2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei

You can Download Chapter 13 Nuclei Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Physics Question Bank with Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei

2nd PUC Physics Nuclei NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
(a) Two stable isotopes of lithium \(_{ 3 }^{ 6 }{ Li\quad }and\quad _{ 3 }^{ 7 }{ Li }\) have respective abundances of 7.5% and 92.5%. These isotopes have masses of 6.01512 u and 7.01600 u, respectively. Find the atomic mass of lithium.

(b) Boron has two stable isotopes, \(_{ 5 }^{ 10 }{ B\quad }and\quad _{ 5 }^{ 7 }{ B }\). Their respective masses are 10.01294 u and 11.00931 u, and the atomic mass of boron is 10.811 u. Find the abundances of \(_{ 5 }^{ 11 }{ B\quad }and\quad _{ 5 }^{ 11 }{ B }\).
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 1

Question 2.
The three stable isotopes of neon: \(_{ 10 }^{ 20 }Ne,\quad _{ 10 }^{ 21 }{ Ne }\quad and\quad _{ 10 }^{ 22 }{ Ne }\) have respective abundances of 90.51%, 0.27% and 9.22%. The atomic masses of the three isotopes are 19.99 u, 20.99 u, and 21.99 u, respectively. Obtain the average atomic mass of neon.
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 2

Question 3.
Obtain the binding energy (in MeV) of a nitrogen nucleus \(\left( _{ 7 }^{ 14 }{ N } \right) \) given \(m\left( _{ 7 }^{ 14 }{ N } \right) =14.00307u\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 3

Question 4.
Obtain the binding energy of the nuclei \(_{ 26 }^{ 56 }{ Fe\quad and\quad _{ 83 }^{ 209 }{ Bi } }\) in units of MeV from the following data:
\(m\left( _{ 26 }^{ 56 }{ Fe } \right) =55.934939u\)
\(m\left( _{ 83 }^{ 209 }{ Bi } \right) =208.980388u\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 4
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 5

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
A given coin has a mass of 3.0 g. Calculate the nuclear energy that would be required to separate all the neutrons and protons from each other. For simplicity assume that the coin is entirely made of \(_{ 29 }^{ 63 }{ Cu }\)atoms (of mass 62.92960 u).
Answer:
mp = 1.007825 amu
mn = 1.008665 amu
m (Cu) = 62.92960 amu
The energy required to separate all the neutrons and protons, from each other in the coin is equal to the binding energy of all the atoms in the coin. Number of atoms in the copper coin of mass 3g,
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 6
The atomic number of copper is 29. Therefore, one atom of copper contains 29 protons and 63-29 i.e. 34 neutrons.
∴ Mass of the constituent nucleons of a copper atom
= 29mp + 34mn
= 29 x 1.007825 + 34 ×1.008665
= 63.521535 amu
∴ Mass defect in a copper atom
= 63.521535-62.92960
= 0.591935 amu
Mass defect of all the atom in the coin,
Δm = 0.591935 x 2.868 x 1022 = 1.698 x 1022 amu
The energy required to separate all the neutrons and protons in the coin,
E = a m x 931.5 = 1.698 x 1022 x 931.5 = 1.582 x 1025 MeV.

Question 6.
Write nuclear reaction equations for
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 7
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 8

Question 7.
A radioactive isotope has a half-life of T years. How long will it take the activity to reduce to
(a) 3.125%
(b) 1% of its original value?
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 9
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 10

Question 8.
The normal activity of living carbon-containing matter is found to be about 15 decays per minute for every gram of carbon. This activity arises from the small proportion of radioactive \(_{ 6 }^{ 14 }C\) present with the stable carbon isotope \(_{ 6 }^{ 12 }C\). When the organism is dead, its interaction with the atmosphere (which maintains the above equilibrium activity) ceases and its activity begins to drop. From the known half-life (5730 years) of \(_{ 6 }^{ 14 }C\) and the measured activity, the age of the specimen can be approximately estimated. This is the principle of \(_{ 6 }^{ 14 }C\) dating used in archaeo­logy. Suppose a specimen from Mohenjodaro gives an activity of 9 decays per minute per gram of carbon. Estimate the approximate age of the Indus-Valley civilisation.
Answer:
Suppose that the number of C-14 atoms per gram was No at t = 0 (initially) when its activity was 15 decays per minute per gram. Today, i.e. after time t (age of once-living organism), the number of C-14 atom per gram left is N and it shows an activity of 9 decays per minute per gram. Now, the activity of a radioactive substance is given by,
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 11
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 12

Question 9.
Obtain the amount of \(_{ 27 }^{ 60 }Co\) necessary to provide a radioactive source of 8.0 mCi strength. The half-life of \(_{ 27 }^{ 60 }Co\) is 5.3 years.
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 13

Question 10.
The half-life of \(_{ 38 }^{ 90 }Sr\) is 28 years. What is the disintegration rate of 15 mg of this isotope?
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 14
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 15

Question 11.
Obtain approximately the ratio of the nuclear radii of the gold isotope \(_{ 79 }^{ 197 }{ Au }\) and the silver \(_{ 49 }^{ 107 }{ Ag }\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 16

Question 12.
Find the Q-value and the kinetic energy of the emitted α -particle in the α -decay

2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 17
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 18
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 19
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 20

Question 13
The radionuclide 11C decays according to \(_{ 6 }^{ 11 }{ C }\rightarrow _{ 5 }^{ 11 }{ B }+{ e }^{ + }+v:{ T }_{ 1/2 }=20.3min\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 21

The maximum energy of the emitted positron is practically equal to the Q-value of the reaction. It is because the mass of the neutrino is negligibly small as compared to the mass of the positron. Therefore, when they share the energy, the whole of the energy is carried by the positron.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
The nucleus \(_{ 10 }^{ 23 }{ Ne }\) decays by β emission. Write down the β -decay equation and determine the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons emitted. Given that: \(_{ 10 }^{ 23 }{ Ne }=22.994466u\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 22
The energy released is shared by the Na nucleus and the electron-neutrino pair released. As the electron-neutrino pair is much lighter than the 23 Na nucleus, practically the Whole of the energy released is carried by electron-neutron will carry the maximum energy. Therefore, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron is 4.374 MeV.

Question 15.
The Q value of a nuclear reaction A+b→C+d is defined by Q=[mA+mB-mc-md] where the masses refer to the respective nuclei. Determine from the given data the Q-value of the following reactions and state whether the reactions are exothermic or endothermic.
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 23
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 24

Question 16.
Suppose, we think of fission of a \(_{ 26 }^{ 56 }{ Fe }\) nucleus into two equal fragments, \(_{ 13 }^{ 28 }{ Al }\). Is fission energetically possible? Argue by working out Q of the process.
Given m(_{ 26 }^{ 56 }{ Fe })=55.93494u and
\(m(_{ 26 }^{ 56 }{ Al })=27.98191u\)
Answer:
m(_{ 26 }^{ 56 }{ Fe })=55.93494u
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 25

Question 17.
The fission properties of \(_{ 94 }^{ 219 }{ Pu }\) are very similar to those of  \(_{ 92 }^{ 235 }{ U }\) . The average energy released per fission is 180 MeV. How much energy, in MeV, is released if all the atoms in 1 kg of pure \(_{ 94 }^{ 239 }{ U }\) undergo fission?
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 26

Question 18.
A 1000 MW fission reactor consumes half of its fuel in 5.00 y. How much \(_{ 92 }^{ 235 }{ U }\) did it contain initially? Assume that the reactor operates 80% of the time, that all the energy generated arises from the fission of \(_{ 92 }^{ 235 }{ U }\) and that this nuclide is consumed only by the fission process.
Answer:
Power of the reaction, P = 1000 MW = 109W
The reactor operates for 80% of the total time.
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 27

Question 19.
How long can an electric lamp of 100W be kept glowing by fusion of 2.0 kg of deuterium? Take the fusion reaction as
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 28
Answer:
Mass of the deuterium, 2 kg = 2000g
Number of deuterium nuclei in 2 kg,
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 29
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 30

Question 20.
Calculate the height of the potential barrier for a head-on collision of two deuterons. (Hint: The height of the potential barrier is given by the Coulomb repulsion between the two deuterons when they just touch each other. Assume that they can be taken as hard spheres of radius 2.0 fm.)
Answer:
In the head-on collision of two deuterons, the two nuclei come to close up to a distance equal to the sum of their radii
∴r = 2 + 2=4fm = 4×10-15m
The charge on a deuteron
e = charge on a proton = 1.6x 10-19c
∴ The potential energy of the deuterons during a head-on collision,
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 31
∴ A deuteron will require a Kinetic energy of 360 keV to surmount the potential barrier.

Question 21.
From the relation \(R={ R }_{ 0 }{ A }^{ 1/2 }\) where R0 is a constant and A is the mass number of a nucleus, show that the nuclear matter density is nearly constant. (i.e. independent of A).
Answer:
Let us find the density of the nucleus of an atom, whose mass number is A.
The mass of the nucleus of the atom of mass number A
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 32

Question 22.
For the β+ (positron) emission from a nucleus, there is another competing process known as electron capture (electron from an inner orbit, say, the K- shell, is captured by the nucleus and a neutrino is emitted).
\({ e }^{ + }+_{ z }^{ A }{ X }\rightarrow _{ Z-1 }^{ A }{ Y+v }\)
Show that if β+ emission is energetically allowed, electron capture is necessarily allowed but not vice-versa.
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 33
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 34

From equations (1) and (2), it follows that if E1> 0, then E2 > 0
i.e if β+emission is energetically allowed, then the electron capture is necessarily allowed. On the other hand, if E2 > 0, then it does not necessarily mean that E2> 0, Thus if the electron capture is allowed, then β+emission is not necessarily allowed.

2nd PUC Physics Nuclei Additional Exercises

Question 23.
In a periodic table the average atomic. mass of magnesium is given as 24.312 u. The average value is based on their relative natural abundance on earth. The three isotopes and their masses are \(_{ 12 }^{ 24 }{ Mg }(23.98504u)\), \(_{ 12 }^{ 24 }{ Mg }(24.98584u)\) and \(_{ 12 }^{ 24 }{ Mg }(25.98259u)\). The natural abundance of \(_{ 12 }^{ 24 }{ Mg }\quad is\quad 78.99%\) by mass. Calculate the abundances of other two isotopes.
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 35
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 36

Question 24.
The neutron separation energy is defined as the energy required to remove a neutron from the nucleus. Obtain the neutron separation energies of the nuclei \(_{ 20 }^{ 41 }{ Ca }_{ 13 }^{ 27 }{ Al }\) from the following data:
\(m\left( _{ 20 }^{ 40 }{ Ca } \right) =39.962591u\)
\(m\left( _{ 20 }^{ 41 }{ Ca } \right) =40.962278u\)
\(m\left( _{ 13 }^{ 26 }Al \right) =25.986895u\)
\(m\left( _{ 13 }^{ 27 }Al \right) =26.981541u\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 37

Question 25.
A source contains two phosphorous radio nuclides \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P({ T }_{ 1/2 }=14.3d) }\quad and\quad _{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }{ ({ T }_{ 1/2 }=25.3d) }\)Initially, 10% of the decays come from \({ { T }_{ 1/2 } }\). How long one must wait until 90% do so?
Answer:
Initially 10% of the decays come from \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) the number of nuclei of \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) left behind will be 90% and that of \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) will be 10%. Let N, and N2 be the number of the nuclei of \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) and \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) present initially. It follows that  if N, = 9N1, then N2 = N
suppose that 90% of \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) nuclei decay in time t. Let N’1 and N’2 be the numbers of the nuclei of \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) and \(_{ 15 }^{ 33 }{ P }\) present after the time t. It follows that
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 38
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 39

Question 26.
Under certain circumstances, a nucleus can decay by emitting a -particle more massive than an a-particle. Consider the following decay processes:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 40
Calculate the Q-values for these decays and determine that both are energetically allowed.
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 41
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 42

Question 27.
Consider the fission of \({ _{ 92 }^{ 238 }{ U } }\) by fast neutrons. In one fission event, no neutrons are emitted and the final end products, after the beta decay of the primary fragments, are \({ _{ 58 }^{ 140 }{ Ce } }\quad and\quad _{ 44 }^{ 99 }{ Ru }\). Calculate Q for this fission process. The relevant atomic and particle masses are
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 43
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 44

KSEEB Solutions

Question 28.
Consider the D-T reaction (deuterium-tritium fusion)
\({ _{ 1 }^{ 2 }{ Ce } }\quad +\quad _{ 1 }^{ 3 }{ Ru\rightarrow _{ 2 }^{ 4 }{ He }+n }\)
(a) Calculate the energy released in MeV in this reaction from the data:
\(m(_{ 1 }^{ 2 }{ H })=2.014102u\)
\(m(_{ 1 }^{ 3 }{ H })=3.016049u\)
(b) Consider the radius of both deuterium and tritium to be approximately 2.0 fm. What is the kinetic energy needed to overcome the coulomb repulsion between the two nuclei? To what temperature must the gas be heated to initiate the reaction? (Hint: Kinetic energy required for one fusion event =average thermal kinetic energy available with the interacting particles = 2(3kT/2); k = Boltzman’s constant!, T = absolute temperature.)
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 45
the two nuclei almost come in contact with other is given by,
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 46

Question 29.
Obtain the maximum kinetic energy of β-particles, and the radiation frequencies of γ decays in the decay scheme shown in Fig. 13.6. You are given that
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 47
Answer:
E1=0
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 48
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 49
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 50

Question 30.
Calculate and compare the energy released by a) fusion of 1.0 kg of hydrogen deep within Sun and b) the fission of 1.0 kg of 235U in a fission reactor.
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 51
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 52

2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 53

KSEEB Solutions

Question 31.
Suppose India had a target of producing by 2020 AD, 200,000 MW of electric power, ten percent of which was to be obtained from nuclear power plants. Suppose we are given that, on average, the efficiency of utilization (i.e. conversion to electric energy) of thermal energy produced in a reactor was 25%. How much amount of fissionable uranium would our country need per year by 2020? Take the heat energy per fission of 235U to be about 200MeV,
Answers
Energy released per fission = 200 MeV
Efficiency of utilization = 25%
∴ Electrical energy produced per fission
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 54

2nd PUC Physics Nuclei Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 1:2, what is the ratio of the nuclear densities?
Answer:
Nuclear density is independent of the mass number of a nucleus. Since all nuclei have same nuclear density (approximately), their ratio of nuclear densities is 1:1

Question 2.
Calculate the density of hydrogen nucleus in SI units R0 = 1.1 x10-15 m and  a.m.u = 66 x 1027 kg.
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 55

Question 3.
The half-life period of a radioactive substance is 30 days. What is the time taken for \(\frac { { 3 }^{ th } }{ 4 } \) of its original mass to
disintegrate?
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 56

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
Half-life, T = 138 days
Half-life of a certain radioactive material is 138 days. After what lapse of time, the undecayed- fraction of the material will be 12.5%?
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 57

Question 5.
The half life of \(_{ 92 }^{ 238 }{ U }\) against decay is 4.5 x 109 years. How many disintegrations per second occur in 1 kg of \(_{ 92 }^{ 238 }{ U }\)
Answer:
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 58

Question 6.
Which of the following cannot be emitted by radioactive substance during their decay?
(A) Protons
(B) Neutrinos
(C) Helium nuclei
(D) Electrons
Answer:
(A) Protons

Question 7.
Starting with a sample of pure \(^{ 66 }{ Cu,\frac { 7 }{ 8 } }\) of it decays into Zn in 15 minutes. The corresponding half life is
(A) 10 minutes
(B) 15 minutes
(C) 5 minutes
(D) 7.5 minutes
Answer:
The undecayed mass left after time t is given by,
2nd PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 13 Nuclei 59

Question 8.
In r-ray emission from a nucleus:
(A) Both neutron number and proton number change
(B) There is no change in neutron and proton number
(C) Only the neutron number changes
(D) only the proton number changes
Answer:
(B) There is no change in neutron and proton number

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
If the binding energy per nucleon in  \(_{ 3 }^{ 4 }{ Li }\quad and\quad _{ 3 }^{ 4 }{ He }\) nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively, then in reaction \(_{ 1 }^{ 1 }{ Li }+_{ 3 }^{ 4 }{ He }\rightarrow 2\quad _{ 2 }^{ 4 }{ He }\) energy of proton must be
(A) 28.24 MeV
(B) 17.28 MeV
(C) 1.46 MeV
(D) 39.2 MeV
Answer:

Question 10.
Nuclear fission can be explained by:
(A) proton-proton cycle
(B) shell model of nucleus
(C) liquid drop model of nucleus
(D) independent of nuclear model of nucleus.
Answer:
(C) liquid drop model of nucleus

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Krishna Sudhama

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Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Puraka Patagalu Chapter 3 Savitribai Phule

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2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital

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Karnataka 2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 2 Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation

2nd PUC Accountancy Accounting for Share Capital NCERT Textbook Questions and Answers

2nd PUC Accountancy Accounting for Share Capital Short Answer Type Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is public company?
Answer:
A public company is defined as a company that offers a part of its ownership in the form of
shares, debentures, bonds, securities to the general public through stock market.

Question 2.
What is private limited company.
Answer:
As defined by the Section 3 (1) (iii) of Companies Act 1956, private limited company is ; defined by the following characteristics:

  • It restricts the right to transfer its shares.
  • There must be at least two and a maximum of 50 members (excluding current and former employees) to form a private company.
  • It cannot invite application from the general public to subscribe its shares, or debentures.
  • It cannot invite or accept deposits from persons other than its members, Directors and their relatives.

Question 3.
Define Government Company?
Answer:
As per the Section 617 of Company Act of 1956, a Government Company means any company in which not less than 51% of the paid up share capital is held by the Central Government, or by any State Government or Governments, or partly the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments and includes a company which is a subsidiary of a Government Company as thus defined.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
What do you mean by a listed company?
Answer:
Those public companies whose shares are listed and can be traded in a recognised stock exchange for public trading like, Tata Motors, Reliance, etc are called Listed Company. These companies are also called Quota Companies.

Question 5.
What are the uses of securities premium?
Answer:
As per the Section 78 of the Companies Act of 1956, the amount of securities premium can be used by the company for the following activities:

  1. For paying up unissued shares of the company to be issued to members of the company as fully paid bonus share.
  2. For Writing off the preliminary expenses of the company.
  3. For writing off the expenses of, or the commission paid or discount allowed on, any issue of shares or debentures of the company.
  4. For paying up the premium that is to be payable on redemption of preference shares or debentures of the company.
  5. Further, as per the Section 77A, the securities premium amount can also be utilised by the company to Buy-back its own shares.

Question 6.
What is buy-back of shares?
Answer:
Buy-back of shares means repurchasing of its own shares by a company from the market for reducing the number of shares in the open market.

Question 7.
Write a brief note on ‘Minimum Subscription”.
Answer:
When shares are issued to the general public, the minimum amount that must be subscribed by the public so that the company can ajlot shares to the applicants is termed as Minimum Subscription. As per the Company Act of 1956, the Minimum Subscription of share cannot be less than 90% of the issued amount. If the Minimum Subscription is not received, the company cannot allot shares to its applicants and it shall immediately refund the entire application amount received to the public.

2nd PUC Accountancy Accounting for Share Capital Long Answer Type Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by the word‘Company? Describe its characteristics.
Answer:
The Section 3 (1) (i) of the Company Act of 1956 defines an organisation as a company that is formed and registered under the Act or any existing company that is formed and registered under any earlier company laws. In general, a company is an artificial person, created by law that has a separate legal entity, perpetual succession, common seal and has limited liability.

Characteristics of Company

1. Association of Person: A company is formed Voluntarily by a group of persons to perform a common business. Minimum number of person should be two for formation of a private company and seven for a public company.

2. Artificial Person: Company is an artificial and juristic person that is created by law.

3. Separate Legal Entity: A company has a separate legal entity from its members
(shareholders) and Directors. It can open a bank account, sign a contract and can own a property in its own name. ‘

4. Limited Liability: The liability of the members of a company is limited up to the nominal value or the face value of the shares. Unlike a partnership firm, on insolvency of a company, the members and the shareholders are not liable to pay the amount due to the creditors of the company. In fact, the members and the shareholders are only liable to pay the unpaid amount of the shares held by them.

5. Perpetual Existence: The existence of company is not affected by the death, retirement, and insolvency of its members. That is, the life of a company remains unaffected by the life and the tenure of its members in the company. The life of a company is infinite until it is properly wound up as per the Company Act.

6. Common Seal: The Company is an artificial person ‘and has no physical existence hence it cannot put its signature. Thus, the Common Seal acts as an official signature of a company that validates the official documents.

7. Transferability of Shares: The shares of public limited company are easily and freely transferable without any consent from other members. But the share of ownership of a private limited company is not transferable without the consent of the other members.

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Question 2.
Explain in brief the main categories in which the share capital of a company is divided.
Answer:
The division of the share capital of a company into main categories is diagrammatically
explained below:

  • Authorised Capital: It is anamount which is stated in the Memorandum of Association. It is the maximum amount that the company can raise by issuing shares. This maximum amount can be increased as per the procedures laid down in the Company Act.
  • Issued Capital: It is a part of authorised capital which is offered by the company tp the general public for subscription.
  • Unissued Capital: It is a part of authorised capital that is not offered till now but can be offered to the general public in future.
  • Subscribed Capital: It is a part of issued capital that is actually subscribed by the general public.
  • Unsubscribed Capital: It is that part of the issued capital that is not subscribed by the public.
  • Called up Capital: It is a part of subscribed capital that is called up by the Directors from the shareholders of a company to pay.
  • Uncalled up Capital: It is that part of subscribed capital which is not called up till now but can be called up in future as per the need of the company.
  • Paid up capital: It is that part of called up share capital which is actually received from the shareholders.

9. Reserved Capital: As per the Section 99 of the Company Act of 1956, a limited company may call up any portion of uncalled share capital in the event of winding up of the company to pay its creditors. This amount of uncalled share capital cannot be used for any other purpose and is reserved -for paying back the creditors that is why such portion of share capital is called reserve capital.

Question 3.
What do you mean by the term ‘share’? Discuss the type of shares, which can be issued under the Companies Act, 1956 as amended to date.
Answer:
The total capital of a company is divided into equal units of small denomination termed as shares. The ownership of these shares is easily transferable, from one person to other, subject to certain conditions. The person who is contributing in the capital in the form of shares is known as shareholder.
Types of Shares As per the Section 86 of the Company Act of 1956, there are two types of shares:

1. Preference Shares: Section 85 of the Company Act, 1956 defines Preference Shares to be featured by the following rights: –
a) Preference Shares entitle its holder the right to receive dividend at a fixed rate or fixed amount.
b) Preference Shares entitle its holder the preferential right to receive repayment
of capital invested by them before their equity counterparts at the time of winding up of the company.

2. Equity Shares: Equity Shareholders have a voting right and control the affairs of a company. As per Section 85 (2) of Companies Act 1956; equity share is a share that is not a preference share. It does not possess any preferential right of payment of dividend or repayment of capital. The rate of dividend is not fixed on equity shares and varies from year to year, depending upon the amount of profit available for distribution after paying dividend to the preference shareholders.

Question 4.
Discuss the process for the allotment of shares of a company in case of over subscription.
Answer:
When the total number of applications received for shares exceeds the number of shares offered by the company to the public, the situation of oversubscription arises. A company can opt for any of the three alternatives to allot shares in case of oversubscription of shares.

  • Excess applications are refused and money received on excess applications is returned to the applicants.
  • The company can allot shares on pro rata basis to all the share applicants. The excess, amount received in the application is adjusted on the allotment.
  • In this case, the company follows acombination of both the method. It may reject some share applications and may allot some applications on the pro rata basis.

Question 5.
What is a preference Share’? Describe the different types of preference shares.
Answer:
Preference Shares: Section 85 of the Company Act, 1956 defines Preference Shares to be featured by the following rights:

  • Preference Shares entitle its holder the right to receive dividend at a fixed rate or fixed amount.
  • Preference Shares entitle its holder the preferential right to receive repayment of capital invested by them before their equity counterparts at the time of winding up of the company.

Types of Preference Shares

1. Cumulative Preference Shares: When a preference shareholder has a right to recover any arrears of dividend, before any dividend is paid to the equity shareholders, then the type of Preference Shares held by the shareholder is known as Cumulative Preference Shares.

2. Non-Cumulative Preference Share: When a preference shareholder receives dividend only in case of profit and is not entitled any right to recover the arrears of dividend, then the type of Preference Shares held by the shareholder is known as Non-Cumulative Preference Shares.

3. Participating Preference Share When a preference shareholder enjoys the right to participate in the surplus profit (in addition to the fixed rate of dividend) that is left after the payment of dividend to the equity shareholders, the type of shares held by the shareholder is known as Participating Preference Share.

4. Non-participating Preference Share: When a preference shareholder receives only a fixed rate of dividend every year and do not enjoy the additional participation in the surplus profit, then the type of shares held by the shareholder is known as Non¬Participating Preference Shares.

5. Redeemable preference share: When a preference shareholder is repaid by the company after a certain specified period in accordance with the term specified in the Section 80 of Company Act of 1956, then the type of the shares held by him/her is known as Redeemable Preference Shares.

6. Non-Redeemable Preference share: These shares are not repaid by the company during its lifetime. As per the Section 80A of the Company Act of 1956, no company can issue Non-Redeemable Preference Shares. It is merely a theoretical concept.

7. Convertible Preference Share: The shareholders holding Convertible Preference Shares have a right to convert his/her shares into equity shares.

8. Non-Convertible Preference Share: Unlike Convertible Preference Shares, the shareholders holding Non-Convertible Preference Shares do not enjoy the right to convert their shares into equity shares.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Describe the provisions of law relating to ‘Calls-in-Arrears’ and ‘Calls-in-Advance’.
Answer:
Calls-in-Arrears: When a shareholder fails to pay the amount due on allotment or any subsequent calls, then it is termed as Calls-in-Arrears. The Company is authorised by its Article of Association to charge interest at a specified rate on the amount of Call in Arrears from the due date till the date of payment. If the Article of Association is silent in this regard, then Table A shall be applicable that is interest at 5% p.a. is charged from the shareholders.

As per the Revised Schedule VI of the Companies Act, Calls-in-Arrears are deducted from the Called-up Share Capital in the Notes to Accounts (that is prepared outside the Balance Sheet) under the head ‘Share Capital’. The final amount of Share Capital is shown on the Equity and Liabilities side of the Company’s Balance Sheet. The company can also forfeit the shares on account of non-payment of the calls money after giving proper notice to the shareholders.

Calls-in-Advance: When a shareholder pays the whole amount or a part of the amount in advance, i.e. before the company calls, then it is termed as Calls-in-Advance. The company is authorized by its Article of Association to pay interest at the specified rate on call in advance from the date of payment tiJI the date of call made. If the Article of Association is silent in this regard, then Table A shall be applicable that is, interest at 6% p.a. is provided to the shareholders.

As per the Revised Schedule VI of the Companies Act, Calls-in-Advance (along with interest on it) is added to the ‘Other Current Liabilities’ in the Notes to Accounts. The final amount of Other Current Liabilities is shown under the main head of ‘Current Liabilities’ on the Equity and Liabilities side of the Company’s Balance Sheet.

Question 7.
Explain the terms ‘Over-subscription’ and ‘Under-subscription’. How are they dealt with in accounting records?
Answer:
When the total number of applications received for shares exceeds the number of shares offered by the company to the public, the situation of oversubscription arises. A company can opt for any of the three alternatives to allot shares in ease of oversubscription of shares.

  • Excess applications are refused and money received on excess applications is returned to the applicants.
  • The company can allot shares on pro-rata basis to all the share applicants. The excess amount received in the application is adjusted on the allotment.
  • In this case, the company follows a combination of both the method. It may reject some share applications and may allot some applications on the pro rata.basis.

Under-subscription: When the number of shares applied by the public is lesser than the number of shares issued by the company, then the situation of Under- subscription arises. As per the Company Act, the Minimum Subscription is 90% of the shares issued by the company. This implies that the company can allot shares to the applicants provided if applications for 90% of the issued shares are received. Otherwise, the company should refund the entire application amount received. In this regard, necessary Journal entry is passed only after receiving and refunding of the application money.

Question 8.
Describe the purposes for which a company can use ‘Securities Premium Account’. Ans. As per the Section 78 of the Companies Act of 1956, the amount of securities premium can
be used by the company for the foilowing activities:

  • For paying up unissued shares of the company to be issued to members of the company as fully paid bonus share.
  • For writing off the preliminary expenses of the company.
  • For writing off the expenses of, or the commission paid or discount allowed on, any issue of shares or debentures of the company.
  • For paying up the premium that is to be payable on redemption of preference shares or debentures of the company.
  • Further, as per the Section 77A, the securities premium amount can also be utilised by the company to Buy-back its own shares.

Question 9.
State clearly the conditions under which a company can issue shares at a discount.
Answer:
As per the Section 79 of the Company Act of 1956, following are the conditions under which a company can issue shares at a discount.

  • A company can issue shares at discount provided it has previously issued such type of shares.
  • The issue of shares at a discount is authorised by a resolution passed by the company in the General Meeting and sanction obtained from the Company Law Tribunal.
  • The resolution specifies that the maximum rate of discount is 10% of the face value of the shares, unless higher percentage of discount allowed by the Company Law Tribunal.
  • A company can issue shares at discount at least after one year from the date of commencing business.
  • If a company wants to issue shares at discount, then it must issue them within two months of obtaining sanction from the Company Law Tribunal.
  • Every prospectus related to the issue of the shares should explicitly and clearly contain particulars of the discount allowed on the issue of shares.

Question 10.
Explain the term ‘Forfeiture of Shares’ and give the accounting treatment on forfeiture.
Answer:
If a shareholder fails to pay the allotment money and/or any subsequent calls, then the company has the right to forfeit shares by giving a proper notice to the shareholder.

Accounting Treatment for Forfeiture of Shares:

i) Forfeiture of Shares that were issued at Par
Share Capital A/c Dr. (Amount called up)
To Share Allotment A/c (amount not received)
To Share Calls A/c(amount not received)
To Share Forfeiture A/c (amount received)
(Being Shares forfeited)

ii) Forfeiture of Shares that were issued at Premium
a) If premium is received, then the premium is not shown.
Share Capital A/c Dr (Amount called up)
To Share Allotment A/c (Amount not received)
To Share Calls A/c(Amount not received) .
To Share forfeiture A/c(Amount received) (Being Shares forfeited)

b) If premium is not received, then the premium is shown. ,
Share Capital A/c Dr (Amount called up excluding premium)
Share Premium A/c Dr (Amount not received)
To Share Allotment A/c (Amount not received including premium)
To Share Calls A/c (Amount not received)
To Share Forfeiture A/c (Amount received including premium)
(Being Shares forfeited)

iii) Forfeiture of Shares that were issued at Discount
Share Capital A/c Dr(Amount called up, plus discount)
To Discount on Issue of Shares A/c (Amount of discount)
To Share Allotment A/c (Amount not received)
To Share Calls A/c (Amount not received)
To Share Forfeiture A/c (Amount received)

KSEEB Solutions

2nd PUC Accountancy Accounting for Share Capital Numerical Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Anish Limited issued 30,000 equity shares of ₹ 100 each’ payable at ₹ 30 on application, ₹ 50 on allotment and ₹ 10 on 1st and final call. All money was duly received.
Record these transactions in-the journal of the company.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 1

Question 2.
The Adersh Control Device Ltd was registered with the authorised capital of ₹ 3,00,000 divided into 30,000 shares of ₹ 10 each, which were offered to the public Amount payable as ₹ 3 per share on application, ₹ 4 per share on allotment and ₹ 3 per share on first and final call. These share were fully subscribed and all money was dully received. Prepare journal and Cash Book.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 2
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 3

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Question 3.
Software‘solution India Ltd inviting application for 20,000 equity share of ₹ 100 etch, payable ₹ 40 on application, ₹ 30 on allotment and ₹ 30 on call. The company received applications for 32,000 shares. Application for 2,000 shares were rejected and money. returned to Applicants. Applications for 10,000 shares were accepted in full and applicants for 20,000 share allotted half of the number of share applied and excess application money adjusted into allotment. All money received due on allotment and call. Prepare journal and cash book.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 4
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 5
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 6

Question 4.
Rupak Ltd. issued 10,000 shares of ₹ 100 each payable ₹ 20 per share on application, ₹ 30 per share on allotment and balance in two calls of ₹ 25 per share. The application and allotment money were duly received. On first cal( all member pays their dues except ‘ one member holding 200 shares, while another member holding 500 shares paid for the balance due in full. Final call was not made. Give journal entries and prepare cash book.
answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 7
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 8
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 9

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Mohit Glass Ltd. issued 20,000 shares of ₹ 100 each at ₹ 110 per share, payable ₹ 30 on application, ₹ 40 on allotment (including Premium), ₹ 20 on first and ₹ 20 on final call. The applications were received for 24,000 shares and allotted 20,000 shares and reject 4,000 shares and amount returned thereon. The money was duly received.
Give journal entries
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 10
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 11
Question 6.
A limited company offered for subscription of 1,00,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each at a premium of ₹ 2 per share. 2,00,000.10% Preference shares of ₹ 10 each at par.
The amount on share was payable as under:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 12
All the shares were fully subscribe called-up and paid.
Record these transactions in the journal and cash book of the company:
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 13
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 14

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Question 7.
Eastern Company Limited, with an authorised capital of ₹ 10,00,000 is divided into shares of ₹ 10 each, issued 50,000 shares at a premium of ₹ 3 per share payable as follows:
On Application – ₹ 3 per share
On Allotment (including premium) – ₹ 5 per share
Oh first call (due three months after allotment)  – ₹ 3 per share
and the balance as and then required.
Applications were received for 60,000 shares and the directors allotted the shares as follows:
(a) Applicants for 40,000 shares received in full.
(b) Applicants for 15,000 shares received an allotment of 8,000 shares.
(c) Applicants for 500 shares received 200 shares on allotment, excess money being returned. All amounts due on allotment were received.
The first call was duly made and the money was received with the exception of the call due on 100 shares. .
Give journal and cash book entries to record these transactions of the company. Also prepare the Balance Sheet of the company.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 15
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 16

Question 8.
Sumit Machine Ltd. issued 50,000 shares of ₹ 100 each at discount of 5%. The shares were payable ₹ 25 on application, ₹ 40 on allotment and ₹ 30 on first and final call. The issue was fully subscribed and money was duly received except the final call on 400 shares. The discount was adjusted on allotment.
Give journal entries and prepare the balance sheet.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 17
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 18
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 19

Question 9.
Kumar Ltd. purchased assets of ₹ 6,30,000 from Bhanu Oil Ltd. Kumar Ltd. Issued equity share of ₹ 100 each fully paid in consideration. What journal entries will be made, if the shares are issued, (a) at par (b) at discount of 10%, and (c) at premium of 20%. ‘
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 20
Case (b).
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 21
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 22
Case (c)
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 23

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Question 10.
Bansal Heavy Machine Ltd. purchased machine worth ₹ 3,20,000 from Handa Trader. Payment was made as ₹ 50,000 cash and remaining amount by issue of equity shares of the face value of ₹ 100 each fully paid at an issue price of ₹ 90 each.
Give journal entries to record the above transaction.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 24
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 25

Question 11.
Naman Ltd. issued 20,000 shares of ₹ 100 each, payable ₹ 25 on application, ₹ 30 on allotment, ₹ 25 on first call and the balance on final call. All money duly received except Anubha, who holding 200 shares did not pay allotment and calls money and Kumkum, who holding 100 shares did not pay both the calls. The directors forfeited the shares of Anubha and Kumkum.
Give journal entries.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 26
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 27

Question 12.
Kishna Ltd. issued 15,000 shares of₹ 100 each at a premium of ₹ 1 per share payable as follows
On application ₹ 30
On allotment ₹ 50 [including premium]
On. first and final call ₹ 30
All the shares subscribed and the company received all the money due, with the ‘ exception of the allotment ahd call money on 150 shares. These shares were forfeited and reissued to Neha as fully paid share of ₹ 12 each.
Give journal entries in the books of the company.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 28
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 29

Note: In the Solution, the reissued price of ₹ 12 has been assumed as ₹ 120 per share.

Question 13.
Arushi computers Ltd. issued 10,000 equity shares of ₹ 100 each at 10% discount, amount payable as follows:
The net amount payable as follows:
On application ₹ 20
On allotment ₹ 30 (₹ 40 – discount ₹ 10)
On first call ₹ 30
On final call ₹ 10
A share holder holding 200 shares did not pay final call. His shares wer forfeited. Out of these 150 shares were reissued to Ms. Sonia at ₹ 75 per share.
Give journal entries in the books of the company.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 30
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 31
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 32
Working note:
Amount transferred to Capital Reserve A/c
Amount credited to Share forfeiture ₹ 80 per share
Less: Amount debited to Share Forfeiture ₹ 15 per share
Balance after adjustment ₹ 65 per share
Amount transferred to Capital Reserve Account = Balance per share after adjustment . x Number of shares reissued
₹ 9,750 = ₹ 65 x ₹ 150 per share

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Question 14.
Raunak Cotton Ltd. issued a prospectus inviting applications for 6,000 equity shares of ₹ 100 each at a premium of₹ 20 per shares, payable as follows:
On application ₹ 20
On allotment ₹ 50 (including premium)
On first call ₹ 30
On final call ₹ 20
Applications were received for 10,000 shares and allotment was made pro-rata to the applicants of 8,000 shares, the remaining applications being refused. 2017 – Money -received in excess on the application was adjusted toward the amount due on allotment. Rohit to whom 300 shares were allotted failed to pay allotment and calls money, his shares were forfeited. Itika, who, applied for 600 shares, failed to pay the two calls and her shares were also forfeited. All these shares were sold to Kartika as fully paid for ₹ 80 per share. , .
Give journal entries in the books of the company.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 33
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 34
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 35
Working Note:
1. Number of shares applied by Rohit
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 36

2. Call in arrears by Rohit on allotment
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 37

3.Number of share allloted to Itika
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 38

4: Share forfeiture amount
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 39

Question 15.
Himalaya Company Limited issued for public subscription of 1,20,000 equity shares of ₹10 each at a premium of ₹2 per share payable as under
With Application ₹ 3 per share
On allotment (including premium) ₹ 5 per share
On First call ₹ 2 per share
On Second and Final call ₹ 2 per share
Applications were received for 1,60,000 shares. Allotment was made on prorata basis. Excess money on application was adjusted against the amount due on allotment. Rohan, whom 4,800 shares were allotted, failed to pay for the two calls. These shares were subsequently forfeited after the second call was made. All the shares forfeited were reissued to Teena as fully paid at ₹ 7 per share.
Record journal entries and show the transactions relating to share capital in the company’s balance sheet.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 40
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 41
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 42
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 43

Question 16.
Prince Limited issued a prospectus inviting applications for 20,000 equity shares of₹ 10 each at a premium of ₹ 3 per share payable as follows:
With Application ₹ 2
On Allotment (including premium) ₹ 5
On First Call ₹ 3
On Second Call ₹ 3.
Applications were received for 30,000 shares and allotment was made on prorata basis. Money overpaid on applications was adjusted to the amount due on allotment. Mr. Mihit whom 400 shares were allotted, failed to pay the allotment money and the first call, and his shares were forfeited after the first call. Mr. Joly, whom 600 shares were allotted, failed to pay for the two calls and-hence, his shares were forfeited. Of the sharis forfeited were reissued to Supriya as fully paid for ₹ 9 per share, the whole of Mr. Mohit’s shares being included. Record journal entries in the books of the Company and prepare the Balance Sheet.
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 44
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 45
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 46
As per the Revised Schedule VI, the Balance Sheet of Prince Limited is as follows:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 47

2.
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 48

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Question 17.
Life Machine Tool’s Limited issued 50,000 equity shares of₹ 10 each at ₹ 12 per share, payable at to ₹ 5 on application (including premium, ₹ 4 on allotment and the balance on the first and final call.
Applications for 70,000 shares had been received. Of the cash received, ₹ 40,000 was returned and ₹ 60,000 was applied to the amount due on allotment. All shareholders paid the call due, with the exception of one shareholder of 500 shares. These shares were forfeited and reissued as fully paid at ₹ 8 per share. Journalise the transactions.
Answer:

2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 49
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 50
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 51
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 52

Question 18.
The Orient Company Limited offered for public subscription 20,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each at a premium of 10% payable at ₹ 2 on application; ₹ 4 on allotment including premium; ₹ 3 on First Call and ₹ 2 on Second and Final call. Applications for 26,000 shares were received. Applications for 4,000 shares were rejected. Prorata allotment was made to the remaining applicants. Both the calls were made and all the money were received except tile final call on 500 shares which were forfeited. 300 of the forfeited shares were later reissued as fully paid at ₹ 9 per share. Give journal entries and prepare the balance sheet.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 53
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 54
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 55
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 56
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 57

Question 19.
Alfa Limited invited applications for 4,00,000 of its equity shares of ₹ 10 each on the following terms :
Payable on application ₹5 per share
Payable on allotment ₹-3 per share
Payable on first and final call ₹2 per share.
Applications for 5,00,000 shares were received. It was decided:
(a) to refuse allotment to the applicants for 20,000 shares;
(b) to allot in full to applicants for 80,000 shares;
(c) to allot the balance of the available shares’ pro-rata among the other applicants; and –
(d) to utilise excess application money in part as payment of allotment money. One applicant, whom shares had been allotted on pro-rata basis, did not pay the amount due on allotment and on the call, and his 400 shares were forfeited. The shares were reissued ₹ 9 per share. Show the journal and prepare Cash book to record the above.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 58

Working Note: –

1. Number of shares applied by Applicant
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 78

2. Call in arrears by applicant on allotment .
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 59
3.
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 60
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 61

Question 20.
Ashoka Limited Company which had issued equity shares of ₹ 20 each at a discount of ₹ 4 per share, forfeited 1,000 shares for non-payment of final call of-₹ 2 per share. 400 of the forfeited shares were reissued at ₹ 14 per share out of till remaining shares of 200 shares reissued at ₹ 20 per share. Give journal entries for the forfeiture and reissue of shares and show the amount transferred to capital reserve and the balance in Share Forfeiture Account. .
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 62
Balance in Share Forfeiture Account (12,000 – 800 -.6,400) ₹ 4,800
Working Note:
For 400 Shares
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 63
Amount of 200 shares transferred to Capital Reserve Account, after reissue
= 200 shares ₹ 12 per share = ₹ 2,400
Total amount transferred to Capital Reserve = Capital Reserve for 200 shares + Capital Reserve for 200 shares
= 4,000 + 2,400 = ₹ 6,400

Question 21.
Amit holds 100 shares of ₹ 10 each on which he has paid Re. 1 per share as application money. Bimal holds 200 shares of ₹ 10 each on which he has paid Re. 1 and ₹ 2 per share as application and allotment money, respectively. Chetan holds 300 shares of ₹ 10 each and has paid Re. 1 on application, ₹ 2 on allotment and ₹ 3 for the first call. They all failed to pay their arrears and the second call of ₹ 2 per share and the directors, therefore, forfeited their shares. The shares are reissued subsequently for ₹ 11 per share as fully paid. Journalise the transactions.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 64
Working Note:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 65

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Question 22.
Ajanta Company Limited having a normal capital of ₹ 3,00,000, divided into shares of ₹ 10 each offered for public subscription of 20,000 shares payable at ₹ 2 on application; ₹ 3 on allotment and the balance in two calls of₹ 2.50 each. Applications were received by the company for 24,000 shares. Applications for 20,000 shares were accepted in full and the shares allotted. Applications for the remaining shares were rejected and the application money was refunded. All moneys due were received with the exception of the final call on 600 shares which were forfeited after legal formalities were fulfilled. 400 shares of the forfeited shares were reissued at ₹ 9 per share. Record necessary journal entries and prepare the balance sheet showing the amount transferred to capital reserve and the balance h share forfeiture account.
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 66
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 67
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 68
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 69
Amount of 400 shares transferred to capital Reserve Account, after reissue = 400 Shares @ ₹ 6.5 per share -₹ 2,600

Question 23.
Journalise the following transactions in the books Bhushan Oil Ltd:
(a) 200 shares of ₹ 100 each issued at a discount of ₹ 10 were forfeited for the nonpayment of allotment money of ₹ 50 per share. The first and final call of ₹ 20 per share on these shares were not made. The forfeited shares were reissued at ₹70 per share as fully paid-up.
(b) 150 shares of ₹10 each issued at a premium of ₹ 4 per share payable with allotment >. were forfeited for non-payment of allotment money of ₹ 8 per share including
premium. The first and final calls of ₹ 4 per share were not made. The forfeited shares were reissued at ₹ 15 per share fully paid-up.
(c) 400 shares of₹ 50 each issued at par were forfeited for non-payment of final call of ₹10 per share. These shares were reissued at ₹ 45 per share fully paid-up.
Answer:
Case (a)
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 70

Case (b)
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 71

Case (c)
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 72

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Question 24.
Amisha Ltd. invited applications for 40,000 share of ₹ 100 each at a premium of ₹ 20 per share payable on application ₹ 40 ; on allotment ₹ 40 (Including premium): on first call ₹ 25 and second and final call ₹ 15. Applications were received for 50,000 shares and allotment was made on prorata basis. Excess money on application was adjusted against the sums due on allotment. Rohit to whom 600 shares were allotted failed to pay the allotment money and his shares were forfeited after allotment. Ashmita, who applied for 1,000 shares failed to pay the two calls and her shares were forfeited after the second call. Of the shares forfeited, 1,200 shares were sold to Kapil for ₹ 85 per sh&re as fully paid, the whole of Rohit’s shares being included.
Record necessary journal entries
Answer:
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 73
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 74
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 79
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 75
Working Note
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 76

3. Number of shares allotted to Ashmita
2nd PUC Accountancy Question Bank Chapter 1 Accounting for Share Capital - 77

4. Profit on the forfeiture of 600 share of Rohit  = ₹ 30.000 (18,000 x \(\frac{600}{800}\) x 36,000)
Profit on the forfeiture of 600 share of Ashmita = 36,000
Profit on forfeiture of 1200 shares (30,600 + 36,000) = 66,000
Less: Loss on reissue of shares = 18,000
Transfer to Capital Reserve = 48,000
Balance in Share forfeiture Account (48,000 – 36,000) = ₹ 12,000

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1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation

You can Download Chapter 8 Gravitation Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Physics Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation

1st PUC Physics Gravitation Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following:
1. You can shield a charge from electrical forces by putting it inside a hollow conductor. Can you shield a body from the gravitational influence of nearby matter by putting it inside a hollow sphere or by some other means?

2. An astronaut inside a small space ship orbiting around the earth cannot detect gravity. If the space station orbiting around the earth has a large size, can he hope to detect gravity?

3. If you compare the gravitational force on the earth due to the sun to that due to the moon, you would find that the Sun’s pull is greater than the moon’s pull, (you can check this yourself using the data available in the succeeding exercises). However, the tidal effect of the moon’s pull is greater than the tidal effect of the sun. Why?

Answer:
1. No, It is impossible to screen the influence of gravitational force. This is mainly because unlike other forces the gravitational force acts on a body independent of the material medium or the status of the body on which it is acting or that of the body due to which it is present.

2. Yes, If the mass of the space station is large enough then the astronaut can detect gravity acting on him.

3. The tidal effect is inversely proportional to the cube of the distance while the gravitational force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance. Since the distance between sun and earth is much greater than that between the moon and earth, the effect observed due to the moon is more that due to the sun.

Question 2.
Choose the correct alternative:

1. Acceleration due to gravity increases/decreases with increasing altitude.

2. Acceleration due to gravity increases/decreases with increasing depth (assume the earth to be a sphere of uniform density).

3. Acceleration due to gravity is independent of the mass of the earth/ mass of the body.

4. The formula – G Mm(1/r2 – 1/r1) is more/less accurate than the formula mg(r2 – r1) for the difference of potential energy between two points r2 and r1 distance away from the centre of the earth.

Answer:
1. Decreases.
The value of acceleration due to gravity at a height ‘h’ above the ground ‘gh’ is given by,
gh = \(g\left[1-\frac{2 h}{R_{e}}\right]\), where Re is radius of Earth. Therefore gh decreases with an increase in height.

2. Decreases.
The value of acceleration due to gravity at a depth ‘d’ below the ground (gd), is given by, gd = \(g\left[1-\frac{d}{R_{e}}\right]\), where Re is the radius of earth. This shows that with an increase in the value of ‘d’ i the value of gd decreases.

3. Mass of the body
The acceleration due to gravity of any planet of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ is given by, g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\), where, G is the universal gravitational constant. So, the value of ‘g’ is dependent on the mass of the earth but independent of mass of the body.

4. More accurate
The gravitational potential energy of any point at a distance ‘r’ from the centre of the earth is
V (r) = \(-\frac{G m M}{r}\)
So, Potential Energy difference
= V(r2) – V(r1)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 1
= gm (r2 – r1)
= mgr2 – mgr1
(Assuming r2 – r1 ≈ R2)
Thus -GmM \(\left(\frac{1}{r_{2}}-\frac{1}{r_{1}}\right)\) is a more accurate relation.

Question 3.
Suppose, there existed a planet that went around the sun twice as fast as the earth. What would be its orbital size as compared to that of the earth?
Answer:
Let TE be the time taken for one revolution by earth and Tx be that by the planet. Similarly, let RE be the orbital radius of earth and Rx be that of the planet.
From Kepler’s 3rd Law of planetary motion, R3 ∝ T2
⇒ \(\frac{R_{x}^{3}}{R_{\varepsilon}^{3}}=\frac{T_{x}^{2}}{T_{E}^{2}}\)
Rx = RE\(\left(\frac{T_{x}}{T_{E}}\right)^{2 / 3}\)
⇒ Rx = (0.5)2/3 RE
[∵ give that TE = 2TX]
⇒ Rx = (0.63) RE
So, the orbital size of the planet is lesser by a factor of 0.63.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
One of the satellites of Jupiter has an orbital period of 1.769 days and the radius of the orbit is 4.22 × 108m. Show that the mass of Jupiter is about one-thousandth that of the sun.
Answer:
For the satellite around Jupiter
T10 = 1.769 days
R10 = 4.22 × 108m
For earth around sun
Te = 365.25 days
Re = 1.496 × 1011m
We know that,
M = \(\frac{4 \pi \mathrm{R}^{3}}{\mathrm{GT}^{2}}\)
⇒ \(\frac{M_{S}}{M_{J}}=\left(\frac{1.496 \times 10^{11}}{4.22 \times 10^{8}}\right)^{3} \times\left(\frac{1.769}{365.25}\right)^{2}\)
= 1045.039
= 1000
Thus mass of Sun is about thousand times Mass of Jupiter.

Question 5.
Let us assume that our galaxy consists of 2.5 × 1011 stars each of one solar mass. How long will a star at a distance of 50,000 ly from the galactic centre take to complete one revolution? Take the diameter of the Milky Way to be 105 ly.
Answer:
Number of stars in our galaxy = 2.5 × 1011
Mass of each star = 1 solar mass
= 2 × 1030 kg
⇒ Mass of our galaxy
= 2.5 × 1011 × 2 × 1036 kg
= 5 × 1041 kg
Diameter of milky way = 105 ly
d = 105 × 3 × 108 ms-1 × 1yr
The distance of the star = radius of its orbit = 5 × 104 ly.
Therefore, the time period of the revolving star is given by,
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 2
T2 = 1.259 × 1017 yr2
T = 3.549 × 108 yrs
It takes about 3.55 × 108 years to complete one revolution for a star around the milky way.

Question 6.
Choose the correct alternative:

  1. If the zero of potential energy is at infinity, the total energy of an orbiting satellite is negative of Its kinetic/ potential energy.
  2. The energy required to launch an orbiting satellite out of earth’s gravitational influence is more/less than the energy required to project a stationary object at the same height (as the satellite) out of earth’s influence.

Answer:
1. Kinetic energy
The potential energy of a satellite rotating in its orbit is zero. The total energy of a system is the sum of its kinetic energy (+ve) and potential energy. Since the earth satellite system is a bound system. The satellite has negative total energy. So, the energy of the satellite is the negative of its kinetic energy.

2. Less
An orbiting satellite has more energy than a stationary object at the same height. This additional energy is provided by the orbit. It requires lesser energy to make it move out of the earth’s influence than a stationary object.

Question 7.
Does the escape speed of a body from the earth depend on?

  1. the mass of the body,
  2. the location from where it is projected,
  3. the direction of projection,
  4. the height of the location from where the body is launched?

Answer:
Escape velocity of a body from earth is given by v = \(\sqrt{2 g R}\).
g = Acceleration due to Gravity.
R = Radius of earth.
1. No.
Escape velocity is independent of mass of the object.

2. No.
Assuming the value of g is the same in all the locations, it is independent of location of projection.

3. No.
The direction of projection is also immaterial as long as it is projected with the velocity above ground.

4. Yes.
It depends on the gravitational potential energy which depends on the height. Since g changes with height. The escape velocity also depends on height.

Question 8.
A comet orbits the sun in a highly elliptical orbit. Does the comet have a constant?

  1. linear speed,
  2. angular speed,
  3. angular momentum,
  4. kinetic energy,
  5. potential energy,
  6. total energy throughout its orbit?

Neglect any mass loss of the comet when it comes very close to the Sun.
Answer:

  1. No, linear speed varies from point to point in the orbit.
  2. No, angular speed varies from point to point in the orbit.
  3. Yes, angular momentum is conserved at any point
  4. No, kinetic energy varies as the speed varies.
  5. No, potential energy varies as distance, from Sun varies.
  6. Yes, the total energy of the system is always constant.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Which of the following symptoms is likely to afflict an astronaut in space

  1. swollen feet,
  2. swollen face,
  3. headache,
  4. orientational problem.

In the following two exercises, choose the correct answer from among the given ones:
Answer:

  1. No, swollen feet will not affect the astronaut as the astronaut feels weightlessness and legs do not support the weight.
  2. Yes, since most of the sense organs are on the face astronaut will feel its effect.
  3. Yes, headaches are not affected by gravity.
  4. Yes, orientation is necessary for doing any work, & without gravity also is necessary.

Question 10.
The gravitational intensity at the centre of a hemispherical shell of uniform mass density has the direction indicated by the arrow (see the following figure).
1. a,
2. b,
3. c,
4. 0
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 3
Answer:
The answer is (3) c.
The gravitational intensity at any point is defined as the negative of the potential gradient i.e., \(\left(-\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dr}}\right)\)
At any point inside the spherical shell, the value of gravitational potential is constant implying the intensity is zero.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 4
So, intensity at all points inside is zero. Since the upper half is cut off there is no attractive force on the upper portion to pull if upwards. So effectively the net force is downwards along c.

Question 11.
For the above problem, the direction of the gravitational intensity at an arbitrary point P is indicated by the arrow.

  1. d,
  2. e,
  3.  f,
  4. g

Answer:
Since, the gravitational intensity is defined as the negative of the gradient of gravitational potential i.e., \(\left(-\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dr}}\right)\) and the value of gravitational potential inside the spherical shell is constant, the value of gravitational intensity is zero.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 5
Consider any point p as shown, inside a sphere then the net gravitational intensity at that point is zero. If the upper half is cut off, the pull in the left and right side cancel each other just like the full sphere base but the pull upwards is missing. Thus the effective force is downwards along e.

Question 12.
A rocket is fired from the earth towards the sun. At what distance from the earth’s centre is the gravitational force on the rocket zero? Mass of the sun = 2 × 1030 kg, mass of the earth = 6 × 1024 kg. Neglect the effect of other planets etc. (orbital radius = 1.5 × 1011 m).
Answer:
Let the distance from the earth to the point where gravitational force is to zero be x
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 6
Given that,
Mass of sum = Ms = 2 × 1030 kg
Mass of Earth = Me = 6 × 1024kg
Orbital radius = r = 1.5 × 1011 m
Now,
We know that, gravitational force ∝ \(\frac{M}{R^{2}}\)
Since the gravitational force of Earth = Gravitational force of Sun
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 7
x = 2.594 × 108 m
At a distance of about 2.6 × 105 km gravitational force is zero.

Question 13.
How will you ‘weigh the sun’, that is estimate its mass? The mean orbital radius of the earth around the sun is 1.5 × 108 km.
Answer:
Given that
Orbital radius, r = 1.5 × 108 km
= 1.5 × 1011 m
We know that, Time for one revolution = 1 year
= 365.25 × 24 × 60 × 60s
Now,
M = \(\frac{4 \pi^{2} r^{3}}{G T^{2}}\)
G is universal gravitational constant.
⇒ M = \(\frac{4 \pi^{2} \times\left(1.5 \times 10^{8}\right)^{3}}{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times\left(3.156 \times 10^{7}\right)^{2}}\)
= 2.005 × 1030 kg
≈ 2 × 1030 kg
The estimate mass of sun is 2 × 1030 kg

Question 14.
A Saturn year is 29.5 times the earth year. How far is the Saturn from the sun if the earth is 1.50 × 108 km away from the sun?
Answer:
Distance of earth from sun is the Earth’s orbital radius;
re = 1.5 × 108 km
= 1.5 × 1011 m
Time period of Earth = Te
Time period of Saturn = (29.5 × Te)
From Kepler’s 3rd Law of planetary motion
T2 ∝ R3
⇒ \(\frac{T_{s}^{2}}{T_{e}^{2}}=\frac{r_{s}^{3}}{r_{e}^{2}}\)
⇒ rs3 = \(\left(\frac{T_{s}}{T_{e}}\right)^{2}\) re3
= (29.5)2 × (1.5 × 1011)3
rs = (29.5)2/3 × 1.5 × 1011
= 1.432 × 1012 m.

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Question 15.
A body weighs 63 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it due to the earth at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?
Answer:
Weight of the body = 63 N = mg
Now at a certain height h, let the acceleration due to gravity be gn.
So, New weight = mgn
We know that gn = \(\frac{g}{\left(1+\frac{h}{R_{e}}\right)^{2}}\)
at a height of Re/2
gn = \(\frac{g}{\left(1+\frac{R_{e} / 2}{R_{e}}\right)^{2}}\)
= \(\frac{g}{(3 / 2)^{2}}\)
gn = \(\frac{4}{9}\) g
New weight = mgn= (mg) × \(\frac{4}{9}\)
= 63 × \(\frac{4}{9}\)
= 28 N

Question 16.
Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, how much would a body weigh halfway down to the centre of the earth if it weighed 250 N on the surface?
Answer:
Weight of body = 250 N
Now, at a depth d, let acceleration due to gravity be gd,
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 8
gd = g(1-1/2)
= g/2
New weight = mgd
= mg/2
= \(\frac{250 \mathrm{N}}{2}\)
= 125 N

Question 17.
A rocket is fired vertically with a speed of 5 km s-1 from the earth’s surface. How far from the earth does the rocket go before returning to the earth? Mass of the earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg; mean radius of the earth = 6.4 × 106 m; G= 6.67 × 10-11 N m2 kg-2.
Answer:
Initial velocity of the rocket,
Vi = 5 × 103 m s-1
Mass of the Earth, M = 6.0 × 1024 kg
Radius of the Earth, R = 6.4 × 106 m
Let the rocket be of mass, ‘m’ and reach an height ‘h’
Now, The initial energy of the rocket is given by,
Total initial energy (TEi) = Initial Kinetic Energy (KEi) + Initial Potential Energy (PEi)
KEi = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × m × Vi2
= \(\frac{m\left(5 \times 10^{3}\right)^{2}}{2}\) = 1.25 × m × 107
PEi = \(-\frac{G M m}{R}\)
⇒ TEi = 1.25 × m × 107 – \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}}\) × m
At the heighest point, the kinetic energy is 0. Total Energy at height ‘h’ (TEn) = PEn
⇒ TEn = \(-\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}\) × m
Since the total energy of system is conserved TEi = TEn
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 9
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 10
0.2 (R+h) = h
0.2 R = 0.8 h
h = (R/4) = 1.6 × 106m
The rocket goes 1.6 × 106 m from the surface of the Earth and (6.4 + 1.6) × 106 = 8.0 × 106 m from the center of the Earth.

Question 18.
The escape speed of a projectile on the earth’s surface is 11.2 km s-1. A body is projected out with thrice this speed. What is the speed of the body far away from the earth? Ignore the presence of the sun and other planets.
Answer:
Escape velocity of projectile = 11.2 km s-1
Vesc =1.12 × 104 m s-1
Initial velocity of the projectile,
Vi =3 Vesc
= 3.36 × 104 m s-1
Let m be the mass of the projectile and Vf be the final velocity after it has escaped from the Earth’s gravitational field.
Initial Energy = KEi + PEi
KEi = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mVi2
By definition of Vesc, PEi = \(-\frac{1}{2} m V_{e s c}^{2}\)
Final Energy is = \(\frac{1}{2} m V_{f}^{2}\)
So, By conservation of energy
\(\left(-\frac{1}{2} m V_{e s c}^{2}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{2} m V_{1}^{2}\right)=\left(\frac{1}{2} m V_{f}^{2}\right)\)
⇒ Vf2 = Vi2 – V2esc
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 11
≈ 3.17 km s-1

Question 19.
A satellite orbits the earth at a height of 400 km above the surface. How much energy must be expended to rocket the satellite out of the earth’s gravitational influence? Mass of the satellite = 200 kg; mass of the earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg; radius of the earth = 6.4 × 106 m; G = 6.67 × 10-11 N m2 kg-2.
Answer:
Mass of the satellite = 200 kg.
Mass of the Earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg
Radius of Earth = 6.4 × 106 m
Height of the satellite = 400 km
We knew that,
Orbital velocity of the satellite,
Vo = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}}\)
So, Initial KE = \(\frac{1}{2} m V_{0}^{2}\)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 12
Now we need to apply (- TEi) energy to force it out of the Earth’s influence.
So, Energy needed = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{2(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}\)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 13
= 5.9 × 109 J

Question 20.
Two stars each of one solar mass (2 × 1030 kg) are approaching each other for a head-on collision. When they are a distance 109 km, their speeds are negligible. What is the speed with which they collide? The radius of each star is 104 km. Assume the stars to remain undistorted until they collide. (Use the known value of G).
Answer:
Mass of the Stars, M = 2 × 1030kg
Radius of the Stars, R = 104 km
= 107 m
Distance between Stars, d = 109 km
= 1012 m
Initial velocity almost 0, So KEi of each is 0. So, Initial potential energy
\(=-\frac{\mathrm{GMM}}{(\mathrm{d}+2 \mathrm{R})}=-\frac{\mathrm{GMM}}{\mathrm{d}}\)
[∵ d>>>R]
So, Initial Total Energy TEi = \(-\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{d}}\)
When the two Stars are about to collide let their velocity be V and separation is 2R.
So, TE
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 14
By conservation of energy;
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 15
≈ \(\sqrt{6.67 \times 10^{12}}\)
v = \(\sqrt{6.67}\) × 106 m s-1

Question 21.
Two heavy spheres each of mass 100 kg and radius 0.10 m are placed 1.0 m apart on a horizontal table. What is the gravitational force and potential at the midpoint of the line joining the centres of the spheres? is an object placed at that point in equilibrium? if so, is the equilibrium stable or unstable?
Answer:
Mass of each sphere = 100 kg
Radius of each sphere = 0.1 m
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 16
At the midpoint M, the gravitational pull by each sphere is exactly the same since they are identical spheres.
So, The gravitational force is zero.
The potential at M = – \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{(0.5)}-\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{(0.5)}\)
= – 4GM
= – 4 × 6.67 × 10-11 × 100
= – 2.668 × 10-8 J/kg
So, the potential at ‘M’ is – 2.67 × 10-8 J/kg
At object at M will be in equilibrium. Since mt force on it is zero. The equilibrium is unstable as a slight change in position of the mass, the net force becomes non zero and it will move.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 22.
It’s you have learned in the text, a geostationary satellite orbits the earth at a height of nearly 36,000 km from the surface of the earth. What is the potential due to earth’s gravity at the sit* of this satellite? (Take the potential energy at infinity to be zero). Mas of the earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg, radius = 6400 km.
Answer:
Mass of the Earth = 6.0× 1024 kg
Radius of Earth = 6.4 × 106m.
Height of the satellite from surface of Earth is 36000 km = 3.6 × 107m
Distance of the satellite from centre of Earth is d = (3.6 × 107m + 6.4 × 106 m)
= 4.24 × 107 m
Gravitational potential due to Earth on the satellite is v = \(-\frac{G M}{d}\)
\(-\frac{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 6 \times 10^{24}}{4.24 \times 10^{7}}\)
= – 9.438 × 107 J/kg
= – 9.4 × 107J/kg.

Question 23.
A star 2.5 times the mass of the sun and collapsed to a size of 42 km rotates with a speed of 1.2 rev. per second. (Extremely compact stars of this kind are known as neutron stars. Certain stellar objects called pulsars belong to this category). Will an object placed on its equator remain stuck to its surface due to gravity? (mass of the sun = 2 × 1030 kg).
Answer:
Since the Star is rotating, there is a force pushing it outward (centrifugal force) and a force pulling it inwards, (gravitational force).
If gravitational force (FG) > Centrifugal force (Fc)
Then the object on the equator remains stuck on the star.
Mass of Star, M = 2.5 (MSun)
= 2.5 × 2 × 1030 kg
= 5 × 1030 kg
Radius of Star = 12 km = 1.2 × 104 m
⇒ FG = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}=\frac{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 5 \times 10^{30}}{\left(1.2 \times 10^{4}\right)^{2}}\)
= \(\frac{6.67 \times 5}{1.44}\) × 1011 × m
= 2.316 × 1012 × m N
Fc = mr ω2
Where, r = radius of Star = 12 km
ω = angular speed = 2 × π × (1.2)
⇒ Fc = m × 1.2 × 104 × (2.4π)2
= 6.82 × 105 × m N
Since Fc < FG the object is stuck to Star’s surface.

Question 24.
A spaceship is stationed on Mars. How much energy must be expended on the spaceship to launch it out of the solar system? Mass of the space ship = 1000 kg; mass of the sun = 2 × 1030 kg; mass of mars = 6.4 × 1023 kg; radius of mars = 3395 km; radius of the orbit of mars = 2.28 × 108 km; G = 6.6 7 × 10-11 N m2 kg-2.
Answer:
Mass of Spaceship, ms = 1000 kg
Mass of mars Ms = 6.4 × 1023 kg;
Radius of mars rm = 3.395× 106 m
Radius of the orbit of Mars
= 2.28 × 108 km = 2.28 × 1011 m
Initial velocity of spaceship is = 0
So, the Total Initial Energy is only potential energy.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 17
= – 6.67 × 10-8[1.88 × 1017 + 8.772 × 1018]
= – 6.67 × 8.96 × 1010
= – 5.976 × 1011 = – 6 × 1011 J

Question 25.
A rocket is fired ‘vertically’ from the surface of mars with a speed of 2 km s-1. If 20% of its initial energy is lost due to martian atmospheric resistance, how far will the rocket go from the surface of Mars before returning to it? Mass of mars = 6.4 × 1023 kg; radius of mars = 3395 km; G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2kg-2.
Answer:
Mass of Mars = 6.4 × 1023kg
Radius of Mars, R = 3.395 × 106 m.
Initial velocity of the rocket = 2 km s-1
= 2 × 103 ms-1
Let the mass of the rocket be m, then the initial kinetic energy is, \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × m × (2 × 103)2
= 2 m × 106 J
Since 20% of the energy is lost due to atmost resistance, only 80% of energy is to be considered. Now,
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 18
Let the rocket reach a height ‘h’, at height h the velocity is 0. So, KEf = 0
and PEf = \(-\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}\)
TEf = \(-\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h}}\) ….(2)
By conservation of Energy , (1) = (2)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 19
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 20
0.1872 (R + h)= h
0.1272 R = 0.878 h
⇒ h = \(\frac{0.1272 \times 3.395}{0.8728}\) × 106
h = 0.495 × 106 m
h = 495 km
So, the satellite reaches a height of 495 km.

1st PUC Physics Gravitation One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the acceleration due to gravity?
Answer:
The acceleration produced on a body falling freely under gravity is known as acceleration due to gravity.

Question 2.
Write the dimensional formula of G
Answer:
M-1L3T-2

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
What is the unit of G?
Answer:
Nm2kg-2

Question 4.
What are the factors affecting the value of G?
Answer:
It is a universal constant and is not affected by any factors.

Question 5.
Give the SI unit and dimensional formula of ‘g’.
Answer:
SI unit – m s-2, Dimensional formula LT-2

Question 6.
Write the expression for acceleration due to gravity at a height (altitude) ‘h’.
Answer:
The acceleration due to gravity at a height ‘h’ from the surface of earth is given by, g1= g \(\left[1-\frac{2 h}{R}\right]\) where g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth and R is the radius of the earth.

Question 7.
How does g vary with height above the surface of earth?
Answer:
g decreases with an increase in height.

Question 8.
Write the expression for acceleration due to gravity at a depth h below Earth’s surface.
Answer:
\(g^{\prime}=g\left[1-\frac{d}{R}\right]\), where g is the acceleration due to gravity and R is the radius of the Earth.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Where is the acceleration due to gravity on earth maximum?
Answer:
Acceleration due to gravity is maximum at the poles.

Question 10.
Where is the acceleration due to gravity on earth minimum?
Answer:
Acceleration due to gravity is minimum at the equator.

Question 11.
What is the orbital velocity of a satellite?
Answer:
The velocity with which a satellite revolves in its closed orbit is called orbital velocity.

Question 12.
Write the expression for the orbital velocity of the satellite.
Answer:
The expression for the orbital velocity of a satellite revolving round the earth in a closed orbit of radius ‘r’ is given by,
v = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{r}}}\)
where G is the gravitational constant and M is the mass of the earth.

Question 13.
What is the escape velocity of a body?
Answer:
The minimum velocity with which a body must be projected such that it escapes from the earth’s gravitational pull is called escape velocity.

Question 14.
Give the expression for the escape velocity.
Answer:
Escape velocity is given by,
Ve = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 G M}{R}}\)
where G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the earth and R is the radius of the earth.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
What is a satellite?
Answer:
Satellite is an object moving round a planet in a closed and stable orbit.

Question 16.
What is a geostationary satellite?
Answer:
A satellite which revolves round the earth with the same angular speed and the same direction as that of the earth around its axis is a geostationary satellite.

Question 17.
What is the period of a geostationary satellite?
Answer:
24 hours

Question 18.
What is meant by remote sensing?
Answer:
Obtaining data about material from a distance using sensors is called remote sensing.

Question 19.
Mention the relation between escape velocity and Orbiting velocity.
Answer:
Escape velocity ve = \(\sqrt{2}\) vo

Question 20.
Assume a hole is made through the centre of the Earth along the diameter. What type of motion does the mass execute if it is dropped into the hole?
Answer:
Simple Harmonic Motion.

Question 21.
Is the potential energy of an object on the surface of Earth zero?
Answer:
No, It is given by \(-\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}}\).

Question 22.
What is basis for Kepler’s 2nd Law of Planetary Motion?
Answer:
The law of conservation of angular momentum.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 23.
If the Earth stops rotating axis. What will happen to the value of
Answer:
Since the Earth stopped rotation the centrifugal force pushing the objects outside becomes zero. So the value of g increases.

Question 24
Write one most important application of geostationary satellite.
Answer:
Long-distance communication.

Question 25.
What is the effect of the Non-sphericity of Earth on the value of ‘g’?
Answer:
The value of g keeps varying with different places on Earth. It is maximum at poles and minimum at the equator.

Question 26.
What is the condition for a uniform sphere to be black hole?
Answer:
Condition is, \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}}}\) = c,
Where M is mass of the sphere,
R is radius of sphere,
C is velocity of light.

Question 27.
How does the Orbital velocity of a satellite depend on the mass of the satellite?
Answer:
It is Independent of mass of satellite.

Question 28.
What does a spring balance measure mass or weight?
Answer:
Weight.

Question 29.
The Gravitational Potential Energy of a body at a point in a gravitational field of another body is \(-\frac{G M m}{r}\) What does -ve sign show?
Answer:
The negative sign implies that the body is bound to the body of mass M.

1st PUC Physics Gravitation Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define the potential energy of a body. Give an expression for the gravitational potential energy of a body.
Answer:
The energy possessed by a body due to its position is called potential energy. Gravitational potential energy is = mg h.

Question 2.
State and explain Newton’s law of gravitation.
Answer:
Everybody in this universe attracts every other body with a force which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. If m1 and m2 are the masses of two bodies separated by a distance ‘r’, then the gravitational force F between them is,
\(\mathrm{F} \propto \frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{m}_{2}}{\mathrm{r}^{2}}\) or
\(\mathrm{F}=\frac{\mathrm{Gm}_{1} \mathrm{m}_{2}}{\mathrm{r}^{2}}\)
Where ‘G’ is called the gravitational constant.

Question 3.
Define universal gravitational constant G. What is the dimensional formula of G?
Answer:
The gravitational constant is numerically equal to the force of attraction between two bodies of unit masses separated by unit distance.
Dimensional formula of G is [M-1L3 T-2]

Question 4.
Derive the relation between acceleration due to gravity (g) and the gravitational constant (G)
Answer:
Consider a body of mass ‘m’ on the surface of the earth of mass M. Let R be the radius of the Earth. The gravitational force exerted on the body according to Newton’s second law is,
F1 = mg ……(1)
where ‘g’ is the acceleration due to gravity.
According to Newton’s law of gravitation, the force between the body close to the surface of the earth and the earth is,
F2 = G. \(\frac{m M}{R^{2}}\) ………(2)
But F1 = F2
∴ mg = \(\frac{G m M}{R^{2}}\)
g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\).

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Explain the variation of ‘g’ due to the shape of the earth?
Answer:
On the surface of the earth g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)
Since G and M are constants g \(\propto \frac{1}{R^{2}}\)
Due to the ellipsoidal shape of the earth equatorial radius is greater than the polar radius. So ‘g’ is maximum at the poles than at the equator.

Question 6.
Mention the factors on which the orbital velocity and escape velocity depends.
Answer:
The orbital velocity and escape velocity depend on the mass of the planet and its radius.

Question 7.
State and explain Kepler’s law for planetary motion.
Answer:

  • I Law: Every planet moves in an elliptical orbit around the sun with the sun at one of the focuses.
  • II Law: The line joining the planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time.
  • III Law: The square of the period of any planet about the sun is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of the ellipse.

Question 8.
Explain what is meant by weightlessness?
Answer:
The weight of a body is measured by the reaction of the surface which supports the body. When a person is standing on the lift the person presses the surface with a force equal to his weight. The equal and opposite reaction of the surface on the person gives the sensation of weight.
When the lifts start moving downwards with acceleration, the reaction on the person becomes less and he feels his weight to be less.

When the lift falls freely, both the person and the lift are moving downwards with equal acceleration. Thus the surface does not exert any force on the body. Such a state is called weightlessness. Similarly, the astronauts in a spacecraft orbiting round the earth experience weightlessness.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Give any two applications of remote sensing.
Answer:

  1. remote sensing is used for mapping forests.
  2. remote sensing is used for groundwater exploration.

Question 10.
How is a satellite launched?
Answer:
In order to launch a satellite, it is taken vertically upwards to the required orbit and then appropriate horizontal velocity is imparted to the satellite so that it revolves round the earth.

Question 11.
Distinguish between inertial mass and gravitational mass.
Answer:
Inertial mass of a body is a measure of its inertia. It is determined using Newton’s second law of motion. Gravitational mass is a measure of the gravitational pull acting on it. It is determined using Newton’s law of gravitation.

Question 12.
Find the expression for the weight of the body at centre of the Earth.
Answer:
We know that, the value of acceleration due to gravity at depth d is given by \(\mathrm{g}_{\mathrm{d}}=\mathrm{g}\left[1-\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{R}}\right]\) where R is radius of Earth.
At depth = R, gd = g[1 – R/R] = 0
So, weight of the body at centre of Earth is 0.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 13.
Is it possible to keep a satellite, so that it is always over Kashmir? Why?
Answer:
No, It is possible to place a geostationary satellite on an equatorial plane. Since Kashmir is not on the equator it is not possible to place a satellite above it.

Question 14.
Find the height at which g is the same as that at depth R/2.
Answer:
The acceleration due to- gravity at depth R/2 is
gd = g[1 – d/R] = g \(\left[1-\frac{\mathrm{R} / 2}{\mathrm{R}}\right]\)
= g/2
At height h
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 21
h = R/4

Question 15.
The mass of 2 bodies are tripled and distance is halved, how will the gravitational force change?
Answer:
We know that Fg = \(\frac{\mathrm{Gm}_{1} \mathrm{m}_{2}}{\mathrm{r}^{2}}\)
Now, m1 and m2 are made 3 m1 and 3 m2 respectively and r is made (r/2).
G (3m1)(3m2)
So, \(F_{g}^{\prime}=\frac{G\left(3 m_{1}\right)\left(3 m_{2}\right)}{(r / 2)^{2}}\) = 36 Fg
Gravitational force increases 36 times.

Question 16.
Define gravitational field strength. Find the field at a point distance ‘x’ form a mass ‘m1‘.
Answer:
The gravitational field is defined as the gravitation force experienced by an object of unit mass at any point. The Gravitational force on an object of mass m due to mass ‘m1‘ at a distance x.
F = \(\frac{\mathrm{Gm}_{1} \mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{x}^{2}}\)
Field = \(\frac{F}{m}=\frac{G m_{1}}{x^{2}}\)

Question 17.
A planet’s radius is reduced by 5%, with its mass unchanged. What is the percentage change in ‘g’?
Answer:
We know that g \(\propto \frac{1}{R^{2}}\)
So, \(\frac{\Delta g}{g}\) = – 2 \(\frac{\Delta R}{R}\)
⇒ \(\frac{\Delta g}{g}\) = – 2(5%) = – 10%

Question 18.
What is the gravitational force on a body inside a spherical shell? Why?
Answer:
Inside the shell, the net gravitational force is zero. This is because there is no mass inside, the gravitational field is zero, thereby force is zero.

Question 19.
The value of ‘g’ on the moon is 1/6th of that of Earth and diametre of moon is 1/4th that of Earth. Find the ratio of
escape velocities.
Answer:
We know that,
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 22
The escape velocity of moon is about 4.9 times that of Earth.

Question 20.
State universal law of gravitation. Establish the relation Me = \(\frac{\mathrm{g} \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{e}}^{2}}{\mathrm{G}}\), where Me and Re are the mass and radius of Earth respectively.
Answer:
The universal law of gravitation states that everybody in the universe attracts every other body with a force which is directly proportional to their masses and inversely proportional to the square of distance between them.
F \(\propto \frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
⇒ F = \(\frac{\mathrm{Gm}_{1} \mathrm{m}_{2}}{\mathrm{r}^{2}}\)
For the body of mass ‘m’ on earth.
F = mg = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{e}} \mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{e}}^{2}}\)
⇒ Me = \(\frac{R_{e}^{2} g}{G}\)

Question 21.
The radii of 2 planets are R and 2R respectively and their elements e and e/2 respectively. What is the ratio of their acceleration due to gravity at their surface?
Answer:
We know that,
g ∝ M and g ∝ 1/R2
⇒ g ∝ \(\frac{\rho \mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\) (∵ M = ρV)
Since V ∝ R3
g ∝ \(\frac{\rho \mathrm{R}^{3}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
i.e.; g ∝ ρR
Given that, ρ1 = ρ
ρ2 = ρ/2
R1 = R
R1 = 2R
⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{g}_{1}}{\mathrm{g}_{2}}=\frac{\rho_{1} \mathrm{R}_{1}}{\rho_{2} \mathrm{R}_{2}}=\frac{\rho \mathrm{R}}{(\rho / 2)(2 \mathrm{R})}=1\).

KSEEB Solutions

Question 22.
The change In the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ and depth ‘d’ is same. Assuming h and d are both very small compared to radius of Earth. Find ratio of h with respect to d.
Answer:
We know that ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ is given by \(g^{\prime}=g\left[1-\frac{2h}{R}\right]\) …….(1)
g at a depth ‘d’ is given by,
\(g^{\prime}=g\left[1-\frac{d}{R}\right]\) ……..(2)
Comparing (1) and (2), we can write
2h = d
⇒ \(\frac{h}{d}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 23.
If the Earth’s mass is 9 times and radius is 4 times that of Mars. Find the escape velocity of Mars. If that of Earth is 11.2 km s-1
Answer:
We know that, escape velocity is given by,
Vesc = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}}}\)
Let Vm, Ve be escape velocity of mars and Earth then, Vm = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{m}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{m}}}}\)
\(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{G}\left(\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{e}} / 9\right)}{\left(\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{e}} / 4\right)}}\)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 23
= 7.47 kms-1

Question 24.
A black hole is a body from whose surface nothing may ever escape. What is the condition for a uniform spherical mass M to be a black hole? What should be radius of earth if it has to be a black hole?
Answer:
For a body to be a black hole, even light should not escape. So limiting escape velocity is 3 × 108 ms-1
So, for body of Mass M, condition is,
\(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}}}\) ≥ 3 × 108 ms-1
For Earth, M = 6 × 1024 kg
\(\frac{2 \times 6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 6 \times 10^{24}}{R}\) = (3 × 108)2 R
= 9 × 10-2 m
R = 9 cm.

1st PUC Physics Gravitation Three Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The mass and diameter of a planet are 4 times those of Earth. What will be the time period of oscillation of the seconds pendulum on that planet?
Answer:
We know that the time period of oscillation of the pendulum is given by,
\(\mathrm{T}=\sqrt[2 \pi]{\frac{1}{g}}\)
Let the value of ‘g’ on the planet be gp and on earth be ge.
We know that, g ∝ \(\frac{M}{R^{2}}\)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 24
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 25
⇒ Tp = 2 Ts
Since it is a seconds pendulum Te = 1s
⇒ Tp = 2s.

Question 2.
Three equal masses are placed on three corners of equilateral triangles. What is work done in doing this?
Answer:
When ma is brought no work is done when mb is brought work done is, \(-\frac{G m_{a} m_{b}}{x}\)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 26
When mc is brought to point C from infinity.
The work done is \(-\frac{G m_{a} m_{c}}{x}\)\(-\frac{G m_{b} m_{c}}{x}\)
Total work done
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 27
Since all masses are equal, total work done is = \(-\frac{3 G m^{2}}{x}\)

Question 3.
Show that the gravitational potential at point of distant ‘a’ from the mass M1 is given by, V = \(-\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{1}}{\mathrm{a}}\).
Answer:
Consider a mass ‘m’ placed at a distance a from a mass M, then force is given by,
\(\mathrm{F}=\frac{\mathrm{GmM}_{1}}{\mathrm{a}^{2}}\)
Let the work done in moving the body through a distance dx, if it originally at a distance x, the work done be dw.
dw = F.dx
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 28
The potential energy is the amount of work done in bringing the object from ∞ to point ‘a’. PE, U = \(-\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{1} \mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{a}}\)
Gravitational potential is PE per unit mass
⇒ V = \(\frac{\mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{m}}=-\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{1}}{\mathrm{a}}\)

Question 4.
What happens to a body when it’s projected up with a velocity of 11.2 km s-1? Why? Compare escape speeds of 2 planets of mass M and 4 M and radii 2 R and R respectively.
Answer:
When the object is throw up with 11.2 km s-1, which is equal to the escape velocity. The object doesn’t come back and escapes from Earth’s gravitational field. The escape velocity is given by,
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 29
\(\frac{V_{\mathrm{esc}_{1}}}{V_{\mathrm{esc}_{2}}}=\frac{1}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)
The escape velocity of the 2nd planet is greater by a factor of 2\(\sqrt{2}\).

Question 5.
What are geostationary satellite? Calculate the height of the orbit above surface of Earth in which a satellite, if placed, will appear stationary.
Answer:
A geostationary satellite is a satellite which revolves around the Earth with exact same angular speed and direction as the Earth. Thus it appears stationary from Earth.
T = 24 × 3600 s = 8.64 × 104s
Let h be the height of orbit. Then,
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 30
≅ (4.24 × 107) – (6.4 × 106)m
≈ 3.6 × 107 m or 36,000 km from the surface of Earth.

Question 6.
Explain the variation of ‘g’ with

  1. height
  2. depth

Answer:
Consider M to be mass of Earth and R to be radius of Earth.
1. At a point ‘h’ above the ground
New g is gn = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})^{2}}\)
\(=\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}\left[1+\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{R}}\right]^{2}}\)
gn = g[1 + \(\frac{h}{R}\)]-2
if h << R,
gn = g[1 – \(\frac{2h}{R}\)]
So, g decreases with increase in height,

2. At a depth ‘d’ below the ground. The new g, gd is given by
dd = g[1 – \(\frac{d}{R}\)]
So, g also decreases with depth.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 7.
If the earth is one half of its present distance from the sun, How many days will the present one year on the surface will change?
Answer:
We know that, T2 ∝ R3
\(\left(\frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}\right)^{2}=\left(\frac{R_{1}}{R_{2}}\right)^{3}\)
Since, R is halved
T1 = (1/2)3/2T
= \(\frac{T}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)
T1 = 129 days
The year of the new Earth will have 236 days lesser.

Question 8.
Define gravitational potential and field intensity. Give their units. Also, write relation between them.
Answer:
Gravitational potential at point is defined as the work done in bringing a body of unit mass from infinity to that point. Its unit is J/kg, denoted by V Gravitational field intensity is defined as the force experienced by a unit mass at that point. It is expressed in N/kg, denoted by I.
I = \(-\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}}\)

Question 9.
A body weighs 90 kg f on the surface of Earth. What is its weight on a planet whose mass ln \(\frac{1}{9}\) and radius is \(\frac{1}{2}\) of Earth ?
Answer:
We know that g ∝ \(\frac{M}{R^{2}}\)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 31
Let m be the mass of the object, then its weight is m = m [\(\frac{4}{9}\) ge]
\(\frac{4}{9}\)(m)
\(\frac{4}{9}\) (90kgf)
= 40kgf

Question 10.
The escape velocity v of a body depends on

  1. the acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ and
  2.  the radius of planet ‘R’

Find the relation between them using dimension analysis.
Answer:
We know that,
Escape velocity = V = [LT-1]
Acceleration due to gravity = g = [LT-2]
and Radius = R = [L]
⇒ Let V = kgaRb
⇒ [LT-1] = [LaT-2a] [Lb]
a + b = 1 and -2a = -1
⇒ a = 1/2 and b =1/2
So, V = k \(\sqrt{\mathrm{Rg}}\).

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
State Newton’s Law of Gravitation. Find a % decrease in weight of the body when taken to a height of 16 km above surface of Earth. Radius of Earth a 6400 km.
Answer:
According to Newton’s Law of Gravitation, everybody in the universe attracts every other body with a force proportional to their masses and inversely proportional to the square of distance between them.
\(\mathrm{F} \propto \frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{m}_{2}}{\mathrm{r}^{2}}\)
⇒ F = \(\frac{\mathrm{Gm}_{1} \mathrm{m}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}^{2}}\), where
G → Universal Gravitational Constant
m1 and m2 → masses of the 2 bodies
r → distance between the bodies.
The % change is weight is given by
\(\frac{\Delta m g}{m g}\) × 100 = \(\frac{\Delta g}{ g}\) × 100 = \(\frac{\mathrm{g}-\mathrm{g}_{n}}{\mathrm{g}}\) × 100
We know that, gn = g \(g\left(1-\frac{2 h}{R}\right)\)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 32
= 0.005
% change = \(\frac{\mathrm{g}-\mathrm{g}_{n}}{\mathrm{g}}\) × 100 = 0.5%

Question 12.
Define gravitational field strength. Which plane in the solar system has the greatest gravitational field strength? What is the gravitational field strength of a planet where a 60 kg astronaut weighs 300 N?
Answer:
The gravitational field strength at a point in a field is defined as the force experienced by a body of unit mass placed at that point.
I = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\) ⇒ I = g
The value of I is maximum for Saturn.
I = \(\frac{300 N}{60 \mathrm{kg}}\)
I = 5 ms-2

1st PUC Physics Gravitation Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is a geostationary satellite? Write any four applications of artificial satellites.
Answer:
1 Part:
A satellite which revolves round the earth with the same angular speed and the same direction as that of earth around its axis is a geostationary satellite.
Uses of artificial satellites:

  1. for mapping of forests (or to study deforestation)
  2. for mapping of rivers, reservoirs
  3. for pollution monitoring.
  4. for weather forecasting, prediction, and warning of cyclones, mapping of flood-affected areas
  5. geostationary satellites are used for telephones, mobiles, broadcasting of radio and television.

Question 2.
What are orbital and escape velocity? Write relation between them. Mention any two characteristics of geostationary satellite.
Answer:
The velocity with which a satellite revolves in its closed orbit is called orbital velocity. The minimum velocity with which body must be projected so that it escapes form the gravitational force of attraction of earth is called escape velocity.
Escape velocity ve = \(\sqrt{2}\)Vo Where Vo is the orbital velocity.
Two properties of geostationary satellites:

  1. These satellites are appears to be stationary with respect to the earth’s surface.
  2. Their height form earth’s surface is about 36,000km and they revolve around the earth from west to east in the equatorial plane.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
State and explain Newton’s Law of gravitation. Hence define universal gravitational constant and find the dimensional formula for it.
Answer:
The gravitational force of attraction between two bodies is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. If two masses m1 and m2 are separated by a distance r then \(\mathrm{F} \propto \frac{\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{m}_{2}}}{\mathrm{r}^{2}}\) Or \(\mathrm{F}=\mathrm{G} \frac{\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{1}} \mathrm{m}_{2}}{\mathrm{r}^{2}}\) Where G is the proportionality constant known as universal gravitational constant.
From the above equation, G = \(\frac{\mathrm{Fr}^{2}}{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{m}_{2}}\)
If m1 = m2 = 1 and r = 1 then G = \(=\frac{F(1)^{2}}{1 \times 1}\) = F
Gravitational constant is defined as the gravitational force attraction between two bodies of unit masses separated by unit distance. Dimensional formula for [G] = [M-1 L3 T-2 ].

Question 4.
What is the difference between gravitational potential energy and gravitation potential? Derive an expression for gravitational potential energy.
Answer:
The gravitational potential is the gravitational potential energy per unit mass. So it is independent of the mass considered. The gravitational potential energy is defined as the work done in bringing a mass ‘m’ from infinity to the given point.
We know that, F = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{x}^{2}}\), where x is the distance between M and m.
Work done in moving the mass by dx from
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 33
The gravitational potential V= \(\frac{\mathrm{U}}{\mathrm{m}}\)
= \(-\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{r}}\)

Question 5.
Define the term orbital velocity. Establish a relation for the orbital velocity of a satellite very close to the surface of the earth. Find the ratio of orbital velocity and escape velocity.
Answer:
Orbital velocity is the minimum velocity that is needed to put the satellite into a given orbit around Earth. Consider a satellite of mass ‘m’ moving around in an orbit at height ‘h’ above the ground. Let M be mass of Earth, R be the radius of earth and the orbital velocity be Vo.
We know that, Fg = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})^{2}}\)
and centrifugal force FC = \(\frac{m V_{0}^{2}}{(R+h)}\)
In equilibrium i.e., while rotating around the orbit
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 34
(Since, h << R ; R + h = R)
\(\frac{V_{0}}{V_{e s c}}=\frac{\sqrt{g R}}{\sqrt{2 g R}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 6.
Obtain an expression for escape velocity of an object of mass ‘m’ from the surface of planet of mass M and radius R. If the escape velocity of planet is know to be 11.2 km s-1. How fast will the object move If its velocity of launch is 22.4 km s-1 from the surface?
Answer:
The minimum velocity required to escape from the gravitational force of the planet is known as the escape velocity of the planet. Consider the object ‘m’ on the surface of Earth.
Initial PE = \(-\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
Initial KE = \(\frac{1}{2} m\left(V_{\text {esc }}\right)^{2}\)
Total energy = \(\frac{1}{2} m\left(V_{\text {esc }}\right)^{2}-\frac{G M m}{R}\)
To escape, the KE should greater than or equal to its PE.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 35
Initial velocity of object = 22.4 km s-1
= 2 Vesc
Total Initial Energy
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) m(2Vesc)2 – \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
= 2 m \(V_{\text {esc }}^{2}\) – \(\frac{1}{2}\) m \(V_{\text {esc }}^{2}\)  [From(1)]
= \(\frac{3}{2}\) m \(V_{\text {esc }}^{2}\)   ……(2)
Total Final energy = PE (at ∞) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) mVf2
= 0+ \(\frac{1}{2}\) mVf2
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) mVf2 ………(3)
By conservation of energy, (2) = (3)
Vf = \(\sqrt{3}\) Vesc
= 19.4 km s-1

1st PUC Physics Gravitation Numerical Problems Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the gravitational force between two masses 15 kg each separated by a distance of 2m.
(G = 6.67 × 10-11Nm2kg-2)
Solution:
Given, m1 = m2 = 15 kg
d = 2 m
G = 6.67 × 10-11Nm2kg-2
∴ F = \(\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{d^{2}}\)
= \(\frac{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 15 \times 15}{2^{2}}\)
= 3.75 × 10-9 N.

Question 2.
Find the height at which the acceleration due to gravity is 1% less than its value on the surface of the earth. Radius of the earth 6400 km.
Solution:
Let h be the height where the acceleration due to gravity is 1 % less than that on the surface of the earth. Then,
\(g^{\prime}=g\left(1-\frac{2 h}{R}\right)\)
Here, g’ = 1 % less than g.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 36
= 32 km.

Question 3.
The mass of a sphere is twice the mass of another sphere. These spheres attract each other with a force of 2 × 10-4 N. When they are moved 0.3 m apart, the force reduces to 5 × 10-5N. Find

  1. the mass of the spheres.
  2. Initial separation between the spheres.

Solution:
Let m be the mass of one sphere. Then the mass of second sphere is 2 m. If ‘d’ is the initial separation between the two spheres,
F1 = \(\mathrm{G} \frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{m}_{2}}{\mathrm{d}^{2}}\)
= G \(\frac{\mathrm{m} \times 2 \mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{d}^{2}}\) ……(1)
When they are moved 0.3 m further apart,
F2 = G \(\frac{\mathrm{m} \times 2 \mathrm{m}}{(\mathrm{d}+0.3)^{2}}\) ………(2)
Dividing (1) by (2),
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 37
Taking square root,
2 = \(\frac{(\mathrm{d} + 0.3)}{\mathrm{d}}\) or d = 0. 3 m
∴ Initial separation between the spheres is 0. 3 m
To find the mass, substituting in equation (1)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 38
∴ m = 367.3 kg
2m = 734.61 kg

Question 4.
Calculate the height at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes\(\left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{t h}\) of its value on the surface.(Radius of the earth 6400 km).
Solution:
Acceleration due to gravity at a height h is given by,
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 39
\(\frac{h}{R}\) = 3
h = 3R = 3 × 6400
= 19,200 km.

Question 5.
An artificial satellite revolves in a circular orbit at height 600 km above the earths surface. What is the orbital velocity and period of revolution of the satellite? ( Radius of the earth = 8400 km, g = 9.8 ms-2)
Solution:
Orbital velocity is given by,
v = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{r}}}\)
where G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the earth.
We have, g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\) and GM = gR2
v = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{gR}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}}\)
\(=\sqrt{\frac{g R^{2}}{R+h}}\)
where ‘h‘ is the height of the satellite above the earth’s surface.
∴ v = \(\sqrt{\frac{9.8 \times\left(6400 \times 10^{3}\right)^{2}}{6400 \times 10^{3}+600 \times 10^{3}}}\)
= 7.57 × 103 ms-1
Period of revolution, T = \(\frac{2 \pi r}{v}\)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 40
= 5810 seconds

Question 6.
The acceleration due to gravity on moon is 1.7 ms-2 and its radius is 0.27 times the radius of the earth. Calculate the ratio of mass of the earth to the mass of the moon. The acceleration due to gravity on the earths surface is 9.8 ms-2
Solution:
Acceleration due to gravity on moon, gm = 1.7 ms-2
Acceleration due to gravity on earths surface gE = 9.8 ms-2
Given, Rm = 0.27 RE where Rm and RE are the radii of moon and the earth respectively. Acceleration due to gravity on moon is
gm = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{m}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{m}}^{2}}\) …..(1)
Acceleration due to gravity on earth is
gE = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}^{2}}\) ……(2)
where Mm and ME are the masses of moon and earth respectively.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 41
= 79
Mass of the earth is 79 times the mass of the moon.

Question 7.
A Saturn year is 30 times the earth year. How far is the Saturn from the sun if the earth is 1.50 × 108 km away from the sun?
Solution:
According to Kepler’s third law, T2 ∝ R3
∴\(\frac{\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{S}}^{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{E}}^{2}}=\left(\frac{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{S}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\right)^{3}\) …..(1)
where TS and TE are the period of revolution of Saturn and the earth and RS and RE are the distances of Saturn and the earth from the sun respectively.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 42
Given RE = 1.50 × 1011m
TS = 30 × TE
∴ RS = 1.50 × 1011 × \(\left(\frac{30 T_{E}}{T_{E}}\right)^{2 / 3}\)
= 1.50 × 1011 x 302/3
= 1.448 × 1012 m
= 1.448 × 109 km.

Question 8.
Determine the escape velocity of a body from the moon assuming moon to be a uniform sphere of radius 1.74 × 106m and mass 7.36 × 1022kg. Based on the answer explain why moon has no atmosphere.
(G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2kg-2).
Solution:
Escape velocity is given by,
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 43
= 2.38 × 103 ms-1
= 2.38 km s-1
The escape velocity from the moon is 2.38kms-1 which is less than the r.m.s. value of velocity of gas molecule. Hence all gases which might have been on the surface of the moon had escaped from moon. Hence moon has no atmosphere.

Question 9.
Mass of Jupiter is 320 times that of earth and its radius is 11 times the earth’s radius. Calculate the escape velocity of a body from Jupiter’s surface, given that escape velocity of earth’s surface is 11.2 km s-1
Solution:
The escape velocity from Jupiter’s surface is given by,
VJ = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{J}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{J}}}}\)
where MJ and RJ are the mass and radius of Jupiter respectively.
Given that, MJ = 320 ME and RJ = 11 RE
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 44
= \(\sqrt{\frac{320}{11}}\) × 11.2 × 103
= 5.394 × 11.2 × 103 ms-1
= 60.41 kms-1.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 10.
Determine the angular velocity with which earth would rotate on its axis so that a person on the equator would weigh 3/5 of his present weight. Radius of earth = 6400 km, g = 9.8 ms-2
Solution:
Real weight of the person W = mg
Apparent weight of the person due to the rotation of the earth,
W’ = mg’
But W’ = \(\frac{3}{5}\)W
mg’ = \(\frac{3}{5}\) mg or
g’ = \(\frac{3}{5}\) g
Variation of acceleration due to gravity on the equator is given by,
g’ = g – ω2R
i.e. \(\frac{3}{5}\) g = g – ω2R
∴ ω2R = \(\frac{2}{5}\) g
ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 g}{5 R}}\)
\(=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 9.8}{5 \times 6400 \times 10^{3}}}\)
= 7.8 × 10-4 rads-1.

Question 11.
A satellite circling round the earth has a period of 10 hours. Calculate its height above the surface of the earth., g = 9.8ms-2
Solution:
Period of revolution of the satellite, T = 10hrs
= 10 × 60 × 60 = 36,000 sec
g = 9.8ms-2.
From, the equation
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 45
R = 321.6 × 106m
orbital velocity vo = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{gR}}\)
\(=\sqrt{9.8 \times 321.6 \times 10^{6}}\)
= 56.14 × 103ms-1
∴ from the equation T = \(\frac{2 \pi(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}{\mathrm{v}_{0}}\)
3600 = \(\frac{2 \times 3.142\left(321.6 \times 10^{6}+h\right)}{56.14 \times 10^{3}}\)
2021040 = 2020.9 × 106 + 6.284h
h = \(\frac{0.14 \times 10^{6}}{6.284}\)
= 222.79km.

Question 12.
Calculate the acceleration due to gravity

  1. at a height 16km above Earth’s surface and
  2. at a depth 2.8km below the surface of the earth. (Radius of the earth is 6400 km and acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth = 9.8m/s-2).

Solution:
1. Acceleration due to gravity,
g=9.8ms-2, Height h = 16 × 103m Radius of the earth, R = 6400 × 103 m From the equation g1 = g \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h}}\right)^{2}\)
= 9.8 \(\left(\frac{6400 \times 10^{3}}{6400 \times 10^{3}+16 \times 10^{3}}\right)^{2}\)
= 9.75 ms-2

2.  depth, h = 2.8 × 103m
From the equation g1 = g \(\left[1-\frac{h}{R}\right]\)
= 9.8 \(\left[1-\frac{2.8 \times 10^{3}}{6400 \times 10^{3}}\right]\)
= 9.796 ms-2

KSEEB Solutions

Question 13.
The gravitational force between two bodies. A and B is 6.4 × 10-7 N. When the distance between them is decreased by 0.2m. the force increases to 14.4 × 10-7 N. Find their original distance apart. If the mass of A is twice that of B, find the mass of A and B. Given G = 6.67 × 10-11Nm2kg-2
Solution:
1. Let the mass of body A = m1
Let the mass of body B = m2
Let ‘ α ’ be the distance
force F = 6.4 × 10-7N
F = \(\frac{\mathrm{G} \mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{m}_{2}}{\mathrm{d}^{2}}\)
6.4 × 10-7 = \(\frac{\mathrm{G} \mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{m}_{2}}{\mathrm{d}^{2}}\) (1)

2. Now the distance, d = d – 0.2 force, F= 14.4 × 10-7N
14.4 × 10-7 = \(\frac{\mathrm{G}_{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{m}_{2}}}{(\mathrm{d}-0.2)^{2}}\) (2)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 46
Taking Square root on both sides we have 1.5 = \(\frac{d}{d-0.2}\)
d = 1.5d – 0.3
d = 0.6m

3. If the mass, of A is twice that of B then m1 = 2m2, force F = 14.4 × 10-7N
∴ 14.4 × 10-7 = \(\frac{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 2 m_{2} \cdot m_{2}}{0.6}\)
m22 = 0.6477 × 104
m2 = 0.8048 × 102kg = 80.48kg
m1 = 2m2 = 1.61 × 102kg
= 161kg.

Question 14.
The mass and diameter of a planet are 3 times that of the earth, what is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet (given ‘g’ on the surface of earth is 9.8m/s2).
Solution:
Mass of the planet M1 = 3Mearth
Diameter of the planet, R1 = 3Rearth
Let g1 be the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth whose mass Mearth & Radius Rearth Then,
g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{earth}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{earth}}^{2}}\) (1)
Let g1 be the accleration due to grav-ity. on the surface of the planet whose mass is M1 & Radius is R1 then
g1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}^{1}}{\left(\mathrm{R}^{1}\right)^{2}}\)
g1 = \(\frac{\text { G3M earth }}{3 \mathrm{R} \text { earth }}=\frac{\text { GMearth }}{3 \mathrm{R}_{\text {earth }}^{2}}\) (2)
Divide equ (2) by equ (1)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 47
= 3.267 m s-2

Question 15.
An artificial satellite revolves round the earth at a height of 1200km, the radius of the earth is 6400km. What is its orbital velocity and time period of revolution?
Answer:
Orbital velocity, vo = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{r}}}\)
But we have, g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\) ⇒ GM = gR2
∴ vo = \(\sqrt{\frac{9 R^{2}}{r}}=\sqrt{\frac{g R^{2}}{R+h}}\)
where ‘h’ is the height of the satellite above the earths surface.
∴ vo = \(\sqrt{\frac{9.8 \times\left(6400 \times 10^{3}\right)^{2}}{6400 \times 10^{3}+1200 \times 10^{3}}}\)
= 7.27 x 103ms-1
Period of revolution, T = \(\frac{2 \pi r}{v_{0}}\)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 48
= 6569 seconds

Question 16.
Calculate the mass and density of the earth from the following data. Gravitational constant = 6.67 × 10-11Nm2Kg-2 Radius of the earth = 6.4 × 106m. Acceleration due to gravity = 9.8ms-2.
Answer:
G = 6.67 × 10-11Nm2<Kg-2,
R = 6.4 × 106m , g = 9.8 m/s-2, M = ? and ρ =?
g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\) or M = \(\frac{\mathrm{g} \mathrm{R}^{2}}{\mathrm{G}}\)
= \(\frac{9.8 \times\left(6.4 \times 10^{6}\right)^{2}}{6.67 \times 10^{-11}}\)
= 60.18 × 1023kg
= 6 × 1024 kg.
Density
ρ = \(\frac{3 g}{4 \pi R G}\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 9.8}{4 \times 3.14 \times 6.4 \times 10^{6} \times 6.67 \times 10^{-11}}\)
= 5.483 × 103 kg/m3.

Question 17.
A person can jump 1.2 m on Earth. How high can he jump on a planet whose density is 1/3rd and radius is 4 times that of Earth, assuming he uses same energy.
Answer:
We know that,
g ∝ \(\frac{M}{R^{2}}\)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 49
Now, since same energy is spent
mgphp = mgehe
⇒ hp = \(\left(\frac{g_{e}}{g_{p}}\right)\) he
\(\frac{3}{4}\) × 1.2m
hp = 0.9m.

Question 18.
Find ratio of the accelerations due to gravity of 2 planets if their radii ratio is 2 : 3. Under condition

  1. Mass remains constant
  2. Material remains constant.

Answer:
1. Here since mass remains constant, g ∝ \(\frac{M}{R^{2}}\) ⇒ g ∝ 1/R2
⇒ Ratio of gravitation is,
\(\frac{g_{1}}{g_{2}}=\left(\frac{R_{2}}{R_{1}}\right)^{2}=\frac{9}{4}\)

2. Here since material is same its density is same ⇒ g ∝ ρR ⇒ g ∝ R
∴ \(\frac{g_{1}}{g_{2}}=\left(\frac{R_{1}}{R_{2}}\right)=\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 19.
Find the percentage change in velocity of moon to escape the Earth’s gravity.
Answer:
Initial Velocity of moon = Orbital
Velocity, Vo = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{r}}}\)
For the moon to escape Earth’s influence,
its velocity must become \(\sqrt{2 \frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{r}}}\)
So, increase in velocity required
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 50
Percentage change
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 51
= 41.4 %

Question 20.
A rocket is launched with 0.8 times escape velocity. How high will it go before it starts falling?
Answer:
Initial KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mVr2
\(\frac{1}{2}\) m (0.8)2 (Vesc)2
= (0.64) [\(\frac{1}{2}\) m \(V_{\text {esc }}^{2}\)]
= 0.64 \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
Initial PE = \(-\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
At the height ‘h’, its velocity is 0.
So Final Potential Energy = \(-\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h}}\)
By Law of Conservation of Energy
(0.64)\(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}-\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}=\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}\)
0.36(R + h) = R
h = \(\frac{0.64}{0.36}\) R = \(\frac{16}{9}\) R
So, the rocket reaches a height of \(\frac{16}{9}\) R,
where R is radius of the Earth.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 21.
A mass m is left to fall freely to fall from a height R/3 from the surface of Earth. What is Its velocity when it hits the surface of Earth.
Answer:
Initial KE = 0,
Initial PE = \(\frac{-G M m}{(R+R / 3)}\) = \(-\frac{3}{4} \frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
Total Energy = \(-\frac{3}{4} \frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\) …..(1)
at the surface of the Earth, let its velocity be Vf then
TE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m(Vf)2 – \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\) ….(2)
By conservation of energy (1) = (2)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 52
\(\frac{1}{2}\) Vesc
= 5.6 km s-1

Question 22.
Calculate the increase in potential energy when a body is moved from the surface of Earth to a height 2 R from the surface, where R is the radius of Earth.
Answer:
The Potential Energy of object on the surface of Earth is U l = \(-\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
The Potential Energy at the height of 2 R from surface is Uf = \(-\frac{G M m}{(R+2 R)}\)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 53

Question 23.
Show that velocity of a body released from a height r from centre of Earth (r > R) is
R [2g \(\left(\frac{1}{\mathbf{R}}-\frac{1}{\mathbf{r}}\right)\)]1/2 when it reaches the Earth’s surface is, where R is radius of Earth.
Answer:
From law of conservation of Energy we can write \(-\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{r}}=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mV}^{2}-\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 54
V = \(\mathrm{R}\left(2 \mathrm{g}\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{r}}\right)\right)^{1 / 2}\)

Question 24.
Determine the speed with which the Earth has to rotate so that the weight of a person on the equator is 2/3rd of the current weight. Assume radius of Earth is 6.4 × 106 m.
Answer:
Let m be the mass of the person, then,
Original weight = mg
and new weight = mg’
Given that \(\frac{\mathrm{mg}^{\prime}}{\mathrm{mg}}=\frac{2}{3}\)
⇒ g’ = \(\frac{2}{3}\) g
We know that,
g’ = g – Rω2 (for equatorial plane)
\(\frac{2}{3}\) g = g – Rω2
⇒ ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{g}}{3 \mathrm{R}}}\)
ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{9.8}{3 \times 6.4 \times 10^{6}}}\)
ω = 5.104 × 10-4rad s10-1.

Question 25.
Two stars of mass Mx and My of radii Rx and Ry are d distance apart. Now if there is a particle of mass m at the midway, find the minimum speed with which it needs to be projected to escape to infinity.
Answer:
The initial potential energy of the mass is, given by
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 55
Let the initial velocity be Vi
then KEi = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m(Vi)2
So, Total Energy
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mVi2 – \(\frac{2 G m}{d}\) (Mx + My)
Total Final Energy = 0
By conservation of Energy,
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 56

Question 26.
The mass of Jupiter is 1.9 × 1027 kg and that of Sun is 2 × 1030kg. The mean distance between them is 7.8 × 1011m. Find the gravitational force exerted by Sun. Also, calculate the speed of Jupiter assuming circular orbit around the Sun.
Answer:
Mass of Jupiter = 1.9 × 1027kg
Mass of Sun = 2 × 1030kg
Distance, r = 7.8 × 1011m
So, gravitational Force, Fg = \(-\frac{G M_{1} M_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
= \(\frac{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 1.9 \times 2 \times 10^{57}}{(7.8)^{2} \times 10^{22}}\)
= 4.16 × 1023N
Now, the Fg is equal the centrifugal force of Jupiter.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 57
= 1.3 × 104 m s-1 or 13 km s-1.

Question 27.
A 500 kg satellite is in a circular orbit of radius 2 RE about the Earth. How much energy is required to move it to another orbit of radius 4 Re? What are changes in kinetic and potential energies?
Answer:
Mass of satellite, ms = 500 kg
Let ME be mass of Earth and RE be radius of earth.
The PE1 = \(-\frac{G M_{E} m_{s}}{2 R_{E}}\)
and KE1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mvo2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ms \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{2 \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\right)\)
= \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{E}} \mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{s}}}{4 \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\)
Total Energy, TE1
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 58
Similarly for new orbit
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 59
Difference in Energy = TE2 – TE1
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 60
= 3.92 × 109 J
An energy of 3.92 GJ needs to be supplied to the satellite to change its orbit.
Change in PE = \(\frac{G M_{E} m_{s}}{2 R_{E}}-\frac{G M_{E} m_{s}}{4 R_{E}}\)
= \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{E}} \mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{s}}}{4 \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\)
= 2 × 3.92 × 109 J
= 7.84 × 109 J
Change in KE = \(\frac{G M_{E} m_{s}}{8 R_{E}}-\frac{G M_{E} m_{s}}{4 R_{E}}\)
= – 3.92 × 109 J.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 28.
A solid sphere of R/2 is cut and removed as shown. If ρ is the density of material. A mass ‘m’ is place at a distance R from centre of sphere. Find the gravitational force of attraction the mass.
Answer:
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 61
Mass of the Sphere is,
M1 = ρ × \(\frac{4}{3}\)R3
Force due to the sphere.
F1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{1} \mathrm{m}}{(3 \mathrm{R})^{2}}\)
The Mass of missing portion
M2 = ρ \(\frac{4}{3}\) π (R/2)3 = ρ × \(\frac{4}{3}\) × \(\frac{\pi \mathrm{R}^{3}}{8}\)
= \(\frac{M_{1}}{8}\)
Force on mass from only the missing portion
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 62
The total effective force on the mass is, F = F1 – F2
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 63
= 0.38 × G × R × ρ × m.

Question 29.
Infinite number of masses are placed at x = 1, 2, 4, 8….. If each of these masses are equal to ‘m’. Find the potential energy on a mass ‘m’ at origin.
Answer:
The gravitational potential energy at a point distance x from a mass m is given
by \(-\frac{\mathrm{Gmm}}{\mathrm{x}}\)
The total potential energy is given by,
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 64
[sum of infinity GP]
= – 2Gm2

Question 30.
Two masses m1 and m2 are separated by a distance r. Find the expression for gravitational potential at a point where the net force is zero.
Answer:
Let x be the distance of the point where net force is zero from m.
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 65
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 66
The potential at the point x is
1st PUC Physics Question Bank Chapter 8 Gravitation img 67

1st PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 17 Web designing

You can Download Chapter 17 Web designing Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Computer Science Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Computer Science Question Bank Chapter 17 Web designing

1st PUC Computer Science Web designing One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the internet?
Answer:
Internet is the largest network of networks in the world.

Question 2.
Mention any two uses of the internet.
Answer:

  1. One can talk to anyone, anywhere around the world.
  2. Offers unlimited commercial opportunity to do business
  3. Can be used to play computer games.

Question 3.
Mention any two services of the internet.
Answer:
The main services of the internet are email, voicemail, and chat.

Question 4.
Expand WWW.
Answer:
WWW stands for World Wide Web.

Question 5.
What is the World Wide Web?
Answer:
The World Wide Web is a complete set of documents present on all internet servers that use the HTTP protocol, accessible to users via a simple point-and-click system.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
What is email?
Answer:
It is a system for exchanging written text, voice and video messages through a computer network.

Question 7.
What is voice mail?
Answer:
Voicemail is a computerized system that enables support for answering and storing telephone call messages. The voicemail records and stores incoming messages, enabling playback of the messages from the same phone number or from another telephone.

Question 8.
What is chatting?
Answer:
It is the online communication between two users connected through the internet and a sing computer. Here, one user can enter text by typing on the keyboard and that will appear on the other user’s monitor and that person can replay.

Question 9.
What are bulleting boards?
Answer:
It is an electronic message center where people can post public messages. Messages are placed on the computer, so people can leave than for other people to read and see and later erase then when not required.

Question 10.
What is a newsgroup?
Answer:
A newsgroup is an internet-based discussion group. Users post messages to a news server. Then other users can access the newsgroup and read the postings and reply with their comments and views on that topic.

Question 11.
Expand FTP.
Answer:
FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol.

Question 12.
Expand the term TCP/IP.
Answer:
The term TCP/IP means Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol.

Question 13.
What is FTP?
Answer:
It is a standard network protocol used to exchange and manipulate files over the Internet. FTP is most commonly used to download a file from a server, using the internet or to upload a file to a server.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 14.
Define protocol.
Answer:
A specific set of communication rules is called a protocol.

Question 15.
What is telnet or remote login?
Answer:
This is a program that allows a user to access resources of a computer situated in a different location via a text-based interface.

Question 16.
What is Gopher?
Answer:
The gopher is a system that allows users of the internet to search for and retrieve information using a text interface via a directory structure.

Question 17.
Define web page.
Answer:
A web page is HTML document or resource of text, images and video’s that is suitable for the World Wide Web.

Question 18.
What is a website?
Answer:
Website is a collection of web pages.

Question 19.
Expand the term HTML.
Answer:
HTML means HyperText Markup Language.

Question 20.
Expand HTTP.
Answer:
The term HTTP means HyperText Transfer Protocol.

Question 21.
Name the two kinds of web pages.
Answer:
The two kinds of web pages are static web pages and dynamic web page.

Question 22.
What is a static web page?
Answer:
A web page that shows the same contents every time, when they are viewed is called a static web page.

Question 23.
What is a dynamic webpage?
Answer:
A web page that has contents that can change dynamically whenever they are a mended and show to changed page when it is viewed is called a dynamic web page.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 24.
Expand the term XHTML.
Answer:
The term XHTML means Extensible HyperText Markup Language.

Question 25.
What is a web browser?
Answer:
Web browser is a software application program used to locate and display Web pages.

Question 26.
Write any two popular web browsers.
Answer:
The most popular browsers are google chrome, Microsoft Internet Explorer and Firefox.

Question 27.
Expand the term DNS.
Answer:
The term DNS means Domain Name System.

Question 28.
What is DNS?
Answer:
It is a name that identifies one or more IP addresses on the internet.

Question 29.
Expand the term URL.
Answer:
URL means Uniform Resource Locator.

Question 30.
What is a URL?
Answer:
URL is the address of a specific Web site or file on the Internet. It cannot have spaces or certain other characters in its name and uses forward slashes to denote different directories.

Question 31.
What are search engines?
Answer:
A web search engine is an automated software agent that is designed to search for information on the World Wide Web.

Question 32.
What do you mean by surfing?
Answer:
The term surfing is a type of Web browsing in which the user jumps from web page to web page at random.

Question 33.
What is HTML?
Answer:
The language used to develop web pages is called HyperText Markup Language (HTML).

Question 34.
What are tags?
Answer:
Tags are instructions that are embedded directly into the text of the HTML document.

Question 35.
What are the different types of tags?
Answer:
The different types of tags are empty tags and container tags.

Question 36.
What is an empty tag?
Answer:
It is a singular tag and does not have a companion tag.

Question 37.
What is a container tag?
Answer:
HTML tags which require a closing tag are called container tags.

Question 38.
What is the default extension file name for an HTML document?
Answer:
The default extension file name for an HTML document is *.HTM or *.HTML.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 39.
Name any two formatting tags.
Answer:
Two formatting tags are <b> for bold text and <i> for italicizing text.

Question 40.
Name the tag to break the line.
Answer:
The tag used to break the line is <br>.

Question 41.
Name the tag to insert the image in the HTML document.
Answer:
The tag to insert the image in a HTML document is <img>.

Question 42.
Give the named of the tag used to hyperlink to web pages.
Answer:
The tag <A> is used to hyperlink the webpages.

Question 43.
What are the two types of list?
Answer:
The two types of list are ordered list and unordered list.

Question 44.
Name the tag used to apply the ordered list.
Answer:
The tag used to apply ordered list is <OL>.

Question 45.
Name the tag used to apply an unordered list.
Answer:
The tag used to apply the ordered list is <UL>.

Question 46.
What is the use of <HR> tag?
Answer:
The <HR> tag is used to insert a horizontal ruler line in an HTML document.

1st PUC Computer Science Web designing Two/Three Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the history of the internet?
Answer:
In 1969, the American Department of Defense (DOD) started a network of devices called ARPANET (Advanced Research Projects Administration Network) with one computer in California and three in Utah. The actual term Internet was coined in 1995 by the FNC (Federal Networking Council, USA).

Question 2.
What are the uses of the internet?
Answer:

  1. One can talk to anyone, anywhere around the world.
  2. Ocean of resources waiting to be mined.
  3. One can do research on any subject for a project.
  4. Online business, on-line reservation can be done sitting at in-home or workplace

Question 3.
Write the services of the internet.
Answer:
The services of the internet are email, chat, newsgroup, FTP, WWW, etc.,

Question 4.
Mention any two uses of email.
Answer:

  1. Messages can be sent 24 × 7 at any convenient time that suits the user.
  2. Messages reach the recipient’s mailbox within minutes.
  3. Delivery of messages can be confirmed.

Question 5.
Mention a few disadvantages of email.
Answer:

  1. Recipients must also be email users.
  2. Until a mailbox is checked, there is no way of knowing that a message has arrived.
  3. Need Internet access and a modem along with the computer.

Question 6.
What is voice mail? Explain.
Answer:
Voicemail messages are stored on hard disk drives, the media generally used by computers. Messages are recorded in digitized natural human voice. To retrieve messages, a user calls the system from any phone, logs on, and their messages can be retrieved immediately.

Question 7.
What is chat? Explain.
Answer:
It is online communication between two users through computer on the internet. Once a chat has been initiated, either user can enter text by typing on the keyboard and the entered text will appear on the other user’s monitor. Most networks and online services offer a chat facility.

Question 8.
What is a bulletin board? Explain.
Answer:
It is an electronic message center where people can post public messages, messages are placed on the computer so people can leave them for other people to read and see. For example, it is used to advertise things to buy or sell, and erase when the need is over announce events, or provide information.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
What is FTP? Mention is use.
Answer:
It is a standard network protocol used to exchange and manipulate files over a TCP/IP based network, such as the Internet. FTP is most commonly used to download a file from a server using the Internet or to upload a file to a server.

Question 10.
What is the use of telnet? Briefly explain.
Answer:
Telnet stands for ‘telecommunications network’, and was built to be form of remote control to manage mainframe computers from distant terminals. Telnet is a text-only protocol, and the user cannot see graphics or fancy images while working with Telnet, nor will they be able to transfer files with Telnet. Telnet is used to communicate with other computers and machines in a text-based manner.

Question 11.
What is meant by web page and web site?
Answer:
A web page is a HTML document or resource of text, images and video’s that is suitable for the World Wide Web, while a website is a collection of web pages.

Question 12.
What is a web browser? Name any two web browsers.
Answer:
Web browser is a software application program used to locate and display web pages. The most popular browsers are google chrome, Microsoft Internet Explorer and Firefox.

Question 13.
What is URL? Give an example.
Answer:
It is the global address of documents and other resources on the World Wide Web.
For example, http:// www.puc.com /index.html
The first part of the address is called a protocol identifier and it indicates what protocol to use and the second part is called a resource name and it specifies the IP address or the domain name where the resource is located.

Question 14.
What is TCP/IP? Briefly explain.
Answer:
TCP is one of the main protocols in TCP/IP networks. While the IP protocol deals only with packets, TCP enables two hosts to establish a connection and exchange streams of data. TCP guarantees delivery of data and also guarantees that packets are delivered in the same order in which they are sent.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
What is HTTP? Briefly explain.
Answer:
It is the protocol used by the World Wide Web. HTTP defines how messages are formatted and transmitted, and what actions Web servers and browsers should take, in response to various commands.

Question 16.
What is surfing? What is the use of a search engine?
Answer:
The term surfing is a type of Web browsing in which the user jumps from web page to web page. A web search engine is an automated software agents that visit a Web site, read the information to search for specific information on the World Wide Web.

Question 17.
Mention the basic tags of HTML.
Answer:
The basic tags of HTML are <HTML>, <HEAD>, <TITLE>, and <BODY>.

Question 18.
What are tags? Name the different types of tags.
Answer:
Tags are instructions that are embedded directly into the text of the HTML document. The different types of tags are empty tags and container tags. Empty tag is a singular tag and does not have companion tag. Whereas the container tag require a closing tag.

Question 19.
Briefly explain tags.
Answer:
The general format for a HTML tag is : <tag_name> affected text </tag_name>
The opening tag consists of just the tag name and it instructs the web browser to start tagging (formatting) the text. The ending tag includes a slash preceding the tag name. This / slash tells a web browser to stop tagging the text.
For example: <b> HTML tags </b>.

Question 20.
Name the tools needed to create and view web pages.
Answer:
An HTML editor, to create and save the HTML documents. Notepad or Word Pad for Windows are examples of text editors. A web browser, to view and test the HTML documents. The most common and popular web browsers are Mozilla Firefox and Internet explorer.

Question 21.
Briefly explain any three formatting tags.
Answer:
1. Bold Text:
You user can make bold text to emphasize information in the web page. Bold text is useful for introducing new terms and highlighting important phrases on a Web page.
Tag:
<B> SOME TEXT </B> <B> SOME TEXT <B/> display SOME TEXT
EXAMPLE:
<BODY> <B> THIS IS A Bold TEXT </B> </BODY>

2. Underline Text:
</U> Define underlined word-used to highlight
Tag:
<U> Some text </U> <U> Some text </U> display some text
Example:
<BODY> <U> You can underline this text </U> </BODY>

3. Italicise Text:
<i> Defines intalicized text. Makes data to appear as
Tag:
<I> SOME TEXT </I> <U> SOME TEXT </i> display SOME TEXT
EXAMPLE:
<BODY> <I> THIS IS A Itilicize TEXT </I> </BODY>

KSEEB Solutions

Question 22.
How do web pages get linked? Give an example.
Answer:
User can link a word, phrase or image on One. Web page to another page on the Web. User should ensure the text or image used for the link clearly indicates where the link will take the users.
Tag:
<A HREF = ”link-reference file”> Link name </A>
Example:
<HTML><HEAD> <TITLE>LINK-REFERENCE PAGE</TITLE> </HEAD>
<BODY>
<CENTER><H1> Welcome to Chapter 11: Click hereto Open </H1></CENTER>
</BODY>
</HTML>

1st PUC Computer Science Web designing Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write a short note on the internet.
Answer:
The Internet is a worldwide network of computers connecting thousands and thousands of computers across the globe. It is formed by the joining of many smaller networks around the world to form the largest network in the world.

In 1969, the American Department of Defense (DOD) started a network of devices called ARPANET (Advanced Research Projects Administration Network) with one computer in California and three in Utah. The actual term Internet was coined in 1995 by the FNC (Federal Networking Council, USA). The computers of the Internet are connected through telephone lines, satellite links, modem and through many other means.
The Internet consists of following applications:

  1. # World Wide Web
  2. # E-Mail
  3. # Chatting
  4. # VideoConferencing
  5. # Searching for information
  6. # Online Shopping and Trade
  7. #Education and Research.

Uses of internet

  1. One can talk to anyone anywhere around the world.
  2. Ocean of resources waiting to be mined.
  3. One can do research on any subject for a project.
  4. Online business, on-line reservation can be done sitting at home or workplace.

Question 2.
Explain the different services of the internet.
Answer:
The services of internet are email, vace mail chat, Bullet inboard, newsgroup, FTP, WWW, etc.,
1. email:
It is a system for exchanging written, voice and video messages through a computer network. Some uses of email are as follows;

  • Messages can be sent 24 × 7 at any convenient time that suits the user.
  • Messages reach the recipient’s mailbox within minutes.
  • Delivery of the messages can be confirmed.

2. Voice Mail:
Voice mail messages are stored on hard disk drives, a media generally used by computers. Messages are recorded in digitized from of the natural human voice. To retrieve messages, a user calls the system from any phone, logs on, and their messages can be retrieved immediately.

3. Chat:
It is an online communication between two users, through a computer on the internet. Once a chat has been initiated, either user can enter text by typing on the keyboard and the entered text will appear on the other user’s monitor. Most networks and online services offer a chat facility.

4. Bulletin Board:
It is an electronic message center where people can post public messages, messages are placed on the computer so people can leave them for other people to read and see and erase when the need is oyen it is used, For example, to advertise things to buy or sell, announce events, or provide information.

5. FTP:
It is a standard network protocol used to exchange and manipulate files over a TCP/ IP based network, such as the Internet. FTP is most commonly used to download a file from a server using the Internet or to upload a file to a server.

6. Telnet:
Telnet stands for ‘telecommunications network’, and was built to be a form of remote control to manage mainframe computers from distant terminals. Telnet is a text-only protocol, and to user cannot see graphics or fancy images while working with Telnet, nor will they be able to transfer files with Telnet. Telnet is used to communicate with other computers and machines in a text-based manner.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of email.
Answer:
Advantages:

  1. Messages can be sent at whatever time of day which suits the user.
  2. Messages reach the recipient’s mailbox within minutes.
  3. No need to speak to the recipient.
  4. Delivery of the messages can be confirmed.
  5. Copies of the message can be sent automatically to more recipients.
  6. Received Messages can be read whenever it is convenient for the user.
  7. Incoming messages can be saved in one’s computer.
  8. email reduces paper usage for communication.

Disadvantages:

  1. Recipients must also be email users.
  2. Junk mail may flood the mailbox making it very uncomfortable.
  3. Until the mailbox is checked, there is no way of knowing that a message has arrived.
  4. One needs Internet access and a modern along with the computer.
  5. If the user mails something that is written in anger or wrongly written sent to the wrong person there is no way to take it back.

Question 4.
Write a short note on WWW, Web page and Website.
Answer:
1. WorldWideWeb(WWW):
This is a system of Internet servers that support specially formatted documents. The documents are formatted in a markup language called HTML (HyperText Markup Language) that supports links to other documents, as well as graphics, audio, and video files. There are several applications called Web browsers that make it easy to access the World Wide Web Three of the most popular browsers are Google Chrome, Firefox and Microsoft’s Internet Explorer. World Wide Web is not synonymous with the Internet.

2. Web page:
A web page is a document or resource of text, images and video’s that is suitable for the World Wide Web and can be accessed through a web browser and displayed on a computer screen. Web pages may consist of files of static text stored within the web server’s file system (static web pages), or the web server may construct the (X)HTML for each web page when it is requested by a browser (dynamic web pages).

3. Web Browser:
It is a software application.used to locate and display Web pages. The most popular browsers are Google Chrome, Microsoft Internet Explorer and Firefox. They are graphical browsers, which mean that they can display graphics as well as text. In addition, most modem browsers can present multimedia information, including sound and video.

Question 5.
Write a short note on HTML and HTTP.
Answer:
1. HyperText Markup Language [HTML]:
It is the main language used to create documents on the World Wide Web. It allows images and objects to be embedded and can be used to create interactive forms. It is written in the form of HTML elements consisting of “tags” surrounded by angle brackets within the web page content.

2. HyperText Transfer Protocol [HTTP]:
It is the underlying protocol used by the World Wide Web. HTTP defines how messages are formatted and transmitted, and what actions Web servers and browsers should take in response to various commands. For example, when you enter a URL in your browser, this actually sends an HTTP command to the Web server directing it to fetch and transmit the requested Web page.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Explain the structure of a HTML Document.
Answer:
Web Pages include both the text that we want to display and HTML tags (commands) to Web Browsers. A Web page is marked by an opening HTML tag <HTML> and a closing </HTML> tag and is divided into the following major sections:
Head Section (Optional)
Body Section
A Web page outline containing the following three sections and the opening and closing HTML tags are is illustrated below:
<HTML>
<HEAD> <Title> page name </title> </HEAD>

Head Section

<BODY>
HTML Tags (Commands)
……..
</BODY>
Body Section
Head Section
The head section is defined with a starting <HEAD> tag and a closing </HEAD> tag. This section is usually contains a title for the Web page as shown below:
<HEAD>
<TITLE> Welcome to HTML Page </TITLE>
</HEAD>
The text enclosed in the tags <TITLE> and </TITLE> will appear in the title bar of the Web Browser when it displays the page.

Body Section:
After the head section comes the body section. We call this as body section because this section contains the entire information about the Web Page and its behavior. We can set up many options to indicate how our page must appear on the screen (like color, location, etc..) Shown below is a simple body section:
<BODY> <CENTER>
<H1> Welcome to the World of Web paging </H1>
</CENTER> </BODY>
The body shown above contains instructions to display the message
Welcome to the World of Web paging.

Question 7.
Write a short note on ‘list’ tag.
Answer:
The list tag is used to apply numbers or symbols to a list of values. The tag name is <li>.
The <li> tag defines a list item.
The <li> tag is used in ordered lists(<ol>), unordered lists (<ul>), and in menu lists (<menu>).
For example,
<ol>
<li>Coffee</li>
<li>Tea</li>
<li>Milk</li>
</ol>

<ul>
<li>Coffee</l i>
<li>Tea</li>
<li>Mi lk</li>
</ul>

Siri Kannada Text Book Class 7 Solutions Puraka Patagalu Chapter 2 E Bhumi Bannada Buguri

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Siri Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 1 Doddavara Dari

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Siri Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Bhaga Chapter 1 Doddavara Dari

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