2nd PUC Sociology Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

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Karnataka 2nd PUC Sociology Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

Time: 3 Hrs 15 Min
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in a sentence each. (10 × 1=10)

Question 1.
Name one racial group of India.
Answer:
Negritos.

Question 2.
What is formal demography?
Answer:
Formal demography is primarily concerned with the measurement and analysis of the components of population change. Its focus is on quantitative analysis for which it has a highly developed mathematical methodology suitable for forecasting population growth and changes in the composition of population.

Question 3.
What is Social capital?
Answer:
Social capital is in the form of networks of contacts and social associations. Someone with influential relatives and friends (social capital) may through access to good advice, recommendations or information manage to get a well-paid job.

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Question 4.
Who advocated the policy of Tribal Panchasheela?
Answer:
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 5.
Who is the author of ‘Remembered Village’?
Answer:
M.N Srinivas.

Question 6.
Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?
Answer:
Art. 17.

Question 7.
Who called joint family as a ‘Greater Home’?
Answer:
O’Malley.

Question 8.
Mention any one problem of village community.
Answer:
Poverty.

Question 9.
Mention the author of the book ‘The Wealth of Nations’.
Answer:
Adam Smith.

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Question 10.
Who has conducted a study on Dhorai Tribal Market?
Answer:
Alfred Gell.

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in 2-3 sentences each. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
What is Demographic Dividend?
Answer:
Demographic dividend refers to demographic or population advantage which is obtained due to numerical domination of the young people in the population. It is an advantage due to less dependency ratio.

Question 12.
Mention any two changes in caste system.
Answer:
Occupational and food restrictions are relaxed

Question 13.
Mention the two tribal zones in India.
Answer:

  1. North and North Eastern Tribal zone and
  2. Central tribal zone.

Question 14.
Mention any two objectives of ‘Towards Equality Report – 1974’.
Answer:
Objectives of the Towards Equality Report -1974 are the following:
1. To examine the Constitutional, legal, and administrative provisions that have a bearing on the social status of women, their education and employment.

2. To assess the impact of these provisions during the last two decades on the status of women in the country, particularly in the rural sector and to suggest more effective programs.

Question 15.
What is self help group?
Answer:
A Self-help Group comprises a group of micro entrepreneurs having homogenous social and economic backgrounds, all voluntarily coming together to save regularly small sums of money, mutually agreeing to contribute to a common fund and to meet their emergency needs from that fund on the basis of mutual help”.

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Question 16.
What do you mean by Social Exclusion?
Answer:
Social exclusion refers to ways in which individuals may become cut off from full involvement in the wider society.

Question 17.
Mention any two objectives of Stree shakhti.
Answer:
1. To strengthen the process of economic development of rural women and create a conducive environment for social change.

2. To form self help groups based on thrift and credit principles which builds self reliance and enable women to have greater access and control over resources.

Question 18.
Mention the types of Joint Family.
Answer:
Matriarchal joint family and patriarchal joint family.

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Question 19.
Mention any two objectives of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme.
Answer:
It- guarantees generating productive assets, protecting the environment, empowering rural women, reducing rural-urban migration and fostering social equity. Under this programme, all permissible works like water conservation, water harvesting, drought proofing, afforestation, irrigation works, restoration of traditional water bodies, land development, flood control, rural connectivity and works notified by the government are included.

Question 20.
What is Mass Media?
Answer:
Mass Media is a means of communication that can reach a large number of people in a short time. The mass media includes a wide variety of forms like Newspapers, Magazines, Radio, Television and Social Networking sites.

Question 21.
Mention any two women’s organizations in India.
Answer:
Stree Mukthi Sanghatana, Mumbai and Vimochana, Bengaluru.

Question 22.
Mention New components of social movement.
Answer:
In the context of the emergence of new social movements, the issues of values, culture, subjectivity, idealism, morality, identity, empowerment, etc., have got new coinage. Thus Bertaux adds the view that ‘subjectivity’ and ‘idealism’ are essential elements of social movement.

These are closely attached to the process of collective mobilization and new identity formation. Change in the form of these components brings tremendous change in the character of the social movements, and accordingly p social movements may also be categorized.

III. Answer any four of the following questions in 15 sentences, each. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 23.
Explain the racial groups classified by Dr B.S. Guha.
Answer:
B.S.Guha has identified six major racial elements in the population of India:

  • Negrito
  • Proto-Australoid
  • Mongoloid
  • Mediterranean
  • Western Brachycephals and
  • Nordic

In the south, the Kadars, the Irulas, and the Paniyans, and in the Andaman Islands the Onges, Jarwas and the great Andamanese have definite Negrito characteristics. Some traits of this group are found among the Angami Nagas and the Bagadis of the Rajmahal hills. On the western coast there are some groups with pronounced Negrito traits, but they perhaps represent later arrivals, who came to India with the Arab traders.

The Proto-Australoid group is numerically more significant; most of the tribes of middle India belong to it. These were the people described by the Indo-Aryans as Anas, Dasa, Dasyu, and Nishad – all derogatory terms. The Mongoloid group is sub-divided into two branches – Paleo-Mongoloid and Tibeto-Mongoloid.

Tribal groups in the Himalayan region and those in the north-east are of Mongoloid stock. Some Mongoloid features are seen in the non-tribal population of the eastern States – Assam, West Bengal, Manipur, and Tripura.

The Western Brachycephals (sub-divided into the Alpinoid, Dinaric, and Armenoid groups), Alpinoid and Dinaric characteristics are seen in some groups of northern and western India; the Parsis belong to the Armenoid section. The Mediterraneans are associated with Dravidian languages and cultures.

The Nordics were the last major ethnic element to arrive in India and make a profound impact on its culture and society. But before they came a unique civilization had slowly developed in India. It is known as the Indus Valiev Civilization.

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Question 24.
Explain the nature of dominant caste.
Answer:
M.N. Srinivas introduces the concept of “Dominant Castes” which is of great help in understanding inter-caste relations and conflicts in Indian society. According to him “A caste is dominant when it preponderates numerically over the other castes, when it also wields preponderant economic and political power, and when it enjoys a high ritual status in local caste hierarchy”.

1. Nature of Dominant Castes:
a. Determinants of Dominance:
A dominant caste should own a sizeable amount of the land and it should enjoy greater economic and political power. In addition to this, a number of educated persons being found in the caste and the nature of high occupation people pursue in the caste, add to the dominant caste. When a caste enjoys all the elements of dominance, i .e. numerical strength, economic and political power, high ritual status, it is said to be dominant in a decisive way.

b. Distribution of Dominance:
Different elements of dominance are distributed differently among different castes in a village. For example, a caste, which is numerically high, may be poor and lacking in political power, while a ritually high status caste may be rich economically and lacking strength in numbers. It can also be said that when a caste enjoys one form of dominance, it is frequently able to acquire other form of dominance.

c. Dominance is not purely a local phenomenon:
As M.N. Srinivas says, in Rural India dominance is purely a local matter. A caste group, which has only a family or two in a particular village, may enjoy decisive dominance in the wider region. Because the caste members of these families maintain a network of ties with the dominant relatives found in the wider region.

d. New factors affecting Dominance of Caste:
According to M.N. Srinivas, western education, jobs in the administration and urban sources of income are also significant in contributing to the prestige and power of particular caste groups in the village.

e. Dominant Caste at the State Levels:
Lingayats and Vokkaligas in Karnataka, Reddy s and Kammas in Andhra Pradesh, Nairs and Ezhavas in Kerala, Gounder, Padayachi and Mudaliars in Tamil Nadu, Marathas, Brahmins and Mahars in Maharashtra, Rajputs, Jats, Takurs, Gujars, Baniyas, Bhoomihars etc., in the N ith Indian states form the dominant castes in those regions.

Question 25.
List out the strategies for women empowerment.
Answer:
The strategies for empowerment of women can be classified as legal, social and economic.
1. Legal Strategies:
After Independence, several laws were drafted with the aim to treat women on par with men. Some of the legislation are as follows:

  1. Hindu Marriage Act of 1955
  2. Hindu Succession Act of 1956.
  3. Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act of 1956.
  4. Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act of 1984
  5. Domestic Violence Act 2005 etc.

2. Social Strategies:
Social strategies are as follows:

  • Establishment of Women Welfare Services.
  • Legal literacy of women through mass media.
  • Help of neighbours to be sought in the cases of abused women.
  • Conducting public education and awareness programmes in order to help women.
  • Males are also to be educated to realize their new roles in the changed times and the necessity of their own contribution to family life.

3. Economic Strategies:
Economic strategies are as follows:

  • Educational and vocational training for women which will enable them to seek jobs and become economically dependent.
  • Technological aids that will be labour saving devices and will lighten women’s burden, of heavy daily tasks.
  • Training for women in both formal and non-formal education.
  • Credit facilities to start small-scale industries/self-employment.
  • Programmes of placing women in CM important positions at various levels.

Question 26.
Explain the causes of changes in joint family.
Answer:
1. Industrialization:
With the establishment of factories in many places of the country, agriculture was pushed to the background and with it changed those social institutions which were its products. The industrial centers pulled persons out of the traditional peasant society comprising of joint families. his strike at the roots of joint families and the process of change started. Furthermore, the process of change in joint family gained momentum from the rapid development of transport and communication.

2. Urbanization:
The percentage of workers dependent on agriculture has come down and more and more people migrate to cities and towns in search of jobs. The urban centers also provide people with various amenities of life concerning transport and communication, sanitation and health, education and employment, etc., People are tempted by the lure of urban facilities and there is a rural to urban type of migration. Gradually joint family hold is losing its control and nuclear families in cities have become the norm.

3. Rapid Growth of Population:
Rapid growth of population has brought corresponding increase of pressure on land. Agriculture being the prime occupation of the villagers, the rural youth face the problem of unemployment. People have begun to move to cities and industrial centers in search of jobs. Thus they had to leave the traditional joint families which has resulted in the breakdown of jointness.

4. Education:
Education changes the attitude of people. It enables people to get into various better paying jobs or professions. Modern education leads to occupational mobility. It has not only brought changes in the attitudes, beliefs, values, and ideologies of the people but has also created the individualistic feelings. The increasing education not only brings changes in the philosophy of life of men and women but also provides new avenues of employment leading to economic independence.

5. Changing Status of Women:
Social reform movements and awareness among the women of their own position, all these have affected the patriarchal authority of the joint family system. The spread of modern education has enlightened women. Education has made them conscious of their rights and status in society. It has brought about drastic changes in the practices and ideals of family.

They are no longer prepared to remain within the four walls of the household in the traditional subordinate position. Social reformers like Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Keshab Chandra Sen, Jyothiba Phule, Maharshi Karve, Pandit Ramabai and many others have worked and achieved considerable success to the cause of women. All these factors affected the patriarchal authority of the joint family. As a sequel to that, the process of disintegration has set in the joint family system.

6. Social Legislations:
Legislation enacted during the British rule proved harmful for joint family. Gains of Learning Act of 1930, the Rights of Women to share in the property of the joint family by the Hindu Law of Inheritance Act of 1929, and the Hindu women’s Right to Property Act of 1937. SatiPrevention Act 1782, Hindu Widow Remarriage Act 1856, Child Marriage Restraint Act 1902 have brought changes in family relations. After independence, the process has continued and fundamental changes in the law of inheritance have been brought about by the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.

The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, and the Civil Marriage Act, 1957 gave the freedom to adult males and females to many according to their choice and helped the women to seek divorce on certain grounds. All these. legislations gave enough facility to the members to divide the joint family immediately after the death of the father. The necessity of jointness has also weakened due to various governmental provisions relating to old age pension, widow pension etc.

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Question 27.
Explain the importance of village studies.
Answer:
Importance of village studies are summarized
below.
1. Field Work is an Antidote to Book View:
According to M.N. Srinivas, studies of Indian village communities would be of great significance for planners and administrators. Information provided by a Sociologist is based on his intensive fieldwork experience and no account of book knowledge can ever be a substitute for this.

M.N.Srinivas undertook a study on Rampura village near Mysore, with a view to high lighting that the agricultural practices of the Indian peasant can only be understood in the context of his Technology, level of knowledge, legal and social institutions, religion and way of life. He has recorded his experience in Rampura village in his work ‘Remembered Village’.

2. Calculated opposition to change:
Over the last hundred years or more, the peasant has been represented as extremely conservative, pigheaded, ignorant and superstitious. But the Sociological studies do not subscribe to this view. McKim Marriot’s study of Kishan Garhi village in Uttar Pradesh reveals that the peasants had accepted new crops, techniques of cultivation, etc., and had opposed only a few changes.

Thus, the headman of Rampura village wanted bull-dozers and electricity, but not a school. Electricity and bull-dozer would get him name and fame, his authority over others becomes stronger, etc. But, a school would make labour scarcer, educated poor people may lose respect they have for the rich and so on.

There are key persons in each village thus, who exploit every change to their benefit. If he then opposes the tool or process, it is not because of stupidity but because of his intelligence. Only a field-study of the village community could shed light on aspects which otherwise go unnoticed.

3. Literary Bias:
Literature on caste states that caste is immobile. This is not a fact as through Sanskritization, castes have tried to move up on the local hierarchy. This is also true of the conditions of women. Condition of women prevalent among the upper castes were generalized to include all Hindus. But, the truth is that the women of lower castes are better placed in comparison to women of upper castes.

Observation of Hindu social life has been vitiated by book view and the upper-caste view. Thus, the only solution for this literary bias lies in doing field research. Field-studies suggest something different, from what is found in religious texts. It is clear that the book-view and upper-caste view’ may be biased and need not be a fact always. Only field research can help us to overcome literary bias and accept facts about village communities.

4. Recording for later evaluation:
Prof. Yogesh Atal states that “Roots of the present are always to be found in the past and an analysis of the present would guide the future. Hence, a comparison and evaluation of the impact of planned change at a later date necessarily demands that the present be recorded”.

5. Development of Analytical Categories: The study of Indian village community has helped in developing certain analytical categories. Field studies conducted in different parts of the country point to the existence of certain processes of change which have been labeled either locally or on an all India basis.

For instance, analytical models like Sanskritization and Westernisation (M.N. Srinivas), Kulinisation (N. Prasad), De-Sanskritization (Majumdar), Universalisation and Parochialisation (McKim Marriot), Great tradition and little tradition (Robert Redfield), etc., have helped in the analysis of transformation that the village communities are undergoing. A. R. Desai’s Rural Sociology in India is an important work in this regard.

6. Village Studies are important for Social Reformation:
Prof. Ramakrishna Mukher- jee’s analysis makes it clear that the village has become the centre of all discussions and debates. Plan, Budget, Administrative strategy, etc., all have become rural area oriented. Thus, planners, economists, administrators, sociologists, reformers, and others concentrate on village and are busy collecting data on them. Under the impact of planned and non-directed changes, villages are undergoing transformation. Thus, there is the need for the study of village communities in India.

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Question 28.
Write a short note on Other Backward class (OBCs).
Answer:
Other Backward castes/classes have been suffering from a number of problems since a long time. The problems, which are common to all OBCs are as follows
1. Other Backward Castes (Classes) constitute an Indefinite, Abstract and Unorganized Category:
First Backward Class Commission known as Kalalker Commission was appointed to prepare a list of communities. Kalalker’s report had listed 2399 castes as backward castes which the then Government had rejected. The Mandal Commission (Second Backward Class Commission) listed 3743 castes and communities as Backward classes. Most of the OBC communities are strangers to one another.

They do not have common awareness regarding their own problems. Conflicts do arise among themselves regarding the issue of ‘Backwardness’. No single All-India level organization has been established. These groups are scattered all over India and exhibit a lot of diversities and it is difficult to unite them.

2. Economic Backwardness:
Most of the OBCs are also economically backward like SCs and STs. A large number of poor, unemployed, under-employed are found in this category. Only a few people are self employed, but majority of them are working for very low wages. Sizable numbers are economically exploited.

3. Educational and Social Backwardness: Illiterates are found in a large number m this category. Higher education among OBCs is at a very low level. Even though OBCs are not directly the victims of untouchability, but lot of social distance prevails between these and the so called forward castes.

4. Politically unorganized:
OBCs are comparatively unorganized Because OBCs do not comprise a single caste. Most of these castes are spread across the nation. No single backward caste is numerically dominant in any one province. Hence they are not able to work as powerful ‘Pressure Groups’ at all India level.

IV. Answer any four of the following questions in 15 sentences each. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 29.
Explain briefly the Demographic profile of Karnataka.
Answer:
According to the 2001 census, Karnataka with an area of 1,91,791 sq. km. has a population of 52,850,562 with 26,898,918 males and 25,951,644 females. According to the 2011 Census, the population of Karnataka has increased to 6,10,95,297 (Males-3,09,66,657; Females- 3,01,28,640) with a sex ratio of 973 females for every 1000 males. Karnataka retains the ninth rank as in 2001, in population among the States and accounts for 5.05 percent of the country’s population.

1. Rural – Urban population in Karnataka:
Among the districts within the State, f Bengaluru District is the most populated District with 96,21,551 persons and accounts for 15.75 percent of the State’s total population while Kodagu District with a population share of 0.91 percent is the least populated District.

In terms of percentage, 61.33 percent are Rural residents and 38.67 percent are Urban residents. In terms of urbanization, the State has witnessed an increase of 4.68 percent in the proportion of Urban population in the last decade. Among the districts, Bengaluru is the most urbanized District followed by Dharwad District, Dakshina Kannada District and Mysuru District. The least urbanized District in the State is Kodagu preceded by Koppal District.

Among the districts, Bengaluru District, has witnessed the highest decennial growth rate of 47.18 percent followed by Yadgir, the newly created District, with 22.81 percent. Chikkamagaluru District, a predominantly plantation area in the Malnad region, is the only District in the State which has registered a negative growth rate of -0.26 percent. Kodagu District another plantation area in the Malnad region with a growth rate of 1.09 percent ranks 29 Just above Chikkamagaluru District.

2. Sex Ratio in Karnataka:
The Sex Ratio in Karnataka has increased from 965 in 2001 to 973 in 2011. The Sex Ratio for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe population is identical at 990 and is significantly higher than that, of the State. Among the districts, the highest overall Sex Ratio of 1094 is recorded in Udupi District and the lowest of 916 is recorded in Bangalore District. Female population is higher than male population in Chikmagalur, Kodagu (1019), Hassan, (1012) Dakshina Kannada (1020) and Udupi (1094). Inspite of favourable Sex Ratio, it has declined in Udupi (-36) and Dakshina Kannada (2).

3. Population Density in Karnataka:
According to 2001 census, Bengaluru Urban District has registered the highest density of 2,985 persons per sq. km and the lowest density per sq.km, was recorded in Kodagu (134) and Uttara Kannada (132) districts. The density of population of the state was 319 in 2011 as against 276 in 2001. The density of population of Bengaluru metropolitan city was 4,378 in 2011 as against to 2985 in 2001. Uttara Kannada (140) and Kodagu (135) have the lowest density of population in the State.

4. Scheduled caste population in Karnataka:
The Scheduled Caste population in the State has increased from 85,63,930 in 2001 to 1,04,74,992, in 2011, registering a decennial growth rate of22.32 percent. The Scheduled Caste population constitutes 17.15 percent of the total population of the State. The highest proportion of Scheduled Caste population is returned from Kolar District with 30.32 percent, followed by Chamarajanagar District with 25.42 percent. The least proportion of Scheduled Caste population is recorded in the coastal district of Udupi (6.43 percent) District.

5. Scheduled Tribe population in Karnataka:
The Scheduled Tribe population in the state has increased from 34,63,986 in 2001 Census to 42,48,987 in 2011, registering a decennial growth rate of 22.66 percent. The proportion of the Scheduled Tribe population to total population of the State is 6.95 percent. The highest proportion of Scheduled Tribe population is in Raichur District (19.03 percent) and the least proportion is returned from Mandya District (1.24 percent).

6. Literacy rate in Karnataka:
Literacy rate of the State has increased from 66.64 percent in 2001 to 75.36 percent 2011. While the male literacy has increased from 76.10 percent to 82.47 percent, the female literacy rate has increased from 56.87 percent to 68.08 percent.

Among the districts, Dakshina Kannada t District with overall Literacy rate of 88.57 percent retains its top position, closely followed by Bengaluru District (87.67 percent) and Udupi District (86.24 percent). The lowest overall Literacy rate of 51.83 percent is recorded in the newly created Yadgir District, preceded by Raichur District which has recorded 59.56 percent.

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Question 30.
Explain the problems of Indian tribes.
Answer:
The problems of Tribals are as follows:
1. Geographical Isolation:
Tribals are the people who have been living in remote areas and hill tracks, without any access to socio¬economic inputs. For centuries, tribals were isolated from the rest of the community, which has also given them wide cultural variations. Their geographical isolation from the mainstream deprived them the chances for progress.

2. Cultural Problems:
At present due to contact with outsiders, the tribal culture is undergoing a change. It has led to the degeneration of Tribal life and Tribal arts such as their dance, music and different types of crafts. In several tribal areas, influence of other religions have affected their culture. This is also responsible for alienating them from their culture. The tribal groups have got divided into several sects on the basis of religion. This has shattered their collective life.

3. Social Problems:
Due to the influence of outsiders, the tribals are facing the problem of dowry, child marriage, infanticide, and un touchability. The contact with outsiders has created several social and health related problems.

4. Economic Problems:
Tribal people are economically backward. The major economic problems of tribals are as follows:

  • Alienation of Tribal Land to the Non- Tribals
  • Problem of indebtedness
  • Exploitation in Forestry Operations
  • Primitive methods of Cultivation

5. Educational Problems:
According to the 2011 census, the literacy among the scheduled Tribes was 29.6 percent. Main causes of slow progress in literacy among the scheduled Tribes are poverty of the parents, content of education, inadequate educational institutions and supporting services, absenteeism, medium of instruction and educational policy, etc.

6. Exploitation of tribals by the Moneylenders:
He Tribals continue to be the victims of exploitation by the moneylenders. Indebtedness among the Tribals may be attributed to the following reasons:
Poverty loopholes in the existing money lending laws, lack of awareness about sources of institutional finances and existing legal protection, inability to follow the complicated procedures to obtain loan and consumer credit from institutional sources are the major hindrances. Indifferent attitude of government and bank officials, private money lenders willingness to advance money to the Tribals without any security paves way for later exploitation.

Absence of alternative credit facility has compelled the tribals to compromise their fate with moneylenders and accept indebtedness as almost an inescapable aspect of their existence. Lack of employment opportunities add to their woes.

6. Health Problems:
The main cause of their sickness is the lack of clean drinking water, nutritive food, and prevalence of communicable diseases.

Question31.
Explain I.P. Desai’s views on Indian family.
Answer:
I.P. Desai studied a small port town in Gujarat called ‘Mahuva’ in the early sixties. Based on the data collected. i.P. Desai examined the question of jointness in terms of religion, occupation, relations, property, education, urbanisation, kinship obligations, and household composition. Besides the structural aspect of family, I.P. Desai examined carefully the types of jointness based on degree, intensity and orientation with regard to functions and obligations which people perform for each other, though living separately and at different far off places.
Desai finds the following five types of degrees of jointness:

  1. Households with zero degree of jointness.
  2. Households of low degree of jointness. (Joint by way of the fulfillment of mutual obligations.)
  3. Households with high degree of jointness (Jointness by way of common ownership of property.)
  4. Households with higher degree of jointness (Marginallyjoint families.)
  5. Households of highest degree of jointness. (Traditional joint families.)

Thus according to I.P. Desai, the structural breakdown is only apparent but not real. Today’s joint family may give rise to several nuclear families and each nuclear family may become a small joint family and after two decades when grand children are born, the depth of generations becomes three. Indian family is altering between nuclearness and jointness in a cyclical fashion.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 32.
Describe the social problems of India’s villages.
Answer:
a. Illiteracy:
Illiteracy is a major social problem in Indian villages. Lack of educational institutions and poor quality education coupled with high rate of dropout rate has aggravated the situation. Majority of the educational institutions are suffering from educational infrastructures like adequate buildings, libraries, and reading rooms, sports grounds, etc. There is a great disparity among rural and urban regions of Indian society regarding educational opportunities. Further, basic facilities like drinking water, sanitation facilities, transport and communication facilities are not up to the mark.

b. Rural Poverty:
On the basis of an empirical study in seven districts in Rajasthan in 1996 sponsored by the World Bank it has identified the following causes of poverty in rural areas:

  1. Inadequate and ineffective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
  2. Low percentage of population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits.
  3. Non-availability of irrigational facilities and erratic rainfall.
  4. Dependence on traditional methods of cultivation and inadequate exposure to modern skills.
  5. Non-availability of electricity for agriculture.
  6. Poor quality of livestock.
  7. Imperfect and exploited credit market, communication facilities and markets.
  8. Low level of education.
  9. Absence of dynamic community leadership.
  10. Failure to seek women’s cooperation in developmental activities and associating them with planned programmes.
  11.  Inter-caste conflicts and rivalries.
  12. Spending a large percentage of annual earnings on social ceremonies like festivals, marriages, death feast, etc., and people unwilling to discard expensive customs.

c. Health Problems:
About 74% of the doctors are in urban areas while 70% of the country’s population live in villages. This shows the extent to which skilled medical care is lacking in the rural areas. Fertility and Birth rate, as well as death rates, are very high in the villages.

Infant mortality’ and maternal mortality are also high. The problems of Malnutrition, the sporadic outbreak of epidemic diseases like Cholera, Malaria, Plague, Dengue and other communicable diseases are quite common. The housings are very much unsanitary’ while the addiction to alcohol & nicotine drugs makes the state of health condition even worse.

Pesticides like Endosulfan also have caused much health hazards in rural areas. There are more than 5000 people affected by endosulfan in Uttara Kannada District alone. At the same time soil has been degraded rendering it infertile due to excessive use of chemicals and-fertilisers. It affects J23 not only the yield but also health of the
agriculturists.

Question 33.
Describe the emergence of new markets during the colonial period.
Answer:
The advent of Colonialism in India produced major upheavals in the economy, causing disruptions in production, trade and agriculture. A well-known example is the demise of the handloom industry due to the flooding of the market with cheap manufactured textiles from England. In the colonial era, India began to be more fully linked to the world capitalist economy.

Before being colonised by the British, India was a major supplier of manufactured goods to the world market. After colonisation, India became a source of raw materials and agricultural products and a consumer of manufactured goods, both largely for the benefit of industrialising England. At the same time, new groups (especially the Europeans) entered into trade and business, sometimes in alliance with existing merchant communities and in some cases by forcing them out.

But rather than completely overturning existing economic institutions, the expansion of the market economy in India provided new opportunities to some merchant communities, which were able to improve their position by reorienting themselves to changing economic circumstances. In some cases, new communities emerged to take advantage of the economic opportunities provided by colonialism and continued to hold economic power even after Independence.

A good example of this process is provided by the Marwaris, probably the most widespread and best- known business community in India. Represented by leading industrial families such as the Birlas, Ambanis,Mittals etc., the Marwaris became a successful business community only during the colonial period, when they took advantage of new opportunities in colonial cities such as Calcutta, Bombay and settled throughout the country to carry outtrade and money lending.

Like theNakarattars, the success of the Marwaris rested on their extensive social networks, which created the relations of trust necessary to operate their banking system. Many Marwari families accumulated enough wealth to become moneylenders, and by acting as bankers also helped the commercial expansion of the British in India.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 34.
Explain the five major factors contributing to globalization.
Answer:
Globalization refers to the growing interdependence of societies across the world, with the spread of the same culture and economic interests across the globe. For example, media and consumer products are often produced for a world market, by the same firms running business all over the world.

Factors Contributing to Globalization:
Anthony Giddens has explained the following factors as contributing to Globalization
1. The Rise of Information and Communications Technology:
The explosion in global communications has been facilitated by a number of important advances in technology and the world’s telecommunication infrastructure. The spread of communication satellites has also been significant in expanding international communications. Today a network of more than 200 satellites is in space to facilitate the transfer of information around the globe.

The use of Satellites, Internet, Telephones, Computer Networking, known as Information and Communication Technologies – ICT – have revolutionised the way the world communicates. You could be chatting online, through the internet, with your friend or family, who is thousands of miles away, and feel that you share your everyday travails much more than a person who is closer home like your neighbor. You could be working in India for a company that is located in the United States of America through telecommunication technologies.

2. Information Flows:
It has also facilitated the flow of information about people and events in distant places. Every day, the global media brings news, images and information into homes, linking them directly and continuously to the outside world.

Some of the most gripping events of the past three decades – such as the fall of the Berlin Wall,the violent crackdown on democratic protesters in China’s Tiananmen Square and the Terrorist attacks on Mumbai on 11
September 2001, Spring movement in Arabian countries, have unfolded through the media before global audience.

Such events, along with thousands of information, have resulted in a reorientation in people’s thinking from the level of the nation-state to the global stage. In the case of natural disasters, such interventions take the form of humanitarian relief and technical assistance. In recent years, earthquakes in Armenia and Turkey, floods in Mozambique and Bangladesh, famine in Africa and hurricanes in Central America have been rallying points for global assistance.

3. Knowledge Society:
The emergence of the knowledge society has been linked to the development of a broad base of consumers who are technologically literate and eagerly integrate new advances in computing, entertainment and Telecommuni-cations into their everyday lives. The very operation of the global economy reflects the changes that have occurred in the information age. Many aspects of the economy now work through networks that cross national boundaries, rather than stopping at them.

4. Transnational Corporations:
In globalization, the role of trans-national corporations is particularly important. Transnational corporations are companies that produce goods or market services in more than one country. For example Coca-Cola., Pepsi, Johnson and Johnson, Ford, General Motors, Colgate-Palmolive, Indian corporations like Reliance, TATAs, Birla Groups, Infosys, Mahindras, TVS group, Wipro, etc. Even when trans-national corporations have a clear national base, they are oriented towards global markets and global profits. Transnational corporations are at the heart of economic globalization.

5.The Electronic Economy:
Globalization is also being driven forward by the integration of the world economy. In contrast to previous eras, the global economy is no longer primarily agricultural or industrial in its basis. Rather, it is increasingly dominated by activity that is weightless and intangible. This U weightless economy is one in which products have their base in information, as is the case with computer software, media and; entertainment products and Internet-based services.

The ‘Electronic Economy’ is another factor ‘that underpins economic globalization. Banks, corporations, fund managers and individual investors are able to shift funds internationally with the click of a mouse. As the global economy becomes increasingly integrated, a financial collapse in one part of the world can have an enormous effect on distant economies.

6. Political changes:
Another driving force behind contemporary globalization is related to political change. These are;

1. The collapse of Soviet-style communism in 1991. The collapse of communism has hastened processes of globalization but should also be seen as a result of globalization itself.

2. The important political factor leading to intensifying globalization is the Growth of International and Regional Mechanisms of Government namely The United Nations and the European Union. SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation) and BRICS (Brazil; Russia, India, China, and South Africa) are; the two most prominent examples of international organizations that bring together nation-states into a common political forum.

Finally, globalization is being driven by International Governmental Organizations (IGOs) and International Nongovernmental Organizations (INGOs). An IGO is a body that is established by Participating governments and given responsibility for regulating or overseeing a particular domain of activity that is transnational in scope. The first such body, The International Telegraph Union, was founded in 1865. Since that time, a great number of similar bodies have been created.

In 1909, there were only 37 IGOs in existence to regulate transnational affairs; by 1996, there were 260. Some of the best-known INGOs – such as Greenpeace, Medicines Sans Frontiers (Doctors Without Borders), the Red Cross and Amnesty International-are involved in environmental protection and humanitarian efforts. But the activities of thousands of lesser-known groups also link together countries and communities.

V. Answer any two of the following questions in 25-30 sentences each. (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Define demography and explain the major characteristics of demographic profile of India.
Answer:
Demography is the systematic study of population. The term Demography is derived from two Greek words i.e. demos (people) and graphein (describe), implying the description of people. The term Demography was coined by Achille Guillard in 1855. Demography studies the trends and processes associated with population including – changes in population size; patterns of births, deaths, and migration; and the structure and composition of the population, such as the relative proportions of women, men and different age groups.

There are different varieties of demography, including Formal demography which is a largely quantitative field, and Social demography which focuses on the social, economic or political aspects of population. All demographic studies are based on processes of counting or enumeration – such as the census or the survey – which involve the systematic collection of data on the people residing within a specified territory.

In India, census was conducted by the British Indian government between 1867-72, and regular ten yearly (decennial) censuses have been, conducted since 1881. Independent India continued the practice, and seven decennial censuses have been conducted since 1951, the most recent being in 2011. Demographic data are important for the planning and implementation of state policies, especially those for economic development and general public welfare.

The Major characteristics of the Demographic Profile of India:

  1. Size and Growth of India’s population
  2. Age structure of the Indian population
  3. Sex-Ratio in India.
  4. Birth rate and Death rate
  5. Increasing Literacy rate of Indian population.
  6. Increasing Rural-Urban differences

1. Size and Growth of India’s Population:
India is the second most populous country in the world after China. According to the 2011 census, India’s population is 121 crores(1.21 billion). Between 1901-1951 the average annual growth rate did not exceed 1.33%, a modest rate of growth. In fact between 1911 and 1921 there was a negative rate of growth of – 0.03%. This was because of the influenza epidemic during 1918-19.

The growth rate of population substantially increased after independence from British rule going up to 2.2% during 1961-1981. Since then although the annual growth rate has decreased it remains one of the highest in the developing world.

2. Age structure of the Indian population:
India has a very young population – that is, majority of Indians tend to be young, compared to most other countries. The share of the less than 15 age group in the total population has come down from its highest level of 42% in 1971 to 29% in 2011. The share of the 15-60 age group has increased from 53% to 63%, while the share of the 60+ age group is very small but it has begun to increase (from 5% to 8%) over the same period.

But the age composition of the Indian population is expected to change significantly in the next two decades. 0-14 age group will reduce its share by about 11% (from 34% in 2001 to 23% in 2026) while the 60 plus age .group will increase its share by about 5% (from 8% in 2001 to about 12% in 2026).

3. The declining Sex-ratio in India:
The sex ratio is an important indicator of gender balance in the population. The sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males. The trends of the last four decades have been particularly worrying – from 941 in 1961 the sex ratio had fallen to an all time low of 927 in 1991 before posting a modest increase in 2001.

According to the Census of India 2011, sex ratio has increased and now it is 940 females per 1000 males. But what has really alarmed demographers, policy makers, social activists, and concerned Citizens is the drastic fall in the child sex ratio. The sex ratio for the 0 – 6 years age group (known as the juvenile or child sex ratio) has generally been substantially higher than the overall sex ratio for all age groups, but it has been falling very sharply.

In fact the decade 1991-2001 represents an anomaly in that the overall 1 sex ratio has posted its highest ever increase of 6 points from the all time low of 927 to 933, but the child sex ratio in 2011 census has
dropped from 927 to 914, a plunge of 13 points taking it below the overall sex ratio for the first time.

4. Increasing literacy rate of Indian population:
Literacy varies considerably across gender, regions, and social groups. The literacy rate for women is almost 22% less than the literacy rate for men. However, female literacy has been rising faster than male literacy, partly because it started from relatively low levels.

Female literacy rose by about 11.2 percent between 2001 and 2011 compared to the rise in male literacy of 6.2 percent in the same period. Female literacy which was 8.9% in 1951, has increased to 65.4 in 2011. Male literacy in the same period was 27.2% which has increased to 82.17. Total literacy rate of 18.3% in 1951 has increased to 74.04 in 2011.

5. Increasing Rural-Urban differences:
According to the 2011 Census, 68.8% of the population lives in rural areas while 31.2% people live in urban areas. The urban population has been increasing steadily, from about 17.3% in 1951 to 31.2 in 2011, an increase of about two-and-a-half times.

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Question 36.
Mention the constitutional measures for welfare of SCs.
Answer:
Constitutional provisions relating to the above said groups are as follows:
a. Article 15:
The state shall hot discriminate against any citizen on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any such thing. The removal of any disability, restriction or condition with regard to access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and place of public entertainment or the use of wells, tanks, roads, and place of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of state funds or dedicated to the use of general public.

b. Article 16:
There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matter relating to employment or appointment to any office under the state.

c. Article 17:
Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offense punishable in accordance with law.

d. Article 23:
Illegalizes traffic in human beings and forced labor.

e. Article 25 B:
Hindu religious institutions of public characters are open to all classes and sections of Hindus.

f. Article 29:
Any cultural and linguistic minority has the right to conserve its language or culture. The article provides protection to scheduled tribe communities to preserve their languages, dialects and cultures. The state would not by law enforce upon them any other culture or language.

g. Article 46:
The state shall promote with special care the educational and economic interest of the weaker sections of the people and in particular of the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation.

h. Article 164:
This provides for a separate ministry in charge of Welfare of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes and backward classes.

i. Article 325 of part XV:
It guarantees to all citizens of India the right to vote.

j. Article 330, 332 and 334:
This provides that seats shall be reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the house of people and state legislatures.

k. Article 335:
It mentions the claim of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to services and posts.

l. Article 338:
This empowers the Central government to appoint a Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

m. Article 339:
This empowers the President to appoint a Commission to report on the administration of the scheduled areas and the welfare of scheduled tribes in the states.

n. Article 341:
This empowers the President to specify the castes, races or tribes deemed as Scheduled’ Castes in a particular state or Union territory.

o. Article 342:
This empowers the President to specify the tribes deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in a particular state or Union territory.

Question 37.
Explain the Methodical understanding of farmers’ suicides.
Answer:
R.S. Deshpande and Saroj Arora methodically analysed the causes of farmers’ suicides and listed them as

  1. Events
  2. Stressors
  3. Actors and
  4. Triggers

1. Events:
Among the ‘events’, crop loss, failure of a bore well, price crash, daughter’s marriage, family problems and property disputes are included.

2. Stressors:
These become ‘stressors’ (stress creators) when two or more such ‘events’ cluster together: Specifically, illness of the individual or any of the family members, heavy borrowings, continued disputes in the family or land-related problems usually act as ‘stressors’. These become lethal in combination with the ‘events’ but further ignition comes through the ‘actors/catalysts’ and ‘trigger’ incidences.

3. Actors:
Actors/catalysts create a sense of ‘insecurity’ or ‘insult’ to the potential victim. These include the moneylenders, bankers, spouses, relatives and close friends.

4. Triggers:
On the background of the ‘events’ and ‘stressors’, the ‘actors/catalysts’ fire the final act by forcing an occasion to be the ‘Trigger’ for the unfortunate incident. Given this complex nature of the phenomena, it certainly becomes difficult to pinpoint one particular reason for suicide. Emile Durkheim’s monograph on Suicide indicates growing alienation of individual from the family, society and religion as a factor responsible for suicide.

According to Durkheim suicides indicate social disintegration. Among the reasons cited in various studies associated with suicides, indebtedness is one of the reasons but it is not the only risk factor. Multiple risk factors feed into each other and reinforce each other. In addition to the weather related uncertainties, the farmer is also faced with market (increasing costs and output price shocks), technology, spurious inputs, and credit-related vulnerabilities.

In the absence of risk mitigation strategies, the farmer is at the receiving end. Under stress, some farmers end up committing suicide. Studies indicate that suicides are occurring in the high and medium growth states and are conspicuously absent in the backward states like BIMARU (Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh). Scholars have articulated ‘High Aspirations’ or the thrust for upward mobility in the absence of public policy support, major causation for suicides in the backward areas of medium growth states.

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Question 38.
List out the demands of farmers as presented by Karnataka Rajya Raitha Sangha.
Answer:
Rudrappa, Sundaresh, and Nanjundaswamy presented the farmers’ demands to the Chief Minister Gundu Rao on October 17, 1980. They were as follows:

  1. Release unconditionally all farmers arrested in various movements and withdraw cases against them.
  2. Waive loans owed by farmers so far to the government. Give fresh loans at simple interest, without mediation of banks and co-operatives.
  3. The scale of loans should keep pace with the rising expenses of cultivation.
  4. Return all property attached and auctioned for non-payment of loans.
  5. Abolish land revenue and betterment levy; reduce water rates; abolish water rate for tank water and seepage water, and for lands which are not supplied with water; abolish agricultural income tax.
  6. Remove taxes and other restrictions on the use of tractors, trailors of farmers.
  7. Abolish purchase tax on sugarcane with effect from 1979-80.
  8. Reduce electricity charges to 6V2 paise per unit.
  9. Fix agricultural prices scientifically, based on man-hours spent, means it is the government should buy the agricultural produce at the supportive price.
  10. The principle for price fixation is that price should be real in the sense that they should have parity with the prices of inputs and man hours spent.
  11. Declare agriculture as an industry, and extend all facilities enjoyed by industrial labor to agriculturists also.
  12. Provide crop insurance throughout the state, without demanding premium from farmers.
  13. Every farmer and farm laborer should get old age pension.
  14. Agricultural laborers should be given wages and other facilities as in the case of industrial workers. Not only right prices to farmers but also right wages to laborers should be fixed from time to time.
  15. To reduce pressure on land, give governmental land to landless laborers and help them in cultivating it under government supervision.
  16. Give lands to tenants without occupancy price and give lump sum compensation to landowners. ‘
  17. Allocate 80% of plan expenditure on village development.
  18. Provide travel worthy roads in countryside.
  19. Reserve 50% of seats in educational institutions and employment for farmers’ children.

VI. Answer any two of the following questions in 15 sentences each. (2 × 5 =10)

Question 39.
Explain the challenges to National Integration.
Answer:
National integration refers to national unity and a sense of belonging to the nation. It is an essential aspect in the making of a nation. Promotion of national integration is regarded as a part and parcel of the policy of any country. According to Benjamin “National integration refers to the assimilation of the entire people of a country to a common identity”.

In simple words, National Integration refers to the process wherein a feeling of togetherness, a sense of national unity and above all, a sense of national belongingness is developed among people. It is in this context, the concept of ‘National integration’ has assumed importance.
There are many challenges to National integration.
They are as follows;

  1. Regionalism
  2. Communalism
  3. Linguist and
  4. Extremism and Terrorism

1. Regionalism:
Regionalism is expressed in the desire of people of one region to promote their own regional interest at the expense of the interests of other regions. It has often led to separatism and instigated separatist activities and violent movements. Selfish politicians exploit it. Thus, regionalism has challenged the primacy of the nationalistic interests and undermines national unity. Regionalism is mainly of four forms namely

  1. Demand for separation from the Indian Union
  2. Demand for a separate statehood
  3. Demand for a full-fledged statehood
  4. Inter-states disputes-Border disputes.

2. Communalism:
Communalism is the antagonism practiced by the members of one community against the people of other communities and religions. Communalism is the product of a particular society, economy and polity, which creates problems. Communalism is an ideological tool for propagation of economic and political interests. It is an instrument in the hands of the upper class to concentrate power by dividing people. The elites strive to maintain a status quo against transformation by dividing people on communal and religious lines.

3. Linguism:
Linguism implies one-sided love and admiration towards one’s language and prejudice and hatred towards other languages. India is a land of many languages and it has been called as a ‘Museum of languages’. Diversity of languages has also led to linguism. It has often been manifested into violent movements posing threat to national integration. Linguistic tensions are prevailing in the border areas which are bilingual.

4. Extremism and Terrorism:
Extremism and terrorism have emerged during recent years as the most formidable challenges to national integration. Extremism refers to the readiness on the part of an individual or group to go to any extreme even to resort to undemocratic, violent and harmful means to fulfil one’s objectives. In the past India has been facing the problems of terrorism since independence. India has faced this problem in Nagaland (1951), Mizoram (1966), Manipur (1976), Tripura (1980) and West Bengal (1986).

Terrorism in India is essentially the creation of politics. According to Prof. Rama Ahuja, there are four types of terrorism India, (1) Khalistan oriented terrorism in Punjab (2) Militants terrorism in Kashmir.
(3) Naxalite terrorism in West Bengal, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh Telangana, Maharastra, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chattisgarh. (4) ULFA terrorism in Assam.

The Khalistan oriented Sikh terrorism was based on a dream of theocratic state, Kashmir militants are based on their separate identity. The Naxalite terrorism is based on class enmity. Terrorism in North Eastern India is based on the identity crisis and the grievance situation. In addition to these factors, corruption, poverty, unemployment/ youth unrest, widening gap between rich and poor, which are also the major challenges for national integration.

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Question 40.
Describe the types of Microfinance.
Answer:
Types of Microfinance
1. Informal Financial Service Providers :
These include moneylenders, pawnbrokers, savings collectors, chit funds and input supply shops. Because they know each other well and live in the same community, they understand each other’s financial circumstances and can offer very flexible, convenient and fast services. These services can also be costly and the choice of financial products limited and very short-term. Informal services that involve savings are also risky; many people have lost their money in Chit funds.

2. Member-Owned Organizations:
These include self-help groups, credit unions, and a variety of hybrid organizations like ‘Financial Service Associations’. They are generally small and local, which means they have access to good knowledge of each other’s financial circumstances and can offer convenience and flexibility.

Grameen Bank, Bangladesh is a member-owned organization started by Muhammad Yunus in 1970. They have proven very innovative, pioneering banking techniques like solidarity lending, village banking, and mobile banking that have overcome barriers to serving poor populations.

3. Formal Financial Institutions:
In addition to commercial banks, these include State banks, Agricultural development banks, Savings banks, Rural banks, and Non bank financial institutions. They are regulated and supervised, offer a wider range of financial services, and control a branch network that can extend across the country and internationally.

However, they have proved reluctant to adopt social missions, and due to their high costs of operation, often can’t deliver services to poor or remote populations. Efforts are being made to link self-help groups to commercial banks, by integrating mobile banking and e-payment technologies into their extensive branch networks.

Question 41.
Describe the recent trends in media.
Answer:
As is evident, the reasons for this amazing growth in the circulation of Indian language newspapers are many.
1. There is a rise in the number of literate people who are migrating to cities. The Hindi daily Hindustan in 2003 printed 64,000 copies of their Delhi edition, which jumped to 425,000 by 2005. The reason was that of Delhi’s I
population of one crore and forty-seven lakhs, 52 percent had come from the Hindi belt. Out of this, 47 percent have come from a rural background and 60 percent of them are less than 40 years of age.

2. Dominant Indian language newspapers such as Malayala Manorama in Malayalam and Eenadu in Telugu launched the concept of local news in a significant manner by introducing district and block editions.

3. Dina Thanthi, a leading Tamil newspaper, has always used simplified and colloquial language. In Kannada, Prajavani, Vijaya Karnataka, Kannada Prabha have adopted the same techniques.

4. The Indian language newspapers have adopted advanced printing technologies and also attempted supplements, pullouts, and literary and niche booklets.

5. Marketing strategies have also marked the growth of the DainilcBhaskar group and Vijayakamatika as they carry out consumer contact programmes, door-to-door surveys, and research

6. Cross media ownership trend is becoming visible among the major players such as Eenadu, group, Times group, Dainik Jagran, and Sahara who plunged into TV news after . their long innings in newspapers. While English newspapers, often called ‘National Dailies’ like The Times of India, the Hindu, The Indian Express, The Economic Times, Hindustan Times, Deccan Herald and etc, circulate across the nation, vernacular newspapers have vastly increased their circulation within the states and ruler hinterland.

In order to compete with the electronic media, newspapers on the one hand have reduced their prices and on the other hand brought out editions from multiple centres. There is also an increasing dependence on the sponsors of advertisements. Many feared that the rise in electronic media would lead to a decline in the circulation of print media. This has not happened. Indeed it has expanded.

In 1991 there was just one state controlled TV channel in India. ‘Doordarshan’. By 1998, there were 70 channels. Privately run satellite channels have multiplied rapidly since the mid-1990s. The staggering growth of private satellite television has been one of the defining developments of contemporary India. The Gulf War of 1991 (which popularised CNN), and the launching of Star-TV in the same year by the Whampoa Hutchinson Group of Hong Kong, signalled the arrival of private Satellite Channels in India.

In 1992, Zee TV, a Hindi-based satellite entertainment channel, also began beaming programs to cable television viewers in India By 2000, many private cable and satellite channels were available including several that focused exclusively on regional-language broadcasting like Sun-TV, Eenadu-TV, Udaya-TV, Raj-TV, and Asianet. Zee TV has also launched several regional networks in other languages. India based English news channels like NDTV 24 x 7 CNN, IBN, Times Now, Headlines Today are also popular among English speaking people.

The coming in of transnational television companies social and cultural activities. like star TV, MTV, Channel[V], sony and other worried some people on the likely impact on Indian youth and on the Jhdi&n cultural identity, put most of the transnational Television channels have through research, realised that the use of the familiar is more effective in getting the attention of the diverse groups that constitute Indian audience.

So these channels have also given importance to family oriented entertainment. Entertainment television has produced a new cadre of superstars who have become familiar household names. Reality shows like Kaun Banega Crorepati or Indian Idol or Big Boss have become increasingly popular. Most of these are modeled along the lines of western programmes.

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Question 42.
Explain the role of Gram Panchayath in rural development.
Answer:
Panchayat Raj is a real democratic political apparatus, which would bring the masses into active political participation to establish a genuine political reign of rural India. Generally it is also called as ‘Decentralization of Democracy’. Since 1959 Democratic Decentralization has been gradually extended throughout India. After the implementation of the 73 rd Amendment Act of the Constitution 1992, Panchayat Raj has brought politics down to village level. Balawant Rai Mehta Committee recommended a three Tier Structure of the Panchayat Raj institution. Namely,

  1. Village Panchayat – at the village level.
  2. Panchayat Samithi – at the Block level and
  3. Zilla Panchayat – at the District level

Functions of Village Panchayat:
The functions of the Village Panchayat are

  1. Provision of water supply
  2. Maintenance of minor irrigation
  3. School buildings
  4. Family Planning
  5. Construction of wells and tanks
  6. Promotion of agriculture and animal husbandry, poultry, fisheries. Apart from the above, they also manage promotion of village and cottage industries, providing electric power, construction and maintenance of Roads and Bridges, creating awareness regarding primary and secondary education, maintenance of Public Health, general Sanitation, Welfare of the weaker section, maintenance of public properties and regulation and fairs and festivals and promotion of social and cultural activities.

2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 14 SQL Commands

You can Download Chapter 14 SQL Commands Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 14 SQL Commands

2nd PUC Computer Science SQL Commands One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand SQL.
Answer:
The SQL is expanded as ‘Structured Query Language’.

Question 2.
Give the syntax for create command in SQL.
Answer:
Syntax:
CREATE TABLE tablename (columnnamel datatype(size), columnname2 datatype(size) …);

Question 3.
What is drop command in SQL.
Answer:
The drop command is used to remove/delete tables,
syntax:
DROP TABLE tablename;

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Question 4.
Give the command to display all the details in the table.
Answer:
To view All the Columns and all the Rows (Entire Table values)
> SELECT * FROM student;

Question 5.
What is update command?
Answer:
The update command is used to change row values from a table. The SET keyword takes the column in which values needs to be changed or updated

Question 6.
What is commit command?
Answer:
The commit command is used to save the transactions entered into the table.

2nd PUC Computer Science SQL Commands Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify numeric and character string data types in SQL.
Answer:

  • Numeric data type is classified as exact numeric data types and floating-point numeric data types.
  • Character, string data types is classified as char and varchar data types.

Question 2.
Classify various SQL operators.
Answer:
The various SQL operators are Arithmetic operators, Comparison operators, Logical operators, Operators used to negate conditions.

Question 3.
Which are the logical operators in SQL.
Answer:
The logical operators in SQL are ALL, AND, ANY BETWEEN, EXISTS, IN, LIKE, NOT, OR, IS NULL, UNIQUE.

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Question 4.
How do you modify the column name and width for existing table?
Answer:
Syntax:
ALTER TABLE tablename MODIFY (columnname datatype (size), columnname datatype(size)..);

Question 5.
Write the syntax for distinct command in SQL.
Answer:
Syntax:
SELECT DISTINCT columnname FROM tablename;

Question 6.
What is the use of NULL value?
Answer:
A field with a value of NULL means that the field actually has no value stored in it.

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Question 7.
What is create view command?
Answer:
A view is referred to as a virtual table. Views are created by using the CREATE VIEW statement.

Question 8.
What is the dual table?
Answer:
It is single row and single column dummy table provided by oracle.

2nd PUC Computer Science SQL Commands Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the features of SQL.
Answer:
The features of SQL:

  • SQL is ah ANSI and ISO standard computer language for creating and manipulating databases.
  • SQL allows the user to create, update, delete, and retrieve data from a database.
  • SQL is very simple and easy to learn.
  • SQL works with database programs like DB2, Oracle, MS Access, Sybase, MS SQL Server, etc.
  • SQL Queries can be used to retrieve large amounts of records from a database quickly and efficiently.
  • Well, Defined Standards Exist.

Question 2.
List the components of SQL architecture.
Answer:
When executing an SQL command for any RDBMS, the SQL engine interprets the task for execution. There are various components included in the process. These components of SQL architecture are Query Dispatcher, Optimization Engines, Classic Query Engine, and SQL Query Engine, etc.,

Question 3.
Explain DDL commands with example.
Answer:
DDL -Data Definition Language commands create database objects such as tables, views, etc., The various DDL commands are Create Table, Alter Table, Create View, Drop Table.
-Create Table
SYNTAX:
CREATE TABLE table_name
( field1 datatype [ NOT NULL ],
field2 datatype [ NOT NULL ],
field3 datatype [ NOT NULL ]…)
An example of a CREATE TABLE statement follows.
SQL> CREATE TABLE BILLS (
2 NAME CHAR(30),
3 AMOUNT NUMBER,
4 ACCOUNT_ID NUMBER);

The ALTER TABLE command is used to do two things:

  • Add a column to an existing table
  • Modify a column that already exists

SYNTAX:
ALTER TABLE table_name ADD( column_name data_type);
ALTER TABLE table_name MODIFY (column_name data_type);
The following command changes the NAME field of the BILLS table to hold 40 characters:
SQL> ALTER TABLE BILLS MODIFY (NAME CHAR(40));

DROP command is used to remove the entire table from the database.
syntax:
DROP TABLE tablename;
Example:
DROP TABLE student;

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Question 4.
Explain DML commands with example.
Answer:
The data manipulation commands are used for retrieval (view) of data, insertion of new data, modification of data or deletion. The DML commands includes insert, delete and update.
1. INSERT command:
It is used to inserts new rows into the table.
Syntax:
INSERT INTO tablename (columnname1, columnname2, … ) VALUES ( value1, value2, ..);
Example:
INSERT INTO student (regno, name, Combn , fees ) VALUES (1234, ‘Hemanth’, ‘PCMCs’, 15000);

2. UPDATE command:
It can be used to change row values from a table. The SET key word takes the column in which values needs to be changed or updated. The WHERE keyword is used to filter the records on some condition.
Syntax:
UPDATE tablename SET columnname = values WHERE Condition;
Example:
UPDATE student SET combn = ‘PCMCs’ where combn=’pcmc’;

3. DELETE Command:
It is used to delete/remove the tuples/rows from the table. All the rows will be deleted if WHERE clause is not used in the statement otherwise it selects the rows for delete which satisfies the condition.
Syntax:
DELETE from tablename WHERE Condition;
Example:
DELETE from student;
DELETE from student WHERE regno=1234;

Question 5.
Explain with an example boolean expression in SQL.
Answer:
Boolean expressions return rows (results) when a single value is matched. Boolean expressions commonly used in a WHERE clause are made of operands operated on by SQL operators.
For example,
> SELECT * FROM EMPLOYEES WHERE AGE = 45;
The above statement returns all those records (rows) whose age column is having the exact value of 45 from the employees table.

Question 6.
Explain AND operator using where in SQL.
AND operator:
Answer:
The operator AND means that the expressions on both sides must be true to return TRUE. If either expression is false AND returns FALSE.
Syntax:
SELECT column1, column2, columnN FROM table_name
WHERE condition1 AND condition2 … AND conditionN;

Example 1:
It would fetch ID, Name and Salary fields from the CUSTOMERS table where salary is greater than 2000 AND age is less than 25 years:
SQL> SELECT ID, NAME, SALARY FROM CUSTOMERS WHERE SALARY > 2000 AND age < 25;

Example 2:
To find out which employees have been with the company for 5 years or less and have taken more than 20 days leave,:
SQL> SELECT empNAME FROM VACATION WHERE YEARS <= 5 AND LEAVETAKEN > 20;

Question 7.
List the built-in functions associated with Group functions in SQL.
Answer:
The built-in functions associated with GROUP functions in SQL are
1. COUNT function- returns the count of records that satisfies the condition for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT department, COUNT(*)FROM employees WHERE salary > 25000 GROUP BY department;

2. MAX function- returns the maximum values from the column for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT department, MAX(salary) FROM employees GROUP BY department;

3. MIN function – returns the lowest values from the column for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT department, MIN(salary)FROM employees GROUP BY department;

4. AVG function – returns the average values from the column for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT AVG(cost) FROM products WHERE category = ‘Clothing’;

5. SUM function- returns the total values from the column for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT department, SUM(sales)FROM order_details GROUP BY department;

6. DISTINCT function – returns the once occurrence of many repeated values from the column for each group of records.
Example:
SELECT AVG(DISTINCT cost)FROM products WHERE category = ‘Clothing’;

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Question 8.
What is the use of JOIN command?
Answer:
SQL joins are used to combine rows from two or more tables.
There are 4 different types of SQL joins:

  • SQL INNER JOIN (or sometimes called simple join)
  • SQL LEFT JOIN
  • SQL RIGHT JOIN
  • SQL FULL JOIN

1. SQL INNER JOIN (simple join)
SQL INNER JOINS return all rows from multiple tables where the join condition is met.
Syntax:
> SELECT columns FROM table1 INNER JOIN table2 ON table1.column = table2.column;
In this visual diagram, the SQL INNER JOIN returns the shaded area:
2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 14 SQL Commands 1
The SQL INNER JOIN would return the records where table1 and table2 intersect.

2. SQL LEFT JOIN:
This type of join returns all rows from the LEFT-hand table specified in the ON condition and only those rows from the other table where the joined fields are equal (join condi¬tion is met).
Syntax:
> SELECT columns FROM table1 LEFT JOIN table2 ON table1.column = table2.column;
In this visual diagram, the SQL LEFT JOIN returns the shaded area:
2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 14 SQL Commands 2
The SQL LEFT JOIN would return the all records from table1 and only those records from table2 that intersect with table1.

3. SQL RIGHT JOIN:
This type of join returns all rows from the RIGHT-hand table specified in the ON condition and only those rows from the other table where the joined fields are equal (join condition is met).
Syntax:
> SELECT columns FROM table1 RIGHT JOIN table2 ON table1.column = table2.column;
In this visual diagram, the SQL RIGHT JOIN returns the shaded area:

2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 14 SQL Commands 3

The SQL RIGHT JOIN would return the all records from table2 and only those records from table1 that intersect with table2.

4. SQL FULL JOIN:
This type of join returns all rows from the LEFT-hand table and RIGHT-hand table with nulls in place where the join condition is not met.
Syntax:
> SELECT columns FROM table1 FULL JOIN table2 ON table1.column = table2.column;
In this visual diagram, the SQL FULL JOIN returns the shaded area:
2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 14 SQL Commands 4

The SQL FULL JOIN would return the all records from both table1 and table2.

Question 9.
What are privileges and roles?
Answer:
The Privileges defines the access rights given to a user on a database object. There are two types of privileges.

  • System privileges – This allows the user to CREATE, ALTER, or DROP database objects.
  • Object privileges – This allows the user to EXECUTE, SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE data from database objects to which the privileges apply.

Few CREATE system privileges are listed below:

CREATE object – allows users to create the specified object in their own schema.
CREATE ANY object – allows users to create the specified object in any schema.

Few of the object privileges are listed below:

  • INSERT – allows users to insert rows into a table.
  • SELECT – allows users to select data from a database object.
  • UPDATE – allows user to update data in a table.
  • EXECUTE – allows user to execute a stored procedure or a function.

Roles:
Roles are a collection of privileges or access rights. When there are many users in a database it becomes difficult to grant or revoke privileges to users. Therefore, if roles are defined, one can grant or revoke privileges to users, thereby automatically granting or revoking privileges.

Some of the privileges granted to the system roles are as given below:

1. CONNECT – CREATE TABLE, CREATE VIEW, CREATE SYNONYM, CREATE SEQUENCE, CREATE SESSION, etc.

2. RESOURCE – CREATE PROCEDURE, CREATE SEQUENCE, CREATE TABLE, CREATE TRIG-GER, etc.

The primary usage of the RESOURCE role is to restrict access to database objects. DBA- ALL SYSTEM PRIVILEGES.

Question 10.
Classify various built-in functions in SQL.
Answer:
The built-in functions are classified as Single row functions and Group functions.
The single-row functions are of four types. They are numeric functions, character or text functions, date functions, and conversion functions.

1. Numeric functions:
ABS function- The ABS function returns the absolute value of the number you point to.

a. CEIL and FLOOR functions – CEIL returns the smallest integer greater than or equal to its argument. FLOOR does just the reverse, returning the largest integer equal to or less than its argument.

b. POWER function – To raise one number to the power of another, use POWER. In this function the first argument is raised to the power of the second:

c. SQRT function – The function SORT returns the square root of an argument.

2. Character or text functions:
a. CHR function – returns the character equivalent of the number it uses as an argument.

b. CONCAT function – function combines two strings together.

c. INITCAP function – capitalizes the first letter of a word and makes all other characters lowercase.

d. LOWER and UPPER functions – LOWER changes all the characters to lowercase; UPPER does just the reverse.

e. LENGTH function – returns the length of its lone character argument.

3. Date functions:
a. ADD_MONTHS function – This function adds a number of months to a specified date.

b. LAST_DAY – LAST_DAY function- returns the last day of a specified month. MONTHS_BETWEEN function – to know how many months fall between month x and month y,

c. NEXT_DAY function – finds the name of the first day of the week that is equal to or later than another specified date.

d. SYSDATE function – SYS DATE returns the system time and date.

4. Conversion functions:
a. TO_CHAR function – to convert a number into a character.

b. TO_NUMBER function – it converts a string into a number.

The group functions are:

  • AVG() – Returns the average value
  • COUNT() – Returns the number of rows
  • FIRST() – Returns the first value
  • LAST() – Returns the last value
  • MAX() – Returns the largest value
  • MIN() – Returns the smallest value
  • SUM() – Returns the total value of the given column.

2nd PUC Computer Science SQL Commands Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain SQL constraints with example.
Answer:
SQL Constraints are rules used to limit the type of data that can be stored into a table, to maintain the accuracy and integrity of the data inside table.
Constraints can be divided into two types,

  • Column level constraints: limits only column data
  • Table level constraints: limits whole table data

Constraints are used to make sure that the integrity of data is maintained in the database. The NOT NULL, UNIQUE, PRIMARY KEY, FOREIGN KEY, CHECK, DEFAULT are the most used constraints that can be applied to a table.

1. NOT NULL Constraint:
NOT NULL constraint restricts a column from having a NULL value. Once *NOT NULL* constraint is applied to a column, you cannot store null value to that column. It enforces a column to contain a proper value.
Example using NOT NULL constraint
CREATE table Student(s_id int NOT NULL, Name varchar(60), Age int);

2. UNIQUE Constraint:
UNIQUE constraint ensures that a field or column will only have unique values. A UNIQUE constraint field will not have duplicate data.
Example using UNIQUE constraint when creating a Table
CREATE table Student(s_id int NOT NULL UNIQUE, Name varchar(60), Age int);

3. Primary Key Constraint:
The primary key constraint uniquely identifies each record in a database. A Primary Key must contain unique value and it must not contain a null value.
Example using PRIMARY KEY constraint
CREATE table Student (s_id int PRIMARY KEY, Name varchar(60) NOT NULL, Age int);

4. Foreign Key Constraint:
FOREIGN KEY is used to relate two tables. A FOREIGN KEY in one table points to a PRIMARY KEY in another table.
Example using FOREIGN KEY constraint at Table Level
CREATE TABLE Orders
(
O-Id int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
OrderNo int NOT NULL,
P_Id int FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Persons(P_Id)
)

5. CHECK Constraint:
CHECK constraint is used to restrict the value of a column between a range. It performs check on the values, before storing them into the database.
Example using CHECK constraint
create table Student(s_id int NOT NULL CHECK(s_id > 0), Name varchar(60) NOT NULL, Age int);

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Question 2.
Explain with example to create details of employees and give the minimum and maximum in the salary domain.
Answer:
The CHECK constraint is used to limit the value range that can be placed in a column.
If you define a CHECK constraint on a single column it allows only certain values for this column.

Check Constraint at column level:
CREATE TABLE employee
( id number(5) PRIMARY KEY,
name char(20),
dept char(10),
age number(2),
gender char(l),
salary number(lO) CHECK (salary >=5000 AND salary <=40000),
location char(10)
s);
In the above example, the salary column is defined as a number column with a check constraint. It checks constraint checks the value that can be stored in the salary column should be greater than or equal to 5000 which is the minimum value and the value is less than or equal to 40000 which is the maximum value for the column salary.

Question 3.
Write the differences between order by and group by with example.
Answer:
1. SQL ORDER BY Clause:
The SQL ORDER BY Clause is used in a SELECT statement to sort results either in ascending or descending order.

Syntax for using SQL ORDER BY clause to sort data is:
>SELECTcolumn-list FROM table_name ORDER BY column1, column2,.. columnN [DESC]];
For Example:
If you want to sort the employee table by salary of the employee, the SQL query would be.
> SELECT name, salary FROM employee ORDER BY salary;
By default, the ORDER BY Clause sorts data in ascending order. If data to be sorted in descending order, the command would be as given below.
> SELECT name, salary FROM employee ORDER BY name, salary DESC;

2. SQL GROUP BY Clause:
The SQL GROUP BY Clause is used with the group functions to retrieve data grouped according to one or more columns.

The basic syntax of GROUP BY clause is given below. The GROUP BY clause must follow the conditions in the WHERE clause and must precede the ORDER BY clause if one is used.
SELECT column1, column2 FROM table name WHERE [ conditions ]
GROUP BY column1, column2
ORDER BY column1, column2
For Example:
If you want to know the total amount of salary spent on each department, the query would be:
> SELECT dept, SUM (salary) FROM employee GROUP BY dept;
The group by clause should contain all the columns in the select list expect those used along with the group functions.
> SELECT location, dept, SUM (salary) FROM employee GROUP BY location, dept;

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Solutions Gadya Chapter 7 Nari Drakshi Tomato

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Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Solutions Gadya BhagaChapter 7 Nari Drakshi Tomato

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2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 4 Data Structures

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2nd PUC Computer Science Data Structures One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are data structures?
Answer:
data structure is a systematic way of organising, storing and accessing data.

Question 2.
Differentiate between one-dimensional and two-dimensional array.
Answer:
One-dimensional array is structured in one dimension and each element is accessed by an index value whereas two-dimensional array is structured in two dimensions and each element is accessed by a pair of index values.

Question 3.
Give any two examples for primitive data structures.
Answer:
The two examples for primitive data structures are int and float data.

Question 4.
Mention any two examples for non-primitive data structures.
Answer:
The two examples for non-primitive data structures are array and lists.

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Question 5.
What are primitive data structures?
Answer:
The data structures that are directly operated upon by machine-level instructions.

Question 6.
What are non-primitive data structures?
Answer:
The non-primitive data structures derived from primitive data types are more complex.

Question 7.
Name the data structure which is called LIFO list.
Answer:
The data structure which is called LIFO list is stacks.

Question 8.
What is the other name of the queue?
Answer:
The FIFO list is the other name of the queue.

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Question 9.
Define an array.
Answer:
Array is a collection of similar elements that share a common name. It is a structured data type and allocates memory contiguously.

Question 10.
What are the lists?
Answer:
Lists are a way to store many different values under a single variable. Every item in this list is numbered with an index.

Question 11.
What is meant by linear data structures?
Answer:
The linear(sequential) data structures is the one which displays the relationship of adjacency between the elements.

Question 12.
What are non-linear data structures?
Answer:
data structure that is possible to derive any relationship other than the adjacency relationship is called non-linear data structures.

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Question 13.
What is a stack?
Answer:
stack is an ordered collection of items in which items may be inserted and deleted at one end.

Question 14.
What is a queue?
Answer:
A queue is a non-primitive data structure where an item is inserted at one end and removed from the other end.

Question 15.
Name the data structure whose relationship between data elements is by means of links.
Answer:
The data structure whose relationship between data elements is by means of links is linked lists.

Question 16.
What is a linked list?
Answer:
Linked list is a data structure in which each element is dynamically allocated and in which elements point to each other to define a linear relationship.

Question 17.
Mention any one application of stack.
Answer:
The one application of stack is recursive function/expression evaluation.

Question 18.
What do you mean by traversal in data structure?
Answer:
The process of accessing each data item only once in group of elements for some operation.

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Question 19.
Define searching in a one-dimensional array.
Answer:
Searching is the process of finding the location of data element in the array.

Question 20.
What is meant by sorting in an array?
Answer:
The sorting is the process of arranging the array elements in ascending or in descending order.

Question 21.
Mention the types of searching in the array.
Answer:
The linear search and binary search techniques are the types of searching in the array.

Question 22.
What are non-linear data structures?
Answer:
The TREES and GRAPH are non-linear data structures.

Question 23.
What is a binary tree?
Answer:
The TREE is a general data structure that describes the relationship between data items or ‘nodes’. The parent node of a binary tree has only two child nodes.

Question 24.
What do you mean by the depth of a tree?
Answer:
It is the number of ancestors of a node excluding itself i.e., the length of the path to its root.

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Question 25.
How do you find the degree of a tree?
Answer:
The degree of the tree is the total number of its children i-e the total number nodes that originate from it. The leaf of the tree does not have any child so its degree is zero.

Question 26.
What are the operations that can be performed on stacks?
Answer:
The stack(), push(item), pop(), peek(), is Empty() and size() are the operations that can be performed on stacks.

Question 27.
What are the operations that can be performed on queues?
Answer:
The queue(), enqueue(item), dequeue(), isEmpty() and size() are the operations that can be performed on queues.

Question 28.
Define the term PUSH and POP operations in stack.
Answer:
The process of adding a new item to the top of the stack is called PUSH and the process of removing the top item from the top of stack is called POP operation.

Question 29.
What is the FIFO list?
Answer:
The data structure queue is called FIFO(First In First Out) which means first inserted data item is removed first.

Question 30.
What is the LIFO list?
Answer:
The data structure stack is called LIFO(Last In First Out) which means the last inserted data item is removed first.

Question 31.
Mention the different types of queues.
Answer:
The different types of queues are simple queue, circular queue, priority queue and dequeue.

Question 32.
Give examples for linear data structures.
Answer:
The examples for linear data structures are stack, queues and linked lists.

Question 33.
Give examples for non-linear data structures.
Answer:
The examples for non-linear data structures are trees and graphs.

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Question 34.
What is meant by traversal operations on data structure?
Answer:
It is the process of accessing each and every data element only once for some task.

Question 35.
What is meant by insertion operations on data structure?
Answer:
It is the process of adding a data element into the existing set of data elements.

Question 36.
What is meant by deletion operations on data structure?
Answer:
It is the process of removing existing data element from the existing set of data elements.

Question 37.
What is meant by merging operations on data structure?
Answer:
It is the process of combining more than one set of similar data elements into one set of elements.

Question 38.
How is each and every element in the array referred?
Answer:
The array elements are referred by subscript or index of an array.

Question 39.
Give the syntax of a one-dimensional array declaration.
Answer:
Datatype arrayname [size] ;

Question 40.
What is the first element index number in an array?
Answer:
The first element index number in an array is 0.

Question 41.
What is the last element index number in an array?
Answer:
The last element index number of array is n-1 where n is the number of elements in an array.

Question 42.
Give the formula to calculate the length of the one-dimensional array.
Answer:
The formula is
Size of the array = UB – LB + 1
Where UB is Upper bound, LB is lower bound

Question 43.
What do you mean by base address in-memory representation of an array?
Answer:
The base address in-memory representation of an array is the memory address of the first element of an array.

Question 44.
Give the formula to calculate the memory address of an array element.
Answer:
The formula to calculate the memory address of an array element is
Base_Address + W ( Position – LB )
Where W is the number of words per memory cell, position is the location of array element for which memory address is calculated, LB is Lower bound of an array.

Question 45.
Mention any one advantage of the linear search method.
Answer:
The linear search method doesn’t require the list should be in order.

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Question 46.
Mention any one dis-advantage of the linear search method.
Answer:
The disadvantage of the linear search method is time-consuming (slow in searching).

Question 47.
Mention any one advantages of the binary search method.
Answer:
The binary search method is very fast.

Question 48.
Mention any one disadvantage of the binary search method.
Answer:
The binary search method requires the list of elements should be in order.

Question 49.
What is the formula to calculate mid element index number in the binary search method?
Answer:
The formula to calculate mid element index number in the binary search method is
Mid-element-index = (low + high) / 2
Where low is beginning index number and high is the last index number of an array.

Question 50.
What are the different types of representation of stacks in memory?
Answer:
The two types of representation of stacks in memory are static representation and dynamic representation.

Question 51.
Give the various elements that are required for stack PUSH operation.
Answer:
The various elements required for PUSH operation are PUS( STACK, TOP, SIZE, ITEM).

2nd PUC Computer Science Data Structures Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How are data structure classified?
Answer:
The data structure is classified as primitive data structures and non-primitive data structures.

Question 2.
Justify the need for using arrays.
Answer:
Array is a contiguous memory locations represented by a single name and useful in storing data elements in adjacent memory locations. It can be used to implement data structures like linked lists, stacks, queues, trees, graphs, etc.,

Question 3.
How are arrays classified?
Answer:
Array is classified as one dimensional, two dimensional and multidimensional arrays.

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Question 4.
Mention the various operations performed on arrays.
Answer:
The various operations performed on arrays are traversing, searching, sorting, insertion, deletion, and merging.

Question 5.
How do you find the length of the array?
Answer:
Length of the array = UB – LB + 1
where
UB is the largest index or upper bound index number
LB is the smallest index or lower bound index number.

Question 6.
Mention the types of linked lists.
Answer:
The types of linked lists are Singly linked list, Doubly linked list and a circular linked list.

Question 7.
What is a stack? Mention the types of operations performed on the stacks.
Answer:
A stack is an ordered collection of items in which data item may be inserted and deleted at one end.
The stack(), push(item), pop(), peek(), isEmpty() and size() are the operations that can be performed on stacks.

Question 8.
What is a queue? Mention the various operations performed on the queue.
Answer:
A queue is a non-primitive data structure where an item is inserted at one end and removed from the other end.
The queue(), enqueue(item), dequeue(), isEmpty() and size() are the operations that can be performed on queues.

Question 9.
Give the syntax for a 2-dimensional array declaration.
Answer:
The two dimensional array declaration syntax
Datatype arrayname [rowsize] [columnsize] ;

Question 10.
What do you mean by row-major ordering and column-major ordering in two-dimensional array?
Answer:
In row-major ordering, every row of the 2-dimensional array is stored one after the other in the memory. In column-major ordering, every column of the two-dimensional array is stored one after the other in the memory.

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Question 11.
Give the formula to calculate the memory address of an element using row-major ordering and column-major ordering methods.
Answer:
Row major order method formula
LOC(rowidx, colidx) = BaseAddress + W ( colsize * rowidx + colidx)
Column major order method formula
LOC(rowidx, colidx) = BaseAddress + W (rowidx + rowsize * colidx)

Question 12.
What is an expression? Write the different methods of representing an expression.
Answer:
The expression is a combination of operators and operators. The different methods are infix, prefix and postfix expressions.

Question 13.
Convert the infix expression A + B to prefix and postfix expression.
Answer:
Prefix expression –    +AB
Postfix expression –    AB +

Question 14.
Write the rules for evaluating postfix expressions.
Answer:
Rule 1:
read the expression from left to right.

Rule 2:
each operator follows the previous two operands.

Rule 3:
PUSH when operands are read, and operands will be in the top two-element when operator found.

Rule 4:
evaluate the expression and push the result on the stack.

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Question 15.
What is the significance of variables FRONT and REAR in a queue?
Answer:
The variable FRONT is used to identify the position of the first element in the queue, and variable REAR is used to identify the position of the last element of the queue.

2nd PUC Computer Science Data Structures Three Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mention the various operations performed on data structures.
Answer:
The various operations performed on primitive data structures are create, destroy, select and update and traversal, insertion-deletion, searching, sorting and merging on non-primitive data structures.

Question 2.
Explain the memory representation of a one-dimensional array.
Answer:
The data elements of array is stored in contiguous memory locations. Let P be the location of the data element. The address of the first element of linear array A is given by Base(A)
To calculate the address of any element of A formula
LOC ( A[P] ) = Base(A) + W ( P – LB )
Where
W is the size of data type (number of words per memory cell)
P – location of the data element
A – Base address of first element of array
LB – Lower bound index number

Question 3.
Explain the memory representation of a stack using a one-dimensional array.
Answer:
The items into the stack are stored in a sequential order from the first location of the memory block. A pointer TOP contains the location of the top element of the stack. A variable MAXSTK contains the maximum number of elements that can be stored in stack.
The stack is full when TOP = MAXSTK
The stack is empty when TOP = 0.

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Question 4.
Explain the memory representation of the queue using a one-dimensional array.
Answer:
Let Q be a linear array of size N
The pointer FRONT contains location of front element of the queue (element to be deleted)
The pointer REAR contains location of rear element of the queue (recently added element)
The queue is empty when FRONT = 0
The queue is full when FRONT = N
To add element, REAR = REAR + 1
To delete element, FRONT = FRONT + 1

Question 5.
Explain the memory representation of single linked list.
Answer:
A linked list maintains the memory location of each item in the list by using a series of ‘pointers’ within the data structure.
Every node of a singly-linked list contains the following information:

  • Data element (user’s data);
  • A link to the next element (auxiliary data).

A number of pointers are required, these are:

  1. The start pointer’ points to the first node in the list.
  2. The last node in the list has a ‘null pointer’ (which is an empty pointer)
  3. Each node has a pointer providing the location of the next node in the list.

Question 6.
Define the following with respect to binary tree

  1. root
  2. subtree
  3. depth
  4. degree

Answer:
1. root:
A topmost node in a tree

2. subtree:
A tree T is a tree consisting of node in T and all of its descendants in T.

3. depth:
It is the number of ancestors of a node excluding itself i.e., the length of the path to its root.

4. degree:
The degree of the tree is the total number of it’s children i.e., the total number nodes that is zero.

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Question 7.
Write an algorithm for traversal in a linear array.
Answer:
Algorithm for traversal of linear array
Traversal (A, N) – A is an array of N elements
Step 1: for i = 0 to N-l repeat step 2
Step 2: print A[i]
[End of for loop]
Step 3: Exit.

Question 8.
Give the memory representation of the two-dimensional array.
Answer:
Let A be two-dimensional array
Let M is rows and N is columns
The A array may be stored in the memory in one of the following methods;
1. Row-major representation:
In this type of method, the first row occupies the first set of memory locations reserved for the array and second-row occupies the next set and so on.

2. Column-major representation:
In this type of method, the first column occupies the first set of memory locations reserved for the array and the second column occupies the next set and so on.

2nd PUC Computer Science Data Structures Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write an algorithm to insert an element in an array.
Answer:
A is an array
N is number of elements (size)
Element is a data element
Pos is the location of the element to be inserted.

Insertion (A, N, Element, Pos)
Step 1: for i = N-1 downto Pos repeat step 2
Step 2: A[i+1] = A[i]
End for
Step 3: A [Pos] = Element
Step 4: N = N + 1

Question 2.
Write an algorithm to delete an element in an array.
Answer:
A is an array
N is number of elements (size)
Element is a deleted data element
Pos is the location of the element to be deleted.
Deletion (A, N, Pos)
Step 1: Element = A [Pos]
Step 2: for i = Pos to N-1 repeat step 3
Step 3: A[ i ] = A[i+1]
End for
Step 4: N = N -1

Question 3.
Write an algorithm to search an element in an array using binary search. Algorithm: Binary_search(A,ele,N)
Answer:
Step 1: low = 0
Step 2: high = n-1
Step 3: while (low <= high) repeat step 4 through step 6
Step 4: mid = (low + high) / 2
Step 5: Is ( ele = = a[mid]) then
Loc = mid
goto step 7
Otherwise
Step 6: is ( ele < a[mid])? then
high = mid – 1
otherwise
low = mid + 1
[end while – step 3]
Step 7: Is ( Loc >= 0 ) ? then
Print “search element found at location “, loc
Otherwise
Print “search element not found”.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
Write an algorithm to sort an array using insertion sort Algorithm: lnsertion_sort (A,N)
Answer:
Step 1: for i = 1 to n-1 Repeat step 2
Step 2: for j = i downto 1 Repeat step 3
Step 3: is ( a[j] < a[j-1])? then
temp = a[j]
A[j] = a[j-1]
A[j-1] = temp [ end of j loop]
[ end of i loop]

Question 5.
Write an algorithm for push and pop operation in stack using array.
Answer:
Algorithm for PUSH operation
PUSH(STACK, TOP, SIZE, ITEM)
Step 1: if TOP >= N-1 then
PRINT “stack is overflow”
Exit
End of if
Step 2: Top = TOP + 1
Step 3: STACK[TOP] = ITEM
Step 4: Return

Algorithm for POP operation
PUSH(STACK, TOP, ITEM)
Step 1: if TOP = 0 then
PRINT “stack is empty”
Exit
End of if
Step 2: ITEM = STACK[POP]
Step 3: TOP = TOP -1
Step 4: Return

Question 6.
Write an algorithm to insert a data element at the rear end of the queue.
Answer:
Step 1: if REAR >= N -1 then
Print “Queue is overflow”
Exit
End of if
Step 2: REAR = REAR+ 1
Step 3: QUEUE [REAR] = element
Step 4: if FRONT =-1 then
FRONT = 0.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
Write an algorithm to delete a data element from the front end of the queue.
Answer:
Step 1: if FRONT = -1 then
Print “Queue is Underflow”
Exit
End of if
Step 2: ITEM = QUEUE [FRONT]
Step 3: if FRONT = REAR then
FRONT = 0
REAR = 0
Else
FRONT = FRONT + 1
Step 4: return

Question 8.
Write an algorithm to insert a data element at the beginning of a linked list.
Answer:
Step 1: if AVAIL = NULL then
Print ” Availability stack is empty”
Else
NEW_NODE = AVAIL
AVAIL = AVAIL → LINK
Step 2: if FIRST = NULL then
NEW_NODE → INFO = ELEMENT
NEW_NODE → LINK = NULL
FIRST = NEW_NODE
Else
NEW_NODE → INFO = ELEMENT
NEW_NODE → LINK = FIRST
FIRST = NEW_NODE
Step 3: return

Question 9.
Write an algorithm to delete a data element at the end of a linked list.
Answer:
Step 1: if FIRST = NULL then
Print “Linked list is empty”
Exit
End of if
Step 2: if FIRST → LINK= NULL then
Return FIRST → data
FIRST = NULL
Else
P2 = FIRST
While P2 → LINK not equal to NULL
P1 = P2
P2 =P2 → UNK
End while
STEP 4: Return p2 → data
STEP 5: P1 → LINK = NULL
STEP 6: EXIT.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
Apply binary search for the following sequence of number. 10,20,30,35,40,45,50,55,60 search for item 35.
Answer:
Low = 0, High = 8 search_ele = 35
Mid_ele_idx = (low + high)/2
= (0+8)/2
= 4
Is 40 = 35? No
The list now is 10 20 30 35
Low =0, high= 3
Mid_ele_idx = (low + high) /2
= (0+3)/2
= 1
Is 20 = 35? No
The list now is 30 35
Low = 2, high = 3
Mid_ele_idx = (low + high)/2
= (2+3)/2
= 2
Is 30 = 35 No
The list now is 35
Low = 3, high = 3
Mid_ele_idx = (low + high) fl
= (3+3)/2
= 3
Is 35 = 35 yes
location = 3
Output:
The search element 35 is found at location 3.

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Puraka Pathagalu Chapter 5 Iruve

Students can Download Kannada Lesson 5 Iruve Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Siri Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Puraka Pathagalu Chapter 5 Iruve

Iruve Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Puraka Pathagalu Chapter 5 Iruve 1

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Puraka Pathagalu Chapter 5 Iruve 2
Siri Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Puraka Pathagalu Chapter 5 Iruve 3

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Puraka Pathagalu Chapter 4 Huchu Hurulu

Students can Download Kannada Lesson 4 Huchu Hurulu Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Siri Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Puraka Pathagalu Chapter 4 Huchu Hurulu

Huchu Hurulu Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Puraka Pathagalu Chapter 4 Huchu Hurulu 1

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Puraka Pathagalu Chapter 4 Huchu Hurulu 2

Huchu Hurulu Summary in Kannada

Huchu Hurulu Summary in Kannada 1

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Huchu Hurulu Summary in Kannada 3

1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions

Students can Download Maths Chapter 2 Relations and Functions Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, 1st PUC Maths Question Bank with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions

Question 1.
Define ordered pair.
Answer :
Two numbers a and b listed in specific order and enclosed in parentheses form is called an ordered pair (a, b).
Keen Eye: Equality of two ordered pairs:
We have {a, b)-(c,d)⇔a-c and b – d.

Question 2.
Define a Cartesian product of two sets.
Answer :
Let A and B two non-empty sets. Then, the Cartesian product of A and B is the set denoted by Ax B, consisting of all ordered pairs (a, b) such that a e A and be B.
A x B= {(a, b): a ∈ A, b∈B}
Keen Eye:

  • If n(A) = p and n(B) = q, then n (A x B) = pq and n (B x A) = pq
  • If at least one of A and B is infinite then AxB is infinite and B x A is infinite,
  • In general, A x B ≠ B x A
  • A x A x A = {(a, b, c) : a, b, c ∈A}. Here (a, b, c) is called an ordered triplet.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
If (x + 1, y – 2) = (3,1), find the values of x
Answer :
Given (x + 1, y – 2) = (3,1)
⇒ x+1=3  ∴x=2
y-2=1  ∴ y=3

Question 4.
If \( \left(\frac{x}{3}+1, y-\frac{2}{3}\right)=\left(\frac{5}{3}, \frac{1}{3}\right)\)
Answer:
Given \( \left(\frac{x}{3}+1, y-\frac{2}{3}\right)=\left(\frac{5}{3}, \frac{1}{3}\right)\)
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 1

Question 5.
If P={a,b,c}and Q={r},from P×Q and Q x P.Are these two products equal?
Answer:
PxQ = {(a,r),(b,r)(c,r)}
QxP = {(r, a), (r, b), (r, c)}
Clearly PxQ≠QxP

Question 6.
If the set A has 3 elements and the set B = {3, 4, 5}, then find the number of elements in
Answer :
Given n(A) = 3; n(B) = 3.
∴ n(AxB) = 3×3 = 9

Question 7.
If G=(7, 8} and H={5, 4, 2), find G x II and
Answer :
GxH = {(7,5),(7,4),(7,2),(8,5),(8,4),(8,2)}
HxG = {(5,7),(5,8),(4,7),(4,8),(2,7),(2,8)}

Question 8.
State whether each of the following statements are true or false. If the statement is false, rewrite the given statement correctly.
(i) If P={m, n} and Q = {n, m}, then P x Q = {(m, n), (n, m)}.
(ii) If A and B are non-empty sets, then A x B is a non-empty set of ordered pairs (at, y) such that x∈B and y∈A
(iii) If A = {1,2}, B = {3,4}, then A x {B∩φ ) = φ
Answer :
(i) Given statement is false:
Correct statement:
PxQ={(m, n), (m, m), (n, n), (n, m)}.

(ii) Given statement is false:
Correct statement:
AxB = {(x, y) :x∈A, y ∈B}.                                 ‘

(iii) True statement,

Question 9.
If A x B = {(a, x), (a, y), (b, x), (b, y)}. Find A and
Answer :
A = {a, b} and B – {x, y}

Question 10.
If A x B = {(p, q), (p, r), (m, q), (m, r)}, find A and
Answer :
A = set of first elements = {p, m}
B = set of second elements = {q, r}

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
Let A = (1, 2}, B = [1, 2, 3, 4}, C = { 5, 6} and D = (5,6,7,8}. Verify that
(i) A x (B∩C) = (A x B)∩(A x C).
(ii) A x C is a subset
Answer :
(i) B∩C = { }
∴ Ax(B∩C)=φ ………….. (1)
A x B = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2,4)}
A x C = {(1, 5), (1,6), (2, 5) (2,6)}
∴ (A x B) ∩ (A x C) = φ ………………. (2)
From (1) and (2), we get
A x (B∩C) = (A x B)∩(A x C)

(ii) A x C = {(1, 5), (1,6), (2, 5), (2, 6)}
B x D = {(1, 5), (1, 6), (1, 7), (1, 8), (2, 5), (2, 6), (2, 7), (2, 8), (3, 5), (3, 6), (3, 7), (3, 8), (4, 5), (4, 6), (4, 7), (4, 8)}.
Clearly every elements of A x C is an element of B x D.
A x C ⊂B x D.

Question 12.
Let A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {3, 4} and C = {4, 5, 6}. Find
(i) A x (B ∩ C)
(ii) (A x B) ∩ (A x C)
(iii) A x (B∪C)
(iv) (A x B)∪(A x C)
Answer :
(i) B∩C={4}
A x (B∩C) = (1,4), (2, 4), (3,4)}

(ii) A x B = {(1, 3), (1,4), (2, 3), (2, 4), (3, 3), (3, 4)}
A x C = {(1, 4), (1, 5) (1, 6), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)}
(A x B)∩(A x C)= {(1, 4), (2, 4), (3, 4)}

(iii) B ∪ C={3,4, 5, 6}
∴ Ax(B∪C)  = {(1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)}

(iv) A x B = {(1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4), (3, 3), (3, 4)}
A x C = {(1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)}
(A x B)∪(A x C) = {(1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6) (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3,6)}.

Question 13.
Let A = {1, 2} and B = {3, 4}. Write A x B. How many subsets will A x B have? List them.
Answer :
Given A = {1, 2} and B = {3,4}
A x B= {(1, 3), (1,4), (2, 3), (2, 4)}
∴n (A x B) = 4
Number of subsets of A x B = 24=16
Subsets of A x B are: A x B, φ, {(1, 3)}, {(1, 4)}, {(2, 3)}, {(2, 4)}, {(1, 3), (1, 4)}, {(1, 3), (2, 3)}, {(1, 3), (2,4)}, {(1,4), (2, 3)}, {(1, 4), (2, 4)} {(2, 3), (2, 4)}, {(1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3)}, {(1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 4)}, {(1,4), (2, 3), (2, 4)}, {(2, 3), (2,4), (1, 3)}.

Question 14.
Let A and B be two sets such that n(A) = 3 and n(B) = 2. If (x, 1), (y, 2), (z, 1) are in A x B, find A and B, where x, y, z are distinct elements.
Answer :
A = {x, y, z} and B = {1, 2}.

Question 15.
The Cartesian product A x A has 9 elements along which are found (-1, 0) and (0,1). Find the set A and the remaining elements Ax A.
Answer :
Given n(A x A) = 9 = 32
⇒n(A) = 3
But (-1, 0) and (0, 1) are in A x A
∴ A= {-1,0,1}.
Remaining elements of A x A: (-1, -1), (-1, 1),
(0,-1), (0,0), (1,-1), (1,0), (1,1).

Question 16.
If P = {1,2}, form the set
Answer :
P x P x P = {(1, 1, 1), (1, 1, 2), (1, 2, 1),
(1, 2,2), (2, 1,1), (2, 1, 2), (2, 2,1), (2, 2, 2)}

Question 17.
If A = {-1,1}, find A x A x A.
Answer :
A x A x A = {(-1, -1, -1), (-1, -I, 1), (-1, 1, -1), (-1, 1, 1), (1, -1, -1), (1, -1, 1), (1,1,-1), (1,1,1)}

Question 18.
If R is the set of all real numbers, what do the Cartesian products R x R and R x R x R represent?
Answer :
We have R x R = {(x, y) : x, y ∈ R } which represents the coordinates of all the points in two dimensional space and R x R x R = {(x, y, z)  x,y,z ∈ R } which represents the coordinates of all the points in three-dimensional space.

Question 19.
Define a relation.
Answer :
A relation R from a non-empty set A to non empty set B is a subset of the Cartesian product A x B.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 20.
Define domain of a relation.
Answer :
The set of all first elements of the ordered pairs in a relation R from a set A to a set B is called the domain of the relation R.

Question 21.
Define range of a relation.
Answer :
The set of all second elements in a relation R from a set A to a set B is called the range of the relation R. The whole set B is called the co-domain of the relation R.

Question 22.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. Define a relation R from A to A by R = {(x,y): y = x + 1}
(i) Depict this relation using an arrow diagram
(ii) Write down the domain, condomain and range of
Answer :
Given R = {(x, y): y = x + 1}
= {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4), (4, 5), (5, 6)}
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 2
Domain = {1, 2, 3,4, 5,}; Co-domain = A
Range = {2, 3,4, 5, 6}.

Question 23.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, ………….14}. Define a relation R from A to A by R = {(x, y): 3x – y = 0, x,
y ∈ A}. Write down its domain, co-domain and range.
Answer :
Given R = {(x, y): 3x -y = 0, x, y ∈ A}
= {(1, 3), (2, 6), (3, 9), (4,12)}
Domain = {1, 2, 3,4}
Co-domain = A Range = {3, 6, 9,12}

Question 24.
Define a relation R on the set N of natural numbers by R – {(x, y) : y = x + 5, x is a natural number less than 4; x, y ∈ . N}. Depict this relationship using roster form. Write down the domain and the range.
Answer :
Given R = {(x, y): x, y ∈ N and y = x + 5, x < 4}
= {(1,6), (2,7), (3, 8)}
Domain = {1, 2, 3}
Range = {6, 7, 8}
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 3

Question 25.
A = {1, 2, 3, 5} and B = (4, 6, 9}. Define a relation R from A to B by R = {(x, y): the difference between x and y is odd; x ∈ A, y∈ B}. Write R in roster form.
Answer :
Given A = {1, 2, 3, 5} and B = {4, 6, 9}
R = {(x, y): the difference between x and y is odd; x∈ A,y∈B}
= {(1,4), (1, 6), (2, 9), (3, 4), (3, 6), (5,4), (5, 6)}

Question 26.
The figure shows a relationship between the sets P and Write this relation
(i) in set- builder-form
(ii) roster form. What is its domain and range?
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 4
Answer:
Given P={5,6,7} and Q={3,4,5}
(i) Set builder form
R= {(x,y):x-y = 2; x∈P,y ∈Q)

(ii) Roster form
R = {(5, 3), (6,4), (7, 5)}
Domain of R = P
Range of R = Q.

Question 27.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}. Let R be the relation on A defined by {(a, b): a, b ∈A, b is exactly divisible by a},
(i) Write R in roster form
(ii) Find the domain of R
(iii) Find the range of R
Answer :
Given A = { 1, 2, 3,4, 6}
R- {(a, b),a,b∈A,bis exactly divisible by a}

(i) Roster form:
R = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 2), (2, 4), (2, 6), (3, 3), (3, 6), (4,4), (6, 6)}

(ii) Domain of R = {1, 2, 3,4, 6} = A

(iii) Range of R = {1, 2, 3,4, 6} = A

KSEEB Solutions

Question 28.
Determine the domain and range of the relation R .defined by R = {(x, x + 5): x e {0,1, 2,3,4,5}}.
Answer :
Given R = {(0, 5), (1, 6), (2, 7), (3, 8), (4, 9), (5, 10)}.
Domain of R = {0, 1, 2, 3,4, 5}
Range of R = {5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

Question 29.
Write the relation R = {(x, x3) : x is a prime number less than 10} in roster form.
Answer :
Given R = {(x, x3): x g {2, 3, 5, 7}}
= {(2, 8), (3, 27), (5, 125), (7, 343)}

Question 30.
Let A – {x, y, z} and B = (1, 2}. Find the number of relations from A to
Answer :
Given n(A) = 3 and n(B) = 2
∴ n (A x B) = 3 x 2 = 6
Number of relations from A to B = 2n (A x B) = 26 = 64

Question 31.
Let R be the relation on Z defined by R = {(a, b): a, b ∈ Z, a – b is an integer}. Find the domain and range of
Answer :
Given: R = {(a, b): a, b ∈Z,a-b is an integer} Domain of R-Z Range of R = Z

Question 32.
Let R be a relation from Q to Q defined by R = {(a, b)\ a,b ∈Q and a – b ∈ Z}. Show that (a, a) g R, for all a ∈Q
(ii) (a, b) ∈ R implies that (b, a) ∈R
(iii) (a, b) ∈ R and (b, c) ∈R implies that (a, c) ∈ R.
Answer :
Given R = {{a, b): a,b∈Q and a-b ∈ Z)
(i) ∀ a ∈ Q, a – a = 0 ∈ Z ⇒ (a, a)∈R

(ii) Let (a, b) ∈ R⇒ a- b ∈ Z
b – a ∈ Z ⇒ (b, a) ∈ R

(iii) Let (a, b) and (b, c) g R ⇒ a – b ∈Z and
b – c ∈ Z
a- c = (a-b) + (b – c) ∈Z
∴ (a, c)∈ R

Question 33.
Let R be a relation from A to A defined by R = {(a, b): a,b ∈ N and a = b2} Are the following true?
(i) (a, a) ∈ R for all a ∈ A
(ii) (a, b) ∈ R, implies (b, a) ∈ R
(iii) (a, b) ∈ R, (b, c) ∈ R, implies (a, c) ∈ R.
Justify your answer in each case.
Answer :
Given R= {(a, b): a,b∈N and a = b2}
= {(1,1), (2,4), (3, 9), (4, 16),…}
(i) (a, a)∈ R for all a ∈ N is not true because (2, 2) ∉ R.
(ii) (a, b) ∈ R implies (b, a) ∈ R is not true, because  (2,4) ∈ R but (4,2) ∉ R
(iii) (a, b) ∈ R, (b, c) ∈ R implies (a,c) ∈ R is not true because (2,4) and (4,16) ∈ R but (2,16) ∉ R.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 34.
Define a function.
Answer :
A relation/from a set A to a set B is said to be a function if every element of set A has one and only one image in set B, and
we write f : A → B
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 5

Question 35.
Define
(i) a real valued function
(ii) a real function
Answer :
A function which has either R or one of its subsets as its range is called a real valued function. A function f: A → B is said to be a real function if both A and B are subsets of R.

Question 36.
Let N be the set of natural numbers and the relation R be defined on N such that
R = {(x,y):y = 2x,x,y ∈ N} What is the domain, co-domain and range of R? Is this relation a function?
Answer :
Given R = {x, y): y = 2x; x, y ∈ N}
Domain of R = set of natural numbers Co-domain of
R = set of natural number
Range of R = set of even natural numbers
Clearly, every natural number is related to unique image, so this relation is a function.

Question 37.
Examine each of the following relations given below and state in each case, giving reasons whether it is a function or not?
(i) R = {(2,1), (3,1), (4,2)}
(ii) R = {(2,2), (2,4), (3,3), (4,4)}
(iii) R = {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4), (4, 5), (5, 6), (6,7)}
Answer :
(i) Given R= {(2,1), (3,1), (4, 2)}
Here every element of domain is related to unique element of co-domain, so it is a function.

(ii) Given R = {(2, 2), (2,4), (3, 3), (4, 4)}
Since the element 2 has two images namely 2 and 4, so it is not a function.

(iii) Given R = {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4), (4, 5), (5, 6), (6, 7)}
Since every element of domain is related to unique

Question 38.
Let N be the set of natural numbers. Define a real valued function f: N → N by
f(x) = 2x + 1. Using this definition, complete the table given below:

X 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
y F : (1) =  F : ( 2) =  F : (3) =  F : (4) =  F : (5) =  F : (6) =  F : (7) =

Answer:
Given function is f(x) = 2x + 1.

X 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
y F:(1)=3  F:(2)=5  F:(3)=7  F:(4)=9  F:(5)=11  F:(6)=13  F:(7)=15

Question 39.
Which of the following relations are functions? Give reasons. If it is a function, determine its domain and range.
(i) {(2,1), (5,1), (8,1), (11,1), (14,1), (17,1)}
(ii) {(2, 1), (4, 2), (6, 3), (8, 4), (10, 5), (12, 6), (14,7)}
(iii) {(1,3), (1,5), (2,5)}.
Answer :
(i) Clearly, every element of domain is related to unique element of co-domain, so it is a function.
Domain = {2, 5, 8, 11, 14, 17}
Range = {1}

(ii) Clearly, every element of domain is related to unique element of co-domain, so it is a function.
Domain = {2,4, 6, 8,10,12,14}
Range = {1,2, 3,4, 5, 6,7}

(iii) 1 is related to two elements of co-domain, namely 3 and 5, so it is not a function.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 40.
Let A={1,2,3,4), B={1,5,9,11,15,16} and f = {(1,5),(2,9), (3,1), (4,5),(2, 11)). Are the
following true?
(i) f is a relation from A to B
(ii) f is a function from A to B. Justify your answer in each case.
Answer :
(i) Every element off is an element of A x B, so f is a relation.
(ii) ‘f’ is not a function the element 2 has two images.

Question 41.
Let f be the subset of Z x Z defined by f ={(ab,a +b):a,b ∈z) Is f a function from Z to Z? Justify your answer.
Answer :
Given f={(ab,a+b):a,b∈Z)
If a = 1 and b = 4 = ab = 4 and a+b=5
∴ (4,5) ∈ fIf a=2 and b=2⇒ab=4 and a+b=4
∴ (4,4) ∈ f∴ The element 4 has two images, so f is not a function.

Question 42.
The relation f is defined by
\( f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}{x^{2},} & {0 \leq x \leq 3} \\ {3 x,} & {3 \leq x \leq 10}\end{array}\right.\)
The relation g is defined by
\( g(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}{x^{2},} & {0 \leq x \leq 2} \\ {3 x,} & {2 \leq x \leq 10}\end{array}\right.\) .
Show that/is a function and g is not a function.
Answer :
Since f(x) is unique for 0 ≤ x ≤ 10.
f(x) is a function. g(2) = 22 =4 and g(2) = 3(2) = 6
∴ z has two images under g.
∴ g is not a function.

Question 43.
Let f= {(1,1),(2,3),(0,-1),(-1,-3)} be a linear function from Z into Z. Find f(x) ).
Answer :
Since/is a linear function.
∴f{x) = ax + b
But (0,-1) ∈ f . f(0) ∴ a(0) + b ⇒ -1 = b
Similarly, (1,1) ∈ f ∴ f(1) = a(1) +a(1)+b
⇒ 1=a+b ∴ a=2 ∴ f(x) = 2x -1

Question 44.
A function f is defined by f(x) = 2x-5. Write down the values of (i) f(0) (ii) f(17) (iii) f(-3).
Answer :
Given: f(x) = 2x-5

  • f(0) = 2(0) – 5 = -5
  • f(17) = 2(17)-5 = 29
  • f(-3) = 2(-3) – 5 = -11

Question 45.
The function ‘t’ which maps temperature in degree Celsius into temperature in degree. Fahrenheit is defined by \( t(c)=\frac{9 c}{5}+32 \). Find
(i) t (0)
(ii) t (28)
(iii) t (-10)
(iv) The value of c, when t(c) – 212
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 6

Question 46.
\(\text { If } f(x)=x^{2}, \text { find } \frac{f(1 \cdot 1)-f(1)}{1 \cdot 1-1}\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 7

Question 47.
Find the range of each of the following functions:
(i) f{x) = 2-3x, x∈R,x>0
(ii) f(x) = x2 + 2, x is a real number
(iii) f(x) = x, x is a real number.
Answer :
(i) Given f(x) = 2-3x, x∈R,x>0
For x > 0,f(x) = 2 – 3x < 2
∴ Range of f= (-∞, 2)

(ii) Given f(x) = x2 + 2, x ∈ R
For x ∈ R, f(x) = x2 + 2 ≥ 2
Range of f = [2, ∞)

(iii) Given f(x) = x, x∈ R For r∈ E, f(x) = x∈R
Range of f = R

KSEEB Solutions

Question 48.
Let A = (9, 10, 11, 12, 13} and let f:A→N be defined by f(n) = the highest prime factor of n. Find the range of f.
Answer :
Given f(n) = the highest prime factor of n.
f(9) = the highest prime factor of 9 = 3
f(10) = the highest prime factor of 10 = 5
f(11) = the highest prime factor of 11 = 11
f(12) = the highest prime factor of 12 = 3
f(13) = the highest prime factor of 13 = 13
Range of f ={3,5,11,13}

Question 49.
\(\text { Let } f=\left\{\left(x, \frac{x^{2}}{1+x^{2}}\right): x \in \mathbb{R}\right\}\) be a function from R to R .Determine the range of f.
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 8

Question 50.
Find the domain of the function \(f(x)=\frac{x^{2}+3 x+5}{x^{2}-5 x+4}\)
Answer:
Given \(f(x)=\frac{x^{2}+3 x+5}{x^{2}-5 x+4}\)
f(x) is defined for all real numbers except x2 – 5x + 4 = 0
But x2 -5x + 4 = (x-4) (x-1)
Domain of f= R-{1,4}

Question 51.
Find the domain of the function
\( f(x)=\frac{x^{2}+2 x+1}{x^{2}-8 x+12}\)
Answer:
\(f(x)=\frac{x^{2}+2 x+1}{x^{2}-8 x+12} \)
is not defined when
x2 – 8+12 = 0.
∴ (x-6)(x-2) = 0
∴ Domain of f = R-{2,6}

Question 52.
Find the domain and range of the following real functions:
(i) \( f(x)=-|x| \)
(ii) \(f(x)=\sqrt{9-x^{2}}\)
(iii) \(f(x)=\sqrt{x-1}\)
(iv) \(f(x)=|x-1|\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 9

Remark: Operations of functions:
(i) Addition of two real functions:
Let f: X → R and g : X → R Then.
(f + g):X → R; (f + g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) for all x ∈ X

(ii) Difference of two real functions:
Let f : X → R and g : X → R Then.
(f – g): X → R; (f- g)(x) = f(x) – g(x) for all x ∈ X

(iii) Scalar multiplication of a function:
Let f: X → R and let ‘a’ he a scalar. Then,
(αf):X → R; (fg)(x) = f(x) for all x ∈ X

(iv) Multiplication of two real functions:
Let f: X → R and g : X → R .Then
(fg): X → R; (fg)(x)= f(x)g(x), for all x ∈ X

(v) Quotient of two real functions:
Let f: X → R and  g : X → R for all x for which g(x) ≠ 0. Then
\( \left(\frac{f}{g}\right): X \rightarrow \mathbb{R} ;\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)(x)=\frac{f(x)}{g(x)} \)

KSEEB Solutions

Question 53.
Let f(x) = x2 and g(x) = 2x + 1 be two real functions. Find (f+g)(x),(f-g)(x)
\((f g)(x),\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)(x)\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 10

Question 54.
Let \( f(x)=\sqrt{x} \text { and } g(x)=x \) be two functions defined over the set of non-negative real numbers. Find (f+ g)(x), (f – g)(x) \((f g)(x) \text { and }\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)(x)\)
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 11
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 12

Question 55.
Let f,g: R→R be defined, respectively by f(x) = x + 1,g(x) = 2x-3- Find f + g,f-g and \( \frac{f}{g} \)
Answer:
Given: f(x) = x + 1,g(x) = 2x-3
(f + g)(x) = f (x) + g(x) = x + 1 + 2x-3 = 3x-2
(f – g)(x) = fix) – g(x) = x + 1-2x + 3 = -x + 4
\( \left(\frac{f}{g}\right)(x)=\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\frac{x+1}{2 x-3}, x \neq \frac{3}{2}\)

Question 56.
Define an identity function and draw its graph also find its domain and range.
Answer :
The function f: M → R; f(x) = x for a II x∈R is called an identity function on R.
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 13

Question 57.
Define a constant function and draw its graph also find its domain and range.
Answer :
Let c be a fixed real number. Then, the function f : R→R, f(x) = c for all x∈R is called the constant function.
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 14
f(x) is defined for all real number,
∴ Domain = M
Range = { c }
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 15

Question 58.
Define a polynomial function.
Answer :
A function f : M → R is said to be polynomial function if for each x in IR,
y = f (x) = a0 + axx + a2x2 + ……………. + anxn
where n is a non-negative integer and a0,a1,a2………………….an ∈ R .

Question 59.
Draw the graph of the function f (x) = x2 and write its domain and range.
Answer:
Given function: f(x)= x2
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 16
Domain = R
Range = set of non-negative reals.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 60.
Draw the graph of the function f: R → R defined by f(x) = x3 Find its domain and range.
Answer :
Let f : R → R: f(x) = x3, ∀ ∈ R
Then, domain of f = R and range of f = R . we have
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 17

Question 61.
Define a rational function
Answer:
The functions of the type \(\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}\) where f(x) g(x) and g(x) are polynomial functions of x, defined in a domain, where g(x) ≠ 0

Question 62.
Let f : R – {0} → R defined by \( f(x)=\frac{1}{x}, \forall x \in \mathbb{R}-\{0\}\) . Find its domain and x range. Also, draw its graph.
Answer :
Given function is f : R – {0} → R defined by \( f(x)=\frac{1}{x} \)
∴ Domain = R-{0} and range =R-{0}

X -4 -2 -1 -0-5 -0-25 0-25 0-5 1 2
f(x)=1/x -0-25 -0-5 -1 -2 -4 4 2 1 0-5

1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 18

Question 63.
Define a modulus function. Find its domain and range. Also, draw its graph.
Answer :
Let f: R → R defined by f(x) =1 x I, for each x ∈ R, is called modulus function.
\( \text { i.e., } f(x)=|x|=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}{x,} & {\text { if } x \geq 0} \\ {-x,} & {\text { if } x<0}\end{array}\right.\)
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 19
Domain = R
Range = set of non negative real numbers

Question 64.
Define Signum function. Draw its graph and find its domain and range.
Answer :
The function f: R → R defined by
\( f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{lll}{1,} & {\text { if }} & {x>0} \\ {0,} & {\text { if }} & {x=0} \\ {-1,} & {\text { if }} & {x<0}\end{array}\right.\) is called signum function
We have
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 20
Domain = R
Range = {-1,0,1}

Question 65.
Define a greatest integer function. Draw its graph and find its domain and range.
Answer:
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 21
The function f : R → R define by f(x) = [x], x∈ R assumes the value of the greatest integer, less than or equal to x. Such a’ function is called the greatest integer function or step function. We have
[x] = -2 for – 2 ≤ x < -1
[x] = -1 for -1≤x<0
[x] = 0 for 0≤x≤1
[x] = 1 for 1 ≤ x < 2
[x] = 2 for 2 ≤ x < 3.
Hence, domain of f = R and range = Z.

Question 66.
Define a linear function.
Answer :
The function f : R → R defined by f(x) = mx + c, x ∈ R is called linear function, where m and c are constant.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 67.
Let R be the set of real numbers. Define the real function f : R →R by f(x) = x + 10 and sketch the graph of this function.
Answer :
Given f(x) = x +10
We have
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 22

Question 68.
The function f is defined by
\( f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cl}{1-x,} & {x<0} \\ {1,} & {x=0} \\ {x+1,} & {x>0}\end{array}\right.\).
Draw the graph of f(x)
Answer:
We have
1st PUC Maths Question Bank Chapter 2 Relations and Functions 23

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Puraka Odu Bhasha Chatuvatike Galu

Students can Download Bhasha Chatuvatike Galu Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Solutions, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Puraka Odu Bhasha Chatuvatike Galu

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Puraka Odu Bhasha Chatuvatike Galu 1

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Puraka Odu Bhasha Chatuvatike Galu 2
Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Puraka Odu Bhasha Chatuvatike Galu 3
Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Puraka Odu Bhasha Chatuvatike Galu 4

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Puraka Odu Bhasha Chatuvatike Galu 5
Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Puraka Odu Bhasha Chatuvatike Galu 6
Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Puraka Odu Bhasha Chatuvatike Galu 7

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Puraka Odu Bhasha Chatuvatike Galu 8
Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Puraka Odu Bhasha Chatuvatike Galu 9
Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Puraka Odu Bhasha Chatuvatike Galu 10
Tili Kannada Text Book Class 5 Puraka Odu Bhasha Chatuvatike Galu 11

2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 9 Constructors and Destructors

You can Download Chapter 9 Constructors and Destructors Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 9 Constructors and Destructors

2nd PUC Computer Science Constructors and Destructors One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is a constructor?
Answer:
It is a special member function that is used to initialize the data members of an object.

Question 2.
Write one reason which defines the need to use a constructor.
Answer:
The constructors are used to initialize the object automatically when an object is created. This reduces a separate function call to a member function used for such purpose. It is called constructor because it constructs the values of data members of the class.

Question 3.
What should be the access parameters for constructor declaration?
Answer:
The constructors should be declared in public section i.e., public is the access parameter for constructor declaration.

Question 4.
Can a constructor return a value to a calling function?
Answer:
No, constructors cannot return value to a calling function.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
How many types of constructors are there?
Answer:
There are three types of constructors.

Question 6.
What is a default constructor?
Answer:
A constructor which does not take any arguments is called a zero argument constructor.

Question 7.
What is the drawback of default constructor?
Answer:
All objects of a class with default constructor are initialized to same set of values.

Question 8.
Is it possible to overload a default constructor?
Answer:
Since no arguments are there, the default constructor cannot be overloaded.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
What is a parameterized constructor?
Answer:
A constructor that takes one or more arguments is called a parameterized constructor.

Question 10.
Write any one feature of parameterized constructor.
Answer:
The parameterized constructor can be overloaded.

Question 11.
Name two methods through which constructors can be invoked.
Answer:
The two methods through which constructors can be invoked are implicit call and explicit call.

Question 12.
What is an explicit call?
Answer:
It is a method of invoking a function where the declaration of object is followed by assignment operator followed by a constructor followed by argument list enclosed within parentheses.

Question 13.
What is an implicit call with reference to constructors?
Answer:
In this method, the declaration of object is followed by the argument list enclosed within parentheses.

Question 14.
When is = used with constructors?
Answer:
The = is used for the parameterized constructor with exactly one argument.

Question 15
What is a copy constructor?
Answer:
It is a parameterized constructor using which one object can be copied into another object.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 16.
Write the syntax for declaration of copy constructor.
Answer:
The syntax for declaration of copy constructor:
Classname :: Classname (Classname &ptr)

Question 17.
Can a copy constructor be invoked explicitly?
Answer:
No, a copy constructor cannot be invoked explicitly.

Question 18.
What is meant by constructor overloading?
Answer:
If many constructors differ by number of arguments or/and by type of arguments in a class is called constructor overloading.

Question 19.
What is a destructor?
Answer:
It is a special member function that destroys the objects that have been created by a constructor, when they no longer required.

Question 20.
Which operator is used with destructor?
Answer:
The operator tilde sign (~) is used with destructor.

2nd PUC Computer Science Constructors and Destructors Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is a constructor? Give an example.
Answer:
It is a special member function that is used to initialize the data members of an object,
2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 9 Constructors and Destructors 1

Question 2.
Why are constructor needed in a program? Justify.
Answer:
The objects are not automatically initialized when created. The explicit call to initialization member function can only initialize the object. This method proves to be inconvenient when large number of objects need to be initialized by giving separate function call. This problem can be overcome by automatically initializing object when they are created using constructor.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Write the syntax and example for default constructor.
Answer:
2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 9 Constructors and Destructors 2

Question 4.
Mention the features of parameterized constructors.
Answer:
The features of parameterized constructors are

  1. parameterized constructors can be overloaded
  2. parameterized constructors can have default arguments and default values.

Question 5.
Which are the different methods through which constructors are invoked?
Answer:
The different methods through which constructors are invoked are

  • Explicit call
  • Implicit call
  • Using = operator

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Write an example to show the use of parameterized constructor through explicit call.
2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 9 Constructors and Destructors 3
2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 9 Constructors and Destructors 4

Question 7.
When is copy constructor used in a program?
Answer:
The copy constructor takes an object as argument and is used to copy values of data members of one object into other object.

Question 8.
Write syntax and example for copy constructor.
Answer:
2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 9 Constructors and Destructors 5
2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 9 Constructors and Destructors 6

2nd PUC Computer Science Constructors and Destructors Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mention three types of constructors.
Answer:
The three types of constructors are

  1. Default constructor
  2. Parameterized constructor
  3. Copy constructor

Question 2.
What are the features of default constructors?
Answer:
The features of default constructors are

  • All objects of a class are initialized to same set of values
  • These constructors has no arguments
  • These constructors are automatically called when every object is created.

Question 3.
What are the disadvantages of default constructor?
Answer:
The disadvantages of default constructor are

  • Different objects cannot be initialized with different values.
  • Declaring a constructor with arguments, hides default constructor.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
Write short note for constructor overloading.
Answer:
The main use of constructors is to initialize objects. The function of initialization is automatically carried out by the use of a special member function called a constructor. The constructors are no different from other functions. Therefore constructors can also be overloaded.

Overloading a constructor means having many constructors in a class with different types arguments and/or different number of arguments. The compiler decides which version of the constructor to invoke during object creation based on number of arguments and type of arguments passed in a program.

2nd PUC Computer Science Constructors and Destructors Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the rules for writing a constructor function.
Answer:
The rules for writing a constructor functions are

  • They should be declared in the public section.
  • They are invoked automatically when the objects are created.
  • They should not have return types, therefore they cannot return values.
  • They cannot be inherited.
  • They can have default arguments.
  • Cannot refer to addresses.
  • These cannot be static.
  • An object of a class with a constructor cannot be used as a member of a union.

Question 2.
Explain default constructor with syntax and example.
Answer:
This constructor has no arguments in it. Default Constructor is also called as no argument constructor. They initialize data members with common values for all objects belongs to similar class.
The features of default constructors are

  • All objects of a class are initialized to same set of values
  • These constructors has no arguments
  • These constructors are automatically called when every object is created.

2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 9 Constructors and Destructors 7

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Explain parameterized constructor with syntax and example.
Answer:
The constructors that can take arguments are called parameterized constructors. When a constructor is parameterized, we must pass arguments to the constructor.
When a constructor is parameterized, the object declaration without parameter may not work. We must pass the initial values as arguments to the constructor. This can be done in two ways:

1. By implicit call – The implicit call is implemented as follows:
student mk (1200,19); /””implicit call*/

This method is also called the shorthand method, and is used very often as it is shorter, looks better and easy to implement. In the above example, student is a class name and mk is name of object and passed arguments are 1200, 19. One can notice that function name is not taken to invoke constructor.

2. By Explicit Call – The following statement illustrates the explicit call for the parameterized constructor
Student dushyanth = Student (1201, 20); /””explicit call*/

In the above example, Student is class name and dushyanth is object name.
After the = symbol, the name Student refers to parameterized constructor with argument
1201,20.
The parameterized constructor syntax:
2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 9 Constructors and Destructors 8

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
With an example show how constructors are used with = operator.
Answer:
The constructor argument if limited to single argument then = operator can be used to pass the values to these constructors. This is explained in the following example,
2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 9 Constructors and Destructors 9
2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 9 Constructors and Destructors 10

In the above program, c1 and c2 are objects with argument 10 and 20 respectively passed using = operator.

Question 5.
Explain the features of copy constructor.
Answer:
The features of copy constructor are

  1. The copy constructor should have at least one argument of the same class and this argument must be passed as a constant reference type.
  2. If additional arguments are present in the copy constructor, then it must contain default arguments.
  3. Explicit function call of copy constructor is not allowed.
  4. Copy constructor is also called automatically, when an object is passed to a function using pass by value.
  5. If a new object is declared and existing object is passed as a parameter to it in the declaration itself, then also the copy constructor is invoked.

Question 6.
Explain destructors with syntax and example.
Answer:
It is a special function used to release the memory space allocated by the object.
→ Name of the Destructor is similar to the class, which it belongs.
→ It does not have argument(s) and doesn’t return any value (no return type)
→ Destructor is preceded by ~ (tilde) sign.
Following points should be kept in mind while defining and writing the syntax for the destructor:

  • A destructor function must be declared with the same name as that of the class to which it belongs.
  • The first character of the destructor name must begin with a tilde (~).
  • A destructor function is declared with no return types specified (not even void).
  • A destructor function must have public access in the class declaration.

General Syntax of Destructors:
~ classname();
The above is the general syntax of a destructor. In the above, the symbol tilde ~ represents a destructor which precedes the name of the class.
For example,
2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 9 Constructors and Destructors 11

2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 16 Internet and Open Source Concepts

You can Download Chapter 16 Internet and Open Source Concepts Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 16 Internet and Open Source Concepts

2nd PUC Computer Science Internet and Open Source Concepts One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is open-source software?
Answer:
It is software with source code freely available to the customer and free to use but doesn’t have to be free of charge.

Question 2.
What is free software?
Answer:
Free software means the software is freely accessible and can be freely used, changed, improved, copied and distributed by all who wish to do so and doesn’t have to be paid.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
What is OSS and FLOSS?
Answer:
OSS means Open Source Software refers to software whose source code is available to customers.
FLOSS refers to Free/Libre/Open Source Software. It is software that is both free software as well as open-source software. Libre means freedom.

Question 4.
What is proprietary software?
Answer:
A software neither open or freely available is called proprietary software.

Question 5.
What is freeware?
Answer:
A software available free of cost to use and distribute, but not for modification and without source code.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
What are the browsers?
Answer:
It is a software application used to locate and display Web pages.

Question 7.
What is the URL?
Answer:
The Uniform Resource Locator (URS) is the global address of documents and other resources on the World Wide Web.

Question 8.
What is telnet?
Answer:
Telnet is a protocol that allows connecting to remote computers (called hosts) over a TCP/ IP network (such as the Internet).

Question 9.
What is a domain name?
Answer:
A domain name is a unique name that identifies a website on the internet.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
What is domain affiliation?
Answer:
A domain affiliation means the type of domain whether it is commercial (.com), education (.edu) or government (.gov) etc.,

Question 11.
Define e-commerce?
Answer:
The e-commerce is defined as buying and selling of products or services over electronic systems such as the Internet and other computer networks.

Question 12.
Expand IPR.
Answer:
The expansion of IPR is Intellectual Property Rights.

2nd PUC Computer Science Internet and Open Source Concepts Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List the OSS and FLOSS.
Answer:
List of OSS

  • Apache HTTP Server rhttp://httpd.apache.org/l (webserver)
  • Blender rhttp://www.blerider.orgl (3D graphics and animation package)

List of FLOSS
Mozilla Suite
OpenOffice.org

Question 2.
What is FSF?
Answer:
A Free Software Foundation (FSF) is a non-profit organization created for the purpose of supporting free software movement.

Question 3.
What are OSI and W3C?
Answer:

  • OSI means Open Source Initiative is an organization dedicated to promoting open-source software.
  • W3C is an acronym for World Wide Web Consortium is responsible for producing the software standards for WWW.

Question 4.
What is the URL and HTTP?
Answer:

  • URL- Uniform Resource Locator and
  • HTTP – HyperText Transfer protocol

Question 5.
Name the different protocols used?
Answer:
The different protocol used are HTTP, FTP, SMPT, TCP/IP, UDP, POP, etc.,

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Question 6.
List the services of e-commerce?
Answer:
Few services of eCommerce are:

  • Domain name purchasing
  • Secure hosting
  • Full integration with the payment gateway of your choice
  • Web design
  • Shopping cart system
  • Marketing

Question 7.
Write a note on WIPO.
Answer:
WIPO is the global forum for intellectual property services, policy, information and, cooperation. It is a self-funding agency of the United Nations, with 187 member states. Its mission is to lead the development of a balanced and effective international intellectual property (IP) system that enables innovation and creativity for the benefit of all.

2nd PUC Computer Science Internet and Open Source Concepts Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Open source?
Answer:
The term “open source” refers to something that can be modified because its design is publicly accessible. Open-source software is software whose source code is available for modification or enhancement by anyone but need not be free of charge.

Its developers make its source code available to others who would like to view that code, copy it, learn from it, alter it, or share it. LibreOffice and the GNU Image Manipulation Program are examples of open-source software.

Open-source software licenses allow other people to make changes to source code and include those changes into their own projects. Some open-source licenses make sure that anyone who alters and then shares a program with others must also share that program’s source code without charging a licensing fee for it.

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Question 2.
Write the advantages of WWW.
Answer:
Advantages of WWW

  • Availability of mainly free information
  • Reduces the costs of information
  • The same protocol of communication can be used for all the services
  • Provide rapid interactive communication
  • Provides the exchange of huge volumes of data
  • Provides access to different sources of information, which is continuously updated
  • Provides management of companies information systems.
  • It is accessible from anywhere, any time.
  • It has become the global media for information exchange.

Question 3.
What is Telnet?
Answer:
TELNET (TELecommunication NETwork) is a network protocol developed in 1969, used on the Internet or local area network (LAN).
The telnet provides access to a command-line, interface on a remote host by means of a virtual terminal. The network terminal protocol (TELNET) allows a user to log in on any other computer on the network. We can start a remote session by specifying a computer to connect to. From that time until we finish the session, anything we type is sent to the other computer.

The Telnet program runs on the computer and connects your PC to a server on the network. , We can then enter commands through the Telnet program and they will be executed as if we were entering them directly on the server-side.

This enables to control the server and communicate with other servers on the network. To start a Telnet session, we must log in to a server by entering a valid username and password. Telnet is a common way to remotely control Web servers.

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Question 4.
Write web servers.
Answer:
1. A web is a computer on which a web site is hosted and a program that runs on such a computer. So the term web server refers to both hardware and software.

2. A web site is a collection of web pages generally written using HyperText Markup Language (HTML). For a web site to be available to everyone in the world at all times, it needs to be stored or “hosted” on a computer that is connected to the internet. Such a computer is known as a Web Server.

3. A web server program is software that runs on the web site hosting Server computer. Its main purpose is serving web pages for requests from web browsers.

4. The Server machine hosts (stores) the web site on its hard disk while the server program helps deliver the web pages and their associated files like images, flash movies, etc. to clients (browsers).

5.  There are many web server programs available. The most famous and popular of them all is Apache developed by the Apache Foundation. It is free and also available for several operating systems including Windows, Macintosh, and Linux/Unix.

Question 5.
Write a note on open source.
Answer:
The term “open source” refers to something that can be modified because its design is 1 publicly accessible. Open-source software is software whose source code is available for modification or enhancement by anyone but need not be free of charge.

Its developers make its source code available to others who would like to view that code, copy it, learn from it, alter it, or share it. Libre Office and the GNU Image Manipulation Program are examples of open-source software.

Open-source software licenses allow other people to make changes to source code and include those changes into their own projects. Some open-source licenses make sure that anyone who alters and then shares a program with others must also share that program’s source code without charging a licensing fee for it.

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Question 6.
Explain free software.
Answer:
Free software means the software is freely accessible and can be freely used, changed, improved, copied and distributed by all who wish to do so and doesn’t have to be paid. Free in Free Software is referring to freedom, not price. In particular, four freedoms define Free Software:

  1. The freedom to run the program, for any purpose.
  2. The freedom to study how the program works, and adapt it to your needs.
  3. The freedom to redistribute copies so you can help your neighbor.
  4. The freedom to improve the program, and release your improvements to the public, so that the whole community benefits.

Question 7.
Explain URLs.
Answer:
It is the global address of documents and other resources on the World Wide Web. URLs have the following format:
protocol://hostname/other_information for
example, http:// www.vpuc.com /
The protocol specifies how information from the link is transferred. The protocol used for web resources is HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP). The protocol is followed by a colon, two slashes, and then the domain name. The domain name is the computer on which the resource is located. Links to particular files or subdirectories may be further specified after the domain name.
For example, the two URLs below point to two different files at the domain vpuc.com. The first specifies an executable file that should be fetched using the FTP protocol; the second specifies a Web page that should be fetched using the HTTP protocol:

  • ftp://www.vpuc.com/timetable.exe
  • http://www.vpuc.com/index.html

Question 8.
How e-commerce Works?
Answer:
The e-commerce is defined as buying and selling of products or services over electronic systems such as the Internet and other computer networks.

The working of e-commerce:
There are five major components of eCommerce, the Merchant Account, the Shopping System, the Payment Gateway (for real-time-processing), the Hosting Service and the Security System.
1. The Merchant Account:
Any type of real eCommerce requires a Merchant Account. A merchant account comes with a merchant identification number. In order to process transactions require either a terminal (the little box that you swipe your credit card through at retail outlets) or software that runs on your PC and will dial up the merchant via your modem/and then process the transaction and deposit the money into your bank account.

2. The Shopping System:
A site with a variety of products should use the shopping cart system because it’s the easiest way for customers to choose items during the shop. There are many choices when selecting a Shopping System but some of the most important should be. functionality, ease of use, and compatibility. Shopping systems like anything else now days can be purchased or leased.

3. SSL Certificate:
This Certificate provides security for the credit card information from the user’s browser through the trader website and then into the Gateway. Certificates can be purchased from companies like Geo Trust, VeriSign and a handful of others.

4. Gateway Account:
Once the user sends his order it is transferred from his machine to the Shop-Cart and is protected by the Secure Socket Layer (SSL), the server then sends data to the Payment Gateway. Gateways are services linked between the e-commerce website and the banking networks. The Gateway is simply the door into the ATM banking network. The processor accepts the data from the shop-cart and brings it into the ATM network.

If the order is accepted, it will then charge the order amount to the customer’s account and sends the Gateway an authorization code. The Customers Bank will then settle the remainder of the transaction at a later time.
Payment Diagram:
1. Consumer places an order with the merchant through any number of sales channels: Web Site, Call Center, Retail, Wireless or Broadband.

2. Authorize.Net detects an order has been placed, securely encrypts and forwards the Authorization Request to the Consumer’s Credit Card Issuer to verify the consumer’s credit card account and funds availability.

3. The Authorization (or Decline) Response is returned via Authorize.Net to the Merchant. Round trip this process averages less than 3 seconds.

4. Upon approval, the Merchant fulfills the consumer’s order.

5. Authorize.Net sends the settlement request to the Merchant Account Provider.

6. The Merchant Account Provider deposits transaction funds into the Merchant’s Checking Account.

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Question 9.
Explain types of e-commerce.
Answer:
1. B2B – Business to business:
Electronic commerce that is conducted between business organizations is referred to as business-to-business or B2B. for example, transactions between the manufacturing industry with suppliers of raw materials.

2. B2C- Business to Consumer:
Electronic commerce that is conducted between traders and consumers is referred to as business-to-consumer or B2C. This is the type of electronic commerce conducted by . companies such as Amazon.com, ebay.com, etc.,

3. C2B – Consumer to Business:
It is an electronic commerce business model in which consumers (individuals) offer products and services to companies and the companies pay them.

4. C2C – Consumer to Consumer:
Customer to Customer (C2C) markets are new ways to allow customers to interact with each other. In customers to customer markets, customers can sell goods and or services to each other. There are many sites offering free classifieds, auctions, and forums. Eg. Quickr.com etc.,

Question 10.
Explain the IPR in India.
Answer:
Intellectual Property Rights (IPR), very broadly, are rights granted to creators and owners of works that are results of human intellectual creativity. These works can be in the industrial, scientific, literary and artistic domains, which can be in the form of an invention, a manuscript, a suite of software, or a business name.

India has set up an Intellectual Property Right (IPR) regime, which is WTO compatible and is well established at all levels whether statutory, administrative or judicial. In the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, the office of the ‘Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM)’ has been set up under the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion.

It administers all matters relating to patents, designs, trademarks, and geographical indications and also directs and supervises the functioning of:

  • The Patent Office (including Designs Wing)
  • The Patent Information System (PIS)
  • The Trade Marks Registry (TMR), and
  • The Geographical Indications Registry (GIR)

Besides, a ‘Copyright Office’ has been set up in the Department of Education of the Ministry of Human Resource Development, to provide all facilities including registration of copyrights and its neighbouring rights.

The issues relating to the layout design of integrated circuits, the ‘Department of Information Technology’ in the Ministry of Information Technology is the nodal organisation. While ‘Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Authority’ in the Ministry of Agriculture administers all measures and policies relating to plant varieties.
Legislations Covering IPRS in INDIA
1. Patents:

  • The Patents Act, 1970.
  • The act was last amended in March 1999.

2. Design:

  • The Designs Act, 1911.
  • A new Design Act 2000 has been enacted superseding the earlier Designs Act 1911.

3. Trade Mark:

  • The Trade and Merchandise Marks Act, 1958.
  • A new Trademarks Act, 1999 has been enacted superseding the earlier Trade and Merchandise Marks Act, 1958. (Enforcement pending)

4. Copyright:
The Copyright Act, 1957 as amended in 1983,1984 and 1992,1994,1999 and the Copyright Rules, 1958.

5. Layout Design of Integrated Circuits:
The Semiconductor Integrated Circuit Layout Design Act 2000. (Enforcement pending)

6. Protection of Undisclosed Information:
No exclusive legislation exists but the matter would be generally covered under the Contract Act, 1872.

7. Geographical Indications:
The Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act 1999. (Enforcement pending).

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