive market with a fixed number of firms. SS is market supply curve and DD is market demand curve. The market supply curve SS shows how much of the commodity firms would wish to supply at different prices and the demand curve DD tells us how much of the commodity, the consumer would be willing to purchase at different prices.

At point E, the market supply curve intersects the market demand curve which denotes that quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied. At any other point, either there is excess supply or there is excess demand.

OP is the equilibrium price and Oq is the equilibrium quantity. If the price is P₁, the market supply is q₁ and market demand is q₄. Therefore, there is excess demand in the market equal to q₁q₄ Some consumers who are either unable to obtain the commodity at all or obtain it in insufficient quantity will be willing to pay more than P₁ The market price would tend, to increase.

All other things remaining constant, when the price increases the demand falls and quantity supplied rises. The market moves towards equilibrium where quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied. It happens at P where supply decisions match demand decisions.

If the price is P₂, the market supply q₃ will exceed the market demand q₂ which leads to excess supply equal to q₂q₃ Some firms will not be able to sell quantity they want to sell. Therefore, they will lower their price.

All other things remaining constant, when the price falls, quantity, demanded rises and quantity supplied falls to equilibrium price P where the firms are able to sell their desired output as market demand equals market supply at P. So, the P is the equilibrium price and the corresponding quantity q is the equilibrium quantity.

Question 43.
Explain the short-run equilibrium of a monopolist firm, when the cost of production is positive by using TR and TC curves with the help of diagram.
Answer:
The short-run equilibrium of a monopolist firm, when the cost of production is positive by using TR and TC curves can be explained with the help of diagram as follows:

In the given diagram, total cost, total revenue, and profit curves are drawn. The profit received by the firm equals the total revenue minus the total cost. In the diagram, if quantity q₁ is produced, the total revenue is TR₁ and total cost is TC₁. The difference TR₁ – TC₁ is the profit received. The same is depicted by the length of the line segment AB, i.e. the vertical distance between the TR and TC U curves at q₁ level of output.

If the output level is less than q₂, the TC curve lies above the TR curve, i.e. TC is greater than TR and therefore profit is negative and the firm makes losses. The same situation exists for output levels greater than q₃. Hence, the firm can make positive profits only at output levels between q₂ and q₃.

where TR curve lies above the TC curve. The monopoly firm will chose that level of output which maximizes its profit. This would be level of output for which the vertical distance between TR and TC is maximum and TR is above the TC, i.e. TR – TC is maximum. This occurs at the output level q₀.

Question 44.
Explain the macroeconomic identities.
Answer:
The macroeconomic identities are as follows:

1. Gross domestic product (GDP):
Gross domestic product measures the aggregate production of final goods and services taking place within the domestic economy during a year. But the whole of it may not accrue to the citizens of the country. It includes GDP at market prices and GDP at factor cost.

GDP at market price is the market value of all final goods and services produced within a domestic territory of a country measured in a year. Here everything is valued at market prices. It is obtained as follows:
GDP_MP = C + I + G + X – M
GDP at factor cost is gross domestic product at market prices minus net indirect taxes. It measures money value of output produced by the firms within the domestic boundaries of a country in a year.
GDP_FC = GDP_MP – NIT.

2. Gross national product:
It refers to all the economic output produced by a nation’s normal residents, whether they are located within the national boundary or abroad. It is defined as GDP plus factor income earned by the domestic factors of production employed in the rest of the world minus factor income earned by the factors of production of the rest of the world employed in the domestic economy. Therefore,
GNP = GDP + Net factor income from abroad.

3. Net national product (NNP):
A part of the capital gets consumed during the year due to wear and tear. This wear and tear is called depreciation. If we deduct depreciation from GNP the measure of aggregate income that we obtain is called net national product. We get the value of NNP evaluated at market prices. So,
NNP = GNP – Depreciation.

4. Net national product (NNP) at factor cost:
The NNP at factor is the sum of income earned by all factors in the production in the form of wages, profits, rent, and interest, etc. belong to a country during a year. It is also known as national income. We need to add subsidies to NNP and deduct indirect taxes from NNP to obtain NNP at factor cost.
NNP_FC = NNP at market prices – indirect taxes + subsidies

5. Personal income (PI):
It refers to the part of national income (NI) which is received by households. It is obtained as follows:
PI = NI – Undistributed Profits -Net interest payments made by the households – Corporate tax + Transfer payments to the households from the government and firms.

6. Personal disposable income (PDI):
If we deduct the personal tax payments (income tax) and non-tax payments (fines, fees) from personal income, we get PDI. Therefore,
PDI = PI – Personal tax payments – Non-tax payments.

Question 45.
Explain the functions of money. How does money overcome the shortcomings of a barter system?
Answer:
The functions of money are broadly classified as follows:

1. Primary functions
2. Secondary functions
3. Contingent functions.

I. Primary functions: The primary functions of money are as follows:

a. Medium of exchange:
Money plays an important role as a medium of exchange. It facilitates exchange of goods for money. It has solved the problems of barter system. Barter exchanges become extremely difficult in a large economy because of the high costs people would have to incur looking for’suitable persons to exchange their surpluses. It helps the people to sell in one place and buy-in another place. Money has widened the scope of market transactions. Money has become a circulating material between buyers and sellers.

b. Measure of value/unit of account:
The money acts as a common measure of value. The values of all goods and services can be expressed in terms of money. As a measure of value, money performs following functions:

1. The value of all goods and services measured and expressed in terms of the money
2. Rate of exchange of goods and services expressed in money
3. Facilitates the maintenance of accounts
4. It facilitates price mechanism
5. It makes goods and services comparable in terms of price.

For instance, when we say that the value of a book is Rs.500 we mean that the book can be exchanged for 500 units of money where a unit of money is rupee in this case. If the price of a pencil is Rs.5 and that of a pen is Rs.10 we can calculate the relative price of a pen with respect to a pencil, i.e. a pen is worth 10/5=2 pencils.

II. Secondary functions: The secondary functions of money are as follows:

a. Store of value:
People can save part of their present income and hold the same for future. Money can be stored for precautionary motives needed to overcome financial stringencies. Money solves one of the deficiencies of barter system, i.e. difficulty to cany forward one’s wealth under the barter system.

For instance, we have an endowment of wheat which we do not wish to consume today entirely. We may regard this stock of surplus wheat as an asset which we may wish to consume or even sell-off”, for acquiring other commodities at some future date. But wheat is a perishable item and cannot be stored beyond a certain period.

Also, holding the stock of rice required a lot of space. We may have to spend considerable time and resources looking for people with a demand for wheat when we wish to exchange our stock for buying other commodities. This problem can be solved if we sell our wheat for money. Money is not perishable land its storage costs are also less.

b. Standard of deferred payments:
All the credit transactions are expressed in terms of money. The payment can be delayed or postponed. So, money can be used for delayed settlement of dues or financial commitments.

c. Transfer of value:
Money acts as a transfer of value from person to person and from place to place. As a transfer of value, money helps us to buy goods, properties or anything from any part of the country or the world. Further, money earned in different places can be brought or transferred to anywhere in the world.

III. Contingent functions of money: Other than primary and secondary functions, money also performs other functions which are as follows:

a. Basis of credit:
Money serves as a basis of the credit. The modem credit system exists only because of existence of money.

b. Distribution of national income:
Money helps in distribution of national income. The reward paid to factors of production in the form of rent, wages, interest, and profit are nothing but the distribution of national income at factor prices.

c. Provides liquidity and uniformity:
Money provides liquidity to all kinds of assets both moveable and immovable. Money can be converted into any type of asset and all assets can be converted into money.

d. Helps in consumers’ and producers’ equilibrium:
All goods and services are expressed in terms of money. The consumer attains equilibrium when the price of a product is equal to his marginal utility. Similarly, the producers reach equilibrium if they get maximum satisfaction. Both consumers and producers try to achieve equilibrium with the help of money.

Question 46.
Explain the classification of receipts.
Answer:
The government budget consists of revenue budget and capital budget. Both the budgets have receipts viz., revenue receipts and capital receipts.

I. Revenue receipts:
Revenue receipts are those receipts which do not lead to a claim on the government. They include the following:

1. Tax revenue.
2. Non-tax revenue.

1. Tax revenues:
These are the important component of revenue receipts. Tax revenue consists of direct tax and indirect taxes. The direct tax includes income tax, corporate tax and indirect tax includes excise duty (tax on production of goods in the country), customs duties (tax on exports and imports) and service tax (GST-goods and services tax has been introduced in place of indirect taxes from 1^st July 2017). Other direct taxes like wealth tax and gift tax have never brought in large amount of revenue and thus they are called as paper taxes.

2. Non-tax revenue:
The non-tax revenue of the central government consists of the following:

• Interest receipts on account of loans by the central government
• Dividends and profits on investments made by the government
• Fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government
• Grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organizations.

II. Capital receipts:
All those receipts of the government which create liability or reduce financial assets are termed as capital receipts. The government receives money by way of loan or from the sale of its assets. Loans have to be repaid to the agencies from whom the government has borrowed. Thus it creates liability. Sale of government assets like sale of shares in public sector undertakings (disinvestment) reduces the total amount of financial assets of the government.

When government takes fresh loans it means that it has to be returned with interest. Similarly, when government sells an asset it means that in future its earnings from that asset will disappear. Thus, these receipts can be debt creating or non-debt creating.

Question 47.
Briefly explain the foreign exchange market with fixed exchange rates with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
Under fixed exchange rate system, the government decides the exchange rate at a particular level. The foreign exchange market with fixed exchange rates can be explained with the help of following diagram.

In the given diagram, the market-determined exchange rate is e where demand and supply intersect. However, if the government wants to encourage exports for which it needs to make rupee cheaper for foreigners it would do so by fixing a higher exchange rate say, Rs.70 per dollar from the current exchange rate of Rs.65 per dollar.

Thus, the new exchange rate set by the government is E₁ where E₁ is greater E. At this exchange rate, supply of dollars exceeds the demand for dollars. The RBI intervenes to purchase the dollars for rupees in the foreign exchange market in order to absorb this excess supply which has been marked as AB in the diagram.

Thus, by interfering, the government can maintain any exchange rate in the economy. If the government wants to set an exchange rate at a level E₂ there would be an excess demand for dollars, the government would have to withdraw dollars from its past holds of dollar. If the government fails to do so, it will encourage black market transactions.

Question 48.
Briefly explain the expenditure method of measuring GDP.
Answer:
Expenditure method is the alternative way to calculate the GDP by looking at the demand side of the products. Here, the aggregate value of the output in the economy by expenditure method will be calculated in the following way.

In this method, we add the final expenditures that each firm makes. Final expenditure is that part of expenditure which is undertaken not for intermediate purposes. If the baker buys Rs. 50 worth of wheat from the farmers is considered as intermediate good and the final expenditure received by the baker is 200. Then the aggregate value of output of the economy is Rs. 200 + Rs. 50 = Rs. 250.

Let us assume that firm ‘i’ makes the final expenditure on the following accounts:

1. Final consumption expenditures on the goods and services by households denoted as C_i.
2. Final investment expenditure incurred by the firms on capital goods denoted as I_i.
3. The expenditure that the government makes on the final goods and services produced by the firm, denoted as G_i.
4. The export revenues that firm i earns by selling its goods and services abroad denoted as X_i.

Now the total final consumption, investment, government and export expenditures received by the firm i. Now GDP according to the expenditure method is expressed as follows:

GDP = ΣN_i-1RV_i = C + I + G + X-M

ΣN_i-1 RV_i is the sum of final consumption C, investment is I, government is G and exports is X expenditures (M is imports) received by all the firms in the economy.

PART-E

VIII. Answer any two of the following project-oriented questions. (5 × 2=10)

Question 49.
A consumer wants to consume two goods. The price of bananas is Rs.4 and price of mangoes is Rs.5. The consumer income is Rs.20.

1. How many bananas can she consume if she spend her entire income on that good?
2. How many mangoes can she consume if she spend her entire income on that good?
3. Is the slope of budget line is downward or upward?
4. Are the bundles on the budget line equal to the consumers’ income or not?
5. If you want to have more of banana, you have to give up mangoes. Is it true?

Answer:

1. 5 Bananas (20/4).
2. 4 Mangoes (20/5).
3. Slope of budget line is downward.
4. Yes, the bundles on the budget line are equal to the consumer’s income.
5. True, if we want to have more of banana we have to give up mangoes.

Question 50.
From the following data calculate personal income and personal disposable income.

(a)	Net domestic product at factor cost	8,000
(b)	Net factor income from abroad	200
(C)	Undisbursed profit	1,000
(d)	Corporate tax	500
(e)	Interest received by households	1,500
(f)	Interest paid by households	1,200
(g)	Transfer income	300
(h)	Personal tax	500

Answer:
Personal income = Net domestic product at factor cost + Net factor income from abroad + (Interest received by households – Interest paid by households) + Transfer income – Corporate tax – Undisbursed profit.
Therefore, – PI = 8000 + 200 + (1500 – 1200) + 300 – 500 -1000
= 8000 + 200 + 300+300-500-1000
= 7300
Personal Disposable Income = Personal Income – Personal Tax
Therefore PDI = 7300 – 500
= 6800.

Question 51.
Name the currencies of any five countries of the following USA, UK, Germany, Japan, China, Argentina, UAE, Bangladesh, Russia.
Answer:

Countries	Currency
USA	US dollars
UK	British Pound
Germany	Euro
Japan	Japanese Yen
China	Chinese yuan
Argentina	Argentine peso
UAE	UAE dirham
Bangladesh	Bangladeshi taka
Russia	Russian Ruble

Students can Download 2nd PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper June 2015, Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper June 2015

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

PART – A

Answer all the following questions. Each question carries one mark. (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
What is a motherboard?
Answer:
The motherboard is a large printed circuit board and every physical unit is connected to it. It is the main circuit board of computer system.

Question 2.
What is a logic gate?
Answer:
It is an electronic circuit having one or more than one input and only one output.

Question 3.
Give an example for linear data structure.
Answer:
The examples for linear data structures are stack, queues and linked lists.

Question 4.
What is a class?
Answer:
A class is a structured data type in C++ which is a collection of variables and functions.

Question 5.
Mention any one advantage of pointers.
Answer:
The advantage of pointer is memory can be allocated or deallocated dynamically.

Question 6.
What is a database?
Answer:
A database is a collection of large amount of related data. In other words, It is a collection of database tables.

Question 7.
Expand URL.
Answer:
Uniform Resource Locator.

Question 8.
Define bus topology.
Answer:
A bus topology consists of a central cable with a terminator at each end. All nodes (file server, workstations, and peripherals) are connected to the linear cable.

Question 9.
Name any one web browser.
Answer:
The name of a web browser is Google Chrome

Question 10.
Write any one HTML tag.
Answer:
HTML tag :

PART-B

Answer any five questions. Each question carries two marks. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
State and prove involution law.
Answer:
This law states that the double complement of a variable gives the same variable.

Question 12.
What is principle of duality? Give an example.
Answer:
The principle of duality states that starting with a Boolean relation, another relation can be derived by

1. Changing each OR sing (+) to an AND sign (.).
2. Changing each AND sing (.) to an OR sign (+).
3. Replacing each 0 by 1 and each 1 by 0.
4. All variables are complemented.

For example, (X + Y’) dual is (X’. Y)

Question 13.
Differentiate between base class and derived class.
Answer:
A base class is a class from which other classes are derived. The class that inherits is called derived class. The inheriting class is called the derived class.

Question 14.
Mention different types of constructors.
Answer:
The three types of constructors are

1. Default constructor.
2. Parameterized constructor.
3. Copy constructor.

Question 15.
What is a stream? Mention any one stream used in C++.
Answer:
A stream is a sequence of characters that move from the source to the destination. The streams generally used for file I/O is input stream, output stream, and error stream.

Question 16.
Write any advantages of database system.
Answer:
The two advantages of database system are controlling Redundancy and Sharing of data.

Question 17.
Mention any two data types used in SQL.
Answer:
The two data types used in SQL are number and varchar2.

Question 18.
Explain the circuit switching technique.
Answer:
A type of communication in which a dedicated channel (or circuit) is established at the time of transmission. For example, the telephone system, which links together wire segments to create a single unbroken line for each telephone call. Circuit-switching systems are ideal for communications that require data to be transmitted in real-time.

PART-C

Answer any five questions. Each question carries three marks: (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 19.
What is the function of UPS? Mention different types of UPS.
Answer:
The function of UPS is

• UPS unit give continuous power supply in the event of main source power break.
• It also regulates the high and low voltage in power supply.
• They give different backup power ranging from 15 minutes to several hours.

On-line UPS and Off-line UPS are the two types of UPS.

Question 20.
Write the logic diagram and truth table for a NAND gate.
Answer:
The truth table of NAND gate

The standard symbol of NAND gate.

Question 21.
Explain the various operations performed on queue data structure.
Answer:
A queue is a non-primitive data structure where an item is inserted at one end and removed from the other end.

The queue(), enqueue(item), dequeue(), isEmpty() and size() are the operations that can be performed on queues.

• Queue() – create an empty queue
• enqueue(item) – insert in element into the queue.
• dequeue() – remove the element from the queue.
• isEmpty() – returns true if queue is empty otherwise false.
• size() – give the count of elements in a queue.

Question 22.
What is array of pointers? Give an example.
Answer:
The one dimensional or two-dimensional pointer array is called array of pointer.
For example, int *ptr[5];
Where *ptr is array pointer variable and size of array is 5. i.e., ptr[0], ptr[l], ptr[2], ptr[3], ptr[4].

Question 23.
List the different modes of opening a file with their meaning in C++.
Answer:
The methods of opening file within C++ program

• Opening a file using constructor
• Opening a file using member function open() of the class

Opening a file using constructor:
The syntax for opening file for output purpose only is ofstream obj(“filename”);
Example:
ofstream fout(“results.dat”);

Question 24.
Write the different symbols used in E-R diagram with their significance.
Answer:

Question 25.
What is E-commerce? Explain any two types.
Answer:
The e-commerce is defined as buying and selling of products or services over electronic systems such as the Internet and other computer networks

1. B2B – Business to business:
Electronic commerce that is conducted between business organizations is referred to as business-to-business or B2B. for example, transactions between manufacturing industry with suppliers of raw materials.

2. B2C – Business to Consumer:
Electronic commerce that is conducted between trader and consumers is referred to as business-to-consumer or B2C. This is the type of electronic commerce conducted by companies such as Amazon.com, ebay.com, etc.

Question 26.
What is web-hosting? Mention different types of web-hosting.
Answer:
Web hosting means to put web-site content on a Web server and provide fast connection to the internet. The different type of web-hosting are:

1. Free Hosting
2. Virtual or Shared Hosting
3. Dedicated Hosting
4. Colocation Hosting

PART-D

Answer any seven of the following questions. Each question carries Five marks: (7 × 5 = 35)

Question 27.
Reduce.(F(A,B,C,D) = Σ(l,2,3,4,5,7,9, 11, 12, 13, 15) using Karnaugh map.

Answer:
Reduced Boolean expression is AD + D + C

Question 28.
Explain the memory representation of stack data structure using arrays.
Answer:
The items into the stack are stored in a sequential order from the first location of the memory block.
A pointer TOP contains the location of the top element of the stack.
A variable MAXSTK contains the maximum number of elements that can be stored in stack.
The stack is full when TOP = MAXSTK
The stack is empty when TOP = 0.

Question 29.
Write an algorithm of binary search.
Answer:

Question 30.
Mention any five applications of OOP.
Answer:
Some of the real life applications of object oriented programming are given below;

• Computer graphic applications
• CAD/CAM software
• Object oriented database
• User interface design such as windows
• Real time systems
• Simulation and modeling
• Artificial intelligence and expert systems.

Question 31.
What are access specifiers? Explain any two with examples.
Answer:
The data members and member functions can be accessed using access specifiers. They define the scope of members.
The different access specifiers are private, protected and public.

1. Private members:
The member data and members functions defined using access specifier private, can be accessed by member functions of that class only. Non-members of the class cannot access private members of the class. If no access specifier is mentioned for the members, then it is treated as private members.

2. Public members:
The public members of a class can be accessed by member functions of that class and also non member functions (outside the class) of the class. The public member functions can access private, protected and public data members of the class.

For example;

The private data members regno, fees and name can be accessed by only getdata() and printdata() public member functions of the class student.

Question 32.
What is function overloading? Explain the need for overloading.
Answer:
The overloading helps to apply polymorphism because Function overloading means two or more functions having same name but different types of arguments or different number of arguments. Whereas polymorphism refers to “one name having many forms of an object behavior depending on situations.

Function overloading is normally used when several function of the same name perform identical tasks on different data types. The overloading function helps to reduce the use of different names for many functions.

The developer of the program can use one function name to give function call to one in many functions and C++ select the appropriate function by checking the number of parameter and type of parameters. This reduces the selecting a function block to give a function call by the user.

It is easier to understand the flow of information that helps in faster debug. Easy program maintenance. There can be common interface between programs and real-world objects.

Question 33.
Explain destructor with syntax and example.
Answer:
It is a special function used to release the memory space allocated by the object.
→ Name of the Destructor is similar to the class, which it belongs.
→ It does not have argument(s) and doesn’t return any value (no return type)
→ Destructor is preceded by ~ (tilde) sign.
Following points should be kept in mind while defining and writing the syntax for the destructor:

• A destructor function must be declared with the same name as that of the class to which it belongs.
• The first character of the destructor name must begin with a tilde (~).
• A destructor function is declared with no return types specified (not even void).
• A destructor function must have public access in the class declaration.

General Syntax of Destructors:
~ classname();
The above is the general syntax of a destructor. In the above, the symbol tilde ~ represents a destructor which precedes the name of the class.
For example,

Question 34.
What is inheritance? Mention its advantages.
Answer:
In object-oriented programming, inheritance is a way to form new classes using classes that have already been defined.
1. Reusability:
Inheritance helps the code to be reused in many situations.

2. Saves Time and Effort:
Since the main code written can be reused in various situations as heeded.

3. Easy Maintenance:
The different part of the programs written in C++ can be easily maintained due to the features of Inheritance, polymorphism, dynamic binding, etc.,

4. Easy to extend:
The programs can be extended with new features by adding very easily.

5. Memory utlisation:
Due to the feature of dynamic binding and dynamic memory allocation (new and delete), memory can be efficiently used.

Question 35.
Define the following database terms

1. Data model
2. Tuple
3. Domain
4. Primary key
5. Foreign key

Answer:
1. Data model:
Data models are fundamental entities that define how the logical structure of a database is modeled. Data models define how data is connected to each other and how they are processed and stored inside the system.

2. Tuple:
Collection of related fields (e.g. Name, Age, register number, marks)

3. Domain:
A domain describes the set of possible values for a given attribute.

4. Primary key:
A primary key is a field in a table which uniquely identifies each row/record in a database table. Primary keys must contain unique values. A primary key column cannot have NULL values.

5. Foreign key:
A foreign key is a key used to link two tables together. Foreign Key is a column or a combination of columns whose values match a Primary Key in a different table.

Question 36.
What is data definition language? Explain SELECT and UPDATE commands.
Answer:
Data Defintion Language commands create database objects such as tables, views, etc., The various Data definition language commands are Create Table, Alter Table, Create View, Drop Table, etc.,

1. Select Command:
It is used to view tuple/records from the tables. It is a read only command.

Usage:
> select columns from table_name where condition;

For example:
> select * from tablename;
> select columnname1, columnname2,…. From tablename;
> select * from tablename where columnname=value

2. UPDATE command:
The update command is used to change row values from a table. The SET key word takes the column in which values needs to be changed or updated.
Syntax:
update tablename set columnname = value where condition;
Example:
> update marks set total = marks 1 + marks 2 + marks 3 where class =”IIPUC”;

Question 37.
Give the measures for preventing virus.
Answer:
1. Install quality antivirus:
The users should install professional, business-grade antivirus software on their PCs. Pro-grade antivirus programs update more frequently throughout the, protect against a wider range of threats (such as rootkits), and enable additional protective features (such as custom scans).

2. Install real-time anti-spyware protection:
Use of professional (or fully paid and licensed) anti-spyware programs are required to prevent infections and fully remove those infections already present.

3. Keep anti-malware applications current:
Antivirus and anti-spyware programs require regular signature and database updates. Without these critical updates, anti-malware programs are unable to protect PCs from the latest threats. Computer users must keep their antivirus and anti-spyware applications up to date.

4. Perform daily scans:
Enabling complete, daily scans of a system’s on hard drive gives protection. These daily scans can be invaluable in detecting, isolating, and removing infections that initially escape security software’s attention.

5. Disable autorun:
Many viruses work by attaching themselves to a drive and automatically installing themselves. As a result, connecting any network drives, external hard disks, or even thumb drives to a system can result in the automatic propagation of such threats. The users can disable the Windows autorun feature to avoid.

6. Don’t click on email links or attachments:
Users should never click on email attachments without at least first scanning them for viruses using a business-class anti-malware application. As for clicking on links, users should access Web sites by opening a browser and manually navigating to the sites.

7. Use a hardware-based firewall:
The software-based firewall included with Windows isn’t sufficient to protect systems. For this reason, all PCs connected to the Internet should be secured behind a capable hardware-based firewall.

Students can Download 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018, Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Statistics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

Section – A

I. Answer ANY TEN of the following questions: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Define cohort.
Answer:
Cohort is a group of individuals who presumed to be born at the same time and who experience the same mortality conditions.

Question 2.
What is the value of Index Number for the base year?
Answer:
100.

Question 3.
Which weights are used in the construction of Laspeyre’s Price Index Number?
Answer:
Base year quantity : q₀

Question 4.
What is Time Series?
Answer:
Chronological arrangement of statistical data is called time series.

Question 5.
Under what condition Poisson distribution tends to Normal distribution?
Answer:
When λ is very large i.e., λ → ∞ poisson distribution tends to normal distribution.

Question 6.
Write the range of a Chi-square distribution.
Answer:
(0, ∞).

Question 7.
Which is the best estimator of population mean?
Answer:
Sample mean: x̄.

Question 8.
What is parameter space?
Answer:
Set of all admissible values of parameter is called parameter space.

Question 9.
In Statistical Hypothesis, if H₁ : μ < 50 kg then write H₀.
Answer:
H₀: μ = 50.

Question 10.
What is meant by Statistical Quality Control?
Answer:
It is the method of controlling the quality of the products using statistical technique.

Question 11.
What is feasible region (FR) in LPP?
Answer:
Feasible region is the area which satistifies by all constraints and non-negativity restrictions.

Question 12.
When is a Transportation Problem (TP) balanced?
Answer:
If Σa_i – availiability = Σb_j – Requirements, then T.P is called balanced.

Section – B

II. Answer ANY TEN of the following questions: (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 13.
Mention the methods of collecting Vital Statistics.
Answer:

• Registration method
• Census method.

Question 14.
Write any two limitations of Index Number.
Answer:

1. Many formulae are used and they give different answers for the Index.
2. As the customs and habits change from time to time, uses of commodities also vary.

Question 15.
For the following data compute Value Index Number: Σp₀q₀ = 300 and Σp₁q₁ = 375.
Answer:

Question 16.
From the following Time Series data, calculate trends values by the method of SemiAverages

Answers:
Let x and y be year and profit, ŷ – trend analyss values

Question 17.
Define Interpolation and Extrapolation.
Answer:
Interpolation is the technique of estimating the value dependent variable(Y) for any intermediate ) value of the independent variable(X).
Extrapolation is the technique of estimating the value of dependent variable (Y) any value of independent variable (X) which is outside the given series.

Question 18.
Write down the Bernoulli distribution with parameter p – 0.4.
Answer:
p(x)= p^x q^1-x : x = 0,1; q = 1 – p = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6
p(x)= 0.4^x 0.6^1-x x = 0,1
OR

Question 19.
State any two features of student /-distribution.
Answer:
n is the parameter, Mean = 0, Range = (-∞, ∞)

Question 20.
Define Point estimation and Interval estimation.
Answer:
‘While estimating the unknown parameter, if a specific value is proposed as an estimate, which is called Point estimation’.
‘While estimating the unknown parameter instead of a specific value, an interval is proposed, which is likely to contain the parameter is called Interval estimation’

Question 21.
If n₁ = 40, n₂ = 60 and P₁ = 0.02 and P₂ = 0.01 then find S.E. (p₁ – p₂).
Answer:
S.E. (p₁ – p₂) = \(\sqrt{\frac{p_{1} Q_{1}}{n_{1}}+\frac{p_{2} Q_{2}}{n_{2}}}\) ∴ Q₁ = 1 – P₁ = 1 – 0.002 = 0.98
Q₂ = 1 – P₂ = 1 – 0.01 = 0.99
S.E (p₁ – p₂) = \(\sqrt{\frac{0.02 \times 0.98}{40}+\frac{0.01 \times 0.99}{60}}\) = 0.0256

Question 22.
What do you mean by Process control and Product control?
Answer:
Controlling the quality of the product during the manufacturing process itself is called process control.
Controlling the quality of the finished products/manufactured products is called product control.

Question 23.
The objective function and two solutions of an LPP are Max Z = 5X + 4Y and A(12,10); B(14, 4). Find the optimal solution.
Answer:
Z_A = 5(12) + 4(10) = 100; Z_B = 5(14) + 4(4) = 86.
Z_A is maximum. The optimal solution is at A: x = 12, y = 10.

Question 24.
From the following Transportation Problem test whether solution is degenerate.

Answer:
Number of allocations = 4
m(rows) + n(columns) – 1 = 3 + 3 – 1 = 5
Here allocations ≠ m+n-1, the solution is degenerate.

Section – C

III. Answer any ten of the following questions: (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 25.
From the following data calculate Crude Birth Rate (CBR) and General Fertility Rate (GFR):

Answer:

= \(\frac{1270}{54,000+55,820}\) × 1000 = 11.564 Births/1000 population

= 35.7746 Births/1000 population of women of child bearing age.

Question 6.
Calculate Un-weighted geometric mean price index number for the following data.

Answer:

Unweighted G.M. P.I No: P₀₁ = AL \(\left[\frac{\sum \log \mathrm{P}}{n}\right]\)
= AL \(\left[\frac{11.5641}{5}\right]\) = AL [2.3128] = 205.4944

Question 27.
What is Consumer Price Index Number (CPI)? Write its four uses.
Answer:
Refer Page No 47. Q.No. 09 and 17

Question 28.
Compute the trend values by finding 3 yearly moving averages for the following data.

Answer:
Let X and Y be the year and sales

Question 29.
Interpolate and Extrapolate the population of India for the census years 1981 and 2021 from the following data.

Answer:
Let X and Y be the census year and population

Number of known values ofy.n = 5. The Binomial expansion (y- 1)⁵ = 0;
y₅ – 5y₄ + 10y₃ – 10y₂ + 5y₁ – y₀ = 0 ………. (1)
122 – 5(103)+ 10(84)- 10y₂ + 5(55) – 44 = 0
122 – 515 + 840 – 10y₂ + 275 – 44 = 0; – 10y₂ + 678 = 0
∴ y = 67.8 crores is the population in 1981.
From equation (1) suffixes of y are increased by 1.
We get: y₆ – 5y₅ + 10y₄ – 10y₃ + 5y₂ – y₁ = 0
y₆ – 610 + 1030 – 840 + 339-55 = 0
y₆ – 136 = 0 ∴ y₆ = 136 crores is the population in 2021.

Question 30.
The number of accidents in a year attributed to taxi drivers in a city follows Poisson distribution with mean 2.5. Out of 2000 taxi drivers, find approximately the number of drivers with
(a) One accident,
(b) More than 2 accidents in a year
Answer:
Let X be the number accidents follows poisson distribution with the parameter λ = 2.5, N = 2000

No. of drivers with one accident = 0.2053 x 2000 = 410.6 = 411

(ii) P(more than 2 accidents) = p(x > 2) = 1 – p(x ≤ 2)
= 1 – [p(x = 0) + p(x = 1) + p(x = 2)]

= 1- e^-25 [1+2.5 +3.125] = 1 – 0.0821 × 6.625
= 1 – 0.5439 = 0.4561
No. of drivers with more than 2 accidents = 0.4561 × 2000 = 912.2.

Question 31.
In a Hyper Geometric distribution, if a = 6, b = 9 and n = 4 then find
(a) P(X = 2)
(b) Standard Deviation
Answer:

Question 32.
A manufacturer claims that less than 2% of the products are defective. A retailer buys a hatch of 400 products from the manufacturer and find that 12 are defectives. Test at 1% level of significance that whether the manufacturer claims is justifiable.
Answer:
Given: P = 2% = 0.0 2, Q = 0.98, n = 400, x = 12 and so p = \(\frac{x}{n}=\frac{12}{400}\) =o.03, ∝ = 1%
H₀: 2% of the products are defective (P = 0.02)
H₁ : less than 2% of the products are defective (P < 0.02) {Lower tail test -K}

Under H₀ the test statistic is:-

At ∝ = 1% the lower tail crtical value -K = -2.33
Here Z_cal lies in (Acceptance Region)
∴ H₀ is accepted.
Conclusion: 2% of the products are defective (P = 0.02)

Question 33.
A random sample of size 16 has mean 53. The sum of the squared deviations taken from mean is 150. Can this sample be regarded as taken from the population having mean 56? (K = ±2.13)
Answer:
Given :n= 16, x̄ = 53, Σ(X— X̄)² =150, µ = 56
H₀: Population mean = µ = 56
H₁ : Population mean differs from µ ≠ 56 {Two tailed test ± K = ± 2.13)

Under H₀, the test statistic is


Critical Values ± K = ±2.13 given.
Here t_cal lies in R.R (Rejection Region)
∴ H₀ is rejected and H₁ is accepted
Conclusion: Population mean differs from µ ≠ 56

Question 34.
Ten samples of size 50 each were inspected and the number of defectives in each of them was as follows.

Obtain the control limits for np-chart.
Answer:
Given: No. of defectives: Σd= 15, Sample no. K = 10 and n- 50

Standard not known, the control limits for np-chart are:
C.L = np̄ = 50 × 0.03 = 1.5
L.C.L = np̄ – 3\(\sqrt{n \bar{p} \bar{q}}\) = 50 × 0.03 – 3\(\sqrt{50 \times 0.03 \times 0.97}\) = -2.118 = 0 [Takenas’0′]
U.C.L = np + 3\(\sqrt{n \bar{p} \bar{q}}\) = 50 × 0.03 + 3\(\sqrt{50 \times 0.03 \times 0.97}\) = 5.1187

Question 35.
Solve the following game by Maxi-min and Mini-max principle. Is game fair?

Answer:

By Maxi min-minimax principle –

• Maximin (∝) – minimum pay-off in each row is/are circled.
• Minimax(β)-Maximum pay-off in each column is/are boxed.
• Saddle point occurs at (1,3). Here pay-off ‘0’ is circled as well as boxed.
• Suggested optimal strategies for the players are: For player A-A₁, For players B-B₃
• Value of the game: V = 0, yes the game is fair.

Question 36.
The capital cost of a machine is Rs. 10,500. Its resale value is Rs. 500. The maintenance costs are as follows:

When should the machine be replaced?
Answer:
Given: P = 10,500, S_n= 500 and so (P – S_n) = (10,500 – 500) = 10,000 is fixed for all the years.

From the above table the annual average maintenance cost A(n) is minimum for n = 5, is the optimal period for replacement of the machine and A(5) = ₹ 3,660/-

Section-D

IV. Answer any two of the following questions: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 37.
(a) From the following data show that Town-A is healthier.

Answer:
Here Deaths per 1000 are A.S.D Rs of Town A and B as A,B; P_s be the standard population

Here SDR (A) < SDR (B , so town – A is healthier

(b) Compute the Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR) from the following data

Answer:

Here , W.S.F.R – Women Specific fertility rate

W.S.F.R.(15-19)= \(\frac { 20 }{ 1600 }\) × 1000 = 12.5 1600
Similarly W.S.F.Rs can be calculated for the other age groups.

i = age width = 5; ΣW.S.F.R = 225
G.R.R = 5 × 225 = 1125 Female births/1000 Women population.

Question 38.
Compute Fisher’s Price Index Number. Show that Fisher’s Index Number satisfies TRT and FRT.

Answer:


T.R.T: p₀₁ × p_1o = 1 Except 100

Satisfies T.R.T

Question 39.
Fit a parabolic trend of the form Y = a + bX + cX² for the following Time Series.

Answer:
Let x and y be the year and production

From the normal equation na + bΣx + cΣx² = Σy; 5a + b.0 + c. 10 = 115
5a + 10c = 115 … (1) From: aΣx + bΣx² + cΣx³ = Σxy
a.0 + b. 10 + c.0 = -25; b = -2.5 and From: aΣx² + bΣx³ + cΣx⁴ = Σx²y ;
a. 10 + b.0 + c.34 = 237; 10a + 34c = 237 … (2)
from(l) and (2) 5a + 10c=115 × 2

0 – 14c = -7; ∴ c = 0.5; Put c = 0.5 in (1)
5a + 10(0.5)= 115; a = 22
The fitted parabolic trend equation is:-
y = a + bx + cx²; y =22 – 2.5x + 0.5x²

Question 40.
Fit a Binomial distribution for the following data and test at 5% level of significance that Binomial distribution is a good fit.

Answer:
Let x be the number of defective items is a Binomial variate with the parameter n = 5, and P is obtained as below:
Let f be the number of samples, then from the frequency distribution:


5p = \(\frac { 600 }{ 200 }\) , p = \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 }\) = 0.6, q=0.4
200 5
Then the p.m.f is:-
p(x) = ⁿC_xp^x q^n-x; x = 0,1,2 ….. n
p(x) = ⁵C_x 0.6^x 0.45^{5 – x}; x = 0,1,2, 5
Theoretical frequency : Tx = p(x) N
T₀ = ⁵C₀ 0.6⁰ 0.4^5-0 × 200 = 2.048
Using recurrence relation :


The fitted observed and theoretical frequency distribution (Approx) is:

CHI-SQUARE TEST:

H₀: Binomial distribution is good fit (0_i = E_i)
H₁ Binomial distribution is not good fit (0_i ≠ E_i) {upper tail text K₂}
Under H₀, the χ²-test statistic is:-

since P is estimated/calculated from the data and so (n – 1 – 1) = (n-2) d.f

χ²_cal =0.1206
At ∝ = 5% for (n- 2) = 5-2 = 3 d.f the upper tail critical value K₂= 7.81
Here χ²_cal lies in AR (Acceptance region).
Therefore H₀ is accepted.
Conclusion: B.D is a good fit.

Section-E

V. Answer any two of the following questions: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 41.
X is a normal variate with parameters mean (μ) = 50 and variance (σ²) = 16. Find the probability that
Answer:
Given: μ = 50, Variance = σ² = 16; σ = 4


= Area from 1.5 to (-∞)
= 1 – 0.0668 = 0.9332

(ii) P(52 < X < 55) = P\(\left(\frac{52-50}{4}<Z<\frac{55-50}{4}\right)\)
= p(0.5 < Z < 1.25)
= Area from 0.5 to ∞ -Area from 1.25 to ∞
= 0.3085 – 0.1056 = 0.2029

Question 42.
From the following data regarding average weight of boys and girls. Test whether the mean weight of boys are greater than mean weight of girls.

Answer:
Let n₁ = 64, n₂ = 48, x̄₁, = 63, x̄₂ = 60, S₁² -64, S₂² = 144 .
H₀: Mean weight of boys and girls are same (µ₁ = µ₂)
H₁ : Mean weight of boys is more than girls (µ₁ > µ₂) {upper tail test ± K}
Under H₀ the test statistic is :


At ∝ = 5% the upper tail critical value K = 1.65
Here Z_cal lies in A.R (Acceptance region).
∴ H₀ is Accepted.
Conclusion: Mean weight of boys and girls are same.

Question 43.
To test the effectiveness of vaccination against Tubeculosis (TB) and following data was obtained.

Test at 1% level of significance whether vaccination and attack of TB are independent.
Answer:
H₀: Vaccination and attack of T.B are independent.
H₁ : Vaccination and attack of T.B are dependent
The given data can be written under 2 × 2 contigency table as below:-
The 2 × 2 contingency table is:

From the contingency table the χ² – test statistic is –

At ∝ = 1% for l.d.f. the uppertail critical value K₂  = 6.65
Here χ²_cal lies in R.R (rejection region)
∴ H₀ is rejected and H₁ is accepted.
Conclusion: Vaccination and attack of T.B. are independent.

Question 44.
The annual demand for an item is 3000 units. Capital cost is Rs. 7 per unit. Inventory carrying cost is 20% of capital cost per annum. If setup cost is Rs. 150 then find
(a) Economic Order Quanity and
(b) Optimum number of orders.
Answer:
Given: R = 3000/year, P = 7, I = 20% per year
C₁ = PI = 7 × 20% = 1.4/year, C₃ = 150
Shortages not allowed use E.O.Q model I