Class 5

Students can Download Maths Chapter 3 Subtraction Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, KSEEB Solutions for Class 5 Maths helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Syllabus Class 5 Maths Chapter 3 Subtraction

KSEEB Class 5 Maths Subtraction Revision Exercise

I. Subtract the following numbers:

1) 4,528 – 3,214

2) 6,453 – 5,302

3) 3,759 – 2,156

II. Subtract the following numbers:

1) 6,123 – 3586

2) 8,000 – 4,617

3) 3,564 – 1,345

III. Solve the following problems:

Question 1.
A factory manufactured 8,534 boxes. Out of the 5,421 boxes were sold out. Find the remaining number of boxes.
Answer:
A factory manufactured boxes = 8,534
The boxes were sold out = -5,421
The Remainary number of boxes = 3,113

Question 2.
The total number of students of standard five in all the schools of a taluk is 5,728. If the number of girls is 3,572, find the number of boys in the schools.
Answer:
The total number of students of standard of five in all the schools of a taluk = 5,728
The number of girls of fifth standard = – 3,572
The number of boys in the schools = 2,156

Question 3.
Sanjeev has Rs. 8,524. He donated Rs. 2,937 to an orphanage charitable trust. How much amount is left with him?
Answer:
Sanjeev has – Rs 8,524
Sanjeev donate – Rs – 2,937
Sanjeev’s left amount – Rs 5,587

KSEEB Class 5 Maths Subtraction Ex 3.1

I. Find the difference of the following:

1. 59,842 – 34,532

2. 86,291 – 64,130

3. 41,297 – 16,025

4. 25,768 – 4,304

5. 17,094 – 3,043

II. Find the difference of the following:

1. 42,695 – 20,746

2. 50,625 – 36,178

3. 40,000 – 16,543

4. 25,307 – 6,419

5. 20,000 – 8,625

III. Subtract:

1. 16,486 from 26,475

2. 36,279 from 52,367

3. 10,000 from 31,579

4. 24,683 from 40,000

5. 4,297 from 11,035

IV. Solve the following problems:

Question 1.
What should be added to 37,946 to get 91,643?
Answer:

Question 2.
What should be subtracted from 67,215 to get 28,941?
Answer:

Question 3.
The sum of two numbers is 87,065. If one of the numbers is 49,726, find the other number.
Answer:
Let the No. be X another No. be Y sum of x + y = 87065
Y = 49,726
X = ?

The other number y = 37,339

Question 4.
A farmer yielded 38,462 coconuts from his field last year. This year he yielded 47,285 coconuts. Find how many more coconuts he yielded this year?
Answer:
A farmer yielded coconuts from his field last year = 38,462
A farmer yielded coconuts from his field this year = 47,285.

A farmer 8,823 coconuts yielded this year

Question 5.
In an assembly election, Mr. Suresh has got 42,618 votes. Mrs. Rohini got 54,951 votes and won. How many more votes did Mrs. Rohini get than Mr. Suresh?
Answer:
In an election, Mr. Suresh got 42,618 votes
Mr. Rohin’s got 54,951 votes

Mr. Rohin’s gets 12,333 votes than Mr. Suresh.

Question 6.
A garment factory produces 25,846 dresses for boys and 45,715 dresses for girls during a festive season. How many more dresses, did factory produce for girl than boys? (Additional Question)
Answer:
A government factory producers 25,846 dresses for boys
A government factory producers 45,715 dresses for girls

19,869 more dresses did factory produce for girls than boys.

Question 7.
A farmer bought a pair of bulls which cost Rs. 68,300 in the market. He had ” Rs.86,100 with him. What is the amount left with him after buying the bulls?
Answer:
Farmer had amount of Rs 86,100 (Additional Question)
Farmer bought a pair of Bulbs cost 68,300

Farmer’s had left amt Rs 17,800

KSEEB Class 5 Maths Subtraction Ex 3.2

I. Solve:

1. 54,398 + 24,897 – 39,486

2. 2. 43,618 + 6,382 – 29,467

3. 21,679 + 27,428 – 2,438

II. solve the following problems:

Question 1.
A mobile phone factory manufactures 23,715 mobiles in November and 34,160 mobiles in December. Out of them 42,534 mobiles were sold. Find how many mobiles are left unsold in the factory.
Answer:
A mobile phone factory manufactures 23,715 mobiles in November
A mobile phone factory manufactures 34,160 mobiles in December
By Adding

In mobile phone 57,875 mobiles were manufactured 42,534 mobile phones were sold out
By Subtracting

15,341 mobiles are left unsold in the factory.

Question 2.
Mr. Anand has Rs. 15,282 in his bank account. He deposits Rs. 25,718 on Wednesday. He withdraws Rs. 30,145 on Thursday. Find his balance after withdrawal.
Answer:
Mr. Anand has Rs 15,282 in his bank amount
Mr. Anand deposits Rs 25,718 on Wednesday
Mr. Anand withdraw Rs 30,145 on Thursday

Mr. Anand’s Bank amount – Rs 41,003

After withdrawing Mr.Anand’s bank balance – Rs 10,858

Question 3.
Mrs. Anita has Rs. 50,000 with her. She purchases a color T.V. for Rs. 13,538 and a refrigerator for Rs. 16,990. Find the amount left with her after the purchase.
Answer:
Mrs. Anitha’s Amount – Rs 50,000
Mrs. Anitha purchases a color T.V – Rs 13,538
A refrigerator – Rs 16,990
Total Amount of purchasing By Adding – Rs 30,528

The Amount Rs 19,472 left with Anitha

Question 4.
60,000 school uniforms are provided for school children of a district. 12,372 and 23,3 uniforms were distributed to schools of two talks of a district. Find how many uniforms are remaining.
Answer:
For a District 60,000 school uniforms provided for children.
12,372 & 23,003 uniforms were distributed to schools of two talk of the district

By Adding

By Subtracting

24,625 uniforms are remaining

Students can Download EVS Chapter 16 Our India – Political and Cultural Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, KSEEB Solutions for Class 5 EVS helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Board Class 5 EVS Chapter 16 Our India – Political and Cultural

Class 5 EVS Our India – Political and Cultural Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
I which part of India is Karnataka State located?
Answer:
South part of India is Karnataka state located.

Question 2.
How many districts are these in Kama taka state? List them?
Answer:

1. Bangalore
2. Belgaum
3. Mysore
4. Tumkur
5. Gulbarga
6. Bellary
7. Bijapur
8. Dakshina Kannada
9. Davanagere
10. Raichur
11. Bagalkot
12. Dharwad
13. Mandya
14. Hassan
15. Shimoga
16. Bidar
17. Chitradurga
18. Haveri
19. Kolar
20. Uttar Kannada.

Question 3.
Which are the neighboring states of Karnataka?
Answer:
Tamil nadu, Kerala, Andrapradesh, Maharastra.

Question 4.
Which is the official language of your neighboring states?
Answer:
Kannada

Question 5.
Which are the languages of your neighboring states?
Answer:
Tdugu, Tamil, Marati, Malayalam.

Question 6.
Which is the official language of India?
Answer:
Hindi.

Question 7.
Which is the capital city of Karnataka State?
Answer:
Bangalore.

Question 8.
Which are the Neighboring countries of India?
Answer:
Pakistan, China, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh, Buttan and Myanmar (Burma).

Question 9.
What are the Islands of India?
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar, Hanelock, Barren, Majuli, Diu Baratang, Katchal, Neil, Divar, EJephata

Question 10.
List of Union Territories of India?
Answer:

1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
2. Chandigarh
3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
4. Daman & Diu.
5. Lakshadweep and
6. Puducherry

Question 11.
List the Northern & Southern State of India
Answer:

• Northern States: Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana.
• Southern States: kerala, karnataka, Tamilnadu, Andra pradesh.

Question 12.
Which is the smallest states of the Northeast of India?
Answer:
Mizoram.

Question 13.
Name the national festivals of India?
Answer:
Pongal Makar Sankranthi, Lohri, Onam, Baisakhi, Bhogdi bihu, Bihu dance, Basant Panchalli.

Question 14.
What are the colors of our National flog?
Answer:
Saffron, white and Green.

Question 15.
Write two names of each recipient of the following awards.
Answer:

1. Padmashree: Virat Kohi, Bharathi, Vishnuvardhan
2. Padmabhushana: Sirindhor, Cho Ramaswamy
3. Padma vibhushana: Jaggi Vasudev, Sharad Pawer,
4. Bharath Ratna: Mother Teresa, Abdul KalamAzad.

Question 16.
who is this? write 3 sentences about her.

Answer:
Saina Nehwal is a professional badminton singles player from India, Nehwal, the former world no. 1, has maintained her world ranking in the top ten since 2009. She has won over twenty international titles, which include then super series titles. She got a Padma Shree award.

Question 17.
Write 5 sentences about popular sprots
Answer:
The most popular sport in India is cricket. I mean a sport in which there are two batsmen on the creez and 9 fielders, one bowler, one wicketkeeper and two empires. The bowler bowls and the batsman by to defend himself and tries to hit the ball. But when it comes to India Cricket has manes various than you might think.

Question 18.
What are the public assets you see in your place?
Answer:
Roads, Buses, railway, electricity, post office.

Question 19.
What are the public facilities needed for your place?
Answer:
Water tank, library, sanitary, electricity, drinking water are the public facilities are needed in our place.

Question 20.
What are the historical buildings that are there in your place?
Answer:
Jaimatia palace Vidhamer Sandhur

Question 21.
Why should we preserve our public assets? Give reasons
Answer:
If public properties are damaged, they have to be replaced or repaired cost of all this is collected in the form of additional taxes, tax money will be vested it public property is all our aset.

Question 22.
What are the benefits from public assets?
Answer:
Government takes up many programmes for the benefit of the people: roads, hospitals, electricity, water and such other sevice programmes. It is our right to use these facilites and services to the best of our needs.

Question 23.
Public property is our own property why?
Answer:
Government property is every one’s property, Government collects money from us as taxes. It uses taxes to provide facilities like roads, railway, Airport etc.,

Question 24.
What are called public property?
Answer:
Many items of property like building, machines, equipments articles, furniture will be provided in public places for the benefit and use of the public such things are called public property.

Question 25.
What are called private properties?
Answer:

• Everyone wishes to possess a house, a garden, vehicle, ornament other objects. All these from part of our own properties.
• We use our assets and take care of them.
• Some work hard to own riches and leave them to their children and grand childern.

Question 26.
Who is a citizen?
Answer:
Permanent resident of a country.

Question 27.
Are you an Indian citizen? How?
Answer:
Yes, I am an Indian citizen by birth.

Question 28.
Mention a few qualities of good citizen.
Answer:

• helping the senior citizen
• Paying taxes regularly
• Obedience to the laws of the country.

Question 29.
Mention two methods of getting citizenship of a country.
Answer:

• There are two ways of getting the citizenship of a country.
• First a child bonr in a country will naurally become citizen of that country.
• Second a citizen can give up the citizenship of the country of his birth and become the citizen of another country.

Question 30.
How can you help senior citizens?
Answer:
I will help them to cross the road. I will give them seat in the bus.

Question 31.
What is citizenship?
Answer:
Membership of a country.

Question 32.
When does a citizen lose his citizenship
Answer:
If a citizen of a country takes up the citizenship of another country automatically he loses his previous citizenship one can not be the citizen of two countries at the same time.

Question 33.
Write any three duties of a citizen of India.
Answer:

• Honoring the national anthem and the National flag.
• Casting one’s vote in elections.
• Obedience to the laws of the country.

Question 34.
Who did the king bring to the throne?
Answer:
His first son

Question 35.
Who should naturally come to the throne after the King according to Indian tradition?
Answer:
The first son should naturally come to the throne after the king according to Indian tradition.

Question 36.
What happens if during the rule of the King there is a dispute for power?
Answer:
People are uncared for. They become unhappy with the king.

Question 37.
Do you like the hereditary(dynastic) rule?
Answer:
No.

Question 38.
What is democracy?
Answer:
Rule of a state by the elected representatives of the people is democracy.

Question 39.
What is the importance of democracy?
Answer:

• Government will be run by the representatives elected by the people.
• All people are equal before the law’
• Elections will be held regularly and new’ representatives come to power.
• Issues will be discussed and people-friendly decisions will be taken.

Question 40.
What is the lower age limit in India for voters?
Answer:
18 years.

Question 41.
Why is voting important?
Answer:
Voting is an important means of expression ofavoter’swill. It makes representation of all people possible. It is a citizen’s duty.

Question 42.
What is called secret ballot?
Answer:
People give their votes in a method is called secret ballot.

Question 43.
What is election?
Answer:
Choosing people’s representatives

Question 44.
Mention an important part of the election process?
Answer:
Polling.

Question 45.
Why is voting important?
Answer:
Voting is an important means of expression of a voter’s will. It makes representation of all people possible. It is a citizen’s duty.

Question 46.
Why did they given symbols to the candidates?
Answer:
Illiterates can vote with thehelp of the symbol to the canndidate of their choice.

Question 47.
Write the defects of democracy.
Answer:

• Money and muscles power may be used to get votes
• Caste, community, language, religion etc.., may influence voting. .
• Some times elected members resort to defection from one party to the other.

Question 48.
Explain the process of election.
Answer:

• Filling of nomination by the candidates.
• Canvassing by candidates and supporters
• Voting on a date already fixed.
• Announcement of results on a day fixed in calendar of events.
• Publication of the list of successful candidates.

Question 49.
What is the purpose of self – government?
Answer:
To establish self- Government in villages/towns

• The empowerment of SC, ST, and women by providing reservations of seats.
• To activate administration by delegation of power.

Question 50.
Who are the members of the gram – sabha?
Answer:
All those aged 18 years and above will be members of gram sabha.

Question 51.
What categories of people have reservations in Panchayat Institutions?
Answer:
SC, ST other backward communities and women have reservations of seats in Panchayat institution.

Question 52.
What are the sources of income for Panchayat Raj Institutions?
Answer:
Sources of income for a panchayat are the grants from government Zila panchayats, taxes and rent from the people of the locality.

Question 53.
Which cities in Karnataka have corporation?
Answer:
Bengaluru, Mysuru, Beigavi, Mangaluru, Gulbarga, Hubli-Dharwad and Bellary.

Question 54.
Mention the sources of income of City Corporations.
Answer:
Government gives gmats, Property tax is another major source of income, water cess, health cess, education cess, reading room cess, beggary cess, fire cess, and rents are the sources of income.

Question 55.
How many city corporation are there in Karnataka?
Answer:
Seven.

Question 56.
Expand C.E.O.
Answer:
Chief Executive Officer.

Question 57.
Who is the chief officer of Zilla Panchayat?
Answer:
Executive officer.

Question 58.
Name any two standing committees.
Answer:
Education and Health.

Question 59.
Write the main function of a panchayat.
Answer:
Main function of a panchayat is to take up development works in the area.

Question 60.
How many local bodies in urban areas? Name them.
Answer:
There are three local bodies for the urban areas, Town panchayat Nagara Palikes, Mahanagar palikes.

Question 61.
Explain the functions of the Zilla Panchayat.
Answer:

• Preparing annual plan for the development of Zilla Parishat area.
• Providing relief to victims of natural calamities.
• Monitoring of the comprehensive development programmes of the district.
• Monitoring of government schools in the Zilla Panchayat.

Class 5 EVS Our India – Political and Cultural Additional Questions and Answer

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
Give an example of public property,
a. House
b. Train
c. Computer
d. School
Answer:
b. Train

Question 2.
Give an example of private property,
a. House
b. Bus
c. Business
d. Vidhan Soudha
Answer:
a. House

Question 3.
What is on set?
a. Set up
b. Start
c. Business
d. Historical monuments.
Answer:
d. Historical monuments.

Question 4.
Public property is also known as
a. People’s property
b. Our property
c. Common property
d. Government property.
Answer:
d. Government property.

Question 5.
Tax means
a. Money collected compulsorily by government.
b. money is paid by the employees.
c. money is cut for the income tax.
d. money is paid as foreign duty.
Answer:
a. Money collected compulsorily by government.

Question 6.
Citizen is called
a. Foreigner
b. Stranger
c. Alien
d. Resident
Answer:
d. Resident

Question 7.
Chamundeswari temple is located in
a. Bangalore
b. Channapatana
c. Mandya
d. Mysore.
Answer:
d. Mysore.

Question 8.
Each candidate is given at the time of election
a. Car
b. Security
c. Symbol
d. Bungalow
Answer:
c. Symbol

Question 9.
Name and symbol of candidate is called as
a. Selection
b. Election
c. Voting
d. Counting
Answer:
a. Selection

Question 10.
The terms of the Panchayat is
a. 6
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10
Answer:
b. 5

Question 11.
Urban areas have the type of Panchayat is called
a. Village
b. Town
c. Grama
d. District
Answer:
b. Town

Question 12.
Gram sabha meets at least
a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d. 1
Answer:
c. 2

Question 13.
The number of city corporations in Karnataka at present is
a. Seven
b. Five
c. Three
d.Ten.
Answer:
a. Seven

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The official language of Goa is Marathi
2. The Capital city of Nagaland is Kohima
3. The name of the present chief minister of Jammu & Kashmir is Mehbooba Mufti
4. The present President of India is Pranab Mukherjee
5. The present Govemer of Karnataka is Vaiubhai Rudabai vala
6. Recently Andra pradesh was divided into Seemandra & Telangana
7. The present prime minister of India is Narendra Modi
8. The present chief minister of Karnataka is Siddaramaiah.
9. Roads, Railways are examples of Public property.
10. When we damage public property we harm ourselves.
11. Historical monuments are a part of our country.
12. Our clothes, shoes, etc., are examples of personal property.
13. It is our duty to protect public property.
14. Tax money will be wasted if public property is destroyed.
15. Public property is all our assets.
16. Government and other organizations have built them for the use of all people.
17. Citizens ar the permanent residents of this country.
18. Membership of a country is citizenship
19. Foreigners are different from us in dress language etc.
20. Obedience is to the laws of the country.
21. Democracy is the political system
22. All people are equal before the law
23. Democracy is the popular system of government.
24. If people are wise, democracy will survive otherwise it will be lost.
25. Each candidate is given a symbol
26. We should form a queue at the bus stop.
27. Urban areas have town panchayat.
28. Terms of the Panchyat are five years.
29. Gram sabha forms the first step of the Panchayat system
30. Zilla panchayat will have many committees
31. Executive officer is appointed by the state government.
32. Municipality will be administered by the chief officer.
33. Commissioner will be the chief officer for . corporation.
34. Gram sabha meets at least two times in a year.

III. Match the following:

1.

A	B
1. City corporation	a. Taluk level
2. Taluk panchayat	b. District level
3. Grama Panchayat	c. Term will be for 5 years.
4. Zilla panchayt	d. Mahanagar palike
5. Corporators	e. Village level

Answer:

1. d
2. a
3. e
4. b
5. c

2.

A	B
1. Polling booth	a. Name and symbol of candidate.
2. Ballot paper	b. Political system
3. Hereditary	c. Votes
4. democracy	d. Prince
5. Yuvaraja	e. Dynasty

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. e
4. b
5. d

3.

A	B
1. Queue	a. Membership of a country
2. Good citizen	b. Chamundeswari temple
3. Mysore	c. Good qualities
4. Citizenship	d. Tourist
5. Other country	e. Theatre citizen

Answer:

1. e
2. c
3. a
4. b
5. d

4.

A	B
1. Occupation	a. Public property
2. Ornaments	b. We use every day
3. Historical monuments	c. Private property
4. Household articles	d. Service
5. Facility	e. Business

Answer:

1. e
2. c
3. a
4. b
5. d

Students can Download Maths Chapter 6 Angles Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, KSEEB Solutions for Class 5 Maths helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Syllabus Class 5 Maths Chapter 6 Angles

KSEEB Class 5 Maths Angles Ex 6.1

Question 1.
Observe your surrounding environment and list the situations where the angles are formed.
Answer:
Room, clock, pillars of a building, roof of a building, water tank, ball etc.

Question 2.
Observe the angles formed while doing the following yogasana postures. Certain angles are already marked to help you.

Answer:

Question 3.
Pranav has arranged sticks as shown in the figure. Observe the angles formed here and mark the angles by drawing lines.

Answer:

Question 4.
Name the angle, vertex and the sides in the following figures.
Answer:

KSEEB Class 5 Maths Angles Ex 6.2

Question 1.
Mark the right angle, acute angle and obtuse angle with different colours in the following figures.

Answer:
a)
RightAngel ∠EDF ∠CDE ∠CBA ∠BCD
∠ADF ∠ADC ∠DAB ∠COD
∠COB ∠AOD ∠AOB
Acute Angel ∠CBO ∠OCB ∠OBA ∠BAO
∠OAD ∠ODA

b)

RightAngel ∠BAC ∠BEP ∠CDS ∠PQR
∠QRS ∠RSP ∠SPQ ∠EBC ∠BCD
Acute Angel ∠ABC ∠ACB ∠EFG ∠DGF
ObtuseAngle: ∠BEF ∠CDG ∠FED ∠GDE

c)

Right Angel: ∠DEF ∠EDC ∠ADC ∠BCD
AcuteAngel: ∠FGC
Obtuse Angle: ∠DCG ∠EFG

d)

Right Angle – Blue colour
Obtuse Angle – Pink colour, Sky blue

e)

Right Angle: ∠ABC ∠ABD
Complete Angle: ∠A
ObtuseAngle: ∠BCL ∠CLM ∠HKN ∠IJO ∠PFE
Acute Angel: ∠DEF

Question 2.
Measure the following angles and write the measurement and type of each angle.
Answer:

Question 3.
Observe the acute angle, obtuse angle and right angles in your classroom and list them.
Answer:
Two edges of wall of a classroom – Right Angle
Two edges of a door – Right Angle
Two edges of a window – Right Angle

Question 4.
Write your name using English capital letters. List the number of acute angles, obtuse angles and right angles in them.
Answer:
Refer to Students

Question 5.
Draw any six angles using scale and measure them using a protractor.
Answer:

Question 6.
Write the measure of the angle between the two hands of the following docks and name them.

Answer:

Question 7.
Choose the right answer from the following.
a) Example for obtuse angle.
1) 90°
2) 53°
3) 178°
4) 180°
Answer:
3) 178° – Obtuse Angle

b) In the given figure, the number of right angles, acute angles and obtuse angles are
1) 15, 4, 10
2) 4, 15, 10
3) 10, 10, 4
4) 4, 5, 5
Answer:
2) 4, 15,10

Question 8.
Classify the measures of angles given below :
16°, 180°, 88°, 179°, 45°, 90°, 100°, 35°, 142°.

Answer:

Question 9.
Estimate the measure of the following angles.
Verify by measuring them. Name the type of angles.
Answer:

Question 10.
Measure the angles m me figures given below. Find the sum of the angles.

Answer:

Students can Download Maths Chapter 2 Division Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, KSEEB Solutions for Class 5 Maths helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Syllabus Class 5 Maths Chapter 2 Division

KSEEB Class 5 Maths Division Revision Exercise

I. Encircle the objects in as shown in the example and write answer in given box:

II. Divide the following using repeated substruction method:

a. 12 ÷ 4
12 – 4 = 8
8 – 4 = 4
4 – 4 = 0
Subtract is done 3 times
\(\frac{12}{4}\) = 3

b. 25 ÷ 5
25 – 5 = 20
20 – 5 = 15
15 – 5 = 10
10 – 5 = 5
5 – 5 = 0
Subtract is done 5 times
25 ÷ = 5

c. 42 ÷ 7
42 – 7 = 35
35 – 7 =28
28 – 7 = 21
21 – 7 = 14
14 – 7 = 7
7 – 7 = 0
Subtract is done 6 times

d. 30 ÷ 10
30 – 10 = 20
20 – 10 = 10
10 – 10 = 0
Subtract is done 3 times
30 ÷ 10 = 3

e. 75 ÷ 15
75 – 10 = 60
60 – 15 = 45
45 – 15 = 30
30 – 15 = 15
15 – 15 = 0
Subtract is done 5 times
5 ÷ 15 = 5

KSEEB Class 5 Maths Division Ex 2.1

I. Find the quotient and the remainder:

1. 48 ÷ 6

Quotient = 8
Remainder =0

2. 36 ÷ 3

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
36 = (3 × 12) +0
36 = 36 + 0
36 = 36
Quotient = 12
Remainder =0

3. 55 ÷ 4

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
55 = (4 × 13) + 3
55 = 52 + 3
55 = 55
quotient = 13
Remainder = 3

4. 72 ÷ 7

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
72 = (7 × 10) + 2
72 = 70 + 2
72 = 72
quotient = 10
Remainder = 02

II. Find the quotient and the remainder:

1. 232 ÷ 4

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
232 = (4 × 58) + 0
232 = 232 + 0
232 = 232
quotient = 58
Remainder = 3

2. 474 ÷ 6

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
474 = (6 × 79) + 0
474 = 474 + 0
474 = 474
quotient = 79 3
Remainder =0

3. 255 ÷ 11

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
255 = (11 × 23) + 2
255 = 253 + 2
255 = 255
quotient = 23
Remainder = 2

4. 527 ÷ 12

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
527 = (12 × 43) + 11
527 = 516 + 11
527 = 527
quotient = 43
Remainder = 11

III. Find the quotient and the remainder:

1. 1,653 ÷ 8

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
1653 = (8 × 206) + 5
1653 = 1648 + 5
1653 = 1653
quotient = 206
Remainder = 5

2. 1,325 ÷ 2

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
1325 = (2 × 662) + 1
1325 = 1324 + 1
1325 = 1325
quotient = 662
Remainder = 1

3. 1,435 ÷ 15

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
1435 = (15 × 95) + 10
1435 = 1425+10
1435 = 1435
quotient = 95
Remainder =10

4. 2,647 ÷ 13

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
2647 = (13 × 203) + 8
2647 = 2639 + 8
2647 = 2647
quotient = 203
Remainder = 8

IV. Find the quotient and the remainder:

1. 24,658 ÷ 2

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
24658 = (2 × 12329) + 0
24658 = 24658 + 0
24658 = 24658
quotient = 12329
Remainder = 0

2. 14,005 ÷ 7

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
14005 = (7 × 2000) + 5
14005 = 14000 + 5
14005 = 14005
quotient = 2000
Remainder = 5

3. 32,745 ÷ 10

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
32745 = (10 × 3274) + 5
32745 = 32740 + 5
32745 = 32745
quotient = 3274
Remainder =5

4. 12,056 ÷ 12

Dividend = (divisor × quotient) + Remainder
12056 = (12 × 1004) +8
12056 = 12048 + 8
12056 = 12056
quotient = 1004
Remainder = 8

V. Solve the following problems:

Question 1.
A tailor has 18 metres of cloth. He stitch 9 shirts from this cloth. Find the length of cloth required to stitch one shirt.
Answer:
A tailor has 18 meter of cloth
Tailor has stitch 9 shirts
The length of cloth required to stitch one shirt = \(\frac{18}{9}\) = 2 meter

Question 2.
A bike can cover 240 km with 5 litres of petrol. Find how many kilometres does it cover with 1 litre of petrol.
Answer:
A bike can cover 240 Km with 5 litres of petrol
In one litre of petrol, bike covers the distance = \(\frac{240}{5}\) = 48 km

Question 3.
25,004 bags of cement are loaded equally into 14 railway wagons. Find the number of bags in each wagon.
Answer:
25,004 bags of cement are loaded equally into 14 railway wagons
The number of bags
= \(\frac{25004}{14}\) = 1,786

Question 4.
Mr. Sridhar purchased 11 toys of same price for Rs. 946 from a toy shop. Find the cost of each toy.
Answer:
The cost of a toy =?
Mr. Sridhar purchase 11 toys of same price = Rs 946
The cost of each toy
= \(\frac{946}{11}\) = 86 Rs.

Question 5.
The annual income of a person is Rs.90,912. Find his monthly income.
Answer:
The Annual income of a peusen Rs 90,912
Monthly income = \(\frac{90912}{12}\) = 7,576 Rs

Question 6.
A car manufacturing company manufactures 14,820 cars in 13 months. Find the number of cars manufactured in one month.
Answer:
A car manufacturing company manufactures 14820 cars in 13 months. For one month, the number of cars = \(\frac{14820}{13}\) = 1,140

KSEEB Class 5 Maths Division Ex 2.2

I. Solve

Question 1.
An orange garden has 82 orange plants. A farmer plucks 60 oranges from each plant and packs 12 oranges in each box. Calculate the number of boxes required to pack all oranges.
Answer:
An orange garden has 82 oranges . A farmer plunks 60 oranges from each plant
The number of boxes = ?
The number of oranges in each box = 12
The number of oranges in an orange garden = 410

Question 2.
15 school children hire a cab for a day’s excursion at Rs. 9 per km. If they travel a distance of 325 km, find the amount to be shared by each one of them.
Answer:
A cab of charges Rs 9 Km
The childrens travel a distance 325Km
= 325 × 9
= 2925 Km
The amount shared by each student
= 2925 ÷ 15 = Rs 195

Question 3.
Anita has a cow which yields 8 litres of milk in a day. The selling price of one litre of milk is Rs. 18. She wants to divide the amount earned in one month (30days) among her 4 sons. What amount does each one get?
Answer:
One litre of milk = Rs 18
A cow which yields 8 litres of milk in a day for 30 days, the number of litres of milk
18 × 8 = Rs. 144
The amount of milk
144 × 30 = Rs. 4320
The amount of each son 1,080
4320 ÷ 4

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 5-Digit Numbers Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, KSEEB Solutions for Class 5 Maths helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Syllabus Class 5 Maths Chapter 1 5-Digit Numbers

KSEEB Class 5 Maths 5-Digit Numbers Revision Exercise

I. Write the place value chart for the given numbers:

II. Write the following words:

1) 1,739: Thousand seven hundred and thirty-nine.
2) 3,007: Three thousand and seven.
3 ) 4,088: Four thousand and eighty-eight.
4) 11,900: Eleven thousand and Nine hundred only

III. Write in figures:

1. Nine thousand three hundred fifteen.
9,315

2. Two thousand four hundred.
2,400

3. Seven thousand thirty-six.
7,036

IV Answer the following:

1. Write the greatest 3-digit number.
999

2. Write the smallest 3-digit number.
100

3. Write the greatest and smallest 4-digit number.
9999, 1000

V. Compare the numbers and write = , > or < sign in between the numbers.

1. 3,567 < 4,567
2. 6.582 > 6,385
3. 7384 = 7,384

VI. Write the greatest and the smallest 4-digit numbers using the following, digits (without repeating the digits).

1) 1, 2, 3, 4
4321 – Greatest Number
1234- Smallest Number

2) 6, 3, 8, 0
8630 – Greatest Number
3680 – Smallest Number

3) 5, 2, 7, 4
7542 – Greatest Number
2457 – Smallest Number

VII. Write the following numbers in ascending order

1) 2,456 2,465 2,565 2,546
2,456, 2,465, 2,546, 2,565

2) 5,768 5,678 5,687 5,867
5,678, 5,687, 5,768, 5,867

3) 8,901 8,910 8,109 8,190
8,109, 8,190, 8,901, 8,910

VIII. Write the following numbers in descending order:

1) 2,947 3,038 2,930 3,830
3,830, 3,038, 2,947, 2,930.

2) 4,892 4,982 4,082 4,792
4,982, 4,892, 4,792, 4,082.

3) 5,678 5,778 5,878 5,978
5,978, 5,878, 5,778, 5,678.

KSEEB Class 5 Maths 5-Digit Numbers Ex 1.1

I. Insert commas at appropriate places in the following numbers. Write in words.

1) 32894
32,894

2) 18415
18,415

3) 99999
99,999

4) 40003
40,003

II. Write the following numbers in figures using commas.

1) Forty-five thousand six hundred eighteen.
45,618

2) Eighty-two thousand three.
82,003

3) Thirteen thousand seven hundred nine.
13,709

4) Ninety-four thousand three hundred fourteen.
94,314

III. Write the following numbers in the expanded form.

1) 19,203
1 × 10,000 + 9 × 1000 + 2 × 100 + 0 × 10 + 3 × 1

2) 77,777
7 × 10,000 + 7 × 1000 + 7 × 100 + 7 × 10 + 7 ×1

3) 38,294
3 × 10,000 + 8 × 1000 + 2 × 100 + 9 × 10 + 4 × 1

II. Write the following expanded form of 4 numbers in the standard form.
Example:

1) 6 × 10,000 + 1 × 1,000 + 7 × 100 + 9 × 10 + 5 × 1 = 61,795

2) 4 × 10,000 + 0 × 1,000 + 0 × 100 + 0 × 10 + 1 × 1
40,001

3) 9 × 10,000 + 0 × 1,000 + 6 × 100 + 0 × 10 + 9 × 1
90,609

4) 6 × ten thousand + 3 × thousand + 5 × hundred + 1 × ten + 7 × unit
63,517

5) 1 × ten thousand + 1 × thousand + 4 × hundred + 7 × ten + 4 × unit
11,474

V. form the greatest and the smallest 5-digit numbers using the following digits without repetition.

1) 3, 1, 4, 7, 9
97,431 – Greatest Number
13,479 – Smallest Number

2) 8, 1, 6, 2, 5
86,521 – Greatest Number
12,568 – Smallest Number

3) 7, 0, 6, 1, 3
76,310 – Greatest Number
10,367 – Smallest Number

4) 6, 4, 5, 7, 0
76,540 – Greatest Number
45,067 – Smallest Number

5) 2, 5, 7, 3, 4
75,432 – Greatest Number
23,457 – Smallest Number

VI. Complete the table:

S. NO	Proceeding number	Number	Succeeding number
1.	57,838	57,839	57,840
2.	18,375	18,376	18,377
3.	40,779	40,780	40,781
4.	88,889	88,890	88,891
5.	13,584	13,585	13,586

VII. Follow the pattern and complete the series:

1. 23,344, 23,444, 23,544, 23,644, 23,744
2. 15,790, 35,790, 55,790, 75,790, 95,790
3. 88,888, 78,888, 68,888, 58,888, 48,888
4. 30,453, 33,453, 36,453, 39,453, 42,453
5. 58,600, 62,600 66,600, 70,600, 74,600

VIII. Write the following numbers in increasing order (Ascending order):

1) 30,435, 70,533, 20,411 40,623
20,411, 30,435, 40,623. 70,533

2) 44,444, 44,044, 40,444, 40,044
40,044, 40,444, 40,044, 44,444

3) 63,841, 63,481, 63,148, 6,184
63,148, 63,184, 63,481, 63,841

4) 5o,060 5000, 55,000 50,006
50,006, 50,060, 50,500, 55,000

5) 20,325, 20,825, 20,302 20,413
20,302, 20325, 20,413, 20825

IX. Write the following numbers in a (Descending order)

1) 23,456, 34,567, 12,345, 45,678
45, 678, 34, 567, 23, 456, 12, 345

2) 40,564, 45,064, 45,604, 40,456
45, 604, 45, 064, 40, 564, 40, 456

3) 12,344, 12,340, 12,304, 13,244
13, 244, 12, 344, 12, 340, 12, 304

4) 77,770, 77,077, 77,777, 70,777
77, 777, 77, 770, 77, 077, 70, 777

5) 61, 234, 62, 134, 21, 364, 12, 364
62, 134, 61, 234, 21, 364, 12, 364.

X. Compare the following given numbers. Write =, > or < sign in the blanks:

1) 52,085 = 52,085
2) 46,431 > 43,613
3) 15,662 < 24,672
4) 74,312 < 76,312
5) 81,884 > 81,365

Students can Download EVS Chapter 15 Our India – Physical Diversity Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, KSEEB Solutions for Class 5 EVS helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Board Class 5 EVS Chapter 15 Our India – Physical Diversity

Class 5 EVS Our India – Physical Diversity Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is landforms?
Answer:
The different types of land surfaces or known as landforms.

Question 2.
What is a mountain?
Answer:
Mountain is mighty and important landform. It is the uplifted portion of the earth’s surface and is much higher then the surrounding area.

Question 3.
What is a mountain range?
Answer:
A line of mountain is known mountain range.

Question 4.
What is a plateau?
Answer:
Plateaus are elevated flat lands with sleep sights. They are also called tablelands.

Question 5.
Which is the highest plateau in the world
Answer:
Plateau of Tibet.

Question 6.
What is a plain?
Answer:
The collection of various types of maps bound has a book is known as an atlas.

Question 7.
What is a desert?
Answer:
A scale is a ratio between the distance on the map and the corresponding distance on the ground.

Question 8.
Name any Island that belongs to India
Answer:
The Andaman, Nicobar and Laksha Dweep Islands belong to India.

Question 9.
What are natural regions?
Answer:
The basic components of a good map are title. Scale, Latitude direction and Index.

Question 10.
Which is the highest peak in the world
Answer:
Mt. Everest (8848 m).

Question 11.
Which is the highest peak in the Aravallis?
Answer:
Mt. Gurushikhar (1772m)

Question 12.
Which is the higest peak in South
Answer:
India (2695m)

Question 13.
What are called playas?
Answer:
Salt lakes are called plays.

Question 14.
Which is the largest salt lake in India?
Answer:
Sambhar lake.

Question 15.
Write a note about the peninsular plateau.
Answer:

1. The peninsular plateau is to the south of the north Indian plains.
2. The Narmada, Sone rift valley divides the plateau into two main plateaus.
3. The northern pat is known as the Malwa plateau and the Southern part is known as Decan Plateau.

Question 16.
Find out the names of animals which live in the foothills of the Himalayas and make list of these animals.
Answer:
Leopards, Tiger, snow leopard, jungle cat, common langar

Question 17.
An unusually wide and long valley in the lower Himalayas is called Doons. For example: Dehradun in India. It is a popular tourist place. During summer people visit this place, why do they visit it
Answer:
Because Dehradun is in the Doon valley on the foothills ofthe Himalayas nestled between the river Ganges on the east and the river yarhuna on the west. The city is famous for its picturesque landscape and slightly milder climate and provides a gateway to the surrounding region.

Question 18.
The Northern plains are fertile, Give reasons:
Answer:
There are plains located to the south of Himalayan ranges. They are very vast, fertile and level. The Northern plains of India are formed by the deposition of alluvium camied by the rivers while flowing from the himalayan ranges.

Question 19.
The people prefer to live in the planis of rivers. Why?
Answer:
Because wherever there are river plains, there is plenty of water. Therefore agriculture, rearing of animals, transport facilities, trade and commerce and industries are developed.

Question 20.
Make a list of the important rivers and crops of our state.
Answer:

Rivers	Crops
Krishna, Ghataprabha, Malaprabha, Tungbadra, Kaveri	Rice, Ragi, Jowar,  Maize, cashews, Cardamom, Chillies, cotton, Sugar-cane & tobacco.

Question 21.
Mention the names of the two important plateaus in India?
Answer:
Malwa plateau and Deccan plateau.

Question 22.
Mention the important historical places located in the peninsular plateau.
Answer:
Mysore, Badami, Hampi, Ooty, Hyderabad

Question 23.
Which Sea touches the coast of Karnataka?
Answer:
Arabian Sea

Question 24.
Which districts of Karnataka have coastal plain?
Answer:
Dakshina Kannada, Udupi and uttara Kannada.

Question 25.
Make the list of major crops grown in the western coastal plain of India?
Answer:
Betel nut, ragi, fodder, coconut, vegetables and rubber.

Question 26.
Make a study of the dress style and food habits of the fishermen living in coastal plains. Write 4 sentences on them
Answer:
Fishing is the main occupation of the people living in the coastal plain. So, most of the people eat fish. Agriculture is the another main occupation here.

Rice, are canuts, coconut, cashew, cardmam, banana and vegetables are grown here. The spinch, ivy gourd, black yed peas and samborr cucumber are also grown for food. The use of boiled rice is very popular.

Question 27.
What is an oasis?
Answer:
A fertile area in a desert is formed where the water comes up to the ground surface is called oasis.

Question 28.
Write about any 3 characteristics of the deserts?
Answer:

1. A desert is a vast, dry and sandy area with very little vegetation
2. The temperature is high and always climate is dry.
3. Oasis occurs here.

Question 29.
Mention the names of any 3 protected forest areas in India?
Answer:
Sariska, Bandipur, Jim corbett, Gir forest

Question 30.
Discuss with your friends the Indian gered animals in India mention any 3 names of such animals.
Answer:
Tiger, asljatic lion, Asian Eleiphant

Question 31.
What are the problems arising from deforestation?
Answer:
Deforestation can have a negative impact on the environment the most dramatic impact is a loss of habitat for millions of species. Eighty percent of earth’s land animals and plants live in forests, and many cannot survive the deforestation that destroys their homes. Deforestation also drives Climate change.

Question 32.
Which animals are living around your environment make a list?
Answer:
Goat, Dog, Cat, Bullock, Rabbit etc.

Question 33.
What is cartography?
Answer:
The science and art of map-making is known as cartography.

Question 34.
Write any two old mountains?
Answer:
Aravalis and Appaltian

Question 35.
The Tibet also known as?
Answer:
Roof of the world.

Question 36.
Whcih is the largest desert in the world
Answer:
Sahara.

Question 37.
Name the types of the landforms?
Answer:
There are three major types of landforms. They are

1. mountains
2. Plateaus
3. Plains

Question 38.
Name the types of mountains.
Answer:
Mountains are divided into three types fold .mountains, blow mountains and volcanic mountains.

Question 39.
What are called fold mountains? Give an example.
Answer:
Folding of rock layers of mountains are called fold mountains. They are highest mountains. The Himalayas andAlps are fold mountains.

Question 40.
Write any three or 4 importance of mountains.
Answer:

1. Form natural boundaries between countries.
2. Storehouse of resources.
3. Sources of rivers
4. Ideal for plantation crops.

Question 41.
Write the importance of plateaus.
Answer:
Plateaus are of great importance they are:

1. storehouse of minerals.
2. Very suitable.
3. Fertile soid which is suitable for agriculture.
4. Useful for animal rearing.

Question 42.
What is the position of India with regard to world population and land area?
Answer:
India is a peninsula south Asia. Inarealndia is the seventh-largest country and second most populous in the world.

Question 43.
What is the geogrphical location of India India?
Answer:
India extends from Kashmir in the north to kanyakumari in the south and from the Rann ofKutchchh in the west to Arunachal Pradesh in the east.

Question 44.
What is the position of Karnataka with regard to India’s land area?
Answer:
Karnataka is located in the southwestern part of India. It si the eighth largest state in India.

Question 45.
List the neighboring countries of India?
Answer:
The neighboring countries of India are Pakisthan, Afganistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Myanmar and Srilanka.

Question 46.
Name the physical divisions of India?
Answer:
The main physical divisions of India are:

1. The northern mountains
2. The nothem Plains
3. The peninsular Plateaus
4. The coastal plains.

Question 47.
Which are the physical divisions of Karnataka?
Answer:

1. Coastal Plain
2. The malnad region
3. The maidan region

Question 48.
Name the districts lying in the coastal area of Karnataka.
Answer:
Uttara Kannada, Udupi, Dakshina Kannada. The Andaman, Nicobar, and Laksha deep islands belong to India.

Class 5 EVS Our India – Physical Diversity Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
India is the largest country in the world
a) Eighth
b) Ninth
c) Seventh
d) Sixth
Answer:
c) Seventh

Question 2.
Our national capital territroy is
a) Kolkatta
b) Delhi
c) Mumbai
d) Pune
Answer:
b) Delhi

Question 3.
Ooty a famous hill station is located at
a) Nandi Hills
b) Shivaganga hills
c) Nilgiri hills
d)Savandurga hills
Answer:
c) Nilgiri hills

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. A peak is the highest point of a mountain
2. Mountains are generally made of hard rocks.
3. The Himalayas and the Alps are young mountain.
4. The higher slopes of the high mountains are covered with snow.
5. Volcanic mountains are formed due to the accumulation of volcanic material.
6. Desert can be rocky or sandy
7. Desert are found in every continent except Europe and Antarctica.
8. Small Islands are known as islets.
9. A group of Islands is known as archipelago.
10. India is located entirely in the northern and eastern hemispheres.
11. The northern plains are located between the Himalayas and Peninsular plateaus.
12. The Peninsular plateau is rich in minerals.

Students can Download EVS Chapter 8 Agriculture Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, KSEEB Solutions for Class 5 EVS helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Board Class 5 EVS Chapter 8 Agriculture

Class 5 EVS Agriculture Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is agriculture?
Answer:
The practise of growing plants on a large scale for food or other purpose is called agriculture.

Question 2.
How many stages are there in agriculture? Write them in an order.
Answer:

1. Ploughing of field.
2. Use of the fertilizers
3. Sowing of seeds
4. Irrigation of field
5. Protection of crops
6. Harvesting of crops.

Question 3.
How is crop rotation useful to farmers?
Answer:
crop-rotation is important to keep the soil fertile.

Question 4.
What is a seed drill?
Answer:
Sowing of seeds is usually done either manually or with the help of an instrument called seed drill.

Question 5.
Who introduced high yielding varieties of wheat in India?
Answer:
M.S. Swaminathan.

Question 6.
What are crops?
Answer:
The plants that are grown in large quantities in a particular area of region at a particular season.

Question 7.
What is ploughing?
Answer:
The process of turning and loosening of the soil is called ploughing.

Question 8.
What are broadcasting of seeds?
Answer:
Sowing of seeds by scattering over a large area is called broadcasting of seeds.

Question 9.
Look at the pictures given below. Read the statements given in front of the pictures. The pictures and statements do not match with each other. Match the pictures with the correct statements by drawing a line.

Answer:

1. Harvesting the crop either manually or with the help of machines.
2. Supplementing the crop with organic or chemical fertilizers for proper growth of the crop.
3. Protect the crop from animals, birds, insects and diseases.
4. Proper Irrigation to get good crop.
5. Ploughing the land to grow crops.
6. Sowing the seeds to raise a crop.

Question 10.
Define irrigation
Answer:
It is process by which sufficient quantity of water is supplied to the crop and plants through canals, wells, tube wells and reservoirs.

Question 11.
What is pesticides?
Answer:
A substance used for destroying insects or other organisms harmful to cultivated plants.

Question 12.
Define mixed Cropping? Give one example.
Answer:
Cultivation of two or more crops on the same field at the same season is called mixed cropping.
Eg: Growing jower with toorda.

Question 13.
Which includes in harvesting of crops.
Answer:

1. Cutting and gathering of ripened crops.
2. Processing such as drying, sorting cleaning and other tanks depending on the crop.

Class 5 EVS Agriculture Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
Cultivation of two or more crops on the same field in the same season is called
a. Crop rotation
b. Mixed cropping
c. Harvesting
d. Ploughing
Answer:
b. Mixed cropping

Question 2.
Cultivation of two or more crops on the same field in different seasons is called
a. Mixed cropping
b. Harvesting
c. Crop rotation
d. Sowing.
Answer:
c. Crop rotation

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. M.S.Swaminathan is known as father of green revolution.
2. 70% of the population is engaged in agriculture.
3. Fertilizers are added to the soil to increase its fertility.
4. April 22nd of every year is celebrated as earth day.
5. Agriculture is the main occupation of people in India.
6. People who work on farms are called Farmers.

III. Match the process of agriculture given in column ‘A’with the meaning given in column ‘B’.

A	B
1. Ploughing 2. Harvesting 3. Manuring 4. Irrigation 5.Protection of crops	a. Seed drill b.Watering the field c. Tuming and loosening the soil d. Spraying of pesticides e. Cutting and gathering the ripened crops f. Increases the fertility of the soil.

Answer:

1. c
2. e
3. f
4. b
5. d

Students can Download EVS Chapter 7 Water Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, KSEEB Solutions for Class 5 EVS helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Board Class 5 EVS Chapter 7 Water

Class 5 EVS Water Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Where can you find more water on the earth?
Answer:
Oceans

Question 2.
What is the consumable quantity of freshwater?
Answer:
Only 2.5 – 2.75 % is freshwater.

Question 3.
What are the sources of fresh water?
Answer:
Groundwater, surface water (streams, rivers, lakes, reservoirs)

Question 4.
Write your known sources of water?
Answer:
Ocean, Rivers, Wells, Ponds.

Question 5.
Name some important rivers of Karnataka?
Answer:
Kaveri, Tungabhadra, Sharavati, Malaprabha, Kali River, Netravathi, Bhadra, Tunga River.

Question 6.
Write the names of any two water reservoirs in Karnataka.
Answer:
Almatti, Basava Sagara.

Question 7.
Difference between pond and Reservoir?
Answer:

Pond	Reservoir
1. An artificially man-made low level portion of land is called pond 2. Its capacity of water is less	1. Dams are constructed across the rivers. 2. These are storage capable of storing water in large scale

Question 8.
Write the uses of pond and Reservoirs?
Answer:
Pond: Lawns and soil based plants require watering and It’s good to have some where for rainwater to go instead of being wasted. Reservoirs: Use to generate electricity, irrigation, human consumption, industrial use, agriculture.

Question 9.
True of false statements.
Answer:

1. Water has weight – False
2. Water do not flow from higher level to lower levels – False
3. Water do not occupy the space – False
4. Particles in water are rarely arranged – True
5. Water get evoparates when heated – True
6. Vapour turns in to water when condenced – True.

Question 10.
Why are water sources get polluted?
Answer:
Water is physically polluted by mud, garbage, paper, food reciduals etc. Water mixed with industrial chemicals, chemical fertilizers, insectisides have dangerous components which turns the water poisionous.

Class 5 EVS Water Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
The largest source of water on the earth is
a. River
b. Ocean
c.Pond
d.Well
Answer:
b. Ocean

Question 2.
The substance in which solute is dissolved is called
a Solution
b. Solute
c. Solvent
d. all of the above
Answer:
c. Solvent

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The two forms of well tube well and open well
2. Rainwater is the major sources of water on the earth.
3. Water is universal solvent.
4. 97.2% of water a available on the earth is present in seas & oceans.
5. Boiling point of water is 100 degreeC.

III. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Mention the uses of water.
Answer:
Water is used for many purposes like drinking, bathing, cooking and washing. It is also needed in large quantity for agriculture and industry.

Question 2.
Name the different sources of water?
Answer:
The different sources of water are; Rain, river, ocean, ponds, springs and wells.

Question 3.
Which is the main source of under groundwater?
Answer:
Rainwater is the major source of water on the earth.

Question 4.
What is spring water?
Answer:
Water stored under the earth’s crust comes out on pressure through a opening. This is called spring water.

Question 5.
What is universal solvent? Explain with an experiment to show that water is a universal solvent.
Answer:
Most substances dissolve in water. Take some water in a beaker. Add a spoonful of salt to the water and stir well. You cannot see the salt. The salt is mixed up with the water. Hence, it is called universal solvent.

Question 6.
What is potable water?
Answer:
Water is used for many purposes. Water which is fit for drinking is called potable water.

Question 7.
Why is naturally available water not fit for drinking?
Answer:
Natural water contains many unwanted substances. It is necessary to purify water before it is used for drinking and cooking. The water with unwanted substances and bacteria used for drinking and cooking can cause many diseases like Typhoid, Cholera, Jaundice and Diarrhoea.

Question 8.
Define a solution?
Answer:
A solution is a mixture in which one substance gets dissolved in another substance.

Question 9.
What is a solute?
Answer:
The substance which dissolves is called solute.

Question 10.
What is a solvent?
Answer:
The substance in which solute is dissolves is called solvent.

Students can Download EVS Chapter 14 The Sky Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, KSEEB Solutions for Class 5 EVS helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Board Class 5 EVS Chapter 14 The Sky

Class 5 EVS The Sky Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following questions with the help of the above picture:
Answer:

1. How many planets are there in solar system – 8
2. Write the names of planets in order – Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranees and Neptune.
3. Which is the nearest planet to the sun – Mercury
4. In which planets do we human beings live – Earth
5. Which is the biggest planet in the solar system – Jupiter
6. Which is the smallest planet in the solar system – Mercury
7. Which is the farthest planet from the sun – Neptune
8. What position has the planet Earth from the sun – 3 position has the planet Earth from the sun.

Question 2.
Which planet takes the least to complete one revolution around the sun? why?
Answer:
Mercury has the shortest orbital period of any planet in the solar system, completing a trip around the sun every 88 days. It is the smallest of the eight planets, as well as the closest to the sun.

Question 3.
Which planet takes those times to complete one revolution around the sun? why?
Answer:
The amount of time it takes one planet to make a frill orbit around the sun is considered a year, Here on Earth. One year equals 365.24 days. Planets closer to the sun complete their orbits fester than planets farther away Neptune is farther out than Mars, so it takes longer to orbit.

Question 4.
Name the planets:
Answer:

1. Red planet – Mars
2. Brightest Planet – Venus
3. Biggest planet – Jupiter
4. Blue-green color Planet – Neptune
5. Only planet that has life – Earth
6. It’s day is longer than the year – Venus.

Question 5.
Which is the natural satellite of the earth?
Answer:
Moon.

Question 6.
Explain the characteristics of the following celestial bodies.
Answer:

1. meteoroids: When they enter the earth’s atmosphere, they bum up in the atmosphere due to friction and a streak of light is produced.
2. Asteroids: Most of them are located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
3. Comets: A comet is an icy body that gives out gas or burnt. They revolve around the sun.

Question 7.
What is mean solar day?
Answer:
In general, the period from one sun rise to another is consider a day. This is called mean solar day.

Question 8.
Sidereal day explain?
Answer:
The earth takes actual take to complete one rotation in 23 hrs, 56 minutes and 4.09 seconds. This period is known as sidereal day.

Question 9.
What is a leap year
Answer:
Ones in 4 years, we have 366 days in a year is called a leap year.

Question 10.
What is prime meridian or Green wich meridian?
Answer:
The latitude that passes through Green wich in England is called the prime meridian or Green wich meridian.

The Sky Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
The distance of the sun from the earth is
a) 100 million kms
b) 150 million kms
c) 1000 million kms
d) 1500 million kms
Answer:
b) 150 million kms

Question 2.
The International Astronomical union conference was held in
a) July 2007
b) Aug 2007
c) Aug 2010
d) Aug 2006
Answer:
d) Aug 2006

Question 3.
The twin planet of the earth is
a) Mars
b) Uranus
c) Neptune
d) Venus
Answer:
d) Venus

Question 4.
The astronomer, who was the first to look at the moon through the telescope in 1608 was
a) Neil Armstrong
b) Galileo
c) Eratosthenes
d) Vasco dagama
Answer:
b) Galileo

Question 5.
The person who was the first man the land on the moon is
a) Galileo
b) Eratosthenes
c) Duplex
d) Neil Armstrong
Answer:
d) Neil Armstrong

Question 6.
The planet which has only life is
a) Earth
b) Venus
c) Jupiter
d) Mars
Answer:
a) Earth

Question 7.
The solar system consistgts of ______ planets
a) 9
b) 10
c) 8
d) 7
Answer:
c) 8

Question 8.
The sun is a
a) Satellite
b) Asteroids
c) Star
d) comets
Answer:
c) Star

Question 9.
The USA is divided into _______ time zones.
a) 6
b) 7
c) 9
d) 5
Answer:
d) 5

Question 10.
Indian standard time is based on
a) 82 1/2 E meridian
b) 23 1/2 N latitude
c) 84 1/2 E meridian
d) 180 meridian
Answer:
a) 82 1/2 E meridian

Question 11.
Meridian means
a) Midnight
b) Line
c) Morning
d) Midday
Answer:
d) Midday

Question 12.
The Earth takes days to complete one revolution
a) 364 1/2 days
b) 365 1/2 days
c) 365 days 6 hours
d) 366 days
Answer:
b) 365 1/2 days

Question 13.
On December 22nd, the south pole inclined towards the sun is called ________
a) Winter solstice
b) Autumnal Equinox
c) Summer solstice
d) Spring Equinox
Answer:
a) Winter solstice

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The direction where the sun appears to rise is called east
2. The rotation of Earth causes day and night
3. The sun is made up of Hydrogen and helium gases
4. The sun is the source of light and heat.
5. A planet is a celestial body
6. Each planet has its own path of movement known at the orbit
7. The Earth is a unique planet
8. The fifth-largest planet in our solar system is the Earth
9. Ferdinand Magellan and Portuguese navigator declared that the shape of the Earth was Spherical.
10. The moon is the only satellite of the Earth
11. The twinkle body in the sky is called stars

III. Match the following:

1. Mercury	a. Red planet
2. Jupiter	b. Smallest planet
3. Venus	c. Biggest planet
4. Mars	d. Unique planet
5. Earth	e. Brightest planet

Answers:

1. b
2. c
3. e
4. a
5. d

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What are celestial bodies?
Answer:
All the objects that we can see in the sky are called celestial bodies.

Question 2.
What is solar system?
Answer:
The family of the sun is known as the solar system.

Question 3.
How are planets different from stars?
Answer:
A planet is a celestial body, moving in an elliptical orbit, around a paticular star.

Question 4.
Why is the Earth known as unique planet?
Answer:
The Earth is the only planet of our solar system, on which there is life.

Question 5.
What is meant by the phases of the moon?
Answer:
The moon has no light of its own, hence it reflects the light from the sun, its position in relation to the sun changes from night tonight. As a result, we have the phase of the moon.

Question 6.
What is lunar month?
Answer:
The period from one new moon to the next new moon is called Lunar month.

Question 7.
What is a planet?
Answer:
A planet is a celestial body, moving in an elliptical orbit, around a particular star.

Question 8.
What is meant by waxing? In the course of the moon’s revolution
Answer:
From the day following the new moon to that of the lull moon the lit up portion of the moon gradually increases. This change is known as waxing.

Question 9.
What is the axis?
Answer:
The imaginary line that passes through the center of the earth, from the north pole to the south pole, is the axis.

Question 10.
What is lunar eclipse?
Answer:
When the moon is partly or fully covered by the shadow of the Earth. This is known as lunar eclipse.

Question 11.
What are the two types of eclipses?
Answer:

1. Lunar eclipse
2. Solar eclipse

Question 12.
What is new moon?
Answer:
When the moon is completely dark we call it new moon.

Question 13.
What is full moon?
Answer:
When we see moon’s bright side totally, we call it hill moon.

Question 14.
What are called maria?
Answer:
The moon’s surface consists of plains mountains and craters. The plain areas are called maria.

Question 15.
What is moonlight?
Answer:
At night the moon reflects the light received from the sun. This is known as moonlight.

Question 16.
Who is the first person to calculate the size of the Earth?
Answer:
Eratosthenes, a Greek astronomer was the first person to calculate the size of the Earth.

Question 17.
What is geoid?
Answer:
Earth was slightly flattened at the poles and bulging at the equator. Such a shape is called ‘geoid’.

Question 18.
Why is milky way?
Answer:
Our solar system is a part of a galaxy known as them milky way.

Question 19.
Why does the sun look bigger than other bigger stars?
Answer:
The sun is closer to the Earth than any other bigger stars.

Question 20.
What is meant by the inclination of the EarthAxis?
Answer:
While the Earth is revolving around the sun along its elliptical orbit, its axis is inclined, at an angle of 66 1/2 with the plane of the orbit and plane of the orbit 23 1/2 with the line perpendicular to the plane of the orbit. This is known as the inclination of the Earth’s axis.

Question 21.
Name the planets which do not have satellites?
Answer:
Mercury and Venus have no satellites.

Question 22.
Name the planets of our solar system?
Answer:
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mass, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.

Question 23.
How do lunar and solar eclipses occur?
Answer:
The lunar eclipse occurs at the time of full moon, but not every time. The solar eclipse occurs at the time of new moon, but not every time.

Question 24.
What are Asteroids?
Answer:
Between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter, numerous small bodies also revolve around the sun. There are called asteroids.

Question 25.
What is rotation?
Answer:
The Earth spins continuously on its axis from west to east is called revolution.

Question 26.
What is revolution?
Answer:
The earth also revolves around the sun along its orbit. This is called a revolution.

Question 27.
What is the Earth’s axis?
Answer:
The earth rotates on its axis, it spins itself is called the Earths axis.

Question 28.
What is meant by equator?
Answer:
An imaginary line is drawn around the Earth is called the equator.

Question 29.
Name the 4 seasons?
Answer:

1. Spring Equinox
2. Summer solstice
3. Autumnal Equinox and
4. Winter solstice

Question 30.
What are lines of latitude?
Answer:
Latitudes are a set of imaginary lines drawn on the globe from West to East.

Question 31.
Name the important lines of latitude?
Answer:

1. Equator
2. Parallels of latitudes

Question 32.
What is local time?
Answer:
When the sun is overhead at any meridian.lt is noon at al the places over throughout meridian. It is known as local time.

Question 33.
What is meant by the Earth’s orbit?
Answer:
The earth has its own path of movement known as the orbit.

Question 34.
Mention two effects of rotation?
Answer:
The rotation of earth causes day and night.

Question 35.
Why is the international Dateline adopted?
Answer:
In order to solve the problem of time, which travels around the world, 180 meridians is taken as the International Dateline.

Question 36.
What is northern and southern hemisphere?
Answer:
The northern half of the earth is called the northern hemisphere.
The Southern half of the earth is called the southern hemisphere.

Question 37.
What is geographic coordinates?
Answer:
The latitude and the longitudes intersect each other right angles and provide coordinate points. They form a grid. Such a grid is known as geographic coordinates.

Students can Download EVS Chapter 9 Food Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, KSEEB Solutions for Class 5 EVS helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Board Class 5 EVS Chapter 9 Food

Class 5 EVS Food Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by food?
Answer:
Substances from which an organism derives nutrients and energy for its growth and development is known as food.

Question 2.
Why do we need food?
Answer:
Food gives us energy to work. We need energy to move, walk, talk, run, sleep, write, etc..

Question 3.
Classify the food materials:
Answer:

Food materials from a plant source	Food materials form animal source
Rice, mango, cauliflower, fenugreek – seeds, carrot, radish.	Vliet, ghee, egg, milk, buttermilk.

Question 4.
Mention the two types of nutrients
Answer:
There are two types of nutrients namely macronutrients and micronutrients.

Question 5.
Name the components of food
Answer:
The components of food are carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, vitamins and minerals, roughage and water.

Question 6.
What is balanced diet?
Answer:
Food which contains all the nutrients in a required quantity is died balanced diet.

Question 7.
Name any two food items rich in proteins
Answer:
Milk, eggs, fish, meat, pulses like green gram,, cowpeas, urad, soybean, etc.,

Question 8.
Name any six food items that we get from plants.
Answer:
Potato, sweet potato, bread, honey, rice, wheat, maize, fruits, etc.,

Question 9.
Name the cereals.
Answer:
The grains like wheat, rice, jower.

Question 10.
Name some pulses?
Answer:
Dal variety like moong dal, urd dal, toor dal.

Question 11.
Name some oilseeds.
Answer:
Seeds like sesame groundnut, castor sunflower.

Question 12.
Name some Junk foods.
Answer:
Panipuri, chips, gobi manchuri etc.,

Question 13.
Distinguish between macronutrients and micronutrients.
Answer:

1. Macronutrients are required in large quantities. They include Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen, etc.
2. Micronutrients are required in minute quantities. They include Phosphorus, Sodium, Calcium, Iron, etc.

Question 14.
Name the group of nutrients.
Answer:

1. Carbohydrates
2. Proteins
3. Lipids
4. Vitamins
5. Minerals.

Question 15.
Name the types of food substances based on their function.
Answer:

1. Energy giving foods.
2. Bodybuilding foods.
3. Protective nutrients.

Question 16.
Explain the features of a good house?
Answer:

1. The hall and all the rooms should have ventilation.
2. Should have thick walls for safety and high roof to keep interior cool.
3. The Sanitary system in the house should be good.
4. Should have a proper home drainage system for regular disposal of domestic waste into the main drainage system
5. There should be proper water supply and storage system for the continuous availability of good water.

Question 17.
How to keep our house clean and hygienic?
Answer:

1. Clean every portion of your house regularly.
2. The kitchens, bathrooms, toilets and washbasins are to be cleaned regularly using cleaning agents or phenol.
3. Environment-friendly insecticides and pesticides can be used to destroy disease-causing insects or germs.
4. Curtains for safety and beauty should cover the doors and windows. They must be washed regularly.
5. Better to use diffluent portions or rooms for specific purposes.

Question 18.
Carbohydrates are called energy producers.
Answer:
They act like fuel the body to provide eneigy for different activities.

Question 19.
Proteins are called bodybuilders.
Answer:
Proteins are responsible for the formation and development of tissues like Skin, blood, muscles, and bones.

Question 20.
Vitamins and minerals are called body regulators.
Answer:
Vitamins and Minerals are the nutrients required for protecting the body against infection and diseases, for good eyesight, good digestion, healthy teeth, strong bones, growth of the body and functioning of muscles and nerves.

Question 21.
Water is generally included as food.
Answer:
Water helps our body so absorb nutrients from food. It also helps in the discharge of waste products such as urine and sweat from the body.

Class 5 EVS Food Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
Food item that provides energy is
a. Bread
b. Spinach
c. Tomato
d. Egg
Answer:
d. Egg

Question 2.
The food item that has carbohydrate is
a. Ghee
b. Pulses
c. Rice
d. Salt.
Answer:
c. Rice

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Carbohydrates give us instant energy
2. Lipids are made up of Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen in the ratio 4.5:9:1
3. The component of food which helps in healing of wound is proteins
4. The food which includes nutrients is called nutritious food
5. Fibers found in vegetables and fruits are called Roughage.
6. Carbohydrates are made up of Carbon Hydrogen and Oxygen
7. The common carbohydrates in our food are starch and sugars
8. The elements present in the lipids are Carbon, Hydrogen, and oxygen.
9. Carbohydrates are called energy producers.
10. Proteins are called bodybuilders.
11. Vitamins and minerals are called body regulates.
12. Milk is complete food
13. Students of primary school drink about 3 – 4 liters of water every day.

III. Match the nutrients given in column ‘A’with the examples given in column ‘B’:

A	B
1. Carbohydrate 2. Lipid 3. Protein 4. Vitamins 5. Roughage	a. Orange b. Soybean c. Water d. Radish e. Rice

Answer:

1. e
2. f
3. b
4. a
5. d